Questions ( W )

( skin )
1_ Enumerate functions of the skin ?
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2_ Explain Functions of the Sebaceous gland ?
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3_ Define fascia ?
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4_ mention role of melanin pigment in the skin ?
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5_ discuss function of superficial fascia ?
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 MCQ
1- Which layer of the skin is avascular?
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
e) Fascia

2- Which of the following is not a function of the skin?

a) Protection against microorganisms
b) Control of body temperature
c) Activation of vitamin C
d) Sensory perception
e) Absorption of substances

3- What pigment is responsible for skin color?

a) Hemoglobin
b) Melanin
c) Carotene
d) Bilirubin
e) Collagen

4 - Which skin appendage is involved in thermoregulation?

a) Nails
b) Hairs
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Sweat glands
e) Fascia
5- Where is hair absent on the human body?
a) Scalp b) Palms of hands
c) Arms d) Face
e) Legs

6- Which structure is responsible for nail growth?

a) Nail bed b) Nail root
c) Nail fold d) Nail body
e) Free edge

7- Sebaceous glands are absent in which area of the body?

a) Scalp b) Palms of hands
c) Face d) Ears
e) Nose

8 - What is the main function of sebum?

a) Thermoregulation
b) Lubrication of hair and skin
c) Protection against UV rays
d) Facilitation of sensory perception
e) Activation of vitamin D

9 - Which of the following is not a special modification of deep fascia?

a) Investing fascia
b) Inter-muscular septa
c) Retinacula
d) Aponeurosis
e) Superficial fascia
10 - The hypodermis is composed mainly of:
a) Epithelial tissue b) Muscle tissue
c) Fat and connective tissue d) Nervous tissue
e) Cartilage

11 - Which structure of hair is embedded in the skin?

a) Shaft b) Root
c) Follicle d) Bulb
e) Cuticle

12 - Which type of fascia covers and surrounds the surface of muscles?

a) Superficial fascia b) Deep fascia
c) Inter-muscular septa d) Retinacula
e) Aponeurosis

13 - Which gland is abundant in the scalp and face?

a) Sweat gland
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Ceruminous gland
d) Mammary gland
e) Endocrine gland

14 - Which of the following does not belong to the skin appendages?

a) Hair
b) Nails
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Sweat glands
e) Fascia
15 - What type of fascia lies between the skin and underlying muscles?
a) Superficial fascia
b) Deep fascia
c) Subcutaneous fascia
d) Dermal fascia
e) Epidermal fascia

16 - Which gland in the skin is responsible for the secretion of an oily, waxy
substance?
a) Sweat gland
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Ceruminous gland
d) Mammary gland
e) Endocrine gland
 Questions
LOCOMOTOR SYSTEM
1_Enumerate Functions of bones ?
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2_ mention 4 types of bone According to the shape ?
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3_The vertebral column is formed of 33 vertebrae separated by fibro
cartilagenous discs called…………. ………………………….

4_ Explain consists of Axial skeleton ?

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5_ compere between bones form hand and foot ?
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 MCQ
1-What is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system?
a) Digestion
b) Circulation
c) Locomotion
d) Respiration
e) Sensation

2-What type of tissue is bone classified as?

a) Nervous tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Muscle tissue
e) Adipose tissue

3- Which of the following is not a function of bones?

a) Storage of calcium and phosphorus
b) Protection of underlying structures
c) Formation of blood cells
d) Secretion of hormones
e) Support and attachment for muscles

4- Which classification of bone is characterized by a solid mass?

a) Compact bone
b) Cancellous bone
c) Long bone
d) Flat bone
e) Pneumatic bone
5- Which bone type is the femur classified as?
a) Short bone b) Long bone
c) Flat bone d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

6- What is the primary structural characteristic of cancellous bone?

a) Solid mass b) Branching network of trabeculae
c) Air cavities d) Long shaft
e) Flat surface

7-Which bones are classified as pneumatic bones?

a) Humerus
b) Maxilla
c) Scapula
d) Femur
e) Patella

8-Which region of the skeleton includes the skull and vertebral column?
a) Appendicular skeleton
b) Axial skeleton
c) Pelvic skeleton
d) Thoracic skeleton
e) Shoulder girdle

9-How many cervical vertebrae are present in the vertebral column?

a) 5
b) 7
c) 9
d)12
e) 4
10-What is the main function of the vertebral column?
a) Protect the heart
b) Support body weight
c) Facilitate breathing
d) Articulate with ribs
e) Protect the spinal cord

11-Which bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra (Atlas)?

a) Femur b) Skull
c) Sternum d) Scapula
e) Sacrum

12-Which bone forms the anterior part of the thoracic cage?

a) Rib b) Vertebra
c) Clavicle d) Sternum
e) Scapula

13-Which ribs are classified as floating ribs?

a) 1st and 2nd
b) 3rd and 4th
c) 8th and 9th
d) 11th and 12th
e) 5th and 6th

14-Which bones form the pelvic girdle?

a) Scapula and clavicle
b) Hip bones and sacrum
c) Femur and tibia
d) Radius and ulna
e) Sternum and ribs
15-What type of bone is the patella?
a) Long bone b) Short bone
c) Flat bone d) Sesamoid bone
e) Irregular bone

16-Which bone forms the lower jaw?

a) Maxilla b) Mandible
c) Zygomatic bone d) Nasal bone
e) Temporal bone

17-What structure separates the vertebrae in the vertebral column?

a) Ligaments
b) Tendons
c) Cartilage
d) Intervertebral discs
e) Synovial fluid

18-Which bone articulates with the humerus at the shoulder joint?

a) Clavicle
b) Scapula
c) Sternum
d) Radius
e) Ulna

19-The spinal cord runs through which part of the vertebra?

a) Vertebral body
b) Vertebral arch
c) Vertebral canal
d) Transverse process
e) Spinous process
 Questions
Muscular system&Joints
1-Compere between types of muscle?
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2_Explain types of joint ?
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3_Discuss Characters of the synovial joints ?
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4_ Mention Types of synovial joints ?
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5_List types of Biaxial joints ?
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6_ mention Parts of skeletal muscles ?
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MCQ
1-What is the movement called when a limb is moved away from the
midline of the body in
the coronal plane?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Abduction
D) Adduction
E) Rotation

2-Which type of joint allows movement around one axis only?

A) Ball and socket joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Saddle joint
D) Ellipsoid joint
E) Plane joint
3-Which of the following is NOT a type of fibrous joint?
A) Sutural joint B) Syndesmosis
C) Gomphosis D) Synovial joint
E) None of the above

4-What kind of movement does a ball-and-socket joint allow?

A) Flexion and extension only B) Abduction and adduction only
C) Rotation only D) Movement in many planes
E) Gliding only

5-What type of muscle is found in the walls of viscera?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle D) Striated muscle
E) Multinucleated muscle

6-Which type of synovial joint is characterized by flat articular surfaces

allowing gliding
movements?
A) Hinge joint B) Pivot joint
C) Ellipsoid joint D) Plane joint
E) Saddle joint

7-Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint?

A) Shoulder joint B) Elbow joint
C) Hip joint D) Wrist joint
E) Thumb joint

8-Which muscle attachment is more fixed and moves the least?

A) Insertion B) Origin
C) Belly D) Tendon
E) Aponeurosis
9-Which of the following joints is classified as a biaxial joint?
A) Elbow joint B) Hip joint
C) Wrist joint D) Shoulder joint
E) Ankle joint

10-What is the term for moving a body part around its longitudinal axis?
A) Flexion B) Extension
C) Abduction D) Adduction
E) Rotation

11-Which of the following is a characteristic of synovial joints?

A) Bones connected by fibrous tissue
B) No joint cavity
C) Joint cavity filled with synovial fluid
D) Bones connected by cartilage
E) Bones directly joined together

12-Which type of muscle is voluntary and striated?

A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Visceral muscle
E) Involuntary muscle

13-What type of joint is the knee joint?

A) Hinge joint
B) Condyloid joint
C) Ball and socket joint
D) Saddle joint
E) Pivot joint
14-Which movement is described as moving a limb toward the midline of
the body in the coronal plane?
A) Flexion B) Extension
C) Abduction D) Adduction
E) Circumduction

15-Which joint allows flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and a

small amount of rotation?
A) Pivot joint B) Condyloid joint
C) Plane joint D) Hinge joint
E) Synovial joint

16-What type of muscle fibers are multinucleated?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle D) Visceral muscle
E) Involuntary muscle

17-Which of the following is NOT a classification of synovial joints based

on the shape of articular surfaces?
A) Hinge joint B) Ball and socket joint
C) Saddle joint D) Fibrous joint
E) Ellipsoid joint

18-Which term describes the up and down movement of a body part?

A) Flexion
B) Rotation
C) Elevation and depression
D) Abduction and adduction
E) Circumduction
19-Which type of joint allows rotation as the only movement?
A) Ellipsoid joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Ball and socket joint
E) Plane joint

20-The muscle that acts by the will of man and produces movement of the
skeleton is called:
A) Smooth muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C)Skeletal muscle
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
 Questions
Cardiovascular System
1_Enumerate Chambers of the heart ?
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2_ List 4 valves of the heart ?
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3_””Explain difference between artery & vein ?
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4_Mention types of circulations ?
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5_Valves are absent in the following veins ……….(3point )
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6_mention three main types of wavy arteries ?
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1- What is the correct order of blood flow through the chambers of the
heart starting from the right atrium?
A) Right atrium → Right ventricle → Left atrium → Left ventricle
B) Left atrium → Left ventricle → Right atrium → Right ventricle
C) Right ventricle → Right atrium → Left ventricle → Left atrium
D) Left ventricle → Left atrium → Right ventricle → Right atrium
E) Right atrium → Left atrium → Right ventricle → Left ventricle

2- Which valve is found between the right atrium and right ventricle?
A) Mitral valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Pulmonary valve
D) Tricuspid valve
E) Bicuspid valve

3-The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into which vessel?

A) Pulmonary artery
B) Aorta
C) Superior vena cava
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Pulmonary vein

4-Which side of the heart contains deoxygenated blood?

A) Left
B) Right
C) Both sides
D) Neither side
E) Only the atria
5-What type of blood circulation involves the lungs where carbon dioxide
is eliminated and blood is oxygenated?
A) Systemic circulation
B) Portal circulation
C) Pulmonary circulation
D) Coronary circulation
E) Cerebral circulation

6-Which veins carry oxygenated blood back to the heart?

A) Superior vena cava
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Portal veins
D) Pulmonary veins
E) Hepatic veins

7-Which blood vessel type carries blood away from the heart?
A) Veins
B) Arteries
C) Capillaries
D) Venules
E) Lymph vessels

8-Which type of artery supplies movable organs, such as the spleen and
face?
A) End artery
B) Elastic artery
C) Wavy (tortuous) artery
D) Muscular artery
E) Pulmonary artery
9-What is the function of the valves in veins, especially in the lower limbs?
A) Prevent backflow of blood
B) Maintain blood pressure
C) Regulate blood flow speed
D) Filter blood
E) Direct blood flow into the lymphatic system

10-Which type of circulation is unique for passing blood between two sets
of capillaries, such as in the liver?
A) Pulmonary circulation
B) Systemic circulation
C) Portal circulation
D) Cerebral circulation
E) Coronary circulation

11-Which artery does not anastomose with adjacent arteries and may lead
to tissue ischemia if obstructed?
A) Coronary artery
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Splenic artery
D) End artery
E) Renal artery

12- Which type of blood vessel has the highest blood pressure?
A) Veins
B) Arteries
C) Capillaries
D) Venules
E) Lymphatic vessels
13-What is the primary difference between veins and arteries?
A) Arteries have valves, veins do not
B) Veins carry blood away from the heart, arteries carry it toward the heart
C) Veins have thick walls, arteries have thin walls
D) Arteries carry oxygenated blood, veins carry deoxygenated blood (except pulmonary
vessels)
E) Veins pulsate, arteries do not

14-Which part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
A) Left atrium
B) Left ventricle
C) Right atrium
D) Right ventricle
E) Aorta

15-Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?

A) Left atrium
B) Left ventricle
C) Right atrium
D) Right ventricle
E) Pulmonary artery

16-What is the main function of the systemic circulation?

A) Transport oxygenated blood to the lungs
B) Remove carbon dioxide from the blood
C) Transport oxygenated blood to the body tissues
D) Exchange gases in the alveoli
E) Transport deoxygenated blood to the heart
17-hich vessels carry deoxygenated blood from the digestive organs to the
liver?
A) Hepatic veins
B) Portal veins
C) Pulmonary veins
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Superior vena cava

18-Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of veins?

A) Thin wall and wide lumen
B) High blood pressure
C) Presence of valves in many veins
D) Larger than the corresponding artery
E) Returns blood to the heart

19-Which blood vessels have walls thin enough to allow exchange of

materials with the surrounding tissues?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Arterioles
E) Lymphatic vessels

20-The superior and inferior vena cava lack which of the following?
A) Blood flow to the heart
B) Presence of valves
C) Carrying deoxygenated blood
D) Connection to capillaries
E) Ability to dilate
20-Which vessel type is primarily involved in creating the pulse felt at
various points in the body?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Venules
E) Lymphatic vessels

21-Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?
A) Tricuspid valve
B) Pulmonary valve
C) Mitral valve
D) Aortic valve
E) Bicuspid valve

22-Which type of circulation is responsible for carrying blood between the

heart and the lungs?
A) Systemic circulation
B) Pulmonary circulation
C) Portal circulation
D) Coronary circulation
E) Renal circulation

23-Which vessels are primarily responsible for returning blood from the
capillaries to the heart?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Arterioles
D) Capillaries
E) Lymphatic vessels
 Questions
Lymphatic vessels
1_ Explain 2 types of tonsils ?
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2_ Discuss Characteristics of lymphatic vessels ?

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3_Enumarate Functions of lymphatic system?

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4_The lymphatic system is composed of …….(4point )

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5_ @mention Functions of the spleen ?

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6_List 3 Lymphatic tissues ?

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 MCQ
1- What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
a) Oxygen transport b) Fluid balance and immune defense
c) Nutrient absorption d) Hormone regulation
e) Blood clotting

2-What type of fluid is lymph?

a) Blood plasma
b) Intracellular fluid
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Exudate of blood plasma
e) Synovial fluid

3-Which of the following is not a component of the lymphatic system?

a) Lymph nodes b) Spleen
c) Thymus gland d) liver
e) Lymphatic vessels

4-Which lymphatic organ is the largest in the body?

a) Thymus gland b) Lymph node
c) Spleen d) Tonsils
e) Appendix

5-What is the primary role of the thymus gland?

a) Destruction of old red blood cells
b) Storage of blood
c) Formation of T lymphocytes
d) Filtration of lymph
e) Absorption of fat
6-Which vessels collect lymph from the body and return it to the
bloodstream?
a) Arteries
b) Veins
c) Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
d) Capillaries
e) Afferent lymphatics

7-Lymph from the small intestine is typically what color?

a) Red b) Yellow
c) White d) Blue
e) Green

8-What is the primary function of lymph nodes?

a) Absorption of nutrients
b) Filtration of lymph
c) Oxygen exchange
d) Regulation of blood pressure
e) Production of hormones
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9-Which of the following is not a characteristic of lymphatic vessels?

a) Larger than blood capillaries
b) Contains valves
c) Fine walls
d) Lacks a beaded appearance
e) Carries lymph in one direction
10-Which tissues do not contain lymph vessels or lymph?
a) Skin and muscle
b) Central nervous system, cartilage, and eye
c) Heart and lungs
d) Liver and spleen
e) Kidneys and pancreas

11-What is the primary function of the spleen?

a) Absorption of nutrients
b) Filtration of blood and immune function
c) Oxygen exchange
d) Hormone production
e) Temperature regulation

12-Which lymphatic organ undergoes involution after puberty?

a) Spleen
b) Thymus gland
c) Lymph nodes
d) Tonsils
e) Appendix
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13-What is the function of tonsils?

a) Filtration of lymph
b) Absorption of fat
c) Protection against pathogens entering through the nose and mouth
d) Regulation of blood pressure
e) Hormone production
14-Where is the spleen located in the body?
a) Behind the sternum
b) In the thoracic cavity
c) Behind the stomach in the abdomen
d) In the pelvic cavity
e) Near the kidneys

15-What structure is responsible for carrying lymph away from a lymph

node?
a) Afferent lymphatics
b) Efferent lymphatics
c) Thoracic duct
d) Right lymphatic duct
e) Capillaries

16-Which organ stores blood and can release it when needed?

a) Heart
b) Lungs
c) Spleen
d) Liver
e) Kidneys

17-Which type of tissue is lymphoid tissue classified as?

a) Epithelial tissue
b) Muscle tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Nervous tissue
e) Adipose tissue
18-Which structure lies in the upper part of the chest behind the sternum?
a) Spleen
b) Heart
c) Thymus gland
d) Lungs
e) Thyroid gland

19-The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from which part of the body?
a) The entire body
b) Left side of the body
c) Right arm and right side of the head and thorax
d) Lower limbs
e) Abdomen

20-Which type of tonsil is located in the oropharynx?

a) Palatine tonsil
b) Pharyngeal tonsil
c) Lingual tonsil
d) Tubal tonsil
e) Adenoid tonsil
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21-What are the lymphatic capillaries responsible for?

a) Oxygen exchange
b) Initial collection of lymph
c) Nutrient absorption
d) Hormone secretion
e) Blood circulation
 Anatomy
respiratory system
Written questions

1-list the regions of the nasal cavities.

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2- compare between upper and lower respiratory tract.
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3-what are the functions of larynx?
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4-compare between right and left bronchus.
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5-mention the layers of the pleura.
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 MCQ
1- Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the
respiratory system?
a) Nose
b) Pharynx
c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) Trachea

2. The respiratory system primarily provides oxygen to the blood

and removes which gas?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon Dioxide e) Methane

3. The respiratory division consists of which of the following?

a) Nose and pharynx
b) Alveoli and distal gas-exchange regions
c) Trachea and bronchi
d) Bronchioles and trachea e) Larynx and bronchi

4. The upper respiratory tract includes which of the following?

a) Lungs and trachea b) Pharynx and larynx
c) Bronchi and alveoli d) Trachea and bronchi
e) Lungs and bronchioles
5. The nasal cavities are separated from the oral cavity by the:
a) Nasal septum b) Hard palate
c) Soft palate d) Larynx
e) Esophagus

6. The primary function of the larynx is:

a) Gas exchange
b) Producing sound
c) Warming inhaled air
d) Keeping food and drink out of the airway
e) Detecting odors

7. The trachea terminates by dividing into:

a) Two bronchi
b) Two alveoli
c) Two tracheoles
d) Two laryngeal ducts
e) Two respiratory bronchioles

8. The right lung has how many lobes?

a) One b) Two
c) Three
d) Four e) Five

9. Which fissure is present only in the right lung?

a) Oblique fissure
b) Transverse fissure
c) Horizontal fissure
d) Medial fissure
e) Lateral fissure
10. The pleura is a:
a) Bone structure
b) Muscular layer
c) Closed serous sac
d) Cartilaginous ring
e) Nerve sheath

11. The anterior apertures of the nasal cavities are known as:
a) Choanae b) Nares
c) Vestibules d) Sinuses
e) Orifices

12. Which lung is larger and shorter?

a) Right lung
b) Left lung
c) Both lungs are equal in size
d) Depends on the individual e) None of the above

13. The left lung has how many lobes?

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
e) Five

14. The visceral layer of the pleura covers:

a) The diaphragm
b) The thoracic wall
c) The lung
d) The heart
e) The trachea
15. The cavity between the parietal and visceral layers of the pleura is
called:
a) Pleural cavity b) Thoracic cavity
c) Pericardial cavity d) Alveolar space
e) Bronchial cavity

16. Which structure is found in the larynx?

a) Alveoli
b) Vocal cords c) Bronchi
d) Diaphragm e) Trachea

17. The bronchioles lead directly to:

a) Trachea b) Larynx
c) Alveoli d) Bronchi
e) Nasal cavity

18. The primary function of the respiratory system is to:

a) Remove toxins from the blood
b) Provide oxygen to the blood
c) Regulate body temperature
d) Digest food
e) Protect against infections

19. The nasal vestibule is lined with:

a) Olfactory epithelium
b) Respiratory epithelium
c) Skin and hair follicles
d) Ciliated columnar epithelium
e) Squamous epithelium
 Anatomy
Gastro intestinal system
Written questions
1-mention parts of the pharynx.
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2- list 3 of the primary GIT organs.
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3-compare between jejunum and ileum.
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………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
4-Enumerate the salivary gland.
………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………….
5-Compare between small & large intestine.

………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
MCQ
1-Which of the following is a primary GIT organ?
a) Pancreas b) Liver
c) Pharynx d) Gall bladder
e) Spleen

2-Which part of the mouth cavity lies between the cheeks and teeth?
a) Oral cavity proper
b) Vestibule of the mouth
c) Hard palate
d) Tongue
e) Soft palate

3-What gland opens at the vestibule of the mouth?

a) Submandibular
b) Parotid
c) Sublingual
d) Pancreatic
e) thyroid
4-The pharynx is divided into how many parts?
a) 2
b) 3 c) 4
d) 5 e) 6

5-Which of the following is NOT a part of the pharynx?

a) Nasopharynx
b) Oropharynx
c) Laryngopharynx
d) Esophagopharynx
e) None of the above

6-What forms the food passage between the pharynx and stomach?
a) Trachea
b) Esophagus
c) Duodenum
d) Ileum
e) Colon

7-What is the approximate length of the esophagus?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm d) 25 cm
e) 30 cm

8-Which of the following is a part of the stomach?

a) Cecum
b) Fundus
c) Ascending colon
d) Ileum e) Gallbladder
9-The C-shaped part of the small intestine is known as the:
a) Jejunum b) Ileum
c) Duodenum d) Cecum
e) Rectum

10-Which part of the small intestine is located around the head of

the pancreas?
a) Jejunum b) Ileum
c) Duodenum d) Cecum
e) Sigmoid colon

11-Which part of the small intestine receives the opening of the

common bile duct (CBD)?
a) 1st part of the duodenum
b) 2nd part of the duodenum
c) Jejunum
d) Ileum e) Cecum

12-What percentage of the small intestine's length does the jejunum

account for?
a) 20% b) 40% c) 60%
d) 80% e) 100%

13-Where does the ileum open into the large intestine?

a) At the pyloric sphincter
b) At the ileocecal junction
c) At the sigmoid colon
d) At the rectum
e) At the appendix
14-Which of the following is NOT a part of the large intestine?
a) Cecum
b) Appendix
c) Duodenum
d) Sigmoid colon
e) Rectum

15-What is the length of the large intestine?

a) 1 meter b) 1.5 meters
c) 2 meters d) 3 meters
e) 4 meters

16-Which structure is absent in the small intestine but present in the

large intestine?
a) Villi
b) Taenia coli
c) Haustrations d) Peyer's patches e) Both b and c

17-The largest gland in the body is the:

a) Parotid gland b) Submandibular gland
c) Liver d) Pancreas
e) Thyroid

18-Which of the following is NOT a salivary gland?

a) Parotid
b) Submandibular
c) Sublingual
d) Lacrimal
e) All of the above
19-Which of the following glands is a mixed gland (both exocrine
and endocrine)?
a) Parotid
b) Submandibular
c) Pancreas
d) Thyroid
e) Adrenal

20-Which of the following secretes bile?

a) Pancreas
b) Gall bladder
c) Liver d) Stomach e) Small intestine
 The Nervous System
enumerate divisions of the nervous system?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

mention components of CNS ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

How are brain and spinal cord are protected?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

mention layers of the meninges ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

mention functions of cerebro spinal fluid?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

mention the distribution of the spinal nerves ? -

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

compare between anterior and posterior primary ramus ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
compare between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

. MCQ
Which of the following is NOT a division of the nervous system?
A) Central Nervous System
B) Peripheral Nervous System
C) Sympathetic Nervous System
D) Autonomic Nervous System

What part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordination and

balance?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla Oblongata
D) Thalamus

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for facial expression?

A) Trigeminal Nerve (V)
B) Abducent Nerve (VI)
C) Facial Nerve (VII)
D) Glossopharyngeal Nerve (IX)
The spinal cord in adults typically ends at the level of which vertebra?
A) L1
B) L3
C) L5
D) S1

Which layer of the meninges is the innermost layer?

A) Dura Mater
B) Arachnoid Mater
C) Pia Mater
D) Subdural Space

What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) Increases brain weight
B) Absorbs nutrients
C) Drains waste products
D) Inhibits spinal cord function

Which part of the brainstem is located between the midbrain and medulla
oblongata?
A) Thalamus
B) Pons
C) Spinal Cord
D) Cerebellum

Which cranial nerve arises from the nose?

A) Optic Nerve (II)
B) Olfactory Nerve (I)
C) Trigeminal Nerve (V)
D) Vagus Nerve (X)
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there in the human body?
A) 30 B) 31
C) 32 D) 33

Which autonomic nervous system is responsible for "rest and digest"

functions?
A) Sympathetic
B) Parasympathetic
C) Central
D) Peripheral

Which part of the central nervous system contains the thalamus and
hypothalamus?
A) Cerebrum
B) Diencephalon
C) Brainstem
D) Cerebellum

Which cranial nerve is involved in the movement of the tongue?

A) Facial Nerve (VII)
B) Hypoglossal Nerve (XII)
C) Glossopharyngeal Nerve (IX)
D) Trigeminal Nerve (V)

Which structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

A) Medulla Oblongata
B) Corpus Callosum
C) Pons
D) Thalamus
The spinal nerves are divided into which two primary rami?
A) Ventral and Dorsal
B) Anterior and Posterior
C) Superior and Inferior
D) Lateral and Medial

What is the sensory relay station in the brain?

A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Medulla Oblongata
D) Cerebellum

Which cranial nerve controls the thoracic and abdominal viscera?

A) Vagus Nerve (X)
B) Accessory Nerve (XI)
C) Facial Nerve (VII)
D) Hypoglossal Nerve (XII)

Where does the spinal cord begin?

A) At the base of the skull
B) At the lumbar vertebrae
C) In the medulla oblongata
D) In the cerebellum

Which spinal nerve root is responsible for motor (efferent) functions?

A) Ventral Root
B) Dorsal Root
C) Lateral Root
D) Posterior Root
 Questions
urinary system
- mention components of the urinary system?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

- compare between the relations of the right and left kidney ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

- mention sites of of normal constriction of the ureter

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
- enumerate parts of male urethra ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
- describe arrangement of organs in the female pelvis ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

.
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the urinary system?
A) Kidneys
B) Ureters
C) Liver
D) Urethra

Which kidney is located slightly higher than the other?

A) Right
B) Left
C) Both are at the same level
D) None of the above

The renal cortex is characterized by which of the following?

A) Reddish-brown color
B) Pale conical masses
C) Funnel-shaped structure
D) Muscular tubes

Which part of the kidney collects urine before it is passed to the ureter?
A) Renal Pelvis
B) Renal Cortex
C) Renal Medulla
D) Calyces

What is the normal length of the ureter?

A) 15 cm
B) 25 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 35 cm
Which of the following is NOT a normal site of ureter constriction?
A) At its junction with the renal pelvis
B) At the brim of the true pelvis
C) As it passes through the wall of the urinary bladder
D) At the junction with the urethra

What shape does an empty urinary bladder have?

A) Pyramidal
B) Ovoid
C) Round
D) Cylindrical

Where does the female urethra open?

A) Behind the syphilis pubis
B) At the neck of the bladder
C) Anterior to the vagina
D) At the tip of the penis

What is the diameter of the female urethra?

A) 2 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 7 mm
D) 10 mm

Which of the following is NOT a part of the male urethra?

A) Prostatic Urethra
B) Membranous Urethra
C) Penile Urethra
D) Cervical Urethra
The prostatic urethra passes through which structure?
A) Bladder
B) Prostate
C) Kidney
D) Liver

Which structure is NOT located in the female pelvic cavity?

A) Uterus
B) Seminal Vesicles
C) Vagina
D) Urethra

Which organ is located anteriorly in both male and female pelvis?

A) Rectum
B) Urethra
C) Uterus
D) Pelvic colon

Which organ is found posteriorly in the male pelvis?

A) Prostate
B) Urinary Bladder
C) Seminal Vesicles
D) Rectum

What is the length of the male urethra?

A) 10 cm
B) 15 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 25 cm
The left kidney reaches up to which rib level?
A) 10th rib
B) 11th rib
C) 12th rib
D) 13th rib

The apex of the renal pyramids directs towards which part of the kidney?
A) Renal Cortex
B) Renal Pelvis
C) Renal Capsule
D) Renal Calyx

The trigone area is found in which organ?

A) Kidney
B) Ureter
C) Urinary Bladder
D) Urethra

Which of the following statements is true about the female urethra?

A) It is longer than the male urethra
B) It opens behind the pubis
C) It passes anterior to the vagina
D) It has a diameter of 10 mm

Which of the following describes the function of the renal cortex?

A) Secretes urine
B) Stores urine
C) Filters blood
D) Transports urine to the ureter
 Questions
Seminar histology introduction
1_ Explain Advantages of paraffin sections: ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2_steps by which we prepare a stained sample for examination?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3_ mention Advantages of Freezing Technique: ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4-@compere between Hematoxylin & Eosin ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

MCQ
What is histology primarily concerned with?
a) Study of cells
b) Study of tissues and organs at a microscopic level
c) Study of organ systems
d) Study of disease processes
e) Study of genetic material
Which method is used to make tissue samples hard enough for
sectioning?
a) Chemical staining
b) Paraffin technique
c) Hematoxylin staining
d) DNA extraction
e) Fixation with formalin

What is the main disadvantage of the paraffin technique?

a) Not suitable for histochemical studies
b) Takes too long to process
c) Cannot be used for serial sections
d) Only works with lipid-rich tissues
e) Requires expensive equipment

Which staining method identifies carbohydrates?

a) Sudan III
b) Hematoxylin and Eosin
c) PAS reaction
d) Silver stain

What is the advantage of the freezing technique in histology?

a) Allows for thin sectioning
b) Preserves lipids and enzymes
c) Produces serial sections
d) Requires no special equipment
e) Provides detailed staining
Which staining method identifies carbohydrates?
a) Sudan III b) Hematoxylin and Eosin
c) PAS reaction d) Silver stain
e) Janus green B

What is the advantage of the freezing technique in histology?

a) Allows for thin sectioning
b) Preserves lipids and enzymes
c) Produces serial sections
d) Requires no special equipment
e) Provides detailed staining

Which step is necessary to visualize colorless cells under a microscope?

a) Sectioning b) Embedding
c) Staining d) Freezing
e) Fixation

What is the purpose of a microtome in histology?

a) To stain tissue samples
b) To freeze tissue samples
c) To section tissue samples
d) To fix tissue samples
e) To examine tissue samples

Which method of staining is used for rapid diagnosis?

a) Sudan III
b) Hematoxylin and Eosin
c) Silver stain
d) Freezing technique
e) PAS reaction
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a light microscope?
a) Objective lenses
b) Eye piece lenses
c) Oil-immersion lens
d) Scanning of electron beams
e) Magnification up to 1000x

Which staining method would you use for lipid visualization?

a) Sudan III
b) Hematoxylin and Eosin
c) Silver stain
d) PAS reaction
e) Janus green B

Which type of sectioning technique is most commonly used in routine

histology?
a) Freezing technique
b) Paraffin technique
c) Ultramicrotomy
d) Cryotomy

Which stain is commonly used to identify specific components like lipids

or carbohydrates in cells?
a) Hematoxylin and Eosin
b) PAS reaction
c) Sudan III
d) Silver stain
e) Janus green B
 Questions
CELL MEMBRANE & MEMBRANOUS ORGANELLES
1_ Define CELL MEMBRANE ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2_Explain Functions of cell membrane ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3_ Enumerate importance of the cell coat ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4_List functions of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (rER) ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5_ define Golgi Apparatus and explain 2 type of Lysosomes ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
What is the primary function of the cell membrane?
a) Energy production
b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
d) Separation of the cell from its environment
e) Hormone synthesis
What structure is NOT part of the cell membrane's molecular
arrangement?
a) Phospholipids b) Cholesterol
c) Glycolipids d) Nucleic acids
e) Glycoproteins

Which of the following is not a function of the sodium-potassium pump?

a) Maintaining high Na+ concentration outside the cell
b) Maintaining high K+ concentration inside the cell
c) Expelling macromolecules
d) Keeping the cell membrane polarized
e) Using energy (ATP)

Which organelle is known as the 'powerhouse' of the cell?

a) Lysosome
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Mitochondria
d) Nucleus e) Endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following stains is used to identify mitochondria?

a) Hematoxylin b) Sudan III
c) Janus green B d) Eosin
e) Silver

Which organelle is involved in detoxification processes?

a) Lysosome
b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Peroxisome
d) Golgi apparatus
e) Ribosomes
Where are the secretory proteins modified and packed?
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome
c) Golgi apparatus d) Lysosome
e) Mitochondria

What is a function of lysosomes?

a) DNA replication b) Intracellular digestion
c) Protein synthesis d) Lipid synthesis
e) ATP production

Which staining method is used to identify lysosomal enzymes?

a) Hematoxylin and eosin
b) Sudan III
c) PAS reaction
d) Histochemical staining
e) Silver stain

Which organelle is known for hydrogen peroxide metabolism?

a) Mitochondria b) Lysosome
c) Peroxisome d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) Golgi apparatus

What is NOT a function of the cell coat?

a) Cell recognition
b) Cell adhesion
c) Enzyme production
d) Protection
e) Intercellular communication
Which organelle is involved in lipid synthesis?
a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Lysosome
e) Mitochondria

What is the primary role of the Golgi apparatus?

a) Protein synthesis
b) DNA replication
c) Modifying, packaging, and transporting proteins
d) Lipid synthesis
e) Cell division

Which organelle contains its own DNA?

a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus
e) Lysosome

Which of the following is NOT a function of peroxisomes?

a) Fatty acid metabolism
b) Alcohol detoxification
c) ATP production
d) Bile acid formation
e) Hydrogen peroxide degradation
Which organelle is described as the "suicide bag"?
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosome
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Peroxisome
e) Nucleus

Which of the following is a role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in

muscle
cells?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Ca++ storage
c) Glycogen degradation
d) DNA replication
e) Exocytosis

Which organelle is primarily involved in protein synthesis?

a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) Mitochondria
d) Lysosome
e) Peroxisome
 Questions
Lecture 2(MEMBRANOUS ORGANELLES)

1_ mention Types of ribosomes ?

.…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2_ Explain functions of Microtubules ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3_List Special stains of lipid ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4_Mention types of Endogenous pigments ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5_ Enumerate types of Secondary lysosomes ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
What is the main function of ribosomes in the cell?
a) DNA replication
b) Protein synthesis
c) Lipid storage
d) Energy production
e) Cell division
Which of the following is a characteristic of microtubules?
a) They are composed of actin filaments.
b) They form the core of microvilli.
c) They are involved in mitotic spindle formation.
d) They are responsible for synthesizing proteins.
e) They store lipids in the cytoplasm.

What type of pigment is melanin?

a) Exogenous pigment b) Endogenous pigment
c) Lipochrome pigment d) Hemoglobin derivative
e) Mineral pigment

What is the primary role of the centrioles in the cell?

a) Synthesizing proteins b) Storing carbohydrates
c) Facilitating cell division d) Synthesizing lipids
e) Transporting molecules

Which of the following is NOT a type of intermediate filament?

a) Tonofilaments
b) Desmin filaments
c) Vimentin filaments
d) Tubulin filaments
e) Neurofilaments

Which of the following structures is composed of two subunits?

a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosomes
c) Lysosomes
d) Centrioles
e) Microtubules
What type of filaments interact with myosin for muscle contraction?
a) Microtubules b) Intermediate filaments
d) Tonofilaments c) Actin filaments
e) Glial filaments

Which organelle is primarily involved in cell division?

a) Ribosomes
b) Centrioles
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Lysosomes
e) Mitochondria

What is the main structural component of cilia?

a) Microfilaments b) Intermediate filaments
c) Microtubules d) Actin filaments
e) Ribosomes

Which of the following is NOT a function of cilia?

a) Protein synthesis
b) Moving objects on cell surfaces
d) Found in the trachea
c) Beating rhythmically in one direction
e) Found in the fallopian tubes

What is the structure similar to cilia but longer and involved in movement?
a) Flagella
b) Microvilli
c) Centrioles
d) Ribosomes
e) Actin filaments
Which of the following is an example of exogenous pigments?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Lipofuscin
c) Melanin
d) Dust
e) Bilirubin

Glycogen is stored in the cell as:

a) Lipid droplets
b) Pigment granules
c) Glycogen granules
d) Protein aggregates
e) Microfilaments

Which of the following organelles is not involved in protein synthesis?

a) Ribosomes
b) Rough ER
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Lysosomes
e) Free ribosomes

Which cytoskeletal element is crucial for maintaining the shape of the

cell?
a) Microtubules
b) Intermediate filaments
c) Microfilaments
d) Centrioles
e) Ribosomes
Which of the following filaments is most likely involved in cell division?
a) Vimentin filaments
b) Actin filaments
c) Glial filaments
d) Tonofilaments
e) Neurofilaments

Which type of organelle is described as a non-membranous structure

involved in cell
movement and division?
a) Ribosomes
b) Centrioles
c) Lysosomes
d) Golgi apparatus
e) Mitochondria
 Questions
Lecture 3: NUCLEUS & CELL DIVISION
1-List the four main components of the nucleus ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2- Identify and describe the two types of chromatin found within the
nucleus.?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3-Explain the importance of the S phase in the cell cycle ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4- Compare the processes of mitosis and meiosis in terms of

their stages ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5-Why is the nucleolus important for protein synthesis ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6- Enumerate Functions of Chromatin ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 MCQ
What is the primary function of the nucleus in a cell?
A) Energy production
B) Storage of waste products
C) Directing all metabolic activities
D) Providing structural support
E) Transporting molecules

Which type of cell does not contain a nucleus?

A) Nerve cells
B) RBCs
C) Liver cells
D) Osteoclasts
E) Muscle cells

A bi-nucleated cell contains how many nuclei?

A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) Multiple

Which of the following is NOT a component of the nucleus?

A) Nuclear membrane
B) Chromatin
C) Mitochondria
D) Nucleolus
E) Nuclear sap
Nuclear Membrane
What is the main function of the nuclear membrane?
A) To produce energy
B) To separate the nucleus from the cytoplasm
C) To synthesize proteins
D) To regulate the cell cycle
E) To store genetic information

The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with which

organelle?
A) Golgi apparatus B) Mitochondria
C) Smooth ER D) Rough ER
E) Lysosomes

Which type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?

A) Heterochromatin B) Euchromatin
C) Both D) Neither
E) Peripheral chromatin

What is the primary function of the nucleolus?

A) DNA replication
B) Protein degradation
C) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis
D) Lipid synthesis
E) Cell division

The nucleolus is prominent in which type of cells?

A) Red blood cells B) Neurons
C) Protein-secreting cells D) Fat cells
E) Sperm cells
During which phase does DNA replication occur?
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
D) M phase
C) G2 phase
E) G0 phase

Which phase directly follows G2 in the cell cycle?

A) S phase
B) G1 phase
C) M phase
D) G0 phase
E) Metaphase

What is the total number of chromosomes in daughter cells after mitosis?

A) 23
B) 46
C) 92
D) 69
E) 12

Which of the following occurs during anaphase of mitosis?

A) Chromosomes align at the equator
B) Chromosomes split at the centromere
C) Nuclear envelope reappears
D) Chromosomes become condensed
E) Chromatin is visible
What structure forms the contractile ring during cytokinesis?
A) Microtubules B) Actin and myosin
C) Chromatin D) Centrioles
E) Golgi apparatus

Which type of cell division results in haploid daughter cells?

A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis I
C) Meiosis II
D) Binary fission
E) Budding

Which phase of meiosis is characterized by the formation of bivalents?

A) Prophase I B) Prophase II
C) Anaphase I D) Metaphase II
E) Telophase I

In which process do D-chromosomes arrange singly at the equator?

A) Meiosis I
B) Mitosis
C) Meiosis II
D) Cytokinesis
E) Interphase

Which type of cell division occurs in somatic cells?

A) Meiosis
B) Binary fission
C) Mitosis
D) Budding
E) Spore formation
 Questions
lecture of epithelium
- enumerate types of epithelium according to their function?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- sites of simple squamous epithelium ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- enumerate layers of stratified squamous epithelium?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- mention layers of transitional epithelium?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- mention classification of glandular epithelium?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- define neuro epithelium?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- mention types of intercellular junctions and its sites ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 MCQ
Which of the following is NOT a type of epithelium?
A) Covering Epithelium
B) Glandular Epithelium
C) Neuroepithelium
D) Fibrous Epithelium

What type of epithelium is found in the lung alveoli?

A) Simple squamous epithelium
B) Stratified squamous epithelium
C) Simple cubical epithelium
D) Transitional epithelium

Which of the following is characteristic of simple cubical epithelium?

A) Flat cells with bulging nuclei
B) Tall elongated cells with basal nuclei
C) Single layer of cubical cells with rounded nuclei
D) Multiple layers of cells with wavy basement membrane

Where is simple columnar secretory epithelium typically found?

A) Lining of the stomach
B) Lining of the intestine
C) Lining of the ureter
D) Outer layer of the skin

Which type of epithelium has cilia on its free surface?

A) Simple squamous epithelium
B) Simple cubical epithelium
C) Simple columnar ciliated epithelium
D) Stratified squamous epithelium
What is the function of pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium?
A) Secretion
B) Protection
C) Absorption
D) Sensory perception

Which layer of stratified squamous epithelium is responsible for

regeneration?
A) Basal layer
B) Middle layers
C) Top layer
D) Superficial layer

Where is transitional epithelium found?

A) Lining of the kidney pelvis
B) Lining of the small intestine
C) Surface of the skin
D) Lining of the heart

Which of the following glands produces a waxy secretion?

A) Sebaceous glands
B) Sweat glands
C) Ceruminous glands
D) Salivary glands

What type of secretion method involves the destruction of the whole cell?
A) Merocrine
B) Apocrine
C) Holocrine
D) Endocrine
Which of the following is an example of a unicellular gland?
A) Goblet cells
B) Salivary glands
C) Thyroid glands
D) Sweat glands

Which type of epithelium is involved in the perception of sensory stimuli?

A) Glandular epithelium
B) Covering epithelium
C) Neuroepithelium
D) Stratified epithelium

Which structure is associated with the tight junctions in epithelial cells?

A) Adherens junctions
B) Occludens junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) Desmosomes

Where are the supporting cells of neuroepithelium found?

A) Between the sensory cells
B) At the basement membrane
C) In the connective tissue
D) Surrounding the blood vessels

Which type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder?

A) Simple squamous epithelium
B) Simple cubical epithelium
C) Transitional epithelium
D) Stratified squamous epithelium
Which of the following glands is an example of a compound branched
tubular gland?
A) Parotid gland B) Salivary gland
C) Liver D) Pancreas

Which type of epithelial junction allows rapid transmission of nerve

impulses?
A) Tight junctions
B) Gap junctions
C) Adherens junctions
D) Desmosomes

What is the nature of secretion from serous glands?

A) Viscid mucous
B) Waxy secretion
C) Watery solution rich in enzymes
D) Fatty secretion

Which gland is NOT an example of a simple tubular gland?

A) Intestinal glands
B) Sweat glands
C) Gastric glands
D) Salivary glands

What is the function of gap junctions in epithelial cells?

A) Prevent passage of materials between cells
B) Firm adhesion between cells
C) Allow communication between cells
D) Prevent separation of cells
 Questions
connective tissue
–enumerate types of connective tissue ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention types and sites of white collagenous fibers ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ describe the LM of yellow elastic fibres and its sites ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention sites of reticular fibers ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention the stains and the function of fat cells ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention function of mast cell ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention sites and functions of fibroblasts ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

–⁠mention functions of macrophages?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
- ⁠ mention components of connective tissue matrix?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
What is the main function of connective tissue?
A) Storage of energy
B) Support and connection of various tissues and organs
C) Conduction of nerve impulses
D) Protection against pathogens

Which of the following is a type of connective tissue proper?

A) Cartilage
B) Bone
C) Blood
D) Loose connective tissue

Which enzyme digests white collagenous fibers?

A) Elastase
B) Pepsin
C) Trypsin
D) Collagenase

What is the color of yellow elastic fibers in the fresh state?

A) White
B) Yellow
C) Red
D) Black
Which stain is used to identify reticular fibers?
A) H&E
B) Sudan III
C) Silver stain
D) Mallory trichrome

What is the main component of the connective tissue matrix?

A) Proteins
B) Cells
C) Fibers
D) Water

Which cells in connective tissue are responsible for storing fat?

A) Fibroblasts
B) Plasma cells
C) Adipocytes
D) Macrophages

What is the function of plasma cells in connective tissue?

A) Phagocytosis of bacteria
B) Secretion of antibodies
C) Storage of fat
D) Production of collagen

Which cells in connective tissue are involved in the allergic response?

A) Fibroblasts
B) Plasma cells
C) Mast cells
D) Macrophages
Where are unilocular fat cells commonly found?
A) Bone marrow
B) Liver
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Spleen

Which stain is used to identify mast cells in connective tissue?

A) Toluidine blue
B) Sudan III
C) Silver stain
D) H&E

Which type of connective tissue cell can differentiate into various types of
cells?
A) Fibroblasts
B) Macrophages
C) Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells (UMCs)
D) Plasma cells

What is the primary function of macrophages in connective tissue?

A) Storage of fat
B) Secretion of antibodies
C) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
D) Formation of collagen fibers

Which of the following is a characteristic of brown adipose tissue?

A) Found primarily in adults
B) Contains multilocular fat cells
C) Stores large amounts of energy
D) Has fewer mitochondria
Which connective tissue fiber is most resistant to stretching?
A) Elastic fibers
B) Collagenous fibers
C) Reticular fibers
D) None of the above

Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue fiber?

A) Collagenous fibers
B) Elastic fibers
C) Reticular fibers
D) Myelin fibers

Where are reticular fibers commonly found?

A) Skin
B) Bone
C) Lymph nodes
D) Cartilage

Which enzyme digests elastic fibers?

A) Pepsin
B) Collagenase
C) Elastase
D) Trypsin

What type of cells are derived from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells?

A) Plasma cells
B) Adipocytes
C) Macrophages
D) All of the above
 Questions
NERVOUS TISSUE
- compare between axon and dendrites ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠enumerate types of neurons and sites of each one ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠enumerate components of nerve fibre ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠mention functions of neurolemmal sheath ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠enumerate types of nerve fibers ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠mention components of nerve trunks ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠compare between nerve ganglion and spinal ganglion?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 MCQ
Which of the following is a structural and functional unit of nervous tissue?
A) Nucleus
B) Neuron
C) Axon
D) Dendrite

Which type of neuron has a single process that divides into two branches?
A) Unipolar neuron
B) Bipolar neuron
C) Multipolar neuron
D) Pseudounipolar neuron

Which part of the neuron is responsible for conducting nerve impulses

away from the cell body?
A) Dendrite B) Axon
C) Nucleus D) Soma

What is the main function of the myelin sheath?

A) Protection of the neuron
B) Insulation of nerve impulses
C) Storage of neurotransmitters
D) Formation of synapses

Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia in the CNS?

A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) Microglia
Where are pyramidal nerve cells found?
A) Cerebellum
B) Cerebrum
C) Spinal cord
D) Peripheral nerves

Which of the following cells has a flask-shaped appearance?

A) Bipolar neuron
B) Unipolar neuron
C) Pseudounipolar neuron
D) Pyriform neuron

What is the characteristic shape of multipolar neurons in sympathetic

ganglia?
A) Fusiform
B) Polygonal
C) Pyramidal
D) Pyriform

Which type of fibers are found in gray matter of the CNS?

A) Naked fibers
B) Myelinated fibers
C) Non-myelinated fibers
D) Ensheathed fibers

What is the function of Schwann cells in the PNS?

A) Myelination of nerve fibers
B) Production of neurotransmitters
C) Regulation of ion exchange
D) Synaptic transmission
Which type of nerve cell is found in the retina of the eye?
A) Unipolar neuron B) Pseudounipolar neuron
C) Bipolar neuron D) Multipolar neuron

What type of connective tissue surrounds the entire nerve trunk?

A) Endoneurium
B) Perineurium
C) Epineurium
D) Myelin sheath

Which cells are considered the 'immune cells' of the CNS?

A) Astrocytes
B) Microglia
C) Ependymal cells
D) Oligodendrocytes

Which cells line the central canal of the spinal cord and ventricles of the
brain?
A) Astrocytes
B) Microglia
C) Ependymal cells
D) Schwann cells

Which structure in the nerve trunk provides protection and support to

individual nerve fibers?
A) Endoneurium
B) Perineurium
C) Epineurium
D) Axolemma
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of axons?
A) Long and thin
B) Smooth surface
C) Contains Nissl granules
D) Conducts impulses away from the cell body

What type of neurons are primarily found in the sympathetic ganglion?

A) Pseudounipolar
B) Bipolar
C) Multipolar
D) Unipolar

Which cells are found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves?
A) Schwann cells
B) Satellite cells
C) Pseudounipolar neurons
D) Bipolar neurons

What is the role of the neurolemmal sheath in nerve fibers?

A) Formation of synapses
B) Insulation of nerve impulses
C) Regeneration of peripheral nerve after injury
D) Both B and C
 Questions
Skin

- define finger prints ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ enumerate types of cells present in epidermis?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ enumerate layers of keratinocytes ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

– ⁠ mention sites and functions of melanocytes ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention functions of langerhan’s and Merkel’s cells ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ compare between papillary layer and reticular layer of the

dermis ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
- ⁠ @compare between thin and thick skin?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- ⁠ mention components of skin appendages ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
Which of the following layers is the thin superficial layer of stratified
squamous keratinized epithelium in the skin?
A) Dermis
B) Hypodermis
C) Epidermis
D) Subcutaneous layer

What type of cells are responsible for the formation of brown to black
melanin and pigmentation of the skin?
A) Keratinocytes
B) Melanocytes
C) Langerhans cells
D) Merkel’s cells

Which layer of the epidermis contains 4-8 layers of polyhedral cells with
central, rounded nuclei?
A) Basal cell layer
B) Prickle cell layer
C) Granular cell layer
D) Clear cell layer
What is the main function of the lamellar granules found in the granular
cell layer of the skin?
A) Skin pigmentation
B) Skin Barrier
C) Touch sensation
D) Temperature regulation

Which layer of the skin is responsible for forming fingerprints?

A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Hypodermis
D) Subcutaneous tissue

What is the primary function of Merkel's cells in the skin?

A) Producing melanin
B) Acting as receptors for touch sensation
C) Secreting sebum
D) Regulating body temperature

In which layer of the skin are Meissner's corpuscles primarily found?

A) Reticular layer of the dermis
B) Papillary layer of the dermis
C) Epidermis
D) Hypodermis

Which type of skin lacks hair follicles and sebaceous glands?

A) Thin skin
B) Thick skin
C) Epidermis
D) Dermis
Where are Langerhans cells typically located in the skin?
A) Basal cell layer
B) Prickle cell layer
C) Clear cell layer
D) Horny layer

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

A) Producing vitamin D
B) Protecting against UV rays
C) Lubricating joints
D) Regulating temperature

What type of secretion is associated with sebaceous glands?

A) Merocrine
B) Apocrine
C) Holocrine
D) Endocrine

Which part of the hair is responsible for its elongation?

A) Shaft
B) Root
C) Bulb
D) Cuticle

Which layer of the dermis is thicker and less vascular?

A) Papillary layer
B) Reticular layer
C) Epidermal layer
D) Subcutaneous layer
Which cells are antigen-presenting macrophages in the skin?
A) Keratinocytes
B) Melanocytes
C) Langerhans cells
D) Merkel’s cells

Which type of granules are responsible for the waterproofing function of

the skin?
A) Melanin granules
B) Keratohyalin granules
C) Lamellar granules
D) Basophilic granules

Which of the following is true about thick skin compared to thin skin?
A) It has more hair follicles
B) It has a thicker epidermis
C) It has more sebaceous glands
D) It has more arrector pili muscles

What structure in the skin is responsible for the formation of fingerprints?

A) Epidermal ridges
B) Dermal papillae
C) Sweat glands
D) Sebaceous glands

Which of the following is NOT a part of the skin appendages?

A) Sweat glands
B) Hair follicles
C) Arrector pili muscle
D) Subcutaneous fat
Which cells in the skin are involved in the touch sensation?
A) Langerhans cells
B) Melanocytes
C) Merkel’s cells
D) Keratinocytes

What is the primary role of sebaceous glands?

A) Producing sweat
B) Producing sebum
C) Sensory reception
D) Producing melanin
 Written questions
ANATOMY OF GENITAL ORGANS

1-list two of the secondary sex organs of male reproductive

system.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2- list two of the secondary sex organs of female reproductive

system. ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3-list two histological structures of the testis. ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4-what are the functions of the epididymis?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5-mention the parts of the uterine tube.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
MCQ

1-which of the following is the primary sex organ of the male:

A) testis
B) vas deferens
C) seminal vesicles
D) penis
E) urethra
2-which of the following is the primary sex organ of the female:
A) uterus B) vagina
C) ovaries D) fallopian tubes
E) urethra

3-which organ produces sperms and male sex organs:

A) penis B) seminal vesicles
C) testis D) urethra
E) ovaries

4-which organ produces ovum and female sex organs:

A) uterus D) urethra
B) ovaries. E) testis
C) vagina

5-Which of the following structures is NOT part of the male secondary sex
organs?
A) Epididymis
B) Vas deferens
C) Urethra
D) Prostate gland
E) Testis

6-What is the function of the rete testis?

A) To store sperm
B) To produce seminal fluid
C) To transport sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis
D) To nourish developing sperm
E) To secrete testosterone
7-What is the primary function of the Sertoli cells in the
seminiferous tubules?
A) Secretion of testosterone
B) Production of spermatogonia
C) Supporting and nourishing sperms
D) storage of sperms E) Secretion of seminal fluid

8-Which structure connects the ovary to the uterus?

A) Fallopian tube.
B) Round ligament.
C) Broad ligament
D) Suspensory ligament. E) Uterine artery

9-What is the site of fertilization in the female reproductive system?

A) Uterus
B) Ovary
C) Vagina
D) Fallopian tube (Ampulla)
E) Cervix

10-Which cells in the testes are responsible for the secretion of

testosterone?
A) Sertoli cells
B) Leydig cells
C) Spermatogonia
D) Spermatocytes
E) Epididymal cells
11-Which of the following structures in the male reproductive
system is responsible for the storage and maturation of sperms?
A) Testis
B) Prostate gland
C) Vas deferens
D) Epididymis
E) Seminal vesicles

12-Which of the following structures is responsible for carrying the

ovum from the ovary to the uterus?
A) Urethra.
B) Fallopian tube
C) Uterus
D) Vagina.
E) Cervix
 Lecture 2
GAMETOGENESIS & FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE CYCLES

1-define gametogenesis.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2- list the parts of mature sperm.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3-mention the phases of ovarian cycle.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4-list the phases of Menstrual (Uterine) cycle.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5-mention 2 causes of ovulation.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

MCQ
1-During which phase of the ovarian cycle does ovulation occur?
A) Follicular phase
B) Ovulatory phase
C) Luteal phase
D) Menstrual phase
E) Secretory phase
2-What is the primary outcome of the first meiotic division in spermatogenesis?
A) Formation of spermatids
B) Reduction of number of the chromosomes to the half
C) Duplication of DNA
D) Formation of spermatozoa
E) Production of mature sperm
3-Which layer of the uterus undergoes the most significant changes during the
menstrual cycle?
A) Myometrium
B) Endometrium
C) Perimetrium
D) Serosa E) Cervical canal
4-Which of the following structures is formed from the remnants of the ruptured
Graafian follicle?
A) Corpus albicans
B) Corpus luteum
C) Primary oocyte
D) Secondary oocyte E) Theca interna
5-During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium
reach its maximum thickness?
A) Menstrual phase
B) Proliferative phase
C) Secretory phase
D) Follicular phase
E) Ovulatory phase
6-Which of the following is a characteristic of the luteal phase of the
ovarian cycle?
A) High levels of FSH B) High levels of LH
C) Formation of the corpus luteum
D) Ovulation E) formation of Mature Graafian Follicle
7-Which of the following is true about spermatogenesis?
A) It starts at birth
B) It produces four sperm cells from each primary spermatocyte
C) It results in the formation of primary oocytes
D) It involves the division of oogonia
E) It only occurs after menopause
8-What is the term for the morphological transformation of spermatids into mature
sperm?
A) Spermatogenesis
B) Spermiation C) Spermatocytogenesis
D) Spermiogenesis E) Gametogenesis
9-Which of the following conditions is associated with the presence of an extra
chromosome 21?
A) Turner Syndrome B) Klinefelter Syndrome
C) Down Syndrome D) Superfemale
E) Edwards Syndrome
10-What is the fate of the secondary oocyte if it is not fertilized?
A) It degenerates within 24 hours
B) It forms a corpus luteum
C) It undergoes another meiotic division
D) It implants in the uterus
E) none of the above
11-Which phase of meiosis is arrested in the primary oocyte until puberty?
A) Prophase I B) Metaphase I
C) Anaphase I D) Telophase I
E) Metaphase I
12-Which structure in sperm is responsible for energy production?
A) Head
B) Neck C) Middle piece
D) Principal piece E) Acrosome
13-The formation of the corpus albicans occurs after which event?
A) Fertilization of the oocyte
B) Ovulation
C) Degeneration of the corpus luteum
D) Implantation of the zygote
E)none of the above
14-Which part of the sperm contains the acrosome?
A) Head B) Neck
C) Middle piece D) Principal piece
E) Tail
15-What structure forms from the remnants of the corpus luteum if fertilization does
not occur?
A) Corpus albicans
B) Graafian follicle
C) Primary follicle
D) Zona pellucida
E) Theca interna
 Lecture 3
1st Week of Human Development
1-define fertilization.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2- name 2 enzymes included in acrosome reaction.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3-list 2 results of fertilization.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4-what is the cleavage?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5-mention types of cells of blastocyst.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
1-What is the normal site of fertilization?
a) Isthmus of the uterine tube
b) Cervix
c) Ampulla of the uterine tube
d) Uterine cavity
e) Ovary
2-What is the process of fusion between the sperm nucleus and ovum
nucleus called?
a) Cleavage b) Fertilization
c) Implantation d) Gastrulation
e) Capacitation

3-What happens during capacitation?

a) Removal of the acrosome
b) Fusion of sperm with oocyte
c) Removal of glycoprotein coat and seminal fluid plasma proteins
d) Formation of blastocyst
e) Release of zona lysin

4-What enzyme helps sperm penetrate the corona radiata?

a) Zona lysin b) Hyaluronidase
c) Acrosin d) Protease e) Chymotrypsin

5-What is the result of the zona reaction?

a) Formation of the zygote
b) Prevention of additional sperm entry
c) Cleavage initiation
d) Development of the morula
e) Capacitation

6-Which day post fertilization does the morula enter the uterine cavity?
a) Day 1
b) Day 2
c) Day 3
d) Day 4
e) Day 5
7-What happens to the zona pellucida by day 5?
a) It thickens
b) It remains the same
c) It disappears
d) It turns into the trophoblast
e) It turns into the embryoblast

8-What does the inner cell mass of the blastocyst develop into?
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast
c) Embryoblast
d) Decidua
e) Chorion

9-What is cleavage?
a) Fusion of sperm and egg
b) Formation of the zygote
c) Repeated mitotic divisions of the zygote
d) Implantation into the uterine wall
e) Development of the placenta

10-Which enzyme is responsible for the penetration of the zona pellucida?

a) Hyaluronidase
b) Zona lysin
c) Acrosin
d) Protease
e) Chymotrypsin
11-What is the role of the acrosome reaction?
a) To initiate cleavage
b) To prevent polyspermy
c) To allow the sperm to penetrate the ovum
d) To form the blastocyst
e) To aid in implantation

12-What structure is responsible for preventing the adhesion of

blastomeres to surrounding tissues?
a) Zona pellucida
b) Trophoblast.
c) Chorion
d) Amnion.
e) Yolk sac
 Lecture 4
2nd&3rd Weeks of Human Development

1-what is the normal site of implantation?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2-list the layers of the chorion.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3-name the 3 germ layers.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4-mention two derivatives of ectoderm.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5-mention a remnant of notochord.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

MCQ
1-By the end of the second week, implantation is:
a) Just beginning
b) Half completed
c) Fully completed
d) Not yet started
e) None of the above
2-The endometrium after implantation is called:
a) Myometrium b) Perimetrium
c) Decidua d) Chorion
e) Trophoblast

3-Abnormal implantation in the uterine cavity is known as:

a) tubal pregnancy
b) Placenta previa
c) Gestational trophoblastic disease
d) Molar pregnancy
e) Placental abruption

4-The chorion is formed by the:

a) Embryoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast c) Zona pellucida
d) Endoderm and mesoderm. e) Myometrium

5-The "2s" of the second week include:

a) 2 layers of trophoblast and 2 layers of embryoblast
b) 2 cavities and 2 layers of the extraembryonic mesoderm
c) Chorion and connecting stalk
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

6-The amniotic cavity is first formed during:

a) The first week
b) The second week
c) The third week
d) The fourth week
e) After birth
7-What layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm is part of the
chorion?
a) Splanchnic
b) Somatic
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) Cytotrophoblast
e) Epiblast

8-During the second week, the trophoblast differentiates into:

a) Inner cell mass and outer cell mass b) Epiblast and hypoblast
c) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
d) Amnion and yolk sac e) Morula and blastocyst

9-What significant event occurs during the third week?

a) Fertilization b) Cleavage
c) Gastrulation d) Implantation
e) Placenta formation

10-The notochord serves as the axis for the formation of:

a) sternum b) Vertebral column
c) Rib cage d) Skull
e) Limbs

11-The remnant of the notochord in adults is:

a) Spinal cord
b) Nucleus pulposus
c) Vertebral body
d) Rib cage
e) Coccyx
12-Gastrulation results in the formation of:
a) Bilaminar disc
b) Trilaminar germ disc
c) Blastocyst
d) Zygote e) Morula

13-Which of the following is NOT formed during the third week?

a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Trophoblast
e) Notochord

14-What does the ectoderm give rise to?

a) Bones
b) Muscles
c) Skin and central nervous system
d) Digestive tract
e) Circulatory system

15-The prechordal plate is a precursor to the:

a) Notochord
b) Buccopharyngeal membrane
c) Neural tube
d) Somites
e) Amnion

16-Which germ layer is responsible for forming the epithelial lining

of the gastrointestinal tract?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm c) Endoderm
d) Trophoblast e) Epiblast
 Lecture 5
FETAL MEMBRANES
1-Mention 3 examples of fetal membranes.
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2-list 4 functions of amniotic fluid.
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3-compare between oligo and polyhydramnios.
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4- list 4 functions of placenta.
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5-mention 2 anomalies of placenta.
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 MCQ
1-Which structure is filled with fluid and surrounds the embryo and fetus?
a) Yolk sac b) Chorion
c) Amnion d) Allantois
e) Placenta

2. When does the amnion first appear after fertilization?

a) 3rd or 4th day
b) 5th or 6th day
c) 7th or 8th day
d) 9th or 10th day
e) 11th or 12th day

3. What is the main component of amniotic fluid?

a) Protein
b) Fetal excreta
c) Desquamated epithelial cells
d) Water
e) Organic constituents

4. What is the amount of amniotic fluid at birth?

a) 500 mL b) 750 mL c) 1 liter
d) 1.5 liters e) 2 liters

5. Which of the following is not a function of amniotic fluid?

a) Allows fetal movements
b) respiration and gas exchange
c) Controls body temperature of the fetus
d) Acts as a barrier against infection
e) Protects against trauma and external shock
6. What is the source of amniotic fluid?
a) Maternal blood b) Amnioblast cells
c) Fetal liver d) Yolk sac
e) Chorionic villi

7. What condition is characterized by a volume of amniotic fluid less

than 1/2 liter?
a) Poly-hydramnios b) Oligo-hydramnios
c) Anhydramnios d) Hydramnios
e) Pseudo-hydramnios

8. Which of the following is a cause of poly-hydramnios?

a) Renal agenesis. b) Maternal diabetes
c) Placental insufficiency. d) Fetal infection
e) Premature rupture of membranes

9. What is the main function of the yolk sac during the 2nd and 3rd
weeks?
a) Protects the fetus
b) Provides amniotic fluid
c) Transfers nutrients to the embryo
d) Forms the placenta
e) Facilitates fetal movement

10. The allantois is a diverticulum from which structure?

a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Yolk sac
d) Placenta
e) Umbilical cord
11. Which layer of the chorion is the outermost?
a) Cytotrophoblast b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Extraembryonic mesoderm
d) Endometrium e) Amnion

12. What is the length of the umbilical cord at birth?

a) 30 cm b) 40 cm
c) 50 cm d) 60 cm
e) 70 cm

13. What is the composition of the core of the umbilical cord?

a) Blood vessels only
b) Gelatinous mesoderm known as Wharton’s jelly
c) Cartilage
d) Bone marrow
e) Smooth muscle

14. How many umbilical arteries are present in the umbilical cord?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
e) 5

15. What does the intraembryonic part of the allantois form?

a) Ureter b) Urachus
c) Umbilical vein d) Urethra
e) Bladder base

16. The chorion consists of how many layers?

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3
d) 4 e) 5
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Difference between small & large intestine.

Functions of skin.

Difference between artery & vein

Difference between Euchromatin & Heterochromatin.

Difference between Mitosis & 1st Meiotic division.

Difference between spinal & sympathetic ganglia.

Layers of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium.

Types of cells forming the epidermis of the skin.

Sites of mucoid connective tissue.

Functions of the Sebaceous gland.