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CBSE EXAM 2026 30 Sets

Class : 10th
Sub : Science

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Disclaimer: These papers are based on the SQP released by CBSE and
published by a private organization just for the practice of the students.
CBSE has not released these papers and CBSE is not related to these papers
in any manner. Publisher of these papers clearly state that these paeprs
are only for practice of students and questions may not be come in main
exam.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the nutrition of Amoeba?
(a) Digestion ® Ingestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation ® Egestion
(b) Ingestion ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation ® Egestion
(c) Egestion ® Ingestion ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation
(d) Ingestion ® Assimilation ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Egestion

2. The nerve impulse is the signal transmitted along a nerve fibre. What is the correct pathway for the flow of
this impulse within a single neuron?
(a) Axon terminal ® Cell body ® Dendrite
(b) Cell body ® Axon ® Dendrite
(c) Dendrite ® Cell body ® Axon terminal
(d) Axon terminal ® Dendrite ® Cell body

3. There are various methods to prevent pregnancy. Which of the following contraceptive methods also provides
protection from acquiring sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
(a) Copper-T (b) Oral Pills
(c) Condom (d) Tubectomy

4. In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross, when a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) from the F1 generation is
self-pollinated, what is the resulting phenotypic ratio of tall to dwarf plants in the F2 generation?
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 3:1 (d) 2:1

5. In any ecosystem, certain organisms are responsible for breaking down complex organic substances from
dead plants and animals into simpler inorganic substances. What are these essential organisms called?
(a) Producers (b) Primary Consumers
(c) Carnivores (d) Decomposers

6. Consider the following statements about the human heart:

(i) The human heart is a four-chambered organ.
(ii) The right ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs.
(iii) The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the wall of the right ventricle.
(iv) Valves ensure that blood flows in only one direction through the heart.
Page 2 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) (i), (iii), and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. Fertilization in flowering plants is the fusion of male and female gametes. Where does this process typically
take place?
(a) On the surface of the stigma.
(b) Inside the growing pollen tube.
(c) Within the anther of the stamen.
(d) Inside the ovule, which is located within the ovary.

8. Assertion (A) : Abscisic acid is referred to as a “stress hormone” in plants.

Reason (R) : The production of abscisic acid in plants stimulates the closure of stomata, which helps to
reduce water loss during dry conditions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) : All variations that arise in a species have an equal chance of survival.
Reason (R) : Natural selection favors variations that provide a survival advantage in a particular environment.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. While plants generate oxygen during the day, they produce carbon dioxide at night. Justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. How is the process of breathing different in aquatic organisms compared to terrestrial organisms?
Explain why the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster.


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B. What is translocation in plants? Name the tissue responsible for it and the form in which the food is
transported.

12. In a grassland ecosystem, the following organisms are present:

Grass, Grasshopper, Hawk, Lizard, and Snake. Construct two distinct food chains from this ecosystem, each
starting with the producer.

13. Draw a neat diagram of a reflex arc showing the pathway of a reflex action when a person accidentally
touches a hot object. Label the key components involved.

14. In pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt).
(i) What is the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, what will be the ratio of pure tall, hybrid tall, and dwarf plants
obtained in the F2 generation? Show the cross.

15. A student had a meal containing rice and lentils (dal). Refer to the figure of the human alimentary canal
to the following questions.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 3

Human Alimentary canal

Attempt either subpart A or B.

A. Name the component in rice that is the primary source of energy. Where does its digestion begin and
which enzyme is responsible?


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B. Lentils are a rich source of protein. Describe the process of protein digestion that occurs in the stomach
(Part N) and the small intestine (Part O).
C. How is the small intestine (Part O) designed to maximize the absorption of digested food?

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) A student observed a slice of bread with a cottony growth after leaving it in a moist, dark place.
Identify the organism and its mode of reproduction.
(ii) Explain how this mode of reproduction helps the organism to survive unfavourable conditions.
(iii) State one key advantage of sexual reproduction over this method.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
(ii) List any three changes that take place in a flower after fertilization which lead to the formation of
fruit and seed.
(iii) What is the function of the sepals and petals in a flower?

SECTION-B
17. Which of the following equations represent redox reactions and what are the values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ in these
equations?
Sunlight
Equation 1 : pAgCl (s) 2Ag (s) + Cl 2 (g)

Equation 2 : Zn (s) + qHCl (aq) " ZnCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)

(a) Only equation 1 is a redox reaction, p = 1 and q = 2
(b) Only equation 2 is a redox reaction, p = 2 and q = 1
(c) Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p = 2 and q = 2
(d) Neither equation is a redox reaction, p = 1 and q = 1

18. Four statements about the reactions of oxides are listed.

I. Lead(II) oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide.
II. Magnesium oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid but does not react with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
III. Copper(II) oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide.
IV. Sodium oxide reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide but not with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) I and II
(c) II and IV (d) III and IV
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19. A strip of zinc is added to a test tube containing aqueous ferrous sulphate, and a copper wire is added to
another test tube containing aqueous zinc sulphate. Which of the following observations is correct?
(a) The green solution in the first test tube turns colourless, and the second test tube remains colourless
with no change.
(b) There is no reaction in the first test tube, but the blue solution in the second test tube turns colourless.
(c) A brown coating is observed on the zinc strip, and a grey coating is observed on the copper wire.
(d) The solution in both test tubes turns black, and a gas is evolved.

20. What change would you observe if you put blue litmus paper and red litmus paper into a sample of soap
solution?

Colour change on Blue Litmus Colour change on Red Litmus

a No change Turns blue
b Turns red No change
c Turns red Turns blue
d No change No change

21. Which of the following substances, when mixed with water, will result in a solution with the lowest pH
value?
(a) Milk of Magnesia (b) Human Blood
(c) Gastric juice from the stomach (d) Pure Water

22. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate placed in a test tube, the observation is:
(a) A reddish-brown gas is evolved.
(b) The solution turns milky, and the test tube becomes hot.
(c) Brisk effervescence is seen due to the evolution of a colourless, odourless gas.
(d) A yellow precipitate is formed.

23. In the reaction of an aqueous solution of lead(II) nitrate with an aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the
insoluble substance formed is:
(a) KNO 3 (b) Pb (NO 3) 2
(c) KI (d) PbI 2

24. Assertion (A) : Soaps are not effective cleansing agents in hard water.
Reason (R) : Soaps form insoluble precipitates (scum) on reaction with calcium and magnesium ions present
in hard water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following:

(a) School bells are designed to be sonorous. Why are they made of metals like brass or bronze and not
wood?
(b) Aluminium metal is highly malleable. How is this property utilized in the food industry?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 5

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An element ‘Y’ is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust. It is extracted by the electrolytic
reduction of its molten oxide. This metal readily forms a thin, tough, and non-porous oxide layer on its
surface upon exposure to air.
(i) Identify the element ‘Y’.
(ii) Explain why electrolytic reduction is necessary for its extraction.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction that takes place at the cathode during its electrolysis.


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(B) Galvanisation is a common method used to protect iron articles from rusting.
(i) Name the metal used to provide the coating on iron during galvanisation.
(ii) Explain how this coating prevents rusting, even when the coating is scratched and the iron is
exposed.
(iii) Suggest one other method apart from galvanisation and painting that can be used to prevent the
rusting of iron.

27. A student sets up an apparatus for the reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid as depicted.

(a) What would the student observe happening near the surface of the zinc granules?
(b) Name the gas evolved in this process. How can its presence be tested in the laboratory?
(c) If the student touches the bottom of the flask after the reaction starts, what change in temperature
would be felt? Justify your answer.

28. A farmer found that the soil in his fields was very acidic with a pH of around 4.5, resulting in poor crop
growth. An agricultural expert advised him to add either quick lime (calcium oxide), slaked lime (calcium
hydroxide), or chalk (calcium carbonate) to the soil.
(a) Why is highly acidic soil detrimental to crop growth?
(b) Explain why the addition of any of the three suggested substances can improve the soil quality.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing the neutralisation of soil acid (assume sulphuric acid,
H2SO4) with slaked lime.


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A baker prepared a cake batter and added baking soda. However, he forgot to add another key dry
ingredient, causing the final cake to have a bitter, soapy taste.
(a) What crucial ingredient, usually found mixed with baking soda in ‘baking powder’, did he likely forget?
Why is this ingredient necessary?
(b) What is the chemical name and formula of baking soda?
(c) Explain the role of baking soda in making the cake soft and spongy, and write the chemical equation for
the reaction that occurs when it is heated.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C2H6O and is a common solvent and the active
ingredient in alcoholic beverages. When ‘A’ is warmed with alkaline potassium permanganate solution,
it gets converted to an organic acid ‘B’. When ‘A’ and ‘B’ are heated together in the presence of a few
drops of concentrated sulphuric acid, a new compound ‘C’ with a fruity smell is formed.
(a) Identify the compounds ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the conversion of ‘A’ to ‘B’.
(c) What is the general name for the process of formation of ‘C’ ?
(d) Draw the electron dot structure for compound ‘A’.
(e) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the formation of ‘C’ ?


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(B) Carbon is an element that forms the basis for all life. It belongs to Group 14 of the periodic table and
exhibits unique properties.
(a) What is the valency of Carbon? Name the property of carbon which allows it to form long chains
with itself.
(b) Carbon exists in various forms with different physical properties but identical chemical properties.
What are these different forms called? Name one hard and one soft crystalline form.
(c) Draw the structure of the hard crystalline form you named in part (b).
(d) What type of bonds are present in compounds of carbon? Give a reason why these compounds are
generally poor conductors of electricity.
(e) Write the name and draw the electron dot structure of the simplest compound formed between
carbon and hydrogen.

SECTION-C
30. A student observed the reflection of light from different types of spherical mirrors and made the following
statements:
I. A concave mirror can form a magnified and real image of an object.
II. A convex mirror can only form a virtual image of an object.
III. The magnification produced by a concave mirror can be negative.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. Choose the correct option from the below which explains the reason for us to perceive the day sky as blue.
(a) As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, shorter wavelengths, such as blue are scattered more than
other colors.
(b) The sky appears blue because all colors are scattered equally, but blue light is stronger and more visible
to the human eye.
(c) The blue color of the sky is due to longer wavelengths like red and orange scattering more than shorter
wavelengths, making blue stand out.
(d) The atmosphere contains blue-colored particles that give the sky its blue appearance.

32. Assertion (A) : A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 26 cm.
The image will not form at infinity.
Reason (R) : For above given system the equation 1/f = 1/v + 1/u gives v = 3.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 7

33.

The above image shows the lens is placed on the axis

A. Which type of the lens is used in the above diagram ?
B. Complete the diagram in your answer book
C. Write the nature of the image formed.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Two identical resistors of 24 Ω each are connected to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power
consumed by the resulting combinations with
(a) Minimum resistance and
(b) Maximum resistance.


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B. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed
across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively :
(a) What are the least counts of these meters?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor?

35. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Name the defect of vision represented in the diagram. Give reason for your answer.
(ii) List two causes of this defect.
(iii) With the help of a diagram show how this defect of vision is corrected.

36. A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel. How will its :
(a) Resistance
(b) Resistivity get effected ?

37. The magnetic field lines are shown around a current-carrying straight conductor. A student claims that the
magnetic field strength at point P is stronger than at point Q.
Page 8 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

(i) Is the student’s claim correct? Give reason.

(ii) Redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines using right-hand thumb rule.

38. A multimedia projector is often used in classrooms and seminar halls to project enlarged images of slides or
digital content onto a distant screen. The arrangement generally consists of a powerful light source and a
convex lens, which is adjusted to obtain a sharp image on the screen. The clarity of the image depends on
the lens–screen distance, as well as the focal length of the convex lens used in the projector. The figure below
illustrates how the slide is kept between the focus and the lens to form a magnified real image on the screen.

A. Which type of lens is used in the projector?

B. What type of image is formed on the screen?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The projector lens has focal length f = 10 cm . The sharp image is obtained on a screen 200 cm behind
the lens. Find the object (slide) distance u from the lens.


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D. If the slide height is 2.0 cm and the image distance is 200 cm (with the same lens as above), calculate
the image height.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A household uses the following electric appliances :
(i) refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 hours each day.
(ii) two electric fans of rating 80 W each for 6 hours daily.
(iii) six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours daily.
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for month of June, if cost of electrical energy is < 3.00
per unit.


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B. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference
V across the resistor are given below:

I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0

V (volt) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of the resistor.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in somequestions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Plants need to get rid of waste products just like animals. Through which of the following structures do
plants excrete gaseous waste products like oxygen?
(a) Stomata and Lenticels
(b) Xylem and Phloem
(c) Roots and Bark
(d) Flowers and Fruits

2. The rapid folding of the leaves of a ‘touch-me-not’ plant (Mimosa pudica) upon being touched is an example
of which type of plant movement?
(a) Phototropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Nastic movement
(d) Chemotropism

3. In the human female reproductive system, the process of fertilization, where the sperm fuses with the ovum,
typically takes place in which specific location?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Ovary
(d) Oviduct (Fallopian tube)

4. In the study of genetics, the term used to describe the observable physical traits of an organism, such as its
height, eye colour, or hair texture, is its:
(a) Genotype
(b) Phenotype
(c) Allele
(d) Chromosome

5. An ecosystem is composed of both living and non-living components. Which of the following lists contains
only the abiotic components of an ecosystem?
(a) Sunlight, Soil, Bacteria, Water
(b) Temperature, Fungi, Air, Soil
(c) Water, Air, Sunlight, Temperature
(d) Plants, Air, Water, Animals
Page 2 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements regarding the process of human digestion:

(i) The digestion of starch begins in the mouth by the action of salivary amylase.
(ii) Pepsin is the primary enzyme in the stomach that digests proteins in an acidic medium.
(iii) Bile juice, produced by the liver, contains powerful enzymes for digesting fats.
(iv) Trypsin, found in the small intestine, acts on proteins and breaks them down.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. The regulation of blood sugar levels is a classic example of a hormonal feedback mechanism. Which hormones
are responsible for lowering and raising blood sugar levels, respectively?
(a) Glucagon and Insulin
(b) Insulin and Glucagon
(c) Adrenaline and Thyroxine
(d) Thyroxine and Adrenaline

8. Assertion(A) : Decomposers play a critical role in every ecosystem.

Reason (R) : They are responsible for breaking down dead organic matter and returning essential nutrients
to the soil, which are then used by producers.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : A plant grown from a cutting will be genetically identical to the parent plant.
Reason (R) : This method of reproduction, known as vegetative propagation, involves the fusion of gametes
from two different parents.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. “The release of energy in aerobic respiration is much larger than in anaerobic respiration.” Provide two
reasons to justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between arteries and veins based on the thickness of their walls and the type of blood they
generally carry.


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B. Explain the role of kidneys in osmoregulation in the human body.

12. The overuse of fertilizers in agricultural fields often leads to the enrichment of nearby water bodies with
chemicals, a process called eutrophication. How does this process affect the aquatic life in the water body?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 3

13. Draw a neat diagram of the human brain and label the following parts:
(i) Cerebrum
(ii) Cerebellum
(iii) Medulla

14. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B, and they have a child with blood group O.
(i) What are the genotypes of the parents?
(ii) Show the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring with a cross.
(iii) What is the probability of them having a child with blood group AB?

15. Observe the given diagram showing a part of the human excretory system. the questions that follow.

A. Identify the structural and functional unit of the part labelled ‘Kidney’. Draw its neat labelled diagram.


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B. Describe the process of urine formation in a human kidney, focusing on ultrafiltration and selective
reabsorption.
C. What happens to the glucose that enters the nephron along with the filtrate? What does the presence
of glucose in urine indicate?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Name the type of fission carried out by Leishmania. How is it different from the fission in Amoeba?
(ii) What is regeneration? Give an example of an organism that shows this ability. Can regeneration be
considered a mode of reproduction? Why?


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B. (i) Identify the male and female reproductive parts of a flower. State the function of each.
(ii) What is pollination? Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.
(iii) Mention one agent of cross-pollination.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-B
17. Analyze the following chemical equations and identify the correct values for ‘p’ and ‘q’.
Equation 1 : pMg (s) + O 2 (g) " 2MgO (s)
Equation 2 : 2Pb (NO 3) 2 (s)
Heat
qPbO (s) + 4NO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 1
(b) p = 2, q = 4
(c) p = 1, q = 2
(d) p = 2, q = 2

18. When dissolved in water, which of the following oxides is most likely to form a solution with a pH value
greater than 7?
(a) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
(b) CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
(c) K2O (Potassium oxide)
(d) N2O5 (Dinitrogen pentoxide)

19. A student places a clean strip of magnesium metal into a test tube containing a blue solution of copper(II)
sulphate. What is the expected observation after some time?
(a) The solution remains blue, and a greyish layer deposits on the strip.
(b) A colourless, odourless gas is evolved, and the strip dissolves completely.
(c) The blue colour of the solution fades, and a reddish-brown solid is deposited on the strip.
(d) No reaction occurs, and the appearance of the solution and the strip remains unchanged.

20. A few drops of phenolphthalein indicator are added separately to a solution of vinegar and a solution of
washing soda. What are the observed colours?

Colour in Vinegar Colour in Washing Soda Solution

A Pink Colourless
B Colourless Pink
C Orange Yellow
D Colourless Colourless

21. Arrange the following common substances in the increasing order of their pH values: Lemon Juice, Toothpaste,
Sodium Hydroxide Solution, Distilled Water.
(a) Lemon Juice < Toothpaste < Distilled Water < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(b) Distilled Water < Lemon Juice < Toothpaste < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(c) Lemon Juice < Distilled Water < Toothpaste < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(d) Sodium Hydroxide Solution < Toothpaste < Distilled Water < Lemon Juice

22. Dilute sulphuric acid is added to sodium hydrogen carbonate. The gas evolved is then passed through freshly
prepared lime water. What is the final observation?
(a) A reddish-brown gas is seen, which turns lime water orange.
(b) No gas is evolved.
(c) Brisk effervescence occurs, and the gas turns lime water milky.
(d) The solution becomes hot, and the lime water remains clear.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 5

23. Consider the reaction : CaO (s) + H 2 O (l) " Ca (OH) 2 (aq) + Heat This reaction can be classified as:
(i) Combination reaction
(ii) Exothermic reaction
(iii) Decomposition reaction
(iv) Endothermic reaction
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

24. Assertion (A) : Synthetic detergents can be used for washing clothes even in hard water.
Reason (R) : The charged ends of detergent molecules form soluble salts with the calcium and magnesium
ions present in hard water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the properties of metals:

(a) The electrical wiring in homes is typically made of copper or aluminium. Which property of these metals
makes them suitable for this purpose?
(b) Gold can be drawn into extremely thin wires, some just a few micrometers thick. Name the property
responsible for this characteristic.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The chief ore of a metal ‘M’ is Cinnabar (HgS). This metal is placed low in the reactivity series.
(i) Identify the metal ‘M’.
(ii) Name the process used to convert the sulphide ore into its oxide and write the balanced chemical
equation for the reaction.
(iii) How is metal ‘M’ subsequently extracted from its oxide? Write the equation.


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(B) Alloys are prepared to enhance the properties of metals.
(i) Name the constituent elements of the alloy Brass.
(ii) State two reasons why stainless steel, an alloy of iron, is preferred over pure iron for making cooking
utensils.
(iii) What is an alloy containing mercury as one of its constituents called? Give an example.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

27. A student performs an experiment to test the electrical conductivity of a dilute acid solution using a beaker,
two graphite rods, a battery, and a bulb.

(a) When a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is taken in the beaker and the switch is turned on,
what will the student observe? Give a reason for this observation.
(b) If the HCl solution is replaced with an aqueous solution of glucose (C6H12O6), will the observation
change? Explain why.
(c) Name a common base which, if used instead of HCl, would produce a similar observation as seen in part
(A).

28. While playing in a garden, Anjali was stung by a honeybee, which caused her immense pain and a burning
sensation. Her friend immediately advised her to rub the affected area with some toothpaste. Later that
evening, after having a spicy meal, her father complained of acidity. Anjali suggested he take a solution of
baking soda.
(a) Bee stings are acidic in nature. How does rubbing toothpaste on the sting provide relief?
(b) Why did Anjali suggest baking soda for her father’s acidity?
(c) Name the acid injected by the bee sting.


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A laboratory has three unlabelled beakers containing different liquids : (A) Rainwater with a pH of 5.2, (B)
Tap water with a pH of 7.1, and (C) Drain cleaner with a pH of 13.5.
(a) Classify each liquid as a weak acid, a weak base, or a strong base.
(b) What is acid rain? Explain why liquid (A) is an example of acid rain.
(c) Which of the three liquids will have the highest concentration of hydrogen (H+) ions?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The molecular formula of a saturated hydrocarbon is C4H10.
(a) Draw the structural formula of its straight-chain isomer and provide its IUPAC name.
(b) Draw the structural formula of its branched-chain isomer and provide its IUPAC name.
(c) What is the relationship between these two compounds called? Define this phenomenon.
(d) Explain why the boiling point of the straight-chain isomer is higher than that of the branched-chain
isomer.
(e) Write the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of this hydrocarbon.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 7

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(B) Four organic compounds are given below:
(i) CH 3 –CH 2 –CHO
(ii) CH 3 –CO–CH 3
(iii) CH 3 –COOH
(iv) CH 3 –CH 2 –OH

(a) Identify and name the functional group present in compounds (iii) and (iv).
(b) Give the IUPAC names for compounds (i) and (ii).
(c) Which two compounds from the list are isomers of each other? Justify your answer.
(d) Which compound is commonly used as a solvent in nail polish removers?
(e) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when compound (iv) reacts with
compound (iii) in the presence of an acid catalyst.

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the behavior of light rays and makes the following observations:
I. A ray of light passing through the center of curvature of a concave mirror retraces its path.
II. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror, after reflection appears to diverge from
the principal focus.
III. A ray of light incident obliquely at the pole of a concave mirror is reflected obliquely, making an equal
angle with the principal axis.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the light separates into its constituent colors.
Choose the correct option that explains this phenomenon.
(a) The different colors of light travel at the same speed inside the prism.
(b) The different colors of light are refracted at different angles due to their different speeds inside the
prism.
(c) The prism itself produces the colors and this effect is due to the scattering of light by the prism material.
(d) The angle of incidence is different for each color of light, leading to the separation of colors.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

32. Assertion (A) : A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in front of an object at 10 cm. The image
formed will be virtual and erect.
Reason (R) : For a convex lens, when the object is placed between the optical center and the principal focus,
it forms a virtual and erect image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33.

The above image shows the formation of an image with an optical instruments.
A. Which type of the lens is used in the above diagram ?
B. What type image is formed in the above case?
C. What is the focal length of the lens

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential difference
developed across its ends are shown in the given ammeter and voltmeter. Find the least count of the
voltmeter and ammeter. What is the voltage and the current across the given resistor?

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B. In the given circuit diagram suppose the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 have the values 5 Ω , 10 Ω, 30 Ω
respectively, which have been connected to a battery of 12 volt. Calculate
NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 9

(a) The current through each resistor,

(b) The total current in the circuit and

35.

Study the diagram below and answer the following questions :

(i) Name the defect of vision depicted in the diagram.
(ii) List two causes of the above defect.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram for the correction of the above defect using an appropriate lens.

36. (a) What is the total resistance of n resistors each of resistance R connected in :
(i) Series,
(ii) Parallel.
(b) Calculate the resultant resistance of 3 resistors 3 Ω , 4 Ω and 12 Ω connected in parallel.

37. What is a compass needle ? What happens when a compass needle is placed
(a) in a region having no magnetic field,
(b) near a bar magnet ?

38. Every car today is fitted with rear-view mirrors for safety purposes. The outside rear-view mirror is specially
designed to give a wider field of view so that the driver can see vehicles coming from behind. These mirrors
are made slightly curved outward and provide an image that looks smaller than the actual object, but helps
cover a larger portion of the road. That is why the message “Objects in the mirror are closer than they
appear” is written on such mirrors. This practical application is based on the principle of image formation
by spherical mirrors.

A. Which type of spherical mirror is used here—concave or convex?

B. State two characteristics of the image formed in such a mirror for distant objects.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
Page 10 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

C. For a convex mirror of focal length f = − 30 cm , a vehicle is u = − 500 cm from the mirror. Find the
image distance v .


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D. For the situation in (C), find the magnification m and comment on the image size.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A student named Riya is conducting an experiment using a coil wound around a long, hollow cardboard
tube connected to a battery to demonstrate the concept of electromagnetism. Copy the diagram

(i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

(ii) Draw the magnetic field lines of force inside the coil and also show their direction.
(iii) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.


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B. State the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends. How will resistance of a
conductor change if it is stretched so that its length is doubled ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare their own food. Which of the following are the
essential raw materials for this process?
(a) Oxygen, Water, and Sunlight
(b) Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, and Water
(c) Sunlight, Chlorophyll, and Oxygen
(d) Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Sunlight

2. Hormones regulate various functions in the human body. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the
development of secondary sexual characteristics in males?
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Testosterone
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Insulin

3. Organisms reproduce either sexually or asexually. What is the most significant difference between these two
methods?
(a) Asexual reproduction is a very slow process compared to sexual reproduction.
(b) Asexual reproduction results in genetic variation, while sexual reproduction produces clones.
(c) Asexual reproduction involves one parent, while sexual reproduction typically involves two parents.
(d) Asexual reproduction occurs only in unicellular organisms, and sexual reproduction only in multicellular
ones.

4. In genetics, a single gene can exist in different variations or forms. What is the term for these alternative
forms of a gene?
(a) Alleles
(b) Phenotype
(c) Zygote
(d) Chromosome

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Page 2 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

5. Energy flows through an ecosystem from one trophic level to the next. What is considered the ultimate
source of energy for nearly all food chains on Earth?
(a) Green plants
(b) Geothermal vents
(c) The Sun
(d) Decomposers

6. Consider the following statements about cellular respiration:

(i) Aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria and requires oxygen.
(ii) Anaerobic respiration in human muscles produces ethanol and energy.
(iii) Aerobic respiration yields a much larger amount of ATP than anaerobic respiration.
(iv) The final step in anaerobic respiration is the breakdown of pyruvate into water and carbon dioxide.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) All are correct.

7. The different parts of a flower are specialized for various roles in reproduction. What are the primary
functions of the sepals and petals?
(a) Produce eggs and produce pollen.
(b) Protect the bud and attract pollinators.
(c) Attract pollinators and protect the bud.
(d) Develop into a seed and develop into a fruit.

8. Assertion (A) : Arteries are blood vessels with thick and elastic walls.
Reason (R) : The blood emerges from the heart under high pressure and flows through the arteries
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) : The concentration of harmful, non-biodegradable chemicals increases at higher trophic levels
in a food chain.
Reason (R) : These chemicals are easily broken down and metabolized by the organisms at each trophic
level.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. In the human heart, the wall of the left ventricle is significantly thicker than the wall of the right ventricle.
Provide a reason for this structural difference.

11. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition by giving one key difference and
one example for each.


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B. What is lymph? State two major functions of the lymphatic system in the human body.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 3

12. If a pesticide like DDT is sprayed on a field, it enters the food chain: Grass ® Goat ® Human. In which
organism will the concentration of this pesticide be the highest? Name the phenomenon and explain why.

13. Draw a diagram showing the location of the major endocrine glands in the human body and label the
following:
(i) Thyroid Gland
(ii) Adrenal Gland
(iii) Pituitary Gland

14. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in human beings. With the help of a cross, show why the
statistical probability of a baby being a boy or a girl is 50%.

15. A person ate a piece of buttered toast. Refer to the figure of the human alimentary canal to the questions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

A. The butter is rich in fats. Explain the role of the organ labelled ‘N’ (Liver) and its secretion in the
digestion of fats.


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B. The toast is rich in carbohydrates. Where does its digestion start and which enzyme from the gland
labelled as part of ‘N’ (Pancreas) helps in its further digestion in the small intestine?
C. Explain the process of peristalsis and its role in the part labelled ‘M’ (Oesophagus).

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) What are the male and female gametes in flowering plants? Where are they produced?
(ii) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers with one example of each.
(iii) Why is it advantageous for a plant to be cross-pollinated?


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B. (i) Define puberty. List two changes observed in girls and two in boys during this time.
(ii) What is the function of the testes and ovaries in the human reproductive system, apart from
producing gametes?
(iii) Name two barrier methods of contraception.

SECTION-B
17. Analyze the following equations. Which statement correctly identifies the redox reaction and the values of
‘p’ and ‘q’ ?
Equation 1:
pCuSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s) " FeSO 4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Equation 2:
Heat
CaCO 3 (s) CaO (s) + qCO 2 (g)
(a) Both are redox reactions; p = 1, q = 1
(b) Only Equation 1 is a redox reaction; p = 1, q = 1
(c) Only Equation 2 is a redox reaction; p = 1, q = 2
(d) Both are redox reactions; p = 2, q = 1

18. Most non-metal oxides are acidic in nature, but some are neutral. Which of the following is a neutral oxide?
(a) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
(b) CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
(c) P2O5 (Phosphorus pentoxide)
(d) CO (Carbon monoxide)

19. A student performs experiments with four unknown metals A, B, C, and D. The observations are as follows:
1. Metal A displaces Metal B from its salt solution.
2. Metal B displaces Metal C from its salt solution.
3. Metal C displaces Metal D from its salt solution.
Based on these results, what is the correct order of decreasing reactivity?
(a) D C B A
(b) A B C D
(c) C B A D
(d) B A D C

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 5

20. A curry stain on a white cloth is yellow in colour. When soap is scrubbed on it, the stain turns reddish-
brown. What is the nature of soap and why does the colour change?
(a) Soap is acidic, and it reacts with the stain.
(b) Soap is neutral, and it cleans the stain.
(c) Soap is basic, and the turmeric in the curry acts as a natural indicator.
(d) Soap is acidic, and it bleaches the colour of the stain.

21. A student takes 10 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution (pH = 2) in a beaker and adds 90 mL of distilled
water to it. What will be the effect on the pH of the final solution?
(a) The pH will decrease.
(b) The pH will increase.
(c) The pH will remain unchanged.
(d) The pH will become 1.

22. A student mixes a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid with a solution of sodium hydroxide. Which of the
following correctly represents the products of this reaction?
(a) Sodium chloride and hydrogen gas
(b) Sodium chloride, water, and chlorine gas
(c) Sodium oxide and water
(d) Sodium chloride and water

23. A pale yellow powder, silver bromide, is kept in a china dish in the open. After some time, its colour changes
to grey. This change is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Photolytic decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Precipitation reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Covalent compounds, like methane and ethanol, generally have low melting and boiling
points.
Reason (R) : The intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds are very
weak.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the physical properties of metals:

(a) Why are metals like gold and platinum, which are described as ‘noble metals’, exceptionally suitable for
making jewellery? Give a reason based on their chemical property.
(b) Sodium is a metal, yet it is stored in kerosene and can be easily cut with a knife. What does this indicate
about the physical hardness and chemical reactivity of sodium?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) A highly exothermic reaction between aluminium powder and iron(III) oxide is used for welding purposes
on site.
(i) Give the common name of this reaction.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction, indicating the physical states of the reactants
and products.
(iii) Explain why the product of this reaction is useful for welding.
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(B) Ionic compounds exhibit a unique set of physical properties due to the nature of the ionic bond.
(i) Explain why ionic compounds are generally hard, crystalline solids with high melting points.
(ii) Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water or in the molten state, but not
in the solid state?
(iii) Are ionic compounds typically soluble in an organic solvent like kerosene? Give a reason.

27. A student places a clean iron nail in a test tube containing a blue solution of copper sulphate. In another
test tube, she places a copper wire in a freshly prepared pale green solution of ferrous sulphate.

(a) What changes would she observe in the first test tube containing the iron nail after 30 minutes?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the chemical reaction that occurred in the first test tube.
(c) Would she observe any reaction in the second test tube? Justify your answer based on the reactivity
series.

28. Attempt either the main question or the OR option.

A white chemical compound ‘P’ has the formula CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O . It is prepared by carefully heating another
calcium compound, Gypsum. This powder ‘P’ is widely used in hospitals and for making decorative items.
(a) Identify the compound ‘P’ and write its common name.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ‘P’ from Gypsum.
(c) Explain why ‘P’ must be stored in a moisture-proof container. Write the chemical equation for the
change that occurs if it is not.


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Bleaching powder is a yellowish-white solid used for various purposes, including disinfecting drinking water
supplies and as a bleaching agent for cotton in the textile industry. It is produced by the action of a specific
gas on dry slaked lime.
(a) What is the chemical name and formula for bleaching powder?
(b) Name the gas used in its preparation and write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) What happens when bleaching powder is exposed to air for a long time? Explain why it loses its
effectiveness.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 7

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Soaps are molecules that have two ends with different properties. This unique structure is key to their
cleansing action.
(a) What are the two distinct parts of a soap molecule called? Describe their affinity towards water.
(b) With the help of a labelled diagram, show the formation of a micelle when soap is dissolved in water.
(c) Explain how these micelles help in washing away oily dirt from clothes.
(d) Why are detergents considered more effective cleansing agents than soaps, especially in hard water?


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(B) Hydrocarbons are classified as saturated or unsaturated, and they undergo characteristic chemical
reactions.
(a) Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Give one example for each class.
(b) What type of reaction converts vegetable oils into solid fats (vanaspati ghee)? Name the catalyst
used in this process.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing the conversion of ethene (C2H4) to ethane (C2H6).
(d) Saturated hydrocarbons are relatively unreactive but undergo substitution reactions. What is a
substitution reaction?
(e) Give one reason why the reaction between methane and chlorine (CH 4 + Cl 2 " CH 3 Cl + HCl ) is
considered a substitution reaction.

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying about magnification produced by spherical mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always positive and less than one.
II. The magnification produced by a concave mirror can be positive, negative, or one.
III. A magnification of -2 means the image is real, inverted, and twice the size of the object.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. During a laboratory experiment, a student observes that the path of light through a rectangular glass slab
is bent twice. Choose the correct option that describes this phenomenon.
(a) Light undergoes two refractions: at the entry surface and at the exit surface.
(b) Light undergoes one reflection and one refraction.
(c) The bending of light is due to scattering by the glass molecules.
(d) The path of light is bent due to dispersion and reflection.

32. Assertion (A) : A convex lens always produces a real image of an object.
Reason (R) : A convex lens converges parallel rays of light to a single point, forming a real image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

33. The diagram shows a concave mirror reflecting rays of light.

A. Explain what is meant by the principal focus of a concave mirror.

B. State the mathematical relationship between the radius of curvature and focal length of a spherical
mirror.
C. Draw a ray diagram for image formation when the object is placed at infinity.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Three 2 Ω resistors A, B and C are connected as shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy and
can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow
through the three resistors.

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B. A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel. How will its :
(a) Resistance
(b) Resistivity get effected ?

35. A person wears spectacles of power - 2.5 D . Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw the ray
diagram for (i) the defective eye, (ii) its correction after using a suitable lens.

36. Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 6 Ω respectively are connected to a battery of 6 V so as to have :
(a) Maximum resistance,
(b) Maximum current.
(i) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(ii) Calculate the strength of the current in the circuit in both cases.

37. Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram for a current-carrying solenoid.
A student makes a statement that the magnetic field at point P (inside the solenoid) is stronger than at
point Q (outside the solenoid).
NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 9

(i) Explain with reason if the student’s claim is correct.

(ii) Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

38. The diagram shows a simple periscope used in submarines. A periscope is an optical device that allows
sailors to see objects above the water surface while remaining underwater. It consists of two plane mirrors
fixed at 45° to the vertical, placed parallel to each other inside a tube. Light from an object on the surface
strikes the upper mirror, reflects downward to the lower mirror, and then reflects again into the observer’s
eye. The principle of reflection of light is used here. This device is also applied in some tanks and other
defense instruments for observation.

A. Which law of reflection is followed by the plane mirrors in the periscope?

B. State two uses of periscopes apart from submarines.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. An object is placed 2.0 m in front of the upper mirror of a periscope. Find the distance of the final image
from the observer’s eye inside the periscope, if the two mirrors are separated by 50 cm vertically.


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D. A ray of light strikes the upper mirror at an angle of incidence 45°. Draw the path of the ray through
the periscope, marking all angles clearly. Also, state the final direction of the ray emerging towards the
observer.

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Page 10 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part
of the circuit containing three resistors R1, R2 and R3 in series connected to a battery of V volts?
(ii) Study the following circuit and find out:
(a) Current in 12Ω resistor.
(b) Difference in the readings of Al and A2, if any.

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B. (i) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.
(ii) Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the circuit given below:

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts. What
is the most significant function of this process for the plant?
(a) To release excess energy absorbed from the sun.
(b) To create a suction force that pulls water up from the roots.
(c) To store water in the leaves for use during dry conditions.
(d) To provide water as a reactant for cellular respiration.

2. Plant hormones, or phytohormones, control various growth responses. Which hormone is responsible for the
bending of a plant tendril when it comes in contact with a support?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Auxin

3. The exchange of materials between the mother and the developing foetus is crucial for a healthy pregnancy.
This exchange occurs through which specialized tissue?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Placenta

4. A normal human somatic (body) cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many of these are classified as autosomes
(non-sex chromosomes)?
(a) 46 (b) 44
(c) 23 (d) 2

5. The ozone layer is a region of Earth’s stratosphere. What is its primary importance for the survival of life
on Earth?
(a) It maintains the planet’s temperature through the greenhouse effect.
(b) It absorbs most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
(c) It is the primary source of atmospheric oxygen needed for respiration.
(d) It creates the Earth’s magnetic field, deflecting solar wind.
Page 2 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the human excretory system: (i) The kidneys are the main organs
of excretion, filtering waste from the blood. (ii) The nephron is the structural and functional unit of
the kidney. (iii) Urine is temporarily stored in the ureters before being passed out. (iv) The removal of
nitrogenous wastes like urea from the body is called excretion.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) All are correct.

7. The common bread mould, Rhizopus, spreads rapidly under moist and warm conditions. How does it
primarily reproduce asexually?
(a) Through budding
(b) Through fragmentation
(c) Through vegetative propagation
(d) Through spore formation

8. Assertion (A) : The transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse is a chemical process.
Reason (R) : When an impulse reaches an axon terminal, it triggers the release of neurotransmitters that
diffuse across the synaptic gap.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The genetic makeup of the father’s gamete determines the sex of a human child.
Reason (R): Human males have one X and one Y sex chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. During hemodialysis, the dialysis fluid is continuously replaced with fresh fluid. Justify why this is a
necessary step in the procedure for a patient with kidney failure.

11. Attempt either option A or B

A. List the three key events that occur during the process of photosynthesis in the chloroplasts of a leaf.


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B. State the primary function of platelets and plasma in human blood.

12. What would be the consequences for an ecosystem if all decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, were to
vanish? Provide two reasons.

13. Explain the phenomenon of phototropism in plants. Name the plant hormone responsible for this movement
and describe its mechanism of action that causes a plant shoot to bend towards a light source.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 3

14. In a monohybrid cross, Mendel observed that crossing a pure-breeding tall pea plant with a pure-breeding
dwarf pea plant resulted in all tall plants in the F1 generation.
(i) What principle of inheritance is demonstrated by the results of the F1 generation?
(ii) When the F1 plants were self-crossed, what was the phenotypic ratio of tall to dwarf plants observed in
the F2 generation?
(iii) State the law that explains the reappearance of the dwarf trait in the F2 generation.

15. The diagram below shows the human respiratory system. the questions that follow.

A. Identify the balloon-like structures at the end of the bronchioles. Describe two features that make them
ideal for efficient gaseous exchange.


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B. Explain the mechanism of inhalation, detailing the roles of the diaphragm and rib muscles.
C. Name the respiratory pigment in human blood. Explain its role in the transportation of oxygen.

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) Differentiate between regeneration and fragmentation as modes of asexual reproduction.
(ii) Explain how Plasmodium reproduces asexually. Name this process.
(iii) List two reasons why offspring produced by asexual reproduction are often called clones.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human female reproductive system.
(ii) State the site of fertilization and the site of implantation of the embryo in the human female.
(iii) What is menopause?

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction :
MnO 2 + 4HCl " MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H 2 O
Which statement is correct?
(a) MnO2 is oxidized to MnCl2.
(b) HCl is oxidized to Cl2.
(c) MnO2 is the reducing agent.
(d) HCl is the oxidizing agent.
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is classified as a weak acid because it:

(a) is an organic compound.
(b) is highly corrosive.
(c) has a very low pH.
(d) dissociates only partially in an aqueous solution.

19. A food manufacturer wants to store a new line of acidic fruit preserves. Which of the following metals would
be the most unsuitable to use for making the storage containers?
(a) Tin
(b) Silver
(c) Zinc
(d) Copper

20. A student takes a strip of dry blue litmus paper and brings it near the mouth of a test tube releasing dry
hydrogen chloride (HCl) gas. What will be the observed colour change?
(a) The litmus paper will turn red.
(b) The litmus paper will turn pink.
(c) The litmus paper will be bleached.
(d) There will be no change in colour.

21. Sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is a salt. An aqueous solution of this salt will have a pH value:
(a) less than 7.
(b) exactly 7.
(c) more than 7.
(d) close to 0.

22. An aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is mixed with an aqueous solution of barium chloride in a test tube.
The result is:
(a) A yellow precipitate is formed.
(b) A clear solution is formed.
(c) A white precipitate is formed.
(d) A colourless gas is evolved.

23. When a zinc strip is dipped into a blue solution of copper(II) sulphate, the solution turns colourless after
some time. This reaction is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Displacement reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Diamond is used as an abrasive for cutting glass, while graphite is used as a lubricant.
Reason (R) : Diamond has a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral structure, while graphite has a hexagonal
layered structure where layers can slide over each other.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 5

25. Answer the following based on the reaction of metals with water:
(a) When a piece of calcium metal is dropped into a beaker of water, it starts floating on the surface after
some time. Provide a scientific reason for this observation.
(b) Noble metals like gold, silver, and platinum do not react even with steam. What conclusion can be
drawn about their position in the reactivity series?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The corrosion of iron, commonly known as rusting, is a major problem.
(i) Give the chemical name of rust.
(ii) State the two essential conditions required for the rusting of iron.
(iii) Explain how applying a coat of paint to an iron grill prevents it from rusting.


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(B) Corrosion affects different metals in different ways, leading to the formation of various compounds on
their surfaces.
(i) When silver articles are exposed to air, they gradually turn black. Name the black substance
formed.
(ii) A copper vessel develops a green coating on its surface over time. What is the chemical composition
of this green layer?
(iii) Explain why aluminium is considered a corrosion-resistant metal despite being highly reactive.

27. A student takes four test tubes containing equal volumes of dilute hydrochloric acid and adds pieces of
Magnesium, Zinc, Iron, and Copper to each, respectively.

(a) In which test tube would the rate of effervescence (bubble formation) be the highest? Give a reason for
your answer.
(b) Based on the expected rate of reaction, arrange the four metals in decreasing order of reactivity.
(c) What would you expect to observe in the test tube containing the piece of copper? Justify your
observation.
Page 6 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

28. Tooth enamel, the hardest substance in the human body, is made of calcium phosphate. It does not dissolve
in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce
acids by the degradation of sugar and food particles.

(a) What is the chemical nature of the substance responsible for tooth decay?
(b) Explain why tooth enamel, which is a salt, begins to corrode in an acidic medium.
(c) How does the regular use of a good quality toothpaste help in preventing this decay?


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A student is given three aqueous solutions labelled P, Q, and R. Upon testing with a universal indicator
paper, the pH values are found to be 1, 7, and 13, respectively.
(a) Identify the solution that is (i) strongly acidic, (ii) neutral, and (iii) strongly alkaline.
(b) Arrange the three solutions in increasing order of their hydrogen ion (H+) concentration.
(c) What colour would the universal indicator show in each of the three solutions?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Ethanol and Ethanoic acid are two commercially important organic compounds. While both are soluble
in water, their chemical properties differ significantly.
(a) Describe a chemical test involving a reaction with a metal carbonate to distinguish between ethanol
and ethanoic acid. State the expected observations.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction occurring in the test described in part (a).
(c) What is observed when a few drops of alkaline KMnO4 solution are added to warm ethanol in a test
tube? Name this type of reaction.
(d) What happens when ethanol is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K? Name the
major product formed.
(e) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the reaction mentioned in part (d)?


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(B) The process of making soap from fats or oils is known as sanctification.
(a) Define saponification.
(b) Name the two primary raw materials needed to prepare soap in a school laboratory.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 7

(c) Explain the purpose of adding common salt (NaCl) to the reaction mixture after the soap is formed.
What is this process called?
(d) Besides soap, what is the other important by-product formed during this process?
(e) How would you confirm that the resulting soap solution is alkaline in nature?

SECTION-C
30. While studying the laws of reflection, a student writes down the following statements:
I. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal all lie in the same plane.
II. The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
III. The laws of reflection are not applicable to spherical mirrors.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. A person standing in a room sees a sharp image of a window on a wall. What optical phenomenon is
responsible for this?
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Diffraction of light
(c) Pin-hole camera effect
(d) Reflection from the window

32. Assertion (A) : The sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset.
Reason (R) : At sunrise and sunset, light from the sun travels a longer path through the atmosphere, and
the longer wavelength red light scatters less.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm which is below in the diagram

A. Find its focal length.

B. Identify the type of mirror that always forms diminished, erect, and virtual images.
C. State one use of this mirror.
Page 8 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

34. Attempt either option A or B

A.

1. Find out the equivalent resistance of the circuit

2. Whai the current flow through this combination ?


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B.

In the above circuit diagram calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.

35. A person can read the number plate of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book. What
type of defect of vision he is suffering from? Name the type of lens he needs to correct this defect. Write the
causes of this defect.

36. An electric heater connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils of 22 Ohms each.
Calculate the current if these coils are used
(a) Separately
(b) In series
(c) In parallel.

37. Draw a figure of current carrying solenoid and show magnetic field lines inside and outside it. Compare the
pattern of the field with the magnetic field around a bar magnet.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 9

38. A concave mirror is often used by barbers and in shaving mirrors to obtain an enlarged image of the face.
When the face is held close to the mirror, the reflected rays converge to form a magnified, erect image.
However, if the face is moved far away, the mirror no longer produces an erect enlarged image but instead
gives a diminished inverted one. This practical application shows how the nature of the image depends on
the distance of the object from the pole of the mirror. The diagram represents the situation when the object
is placed between the pole and the focus of the mirror.

A. Which type of mirror is used as a shaving mirror and why?

B. What kind of image (real or virtual, erect or inverted, magnified or diminished) is seen when the face is
kept very close to the mirror?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A concave mirror has focal length 15 cm. If the face is placed 10 cm from the mirror, calculate the image
distance.


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D. For the above situation, calculate the magnification and state the size of the image compared to the
object.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. What is meant by magnetic force ? Name and explain the rule to determine the direction of force
experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How does this force gets affected on :
(i) doubling the magnitude of current.
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow and
(iii) reversing the direction of magnetic field?


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B. Two electric lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel. Calculate the total
electric current in the circuit.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 1

Sample Paper 05
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Stomata, the tiny pores on the surface of leaves, are crucial for a plant’s survival. What is the specific
function of the guard cells that surround each stoma?
(a) To manufacture chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
(b) To regulate the opening and closing of the stomatal pore.
(c) To absorb water directly from the atmosphere.
(d) To provide physical strength to the leaf structure.

2. The human nervous system is a complex network responsible for coordination and control. It is primarily
divided into which two major parts?
(a) The Sensory System and the Motor System
(b) The Brain and the Spinal Cord
(c) The Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
(d) The Voluntary System and the Involuntary System

3. The human female menstrual cycle is a series of natural changes that occurs approximately every 28 days.
What is the term for the event where a mature egg is released from the ovary?
(a) Menstruation (b) Fertilization
(c) Implantation (d) Ovulation

4. Fossils provide a window into the past. What is the primary way in which the fossil record supports the
theory of evolution?
(a) It proves that all organisms from the past are identical to modern organisms.
(b) It shows a chronological sequence of how life forms have changed and diversified over time.
(c) It demonstrates that all species appeared on Earth at the exact same time.
(d) It contains the complete genetic information of all extinct species.

5. In a simple aquatic food chain where algae are eaten by small fish, which are then eaten by a large bird,
which organism occupies the trophic level of a producer?
(a) Algae (b) Small fish
(c) Large bird (d) Water

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Page 2 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about reproduction in flowering plants:

(i) Pollination is the process of transferring pollen from an anther to a stigma.
(ii) Cross-pollination involves the transfer of pollen between flowers of two different plants.
(iii) Fertilization is the fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete.
(iv) After fertilization, the ovule develops into the fruit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. The circulatory system contains different types of blood vessels. Which of the following is a correct distinction
between arteries and veins?
(a) Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood, while veins always carry oxygenated blood.
(b) Arteries have thin, non-elastic walls, while veins have thick, elastic walls.
(c) Arteries carry blood away from the heart, while veins carry blood towards the heart.
(d) Arteries are wide-lumened and have valves, while veins are narrow-lumened and do not.

8. Assertion (A) : In a pea plant heterozygous for height (Tt), the plant appears tall.
Reason (R) : An allele is called dominant if it expresses its trait even in the presence of an alternative allele.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The length and complexity of food chains in an ecosystem are generally limited.
Reason (R) : According to the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level
to the next.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The stomach produces highly corrosive hydrochloric acid, yet its own wall is not digested. Give a biological
reason for this.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is meant by ‘double circulation’ in the human heart? State one reason why it is a more efficient
system of circulation.


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B. Explain the mechanism by which guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pores.

12. In a food chain consisting of Grass ® Deer ® Lion, 20,000 J of energy was available to the grass. How much
energy would be available to the deer? State the law that governs the transfer of energy in a food chain.

13. What is geotropism? Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a potted plant placed horizontally to illustrate the
response of its shoot and root to gravity.

14. Differentiate between inherited traits and acquired traits by giving two key differences. State which of the
two can be passed on to the next generation and why.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 3

15. Observe the given sectional view of the human heart and the questions that follow.

A. What is the function of the muscular wall called the septum that divides the heart?


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B. What is the role of valves in the heart? What would happen if they did not function correctly?
C. Trace the path of oxygenated blood starting from the lungs and ending at the body tissues.

16. Attempt either sub part A or B

A. (i) Define vegetative propagation and list two natural methods of this type of reproduction in plants.
(ii) State two advantages of using vegetative propagation for growing certain types of plants.
(iii) Can plants like rose and jasmine grown by this method produce fruits and seeds? Give a reason.


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B. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
(ii) What is the composition of semen?
(iii) State the function of the vas deferens.

SECTION-B
17. For the reaction of iron with steam, what are the correct values for the stoichiometric coefficients ‘p’ and
‘q’ ?
Equation :
Heat
pFe (s) + qH 2 O (g) Fe 3 O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 4 (b) p = 3, q = 1
(c) p = 3, q = 4 (d) p = 2, q = 4

18. Some hydrated salts, like washing soda (Na 2 CO 3 $ 10H 2 O ), lose their water of crystallisation when exposed
to open air. This property is known as:
(a) Deliquescence (b) Efflorescence
(c) Corrosion (d) Hydration

19. Which of the following non-metals is known to be lustrous, a property typically characteristic of metals?
(a) Sulphur (b) Phosphorus
(c) Bromine (d) Iodine

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Page 4 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

20. A farmer finds her soil to be too acidic (low pH). She decides to treat the soil with slaked lime (Ca(OH)2).
What will be the effect of this action on the soil’s pH?
(a) The pH will decrease further. (b) The pH will remain unchanged.
(c) The pH will increase. (d) The soil will become water-logged.

21. An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) is tested with litmus paper. The expected observation
is that:
(a) Blue litmus turns red. (b) Red litmus turns blue.
(c) There is no change in either litmus paper. (d) Both litmus papers are bleached.

22. When an active metal like zinc reacts with a dilute strong acid like HCl, the gas produced is:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen
(c) Chlorine (d) Hydrogen

23. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a sodium sulphide solution, a gas with the smell of rotten eggs is
evolved. This reaction is an example of:
(a) Combination (b) Decomposition
(c) Displacement (d) Double displacement

24. Assertion (A) : An aqueous solution of ethene (C2H4) will decolorize bromine water.
Reason (R) : Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon and readily undergoes an addition reaction with
bromine.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the physical states of elements:

(a) Name the only metal that is known to exist as a liquid at standard room temperature (25°C).
(b) Name the only non-metal that is known to exist as a liquid at standard room temperature (25°C).

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The method used to extract a metal from its ore is primarily determined by its position in the reactivity
series.
(i) Describe the general process used to extract metals of low reactivity (e.g., Mercury) from their
sulphide ores.
(ii) Which single process is employed to extract highly reactive metals like Sodium, Calcium, and
Aluminium?
(iii) Name the chemical substance most commonly used as a reducing agent for extracting moderately
reactive metals like Zinc and Iron.


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(B) Electrolytic refining is a widely used method for obtaining metals of very high purity. Consider the
electrolytic refining of copper.
(i) What materials are chosen for the anode and the cathode in this process?
(ii) Name a suitable electrolyte that should be used.
(iii) During the process, impurities settle down below the anode. What is this layer of impurities called?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 5

27. In a laboratory activity, a student takes a small amount of green-coloured ferrous sulphate heptahydrate (
FeSO 4 $ 7H 2 O ) crystals in a dry boiling tube and heats it over a flame.

(a) What is the first observable change in the colour of the crystals? What does this change indicate?
(b) Upon stronger heating, which two gases are evolved? Describe the characteristic smell of one of these
gases.
(c) What is the colour and chemical name of the solid compound left behind in the boiling tube after strong
heating?

28. Industrial pollution releases gases like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide. These dissolve in atmospheric
water droplets to form acid rain, which has harmful effects on the environment, including historical
monuments like the Taj Mahal, which is made of marble.
(a) Name the two main acids present in acid rain.
(b) What is the chemical name of marble? Explain with a reason why it is susceptible to damage from acid
rain.
(c) Briefly explain how acid rain can harm aquatic ecosystems.


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A farmer finds that due to continuous use of certain fertilizers, the soil in his field has become basic (pH
8.5), which is unsuitable for the crop he wants to grow.
(a) To improve the soil quality, should he add a substance that is acidic or basic in nature?
(b) Suggest a common organic substance that can be added to the soil to remedy this situation. Explain
how it works.
(c) Why is it important for farmers to maintain the soil at an optimal pH?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Alkanes, Alkenes, and Alkynes are the three main classes of aliphatic hydrocarbons.
(a) What is meant by a homologous series? List any two characteristics of the members of such a series.
(b) Write the general formula for alkanes and alkynes.
(c) To which homologous series does the hydrocarbon with the formula C4H8 belong? Draw the structure
of one of its isomers.
(d) Explain why alkanes generally burn with a clean flame while alkenes and alkynes burn with a sooty
flame.


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(B) Ethanol (C2H5OH) is a very useful industrial chemical.
(a) What is denatured alcohol, and what is its main purpose?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between ethanol and sodium metal.
(c) Ethanol is sometimes used as an additive in petrol. What is this mixture of petrol and ethanol
called?
Page 6 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

(d) Describe the chemical principle behind the breathalyzer test used by police to detect drunk driving,
which involves the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the ethanol molecule.

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the power of a lens:
I. The power of a lens is a measure of its degree of convergence or divergence.
II. A lens with a short focal length has a low power.
III. The S.I. unit of power of a lens is the dioptre (D).
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 30° with the normal. What is the angle between the
reflected ray and the plane mirror?
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 90° (d) 120°

32. Assertion (A) : A person with hypermetropia cannot see nearby objects clearly.
Reason (R) : The eyeball is too long and the focal length of the eye lens is too short.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror as shown in the figure of focal length 18 cm.

A. Find the position of the image using the mirror formula.

B. Calculate the magnification produced.
C. State the nature of the image.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 6 Ω respectively are connected to a battery of 6 V so as to have :
(a) Maximum resistance,
(b) Maximum current.
(i) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(ii) Calculate the strength of the current in the circuit in both cases.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 7

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B. Calculate the equivalent resistance from the following combination of resistors.

35. (a) State two main causes of developing far-sightedness.

(b) How can this defect of vision be corrected ?

36. Study the following circuit and answer the following questions :
(a) State the type of combination of the two resistors in the circuit.
(b) How much current is flowing through :
(i) 10 Ω and through,
(ii) 15 Ω resistors.
(c) What is the ammeter reading ?

37. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(a) Why do the iron filings arrange in such a pattern?

(b) What does this pattern demonstrate ?
(c) Why do the iron filings near the bar magnet seem to align in the shape of closed curves ?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

38. A glass slab is a rectangular block of glass with parallel opposite faces. When a ray of light enters the slab
from air, it bends towards the normal because it passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium. On
emerging from the slab back into air, the ray bends away from the normal. Although the incident ray and
the emergent ray are parallel to each other, they are shifted sideways by a certain distance called lateral
displacement. This phenomenon is a simple demonstration of refraction of light through a transparent
medium with parallel boundaries.

A. What causes the bending of light when it enters from air to glass?
B. State the relationship between the incident ray and the emergent ray in a glass slab.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A ray of light enters a glass slab at an angle of incidence of 30° and is refracted at 20°. Using Snell’s
law, calculate the refractive index of glass with respect to air.


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D. Explain why the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but not in the same straight line.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) Suppose your parents have constructed a two room house and you want that in the living room
there should be a provision of one electric bulb, one electric fan, a refrigerator and a plug point for
appliances of power up to 2 kW. Draw a circuit diagram showing electric fuse and earthing as safety
devices.
(ii) The given magnet is divided into three parts A, B and C.

A B C

Name the parts where the strength of magnetic field is:

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
How will the density of magnetic field lines differ at these parts?


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B. (i) What is the meaning of electric power of an electrical device? Write its S.I. unit.
(ii) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2h. Calculate the energy consumed in (a) kilowatt hour and
(b) joules.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 1

Sample Paper 06
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the human circulatory system, besides blood, there is another fluid called lymph. What is a key function
of lymph?
(a) To transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
(b) To carry digested fats and return fluid from tissues to the blood.
(c) To produce hormones for the endocrine system.
(d) To initiate the process of blood clotting at a wound.

2. Plants respond to environmental stimuli like gravity. The downward growth of roots and the upward growth
of the shoot are known respectively as:
(a) Positive phototropism and negative phototropism
(b) Positive geotropism and negative geotropism
(c) Negative geotropism and positive geotropism
(d) Thigmotropism and hydrotropism

3. The onset of puberty in human females is marked by the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for these changes?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Insulin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Oestrogen

4. The process by which characteristics or traits are passed on from parents to their offspring through genes
is known as:
(a) Heredity
(b) Variation
(c) Evolution
(d) Adaptation

5. In a typical food chain, organisms are grouped into different trophic levels. The third trophic level is always
occupied by:
(a) Producers (b) Herbivores
(c) Carnivores (d) Decomposers

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Page 2 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements describing the events of photosynthesis:

(i) The process is initiated by the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll molecules.
(ii) Light energy is converted into chemical energy.
(iii) Water molecules are split into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iv) Carbon dioxide is reduced by hydrogen to form proteins as the final product.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) All are correct.

7. The cerebrum is the largest and most prominent part of the human brain. What is its primary function?
(a) To control posture and balance.
(b) To regulate involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing.
(c) To act as a relay center for sensory information.
(d) To be the center for intelligence, memory, and voluntary actions.

8. Assertion (A) : Cross-pollination leads to greater genetic variation in the offspring.

Reason (R) : Pollen grains are transferred between flowers of genetically different plants during cross-
pollination.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R) : The villi decrease the internal surface area for the absorption of food.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Despite being a single-celled organism without a dedicated mouth or digestive system, Amoeba exhibits a
holozoic mode of nutrition. Justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between breathing and respiration on the basis of
(i) energy release and
(ii) the nature of the process (physical/biochemical).


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B. What is transpiration? List any two external factors that can increase the rate of transpiration in plants.

12. What is ozone, and how is it formed in the stratosphere? Explain why the depletion of the ozone layer is a
major environmental concern.

13. What is a feedback mechanism in the endocrine system? Using the example of blood sugar regulation,
explain how this mechanism controls the secretion of insulin.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 3

14. A pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) was crossed with a plant having wrinkled green seeds (rryy).
(i) Write the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation plants.
(ii) If the F1 plants are allowed to self-pollinate, list the four different types of gametes that would be
produced.
(iii) What is this type of cross known as?

15. The diagram provided shows the structure of a nephron. the questions based on it.

A. Identify the part labelled as ‘glomerulus’ and ‘Bowman’s capsule’. What is the primary function
occurring in this region?
B. What is selective reabsorption? Name two substances that are almost completely reabsorbed from the
initial filtrate.
C. A person is suffering from complete kidney failure. Name the life-support procedure they would need to
undergo regularly and briefly state its principle.

16. A. (i) Define fertilization. Differentiate it from pollination.

(ii) What is double fertilization in flowering plants?
(iii) After fertilization, which part of the flower develops into the (a) seed and (b) fruit?


O
B. (i) What is the placenta? Describe its structure.
(ii) List any three functions of the placenta during the development of the embryo.
(iii) What is the gestation period in humans?

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Page 4 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-B
17. For the Haber’s process shown, identify the correct values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ and the substance that acts as the
reducing agent.
Equation: pN 2 (g) + qH 2 (g) ? 2NH 3 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 3; Reducing agent is N2
(b) p = 1, q = 3; Reducing agent is H2
(c) p = 1, q = 2; Reducing agent is N2
(d) p = 3, q = 1; Reducing agent is H2

18. Which of the following common chemical compounds does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue Vitriol (CuSO 4 $ 5H 2 O ) (b) Gypsum (CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O )
(c) Washing Soda (Na 2 CO 3 $ 10H 2 O ) (d) Baking Soda (NaHCO3)

19. Although non-metals are typically poor conductors of electricity, one of its forms is an exception and is used
to make electrodes. Identify this exception.
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Sulphur (d) Phosphorus

20. A person stung by an ant feels a sharp, burning pain. This is due to the injection of methanoic acid.
Applying a solution of baking soda gives relief because:
(a) it is a strong acid that overpowers the methanoic acid.
(b) it is a mild base that neutralizes the methanoic acid.
(c) it is a neutral salt that washes away the acid.
(d) it has a cooling effect on the skin.

21. Four solutions labelled A, B, C, and D have pH values of 4, 6, 8, and 10, respectively. Which solution
contains the highest concentration of hydrogen ions (H+)?
(a) Solution A (b) Solution B
(c) Solution C (d) Solution D

22. Based on the reactivity series of metals, which one of the following reactions will not occur?
(a) Zn (s) + CuSO 4 (aq) " ZnSO 4 (aq) + Cu (s) (b) Fe (s) + ZnSO 4 (aq) " FeSO 4 (aq) + Zn (s)
(c) Mg (s) + FeSO 4 (aq) " MgSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s) (d) Zn (s) + FeSO 4 (aq) " ZnSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s)

23. When a fresh apple is cut, the exposed surface turns brown after some time. This is a type of:
(a) physical change. (b) neutralization reaction.
(c) anaerobic respiration. (d) oxidation reaction.

24. Assertion (A) : Butan-1-ol and Butan-2-ol exhibit similar chemical properties.
Reason (R) : They belong to the same homologous series of alcohols and possess the same functional group
(–OH).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.