14-07-2024

2404CMD303005240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Find distance between two points A(1, 2, 5) and B (3, 4, 6).

(1)
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 9

2) If y = x3 + 3x2 + 2 then find .

(1) 3x2 + 3x + 1
(2) 3x2 + 6x
(3) 3x2 + 6x + 2
(4) 3x + 6x2

3) Find value of .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 45

4) at x = 4, the slope is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

5) Value of sin 3° = ?
(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

6) If be three vectors such that and , find the angle

between .

(1) 37°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

7) If x = –5y2 then x-y graph for the given relation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Find sum of 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + ......... upto 20 terms

(1) 410
(2) 1640
(3) 500
(4) 820

9) is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) Slope of the line, shown in figure, is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is best representation of y = – x ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The slope of graph in figure at point A,B and C is mA, mB and mC respectively, then :

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA < mB < mC
(3) mA = mB = mC
(4) mA = mB < mC

14) Two forces of 5N and 7N act on a particle with an angle of 60o between them. Then the resultant
force is

(1) 12N
(2) 11N
(3) 10.4N
(4) 9N

15) The value of integral :

(1) 0
(2) –1
(3) 1
(4) None

16) y = x3 cosx ; then =

(1) 3x2 cosx + x2sinx

(2) 3x2cosx – x3sinx
(3) 3x2cosx + x3sinx
(4) None of these

17) Graph of equation 2x2 + = 200 is :

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Circle
(4) Ellipse

18) Area of shaded part of circle is–

(1) πR2

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Find the sum of given arithmetic progression 4 + 8 + 12 + ..... + 64.

(1) 464
(2) 540
(3) 544
(4) 646

20) Value of is: -

(1) 60
(2) 40
(3) 20
(4) 0

21) If y = sin2 x find the value of

(1) –2 sin x cos x

(2) 2 cos x sin x
(3) 0
(4) None of these

22) Calculate slope of shown line :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

23) The minimum number of vectors of equal magnitude required to produce a zero resultant is:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) more than 4

24) The co-ordinates of a particle moving in x-y plane vary with time as x = 5t2 and y = 10 t. The
locus of the particle is :-

(1) Parabola
(2) Circle
(3) Straight line
(4) Ellipse

25) Approximate value of sin 2° is:

(1) 0
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

26) Find derivative of

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None

27) For the figure :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Value of (log 2 + log 5) will be :

(1) log 2

(2)

(3)

(4) log 10

29) For given graph of straight line, which is correct

(1) slope angle (θ) is 30º

(2)
slope m is
(3) c = –5
(4) All the above

30) From the following figure, the correct relation is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

31) The value of log1015 is (Given log1010 = 1, log102 = 0.3, log103 = 0.47)

(1) 0.47
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.17
(4) 1.77

32) 780° = ....?... radian

(1)

(2) 4π

(3)

(4)

33)
Distance of point P from x-axis is

(1) 30 m
(2) 24 m
(3) 18 m
(4) 16 m

34) Value of sin 74° is :​​

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Find the area under the shaded region for curve y = 3x2 :-

(1) 80
(2) 26
(3) 20
(4) 40

SECTION - B

1) Figure shows three vectors and , where R is the midpoint of PQ. Then which of the following

relations is correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) If y = – 2 cosx then graph between y and x is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A vector of magnitude 20 is added to a vector of magnitude 25. The magnitude of sum might be :

(1) Zero
(2) 3
(3) 12
(4) 47

4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Given that and . What is the angle between and if = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

The equation of straight line shown in figure is

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

7) Let is the resultant of . On reversing the vector , the resultant becomes . Then
evaluate .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If then graph between x & y :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) Two equal forces (P each) act at a point inclined to each other at an angle of 120°. The magnitude
of their resultant is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) P
(4) 2P

10) If y = 4x2 + 2x then graph between and x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If three vectors A, B and C are 12, 5 and 13 in magnitude such that , then the angle
between A and B is
(1) 60°
(2) 90°
(3) 120°
(4) None

12)

cos 75°

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two vectors are arranged in such a way that they form adjacent sides of a parallelogram
as shown in figure. Which of the following options have incorrect relationship :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Vector sum of two forces of 10 N & 5 N can be:

(1) 4 N
(2) 18 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 2 N

15) Given: also, the magnitude of are 7, 24 & 25 units respectively. The
angle between is

(1) 0o

(2)

(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11M and 2N electrons. the number of p-electron in the
atom are

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 6

2) What is the ratio of the De-Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and
50 volts:-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3

3) Let mass of electron is half, mass of proton is two times and mass of neutron is three fourth of
original. Then find out new atomic weight of C12 atom

(1) increase by 12.5%

(2) decrease by 25%
(3) increase by 37.5%
(4) decrease by 37.5%

4) Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by :-

(At. no.), Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)

(1) Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

5) What is the potential energy of an electron present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion ?

(1) –3.4 eV
(2) –6.8 eV
(3) –13.6 eV
(4) –27.2 eV
6)

Electronic configuration

has violated :-

(1) Hund’s rule

(2) Pauli’s principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) rule

7) The isonisation energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 ev. The energy of the ground level in doubly
ionized lithium is

(1) -28.7 ev
(2) -54.4 ev
(3) -122.4 ev
(4) -13.6 ev

8) Which of the following orbital does not exist ?

(1) 3d
(2) 3f
(3) 5p
(4) 7s

9) Which of the following configuration follows the hund's rule :-

(1)
[He]

(2)
[He]

(3)
[He]

(4)
[He]

10) Which of the following electron transitions in a hydrogen atom will require largest amount of
energy ?

(1) n = 1 to n = 2
(2) n = 2 to n = 5
(3) n = 3 to n = 7
(4) n = 3 to n = 1
11) The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 m per second
is approximately :-

(1) 10–16 m
(2) 10–25 m
(3) 10–33 m
(4) 10–31 m

12) The radius of the first Bohr orbit of H atom is r. Then the radius of the first orbit of Li2+ will be:-

(1) r/9
(2) r/3
(3) 3r
(4) 9r

13) In how many elements the last electron will have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3
and l = 1 ?

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10

14) If no. of protons in X–2 is 16. then no. of e– in X+2 will be–

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) None

15) The energies E1 & E2 of two radiations are 75 eV and 150 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelength ie λ1 and λ2 are :-

(1) λ1 = 2λ2

(2)
λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = λ2
(4) λ1 = 4λ2

16) Which of the following pair is Isodiaphers :-

(1) a
(2)
(3)
(4)
17) Average atomic weight of an element M is 51.7. If two isotopes of M, M50 and M52 are present
then calculate the percentage of occurance of M50 in nature.

(1) 25%
(2) 85%
(3) 10%
(4) 15%

18) Specific charge of cathode rays depends on :-

(1) Cathode
(2) Anode
(3) Gas
(4) None of these

19) If the velocity of e– in 1st shell of H atom is x, then velocity in 2nd shell of H is :-

(1)

(2) 2x
(3) x

(4)

20) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers ?
n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In X3– number of electrons are 18, and its atomic mass is 31. Then number of neutrons present in
X will be :-

(1) 18
(2) 21
(3) 16
(4) 13

22) N2 and CO are an example of :-

(1) Isotopes
(2) Isotones
(3) Isosters
(4) Isodiaphers
23)

The energy of an electron in the first orbit in hydrogen atom is –313.6/n2 kcal mol–1. The energy of
the electron in 3rd orbit is given by the relation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) How many lines in the spectrum will be observed when electrons return from 7th shell to 2nd
shell ?

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

25) An isotone of is:-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Only (i) & (ii)

(2) Only (ii) & (iii)
(3) Only (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

26)

In the Bohr's orbit, what is the ratio of the total kinetic energy and the total energy of the electron ?

(1) –1
(2) –2
(3) +1
(4) +2

27)

The principal quantum number of an atom is related to the :-

(1) size of the orbital

(2) spin angular momentum
(3) orientation of the orbital
(4) orbital angular momentum
28)

Which of the following set of quantum numbers represent the highest energy of an atom :-

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = + 1/2
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = + 1/2
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2

29) In Rutherford's scattering experiment, which of the following does not happen ?

(1) Most of the α-rays pass through without deflection

(2) A few α-particles pass through the nucleus
(3) A few α-particles are deflected back
(4) α-particles going near the nucleus are slightly deflected.

30) Which is the correct outermost shell configuration of chromium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species ?

(1) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+

(2) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+
(3) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, Ca2+
(4) N3–, O2–, F–, S2–

32) In context of Millikan’s oil drop experiment, an oil drop has a negative charge of magnitude of
8.01 × 10-19 C. How many electrons does this oil drop has?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

33)

The shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum of Lyman series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is

(1) 1002.7 Å
(2) 1215.67 Å
(3) 1127.30 Å
(4) 911.7 Å

34)

The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s orbital is:

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible :

n ℓ m s

(1) 2 2 1 +1/2

(2) 4 3 –2 –1/2

(3) 1 0 –1 –1/2

(4) 3 2 3 +1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital?

(1)
n = 4, =3, m = +4, s =

(2)
n = 4, =4, m = –4, s =

(3)
n = 4, =3, m = +1, s =

(4)
n = 3, =2, m = –2, s =

2) The following quantum no. are possible for how many orbitals n = 3, = 2, m = +2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) If n + = 6, then total possible number of subshells would be :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

4) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function ψ320 :-

(1) 3dxy
(2) 3dxz
2
(3) 3dz
(4) 3dyz

5) Find out the radius of first excited state of H-atom

(1) 0.529 A°
(2) 2.12 A°
(3) 0.529 × 2A°
(4) 8.21 A°

6) Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible?

(1) n = 3, = 3, m = –1, s = –1/2

(2) n = 2, = 1, m = 0, s = 1/2
(3) n = 3, = 2, m = 0, s = 1/2
(4) n = 7, = 1, m = 1, s = –1/2

7) Which Transition in H-atom gives visible radiation ?

(1) 5 → 3
(2) 6 → 1
(3) 3 → 2
(4) 6 → 5

8) Rutherford's particle experiment proved that atom has

(1) Electron
(2) Neutron
(3) Nucleus
(4) Orbitals

9) Bohr's atomic model can explain the spectrum of

(1) Hydrogen atoms only
(2) Atoms or ions which are unielectron
(3) Atom or ions which have only two electrons
(4) Hydrogen molecule

10) When an electron jumps from K to L shell:

(1) Energy is absorbed

(2) Energy is released
(3) Energy remains constant
(4) Can't determined

11)

The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer series for hydrogen atom will be :-

(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 1.89 eV
(3) 2.55 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

12)

The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by:-

(1) Pauli's exclusion principle

(2) Hund's rule
(3) Aufbau's principle
(4) Uncertainty principle

13) The atoms and are -

(1) isotopes
(2) isobars
(3) isotones
(4) isoelectronic

14) In hydrogen spectrum, the series of lines appearing in ultraviolet region of eletromagnetic
spectrum are called _____.

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Pfund series
(4) Brackett series

15) "No two electrons in the same atom can have identical set of four quantum numbers". This
statement is known as_____.

(1) Pauli's exclusion principle

(2) Hund's rule
(3) Aufbau rule
(4) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) An organelle which is surrounded by double membrane structure, contain small circular DNA
molecule & ribosome and also having the site for oxidative phosphorylation/ATP synthesis:

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Centriole
(3) Mesosome
(4) Mitochondria

2)

The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, depending on :-

(1) Size of cells

(2) Shape of cells
(3) Physiological activity of cells
(4) Type of genes Present in mt DNA

3)

Match the column -I with column-II :-

(1) i → c; ii → d; iii → a; iv → b
(2) i → d; ii → c; iii→b; iv → a
(3) i → c; ii → a; iii → d; iv → b
(4) i → d; ii → b; iii → c; iv → a

4)

Find out the incorrect pair:-

(1) Starch - Amyloplasts

(2) Fat - Elaioplast
(3) Protein - Aleuro plast
(4) Oil - Amyloplast

5) Which is not the function of cell wall :-

I Provides shape to the cell

Protect the cell from

II mechanical damage and
infection.

Help in the cell to cell

III
interaction.

Provides barrier to
IV
undersirable macromolecules

V ATP formation
(1) only III
(2) only IV
(3) only II, III and IV
(4) only V

6)

The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sac in the
chloroplasts are known as

(1) Stroma
(2) Cristae
(3) Grana
(4) Stroma lamellae

7)

Read the following functions (A-D) and answer as asked next to them
A = Lipid synthesis
B = Protein synthesis
C = Nucleic acid synthesis
D = Steroid synthesis
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site for how many of the above function.

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

8)

What is a tonoplast :-

(1) Outer membrane of Mitochondria

(2) Inner membrane of Chloroplast
(3) Membrane boundary of the Vacuole of plant cells
(4) Cell membrane of plant cell

9)

Plastids can be classified into chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts, on the basis of-

(1) Types of food stored

(2) Type of pigments
(3) Structure
(4) Origin

10) Select the wrong match :-

(1) Aleuroplast – Protein storage

(2) Elaioplast – Fat/oil storage
(3) Amyloplast – Starch storage
(4) Etioplast – Chlorophyll storage

11) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

(2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(3) Compartmentalisation are present
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present

12) Chloroplast differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following feature ?

(1) Presence of two layers of membrane

(2) Presence of ribsome
(3) Presence of thylakoids
(4) Presence of double stranded circular DNA

13) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
were formed? ______ modified the cell theory to give it a final shape?
(1) George Palade
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Leeuwenhoek

14) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus Cytoplasm

(4) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Peroxisome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) The main difference between animal and plant cell is :-

(1) Plant cell possess ribosome

(2) Animal cell possess vacuole
(3) Animal cell lack rigid cell wall
(4) Plant cell lack rigid cell wall

16) A plant cell differs from animal cell in the absence of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosomes
(3) ER
(4) Centrioles

17) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following in an ascending order of their size.
Choose the correct option among the following:-
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBC
(iv) Bacteria

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iii, ii, i, iv

18)

Identify the cells given in above diagram:

A = Mesophyll cells, B = White blood cells,

(1)
C = Nerve cell, D = Tracheid
A = Red blood cells, B = Nerve cell,
(2)
C = White blood cells, D = Tracheid
A = Red blood cells, B = White blood cells,
(3)
C = Mesophyll cells, D = Nerve cell
A = White blood cells, B = Tracheid,
(4)
C = Red blood cells, D = Nerve cell

19) Read the following statements (A-D). How many statements are correct. (A) All living organisms
are composed of cells and products of cells.
(B) All cells arise from pre existing cells.
(C) According to Schleiden, all plants are composed of different kinds of cells, which form the tissues
of the plants. (D) According to Schwann animal cells had a thin outer layer which is known as cell
wall.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

20) In eukaryotic cells, which of the following processes occurs in mitochondria ?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Aerobic respiration
(3) Digestion of food
(4) Both photophophorylation and oxidative phosphorylation

21) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Schleiden, a German botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed that all plants
are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a British Zoologist studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a
thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e cellula"
(d) Rudolf virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final
shape.
Options :

(1) Statements (a) and (b) only

(2) Statements (b) and (c) only
(3) Statements (c) and (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d)

22) Identify the A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

A B C D

(1) Centriole Mitochondria Nucleus SER

(2) Golgi apparatus Centriole Nuclear envelope RER

(3) Centriole Mitochondria Nuclear envelope RER

(4) Microtubules Centriole Nucleus Golgi apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which of the following cell organelles is absent in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Lysosome
(3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) All of the above

24) One of the most important function of the plasma membrane is :-

(1) Formation of nuclear membrane
(2) Transport of molecules across it
(3) Export of macromolecules
(4) Detoxification

25) Substance 'A' is neutral hydrophobic solute with low concentration inside the cell than outside.
How might this substance enter into the cell?

(1) By active transport.

(2) By diffusion without membrane protein.
(3) By diffusion through membrane protein.
(4) By facilitated diffusion

26) The best material for the study of structure of cell membrane is –

(1) RBC of human

(2) Liver Cell
(3) Kidney Cell
(4) Muscle Cell

27) Studies of the cell membrane showed that it is composed of lipid, that lipids are :-

(1) arranged in unilayer

(2) arranged in protein bilayer
(3) arranged in bilayer
(4) arranged in glycolipids and glycoproteins

28) Function like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to which nature of
the membrane ?

(1) Selective permeable nature.

(2) Living nature.
(3) Fluid nature.
(4) Stable nature.

29) Facilitated diffusion involves :-

(1) Protein and energy.

(2) Glucose and energy.
(3) Lipid and energy.
(4) Participation of protein not energy.

30) Select the correct statement regarding cell membrane:

(1) Quasifluid nature of lipid enable lateral movement of protein.

(2) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by simple diffusion.
(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
(4) Proteins show flip flop movement very often.

31) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. Identify the
parts labelled A,B,C and D and select the right option about them :-

Options :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Protein Sugar Lipid bilayer Cholesterol

(2) Sugar Protein Lipid bilayer Cholesterol

(3) Sugar Protein Cholesterol Lipid bilayer

(4) Sugar Protein Lipid bilayer Integral protein

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Food converted to energy in :

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Lysosome

33) The photosynthetic pigments in a chloroplast are found in :

(1) Stroma
(2) Outer membrane
(3) Cristae
(4) Thylakoids

34) One of the major component of cell wall of most fungi is :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose

35) Quantasome located in:

(1) Thylakoid membrane

(2) Outer membrane of chloroplast
(3) Thylakoid lumen
(4) Outer membrane of mitochondria

SECTION - B

1)

Which of the following structure is similar in bacteria and plant cell?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Nuclear membrane

2)

Cisternae are found in :

(1) Only mitochondria

(2) Only endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgibodies
(4) Only in golgi bodies

3)

Besides the nucleus, the eukaryotic cell have other membrane bound distinct structures called
organelles.
Which one is odd according to given statement

(1) ER
(2) Golgibody
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

4)

Desmotubules (ER tubules) help in :-

(1) Maintain continuity of cytoplasm of adjacent animal cells

(2) Maintain continuity of cytoplasm of adjacent bacterial cells
(3) Maintain continuity of cytoplasm of adjacent unicellular algae
(4) Maintain continuity of cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells

5)

Select out odd one w.r.t. endomembrane system

(1) ER
(2) Golgibody
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

6)

Major Component of common layer between two plant cell :-

(1) Ca pectate
(2) Mg Pectate
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

7)

Plant Cell and animal cells different in how many given options :-
(A) Cell Wall
(B) Plastids
(C) Large Central Vacuole
(D) Centrosome

(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2
(3) Only 3
(4) All 4

8) ATP synthesis occur in :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Leucoplasts

9) Which of the following is largest isolated single cell?

(1) Nerve cell

(2) Ostrich egg
(3) RBC
(4) Mycoplasma
10) Find out the odd one (with reference to number of membrane) :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Chloroplast
(4) E.R.

11) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Golgi body
(4) Centriole

12) Which of the following is gradually diminished as the cell matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Middle lamella

13) Movement of water across the semi-permeable membrane occurs by :

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Active transport
(4) All of these

14) In eukaryotic cells, why there is a extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm?

(1) Due to the presence of fibres

(2) Due to the presence of so many organelles
(3) Due to the presence of membranous organelles
(4) All of the above

15) Oxysome concerned with synthesis of :-

(1) Vitamin
(2) ADP
(3) DNA
(4) ATP

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A
1) Intercellular material of cartilage is :-

(1) Hard and non-pliable

(2) Hard and pliable but cannot resists compression
(3) Solid and pliable, resists compression
(4) Solid and non-pliable

2)

Fibres in tendons:

(1) Collagen
(2) Elastin
(3) Both collagen & elastin
(4) Reticular

3) Kidney shaped nucleus is found in :-

(1) Lymphocyte
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Macrophage
(4) Mesenchymal cell

4)

Which substance causes vasodilation and inflammation .....

(1) Heparin
(2) Histamine
(3) Seratonin
(4) Mast cell

5)

In all connective tissues, except which of the following, the cells secretes the fibres of collagen or
elastin protein?

(1) bone
(2) cartilage
(3) areolar connective tissue
(4) fluid connective tissue

6) Assertion (A) : Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.
Reasons (R) : The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

7) How many statements are ‘True’ for cartilage?

(A) Pliable matrix
(B) Vascular matrix
(C) Loose connective tissue
(D) Presence of lamella
(E) Bidirectional growth

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

8) Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Three types of cell junctions are found in the epithelium and other tissues.
Statement B: All cells in epithelium are held together without intercellular material.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct.
(4) Only statement B is correct.

9) The isolated glandular cells of the allimentary canal assist in secretion of

(1) Mucus
(2) HCl
(3) Pepsinogen
(4) Saliva

10) The major function of the epithelium lining the moist surface of buccal cavity, is

(1) Forming a diffusion boundary

(2) Assisting in movement of particles or mucus in a specific direction
(3) To provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(4) Absorption and secretion

11)

The epithelium of PCT of nephrons in the kidneys is made up of ______ cells. Select the option that
correctly fills the blank.

(1) Columnar
(2) Flattened
(3) Cube-like
(4) Polygonal
12) Goblet cells are a type of :

(1) Multicellular gland

(2) Unicellular gland
(3) Endocrine gland
(4) Wax gland

13) A tissue having cube like cells and performs absorption and secretion, is :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Simple pseudostratified epithelium

14)

Which of the following is correct.

(1) Bone is hard and non-pliable

(2) Cartilage is non-pliable & solid
(3) Bone is replace by cartilage in embryo.
(4) All correct

15) Match the following:

Column A Column B

Tubular parts of
1. Simple columnar (a)
nephron

2. Simple cuboidal (b) Walls of blood vessels

3. Simple squamous (c) Inner lining of stomach

(1) 1 – (a), 2 – (b), 3 – (c)
(2) 1 – (a), 2 – (c), 3 – (b)
(3) 1 – (c), 2 – (b), 3 – (a)
(4) 1 – (c), 2 – (a), 3 – (b)

16) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

Perform cementing to keep neighbouring

(a) Gap junction (i)
cells together

Facilitate cells to communicate with each

(b) Tight junction (ii) other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions
 Finger like process of plasma membrane
(c) Adhering junction (iii) which enter into the cytoplasm of adjacent
cells

Help to stop substances from leaking

(d) Interdigitation (iv)
across a tissue
Select correct option from the following :–
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

17) Identify the correct match w.r.t cells of connective tissues?

A Fibroblast i Inflammation

B Macrophages ii Tissue phagocytes

C Mast cells iii Stores the fats

D Adipose cells iv Secrete fibres

A B C D

1 iv ii iii i

2 ii iv i iii

3 iv ii i iii

4 iv i ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Choose the odd one with respect to Compound Epithelium

(1) Lining of Stomach

(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Pharynx
(4) Dry surface of skin.

19) Ligaments connects :

(1) Muscle to skin

(2) Bone to bone
(3) Muscle to muscle
(4) Muscle to bone
20) Assertion : Glands originate from all germinal layers.
Reason : All glands are composed of epithelium tissue.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

21) Represented below is the diagrammatic representation of an epithelium :–

How many of the below mentioned features / characteristics are valid for such an epithelium ? (A) It
is multilayered, hence known as compound epithelium. (B) It has maximum role in secretion and
absorption. (C) Its main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(D) It covers the dry surfaces of skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of
ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic duct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

22) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm of
adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules.
(B) Interdigitations are mainly found in transitional epithelium.
(C) Desmosomes mainly functions to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(D) Simple squamous epithelium is found in the walls of blood vessels.
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

23) Identify the following diagrams correctly :-

(1) Compound epithelium
(2) Simple epithelium
(3) Glandular epithelium
(4) Adipose tissue

24) Columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion are called as

(1) Glandular epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

25) Consider the following statements (A) to (C) and select the correct option stating which ones are
TRUE (T) and which ones are FALSE(F).
A. Compound squamous epithelium covers moist surfaces like buccal cavity.
B. Fibroblast store fat in adipose tissue.
C. Urinary bladder is lined by a compound epithelium

(1) A–F; B–T; C–T

(2) A–T; B–F; C–F
(3) A–F; B–T; C–F
(4) A–T; B–F; C–T

26) Largest cell of connective tissue is -

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophage
(3) Mast cell
(4) Adipocycte

27) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

(a) Intercellular material of cartilage is ____(i)____ and ____(ii)____ and resists compression.
(b) Cell are ____(iii)____ and enclosed in cavites. (1-4 in number)
(c) Bones have a ____(iv)____ and ____(v)____ ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres.

(1) (i)-hard, (ii)-osteocytes, (v)-non-pliable

(2) (ii)-pliable, (iii)-chondrocytes, (v)-non-pliable
(3) (i)-solid, (iii)-osteocytes, (iv)-hard
(4) (ii)-non-pliable, (iv)-hard, (iv)-non-pliable

28) C-Shaped cartilaginous rings supporting the trachea are made up of:

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

29) A natural anticoagulant present in mammal is :-

(1) Heparin
(2) Histamine
(3) Hirudin
(4) All

30) Collagen fibres are ___A___ fibres, synthesised by ___B___ cells. Fill the blanks with correct
option

(1) A-Branched, B-Fibroblast

(2) A-Elastic, B-Chondroblast
(3) A-Inelastic, B-Chondrocyte
(4) A-Unbranched, B-Fibroblast

31) How many of the following are examples of simple cuboidal epithelium?
Proximal convoluted tubule, Moist surface of Buccal cavity, Urinary bladder, Stomach,
Lining of follopian tube, Ducts of glands

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

32) Identify the given below figure of animal tissue along with it’s correct location :-

(1) Squamous epithelium - inner walls of blood vessel

(2) Cuboidal epithelium - tubular parts of nephron
(3) Cuboidal epithelium - inner lining of stomach
(4) Squamous epithelium - ducts of glands

33) Ligaments are the examples of :

(1) Dense white fibrous regular

(2) Dense white fibrous irregular
(3) Dense yellow fibrous regular
(4) Dense yellow fibrous irregular

34) Protein present in cartilage is:-

(1) Cartilagin
(2) Chondrin
(3) Ossein
(4) Casein

35) Lack of blood supply and presence of the noncellular basement membrane are the
characteristics of the

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

SECTION - B

1) Which protein is present in largest amount in human body :-

(1) Collagen
(2) Elastin
(3) Albumin
(4) Keratin

2)

Consider the following statements about the connective tissue.

I. Their special function is linking and supporting the other organs tissue of the body.
II. It is the most abundant type of animal tissue.
III. Blood is a specialised connective tissue which contains collagen.
IV. The cells of connective tissue secretes mucous.
Which of the statement given above are incorrect?

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

3) Pick the odd one out :

(1) Sweat gland

(2) Thymus
(3) Gastric gland
(4) Sebaceous gland

4) Choose the correctly matched pair.

(1) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue

(2) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
(3) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(4) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue

5) Some cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium. Choose the correct
statement w.r.t. these cells.

(1) Flattened cells with irregular boundaries

(2) Similar cells are found in the lining of intestine
(3) Characterised by tall and slender cells without nucleus
(4) Similar cells are found in the walls of blood vessels

6) A connective tissue in which loose matrix is present, below the skin, the cells are specialised to
store fat is called

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

7) Cells of cartilage in lacunae are

(1) Chondrocytes
(2) Chondroclast
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Osteoblasts

8) Find the pair which is incorrectly matched :-

(1) Unicellular gland : Goblet cell

(2) Unicellular gland : Paneth cell
(3) Exocrine gland : Salivary gland
(4) Exocrine : Islets of langerhans

9) Haversian canal contain :-

(1) Blood vessels & Nerves

(2) Blood vessels only
(3) Lymphatic only
(4) Connective tissue only

10) The cells present in inner most linings of heart belong to the category-

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Smooth muscle tissue
(4) Squamous epithelium
11) Cells found in air sacs of lungs are involved in functions like :-

(1) Excretion
(2) Secretion
(3) Absorption
(4) Diffusion

12) Gall bladder is lined by :-

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Stratified columnar epithelium
(3) Brush border columnar epithelium
(4) Brush border cuboidal epithelium

13) Which of the following gland do not have duct?

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Mammary gland
(3) Intestinal gland
(4) Adrenal gland

14) Which of the following is the transparent tissue ?

(1) Fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Tendon

15) Identify the diagram given below and select the option which is correct for it.

(1) Orientation of fibres shows an irregular pattern

(2) Matrix secreting cells are not present in it
(3) Present beneath the skin
(4) Present in the structure which attach one bone to another bone
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 4 4 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 2 1 4 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 3 4 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

6)

8)

= 820.

9)

10)

Slope, m = tan θ = tan 120°

⇒ m = –tan 60°
⇒m=

14)

18)

19)
 20)

= Area of graph from x = 0 to x = 6

21)

22) slope =

23)

Allen module.

24)

∵ x = 5t2 and y = 10 t

x=

⇒ x= which is a parabola.

25)

For small θ, sin θ≈θ

So sin 2° =

26)

27)

By triangle law

28)

30)

According to triangle law of vector addition, when two vectors taken in same order represent
two sides of triangle then third side taken in opposite order represents the sum of vectors,
 hence is correct
When vectors arranged in order represents closed polygon then its vector sum is zero.
So, and
or

31)

log1015 = = log1010 + log103 – log102

=1 + 0.47 – 0.3 = 1.17

32)

33)

34)

sin 74° = sin(2 × 37°)

= 2 sin 37° cos 37°

35)

⇒
⇒

38)
 40)

41) Slope = –tan θ = and c = 8,

y = mx + c = x+8
3y + 4x = 24

42)

As it is given,
Hence,

43)

a>b

44)

R = 2a cos

R = 2P cos =P

45)

= 8x + 2

Now if we take as 'y' then it is a form of y = mx + c i.e. straight line with (the slope and the y-
intercept)

46)

C2 = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos θ
(13)2 = (12)2 + (5)2 + 2 . 12 . 5 . cos θ
cos θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90°

47) cos 75 = cos (45 + 30)

= cos45 cos30 – sin45 sin30

48)

49)

[Resultant]maximum = F1 + F2 = 15N
[Resultant]minimum = F1 – F2 = 5N
Resultant 12N is possible.

50)

angle between

CHEMISTRY

69)

V1 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

Here, n = 1; Velocity (V) = x

V1 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

x = 2.18 × 108 Z cm/sec

Now, V2 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

V2 =

Answer ⇒ V2 =

76) T · E = – K · E

80)

Chromium has atomic number 24. The electronic configuration will be 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d5.

81)

Each has 18 electrons

83)

93)

Theory based

94)

Bohr can explain hydrogen-like elements.

95)

After absorbing energy, electron jump from lower energy level to higher energy level.

BOTANY

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

113)
NCERT - Pg. # 126

114)

NCERT XIth Page No. 130

116)

NCERT Pg.# 129

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

119)

NCERT, Pg. # 88

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

121)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87, 88

122)

NCERT XI Pg. # 130

124)

NCERT XI pg.# 132

127) NCERT-XI Pg. # 131 IInd para IIIrd line

128)

Function like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to fluid nature of the
membrane.

129)

Facilitated diffusion involves participation of protein not energy.

130)

NCERT Pg. #131,132

131) NCERT XIth Page No. 131

 144)

NCERT XI, Pg # 1270

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

148)

Module # 1, Pg.# 172

149)

NCERT Pg.#129

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT (XI) Eng, Pg. # 104

166) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

167)

NCERT page-102,103

168)

NCERT page no. 101 ( it has simple columnar cells)

169)

NCERT- Point 7.1.2, Page # 103

171)

NCERT# XI, Pg. No. 102, Fig.-7.3

173) NCERT XI Pg # 102

Fig No : 7.2

177)

(a) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression.
(b) Cells are chondrocytes in cavities (1-4 in number)
(c) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
 184) NCERT Pg. No. 103, 104

196)

NCERT# XI, Pg. No. 101

197) Module