07-06-2026

NEETSRG070626TS0002 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the figure shown, the potential difference between points A and B is :

(1) 10V
(2) 30V
(3) 7.5V
(4) None

2) If the distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled (with battery connected),
the energy stored:

(1) Doubles.
(2) Is halved.
(3) Increases four times.
(4) Remains the same.

3) A capacitor is charged to 200V. It is then disconnected and connected to an identical

uncharged capacitor. The total energy lost as heat and radiation is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

4) Four capacitors of capacitance 10µF and a battery of 200V are arranged as shown. How much

charge will flow through AB after the switch S is closed ?

(1) 4.5 × 10–3 C

(2) 6 × 10–3 C
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 C
(4) 3 × 10–3 C

5) Two plates (area = s) charged to +q1 and + q2 (q2 < q1) are brought closer to form a capacitor of
capacitance C. The potential difference across the plates is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The figure shows a capacitor having three layers of equal thickness and same area as that of
plate. Layer I is vacuum, layer II is conductor and layer III is dielectric of dielectric constant K. The
ratio of energy stored in region III to total energy stored in capacitor is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected with a cell of 'E' e.m.f. When it is fully charged, a
dielectric medium of dielectric constant 'k' is introduced in it find it's final charge if cell is kept
connected with it :-

(1) CE

(2)

(3) kCE

(4)

8) R = 100 kΩ and C = 1μF are connected in a series with a 12 volt battery. What is the maximum
energy stored in the capacitor.

(1) 72 μJ
(2) 6 μJ
(3) 24 μJ
(4) 18 μJ

9) In the network shown in the figure, the equivalent capacitance between points A and B is:

(1)

(2)

(3) 3C
(4) 4C

10) Four plates are located at a distance 'd' apart from one another. The extreme plates are inter
connected. A potential difference of V is applied to inner plates. The electric field E between '1' and

'2' plates is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit–

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 60 V, –40 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

12) Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after switch is closed is:
(1) Zero

(2)

(3) q
(4) 2q

13) A frictionless dielectric plate S is kept on a frictionless table T. A charged parallel plate
capacitance C (of which the plates are frictionless) is kept near it. The plate S is between the plates.

When the plate S is left between the plates :

(1) It will remain stationary on the table

(2) It is pulled by the capacitor and will pass on the other end
(3) It is pulled between the plates and will remain there
(4) All the above statements are false

14) For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4μF capacitor is :-

(1) 30μC
(2) 40μC
(3) 24μC
(4) 54μC

15) A parallel plate capacitor is maintained at a certain potential difference. When a 3mm thick slab
is introduced between the plates in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance
between the plates is increased by 2.4mm. Find the dielectric constant of the slab :-

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

16) A charge of 20µC is placed on the positive plate of an isolated parallel-plate capacitor of
capacitance 10µF then potential developed between the plates :-

(1) 1V
(2) 2V
(3) 3V
(4) 4V

17) An air-filled parallel plate capacitor is to be constructed which can store 12µC of charge when
operated at 1200V. What can be the minimum plate area of the capacitor ? [Dielectric strength of air
= 3×106V/m] :-

(1) 0.38 cm2

(2) 0.30 m2
(3) 0.45 cm2
(4) 0.45 m2

18) Two uncharged capacitors are charged with a battery of E volt. by shifting key from 1 to 2. The

ratio of charges produced on these capacitors will be :–

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

19) The charge on 3µF capacitor shown in the figure is

(1) 2µC
(2) 10µC
(3) 6µC
(4) 8µC

20) Each of the plates shown in figure has surface area A on one side and the separation between
the consecutive plates is d. The emf of the battery connected is E. The magnitude of charge
transferred through the battery is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Three plates of same surface area A are connected as shown. The effective capacitance between

A and B will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A 3µF capacitor is charged as shown in the figure. The percentage of its stored energy

dissipated after the switch S is turned to position 2 is :-

(1) 40%
(2) 70%
(3) 80%
(4) 90%

23) Three initially uncharged capacitor of capacitance C1 = 3µF, C2 = 2µF and C3 = 1µF are
connected to each other between point A, B and D as shown in figure. Potential at point A, B and D

are respectively 10V, 25V and 20 V. Find potential at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) How will the voltage (V) between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor depend on the
distance (d) between the plates, if the charge on the capacitor remains the same ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Figure (a) shows two capacitors connected in series and joined to a battery. The graph in figure
(b) shows the variation in potential as one moves from left to right on the branch containing the
capacitors, if :-

(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2
(4) The information is not sufficient to decide the relation between C1 and C2

26) The equivalent capacitance across A and B in the adjoining circuit is :-

(1)

(2) C

(3)

(4) 2C

27) A parallel plate capacitor have distance between its plate is d and area of each plate is A. Now
half of capacitor is with filled a substance of dielectric constant K according to given figure. The

capacity of the condenser, is :-

(1)
(K + 2)

(2)
(K + 1)

(3)
(K + 1)

(4)
(K + 3)

28)
Find out equivalent capacitance across A & B :

(1) 5C
(2) 6C
(3) 7C
(4) 3C

29) C, V, U and Q are capacitance, potential difference energy stored and charge of parallel plate
capacitor respectively. The quantities that increases when a dielectric slab is introduced between
the plates without disconnecting the battery are :

(1) C, V, Q
(2) C, U, Q
(3) V, U, Q
(4) C, V, U

30) Two spheres of capacity C1 & C2 have some charge they are connected and separated then which
expression will be true for their final charges Q1 & Q2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)

The charge on 1µF capacitor and the total charge flown through battery is respectively :

(1) 4µC, 54µC

(2) 24µC, 54µC
(3) 4µC, 30µC
(4) 24µC, 30µC

32) A positive charge q is given to each plate of a parallel plate air capacitor having plate area A and
plate separation d, then

(1) since both the plates are identically charged, therefore, capacitance becomes equal to zero
energy stored to in the space between the capacitor plate is equal to
(2)

(3) no charge appears on the inner surface of the plates

(4)
potential difference between the plates is equal to

33) If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6μF is increased from 10V to 20V, then increase in
its energy is

(1) 12 × 10–6 J
(2) 9 ×10–4 J
(3) 4.5 ×10–6 J
(4) 2.25 ×10–4 J

34) Four metal plates numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4 are arranged, as shown in figure. The area of each
plate is A and the separation between them is d. The capacitance of the arrangement is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged ton potential V1
and other to V2. If their like- charged plates are then connected together then the decrease in energy
of the combined system is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) A parallel plate capacitor with air as a dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric constant
K having same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one fourth

of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The ratio of potential differences between 1μF and 5μF capacitors is :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 5
(4) 10 : 1

38) If you move across a capacitor from its positive plate to its negative plate, the change in
potential (ΔV) is:

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4) Infinite

39) A 2 μF capacitor stores 400 μJ energy. Find the voltage across capacitor.

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 40 V
40) A fully charged capacitor behaves like:

(1) Short circuit

(2) Open circuit
(3) Battery
(4) Fuse

41) In an RC charging circuit, the time constant is equal to:

(1)

(2) RC

(3)

(4) R + C

42) A capacitor is charging through a resistor. At time t = RC, the charge on capacitor becomes
approximately:

(1) 37% of maximum value

(2) 50% of maximum value
(3) 63% of maximum value
(4) 100% of maximum value

43) The current in an RC charging circuit is maximum at:

(1) t = RC
(2) t = 2RC
(3) t = 0
(4) t = ∞

44) In the circuit shown in figure, applied voltage is 120V and C1 = C2 = 2μF. Then charge stored in

(steady state) -

(1) capacitor C1 is zero

(2) capacitor C2 is zero
(3) both capacitors is zero
(4) capacitor C1 is 50 μC

45) A galvanometer (G) of 2Ω resistance is connected in the given circuit. The current through the
galvanometer in steady state is:

(1) 1 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 2.5 A

CHEMISTRY

1) For the reaction,

H2O2 + 2H+ + 3I– I3– + 2H2O

–
(1) Rate of disappearance of H2O2 will be three times the rate of disappearance of I

(2)
Rate of disappearance of H2O2 is of rate of formation of I3–
– –
(3) Rate of disappearance of I ions will be three times the rate of formation I3 ions

(4)
Rate of formation of H2O is of rate of formation of I3–

2) For the zero order reaction : A → P , K = 10–2 (mol/litre) sec–1 If initial concentration of A is 0.3M
, then find concentration of A left at 10 sec.

(1) 0 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.1 M
(4) 0.15 M

3) The compound A decomposed (A → product) by first order kinetics. If the concentration of A

dropped from 0.1 M to 0.05 M in 30 minutes, find the rate of reaction after 60 minutes, from start, in
M min–1

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Above graph is for a reaction which have only single reactant (R) and
order of reactions depends only on that single reactant then possible order of reaction may be -

(1) First order reaction

(2) 1/2 order reaction
(3) – 2 order reaction
(4) zero order reaction

5) For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction, A → 2B + C then initial pressure was Pi while
total pressure after time 't' was Pt. The right expression for the rate constants k in terms of Pi, Pt and
t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed that :-

(a) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
(b) on doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the
rate of the reaction.
The rate of this reaction is given by :-

(1) rate = k[A][B]

(2) rate = k[A]2[B]
(3) rate = k[A][B]2
(4) rate = k[A]2[B]2

7) A 300 gram radioactive sample at initial half-life is 3 hours. After 18 hours remaining quantity :

(1) 4.68 gram

(2) 2.34 gram
(3) 3.34 gram
(4) 9.37gram

8)
In a gaseous reaction A(g) → P(g), if rate law is r = k(PA)3/2 where unit of pressure is atm., then unit of
rate and k is, respectively :-

(1) atm. × s–1, atm. × s–1

(2) atm. × s–1, atm.1/2 × s–1
(3) atm. × s–1, atm.–1/2 × s–1
(4) atm. × s–1, atm.–1 × s–1

9)

For 1st order reaction find ratio of t99.9% to that of t50%.

(1) 10
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 17

10) In a first order reaction 80% of the reactant at an instant was reduced to 8% in 4606 seconds.
the rate constant of the reaction is :-

(1) 2.303 × 10–4 s–1

(2) 4.606 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 5.000 × 10–3 s–1
(4) 5.000 × 10–4 s–1

11) 2 N2O5 → 4 NO2 + O2 ;

What will be average rate of reaction if (N2O5)t=0 = 10 M
and (N2O5)t=10 sec = 5 M?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In the presence of acid, the initial concentration of cane sugar was reduced from 0.2 M to 0.1 M
in 5 hours and to 0.05 M in 10 hours from start. The reaction must be of :-

(1) Zero order

(2) First order
(3) Third order
(4) Fractional order

13)
A gaseous reaction, A2(g) —→ B(g) + . shows increse in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5
minute. Rate of disappearance of A2 is :-

(1) 40 mm min–1
(2) 16 mm min–1
(3) 8 mm min–1
(4) 4 mm min–1

14) Half-life (t1/2) and completion time (T) of the reaction A 2B are ; if initial
concentration of A is 1 M. :-

(1) 500 min, 1000 min

(2) 500 sec, 750 sec
(3) 500 sec, 1000 sec
(4) None of these

15)

If initially 100 gm of C14 is taken then. Find the amount of Radioactive isotope C14

( = 5730 years) after the storage of 22920 years.

(1) 3.12 gm
(2) 12.5 gm
(3) 6.25 gm
(4) None of these

16) The reaction : A —→ Product, follows first order kinetics and the progress of reaction is depicted
in the figure :

Half life of this reaction is approximately

(1) 10 s
(2) 100 s
(3) 500 s
(4) 1000 s

17) Gadolinium – 153, which is used to detect osteoporosis (porous bones), has a half life of 242
days. Which value is closest to the percentage of Gd– 153 left in a patient's system after 2 years-

(1) 33 %
(2) 26 %
(3) 12.0 %
(4) 6.25 %

18) For a first order reaction A B the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to
be
2.0 × 10–5 mol L–1S–1. The half life period of the reaction is :

(1) 220 sec

(2) 30 sec
(3) 300 sec
(4) 347 sec

19) For the first order reaction , The rate constant is 0.25 S-1, if the concentration of A is
reduced to half, the value of rate constant will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) For the reaction 2A → B + 3C; if ; ; the correct

relation between k1, k2 and k3 is :

(1) k1 = k2 = k3
(2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2

(4)

21) For a gaseous reaction,

A(g) → 2B(g) + 3C(g), k = 2.303 × 10–3 min–1
Starting with A only having pressure 2 atm.
Calculate total pressure after 5 hours.

(1) 4 atm
(2) 5 atm
(3) 6 atm
(4) 10 atm

22) In the reaction, if is what will be the value of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) The rate law for the single step reaction

2A + B → 2C, is given by :

(1) Rate = K[A][B]

(2) Rate = K[A]2[B]
(3) Rate = K[2A][B]
0
(4) Rate = K[A]2[B]

24) Which of the following curves represents a Ist order reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (3)

25) 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9%
completion?

(1) 1.39 hours

(2) 7.14 hours
(3) 11.9 hours
(4) 15.85 hours

26) Assertion (A) :- The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a zero
order reaction at high pressure.
Reason (R) :- For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
27) Assertion : If in a zero order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, then half life
period is also doubled.
Reason : For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

28) Assertion (A) : In an elementary reaction, value of exponents in rate law equal to stoichiometric
coefficients of reactants. Reason (R) : For an elementary reaction, fractional order can be possible.

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

29) Assertion : The order of a reaction can have fractional value.

Reason : The order of a reaction is given by a balanced equation

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If the assertion is false but reason is true

30) Assertion : In a first order reaction, the rate constant becomes double on doubling the initial
concentration of the reactant.
Reason : The rate constant varies directly with the concentration of the reactants in a first order
reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Assertion : Hydrolysis of methyl ethanoate in acidic medium is a pseudo-first-order reaction.

Reason : Water is present in large excess and therefore its concentration remains constant
throughout the reaction.

(1) Both assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

32) Statement-1 : Order and molecularity are always equal for a complex reaction.
Statement-2 : Order is determined experimentally and in general molecularity is the sum of the
stoichiometric coefficient of rate determining elementary step.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Both statements are correct but statement-2 is not correct ecplanation of statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is wrong.
(4) Statement-1 is wrong but statement-2 is correct.

33) Assertion (A) :- Rate can also be expressed as rate of change in partial pressure of the reactant
or the product.
Reason (R) :- For a gaseous reaction at constant temperature, concentration is directly
proportional to the partial pressure of a species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

34) Overall order of the reaction and unit of rate constant for the given rate law is :- r = K[A]3/2 [B]–1

(1)
, mol1/2 L–1/2 s–1

(2)
, mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1

(3)
, mol3/2 L–3/2 s–1

(4)
, mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1

35) Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relationship between the rates at
which NO2 and Cl2 are consumed in the reaction below ? 2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NO2Cl(g)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression r = K[A]2 [B]3. The volume of reaction
vessel is suddenly reduced to one half of the initial volume. The reaction rate relative to the original
rate will be :-

(1)
times
(2)
times
(3) 32 times
(4) 24 times

37) For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g),

–1/2
r = K[SO2] [SO3] which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) The overall order of reaction is +1/2

(2) The reaction slows down as the product SO3 builds up
(3) The order of reaction with respect to SO2 is 1
(4) Unit of rate constant is L/mol-sec

38) For a first order reaction, X → Y + Z, in the beginning of reaction 10g of X were taken, then what
is the amount of X used in reaction after 6 half-lives ?

(1) 1.562 g
(2) 9.844 gm
(3) 0.312 g
(4) 0.156 g

39) Out of the following which is zeroth order reaction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) A first order reaction has a half life period of 69.3 sec. At 0.10 mol lit–1 reactant concentration
rate will be –

(1) 10–4 M sec–1

(2) 10–3 M sec–1
(3) 10–1 M sec–1
(4) 6.93 × 10–1 M sec–1

41) For a first order reaction : t0.75 = 1386 second Its specific rate constant will be

(1) 10–3
(2) 10–2
(3) 10–9
(4) 10–5

42)
For the reaction, 4A+B —→ 2C+2D.
The statement not correct is :-

(1) The rate of disappearance of B is one fourth the rate of disappearance of A

(2) The rate of appearance of C is half the rate of disappearance of B
(3) The rate of formation of D is half the rate of consumption of A
(4) The rates of formation of C and D are equal

43) Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is :-
(a is initial concentration of reactant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ak

44) Which of the following is example of pseudo first order reaction :-

(1) Hydrolysis of ester in acidic medium

(2) Inversion of cane sugar
(3) Decomposition of NH3
(4) Both (1) & (2)

45) Find the ratio of time t1/8 to t15/16 for zero order reaction.

(1) 4 : 15
(2) 2 : 15
(3) 1 : 15
(4) None of these

BOTANY

1) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Two organisms with the same genotype always have different phenotypes.
(2) Two organisms with the same phenotype may have different genotypes.
(3) A heterozygous organism may have the same phenotype as a homozygous organism.
A heterozygous organism has the same number of alleles for a given gene as a homozygous
(4)
organism.

2)

In a Mendelian monohybrid cross what will be percentage of heterozygous offsprings in F3

generation -

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 12.5%

3) Read the following statements carefully :

(i) Genes located on same locus but having different expressions are called polygenes.
(ii) A cross between hybrid and its recessive parent is called test cross.
(iii) Mendel proposed something was being stably passed down unchanged from parents to
offsprings called factors.
(iv) Four types of gametes are produced by individuals of AABbcc genotype.
How many statements are correct from these :

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

4) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :-
(A) The progeny obtained from monohybrid test cross are in equal proportion.
(B) Test cross helps to find out the genotype of recessive individual.
(C) Out cross is a cross in which F1 individuals are crossed with any of their parents.
(D) Phenotypes and genotypes ratio are same in test cross.

(1) All except B are correct

(2) All except D are correct
(3) All except B and C are correct
(4) All except C and D are correct

5) Which of the following is not an example of incomplete dominance ?

(1) Flower colour of Pisum sativum

(2) Flower colour of Snapdragon
(3) Size of starch grain in seeds of pea plant
(4) Flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa

6) To know the genotype of F2 organism showing dominant phenotype, it is crossed with ........... and
such cross is called .........
Correct options for blanks are:

(1) Recessive, test cross

(2) Recessive, reciprocal cross
(3) Heterozygous, test cross
(4) Heterozygous, reciprocal cross
7) How many dominant traits among these were used by Mendel in his experiments ? (i) Round
seeds
(ii) Dwarf plants
(iii) Axial flower
(iv) Large size starch grain
(v) White flowers
(vi) Constricted pods
(vii) Terminal flower
(viii) Violet flowers
(ix) Tall plants

(1) Five
(2) Eight
(3) Three
(4) Four

8) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

9) How many of the following statements are correct about ‘‘Law of Dominance :-
(A) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
(B) Factor occurs in pairs.
(C) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive)
(D) The law of Dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in
a monohybrid cross in the F1 and the expression of both in F2. (E) It doesn't explain the proportion of
3:1 obtained at the F2.

(1) Only two statements are correct

(2) Only one statement is correct
(3) Four statements are correct
(4) All five statements are correct

10) In which of the following condition phenotype may not be affected ?

(1) When modified allele produce a normal enzyme.

(2) When modified allele produces a non-functional enzyme.
(3) When the unmodified allele produces no enzyme.
(4) All the above

11) Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long time due to :-

I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problem was unacceptable
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existance of factors.
Choose the right combinations

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

12) Total zygotic combination in the following cross will be ?

AaBbCc × AabbCC

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

13) Mendel's principle of segregation means that gametes always receive :-

(1) One pair of alleles

(2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles
(4) Any pair of alleles

14) In Ist experiment, a cross was made between two plants A and B, in which A plant was gone
through emasculation. Phenotypic result of F2 generation was 3 : 1. In 2nd experiment B plant was
gone through emasculation. Result of 2nd experiment should be (with respect to Mendelian traits) :-

(1) Same phenotypic ratio 3 : 1

(2) Changed phenotypic ratio 1 : 1
(3) Changed phenotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1
(4) Changed genotypic ratio 3 : 1

15) Genes are :-

(1) Transmitted through gametes

(2) Segment of DNA that can form RNA
(3) Responsible for appearance of characters
(4) All of these

16) The modified allele :-

(1) Never expresses itself

(2) May form functional or non functional enzyme
(3) Mostly shows dominance over unmodified allele
(4) Is present at a locus different from the locus of unmodified allele

17) Multiple alleles can be found only when :-

(1) Population studies are made
(2) Individual study is made
(3) Mutation is absent
(4) Dominance is present

18) Which of the following is true for progenies of F4 generation of monohybrid cross ?

(1) 50 % Pure and 50 % Hybrid

(2) 75 % Pure and 25 % Hybrid
(3) 87.5 % Pure and 12.5 % Hybrid
(4) 12.5 % Pure and 87.5 % Hybrid

19) In case of incomplete dominance :-

(1) Genotypic ratio of F2 generation is exactly like Mendelian monohybrid cross.

(2) Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation is not 3 : 1
(3) Genotypic ratio of F2 generation is 1 : 2 : 1
(4) All the above

20)

Read the following statements with respect to back cross ?

(A) It is the cross of F1 individual with either one of the two parents
(B) Phenotypic & genotypic ratio is always same
(C) It includes both test cross and out cross
(D) It was performed by Mendel in his breeding experiment
How many statements are correct

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

21) Assertion : The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower is an example of incomplete
dominance.
Reason : In dog flower R is not completely dominant over r and this made it possible to distinguish
Rr as pink from RR(red) and rr(white).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Assertion (A) : AB blood group is example of co-dominance.

Reason (R) : IA & IB when present together, they both express their own type of sugar.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Assertion : A total of six different genotypes of the human ABO blood types are possible.
Reason : Gene-I for human ABO blood group has 3 alleles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Given below are a pair of homologous chromosomes :- How many loci are
in heterozygous condition ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 10

25) "Like begets like" an important and universal phenomenon of life, is due to :-

(1) Eugenics
(2) Inheritance
(3) dominance
(4) Crossing-over

26) Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. blood grouping.

Phenotype Genotype Possible cross

(1) AB IAIB A×B

(2) A IAIO A×AB

(3) B IBIB A×AB

(4) O IOIO A×A

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which character was not choosen by Mendel for his experiments ?

(1) Stem height

(2) Seed shape
(3) Pod colour
(4) Seed coat colour

28) Assertion (A) : In codominance the F1 - generation resembles both the parents.
Reason (R) : An example of codominance is different type of red blood cells that determine ABO
blood grouping in humans.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false

29) Assertion : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting or non-contrasting traits are known as
alleles.
Reason : Genes are the units of inheritance.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

30) If a dwarf variety of a pea plant is treated with GA hormone, it grows as tall as the tall pea plant.
On selfing this plant, the phenotypic ratio is likely to be :-

(1) All dwarf

(2) All tall
(3) 50% tall
(4) 75% tall; 25dwarf

31) Find out the correct match from Column I, II and III of following table :-

No. of No.
Cross type
genotypes of phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid I 9 1 8

(B) Dihybrid II 27 2 4

(C) Trihybrid III 3 3 2

Choose the correct option :-
(1) A-III-3, B-I-2, C-II-1
(2) A-II-1, B-III-2, C-I-3
(3) A-I-2, B-III-1, C-II-3
(4) A-III-3, B-II-1, C-I-2

32) Which of the following genotype represents hemizygous conditions of gene :-

(1) TT
(2) tt
(3) Rt
(4) Tt

33) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :-
(a) Phenotype is the external manifestation of gene product
(b) Individuals with similar phenotypes may not belong to same genotype
(c) Individuals with different phenotypes usually have similar genotypes
(d) Phenotype is not influenced by environment
(e) Phenocopy have same genotype

(1) b, c & d are correct

(2) a, b & e are correct
(3) c & d are correct
(4) Only a & b are correct

34) In human blue eyes is recessive to brown eye if a boy has brown eyes and his mother and sister
has blue eyes then what will be genotype and phenotype of his father :-

(1) genotype – Bb phenotype – Brown eyes

(2) genotype – BB phenotype – Brown eyes
(3) genotype – bb phenotype – blue eyes
(4) Both 2 and 3

35) A pair of dominant traits in garden pea are :-

(1) Tall plant, terminal flower

(2) Axial flower, yellow pod.
(3) Wrinkle seed, violet flower
(4) Green pod, violet flower

36) How many different type of gametes are produced by M/M, g/g, B/b, C/c, D/d genotype ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16
37) When a pea plant with round seed (Bb) is crossed with other plant having small sized starch
grain in seed, the total number of seeds obtained in progeny is 630. What is correct for this
progeny?

(1) 330 (large size), 330 (small size)

(2) 330 (small size), 330 (medium size)
(3) 315 (intermediate size), 315 (small size)
(4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size), 314 (intermediate size)

38) A person having codominant alleles for blood group marries a homozygous recessive woman,
what will be the possible blood group of their offspring ?

(1) AB or O
(2) A or B
(3) only AB
(4) A, B or AB

39) Recessive trait is seen due to

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) No enzyme
(3) Non functional enzyme
(4) Both (2) and (3)

40) An allele is said to be dominant if :-

(1) It is expressed only in heterozygous condition.

(2) It is expressed only in homozygous condition.
(3) It is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition.
(4) It is expressed only in second generation.

41) In a family father is colourblind and mother is homozygous normal. What will be chances of
colourblindness in son :

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

42) A gene is said to be dominant, if:-

(1) It expresses as complete/unmodified product

(2) Its product is incomplete
(3) Its product is modified
(4) It has no product at all

43) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :-
(a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population & may be dominant or recessive in
nature.
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs.
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele.
(d) F1 plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel's experiment.

(1) All are correct

(2) a, c & d are correct
(3) b, c & d are correct
(4) Only d is correct

44) Which one of the following statement is correct for mutant allele :-

(1) It is an original & dominant allele

(2) It is not formed by mutation in wild allele
(3) It is generally recessive in expression
(4) More than one option are correct

45) In Antirrhinum, two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The offsprings produced were red,
pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of
the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR and white by rr genes.

(1) RR
(2) Rr
(3) rr
(4) Both (2) or (3)

ZOOLOGY

1) MTP in India was legalized in:

(1) 1973
(2) 1951
(3) 1971
(4) 1993

2) Oral pills have a combination of:

(1) FSH-LH
(2) FSH-Progestogen
(3) LH-Estrogen
(4) Progestogen-Estrogen

3) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct one :-

(1) Saheli is a steroidal pill.

(2) Multiload-375 is a hormone releasing IUD
(3) i-pill used as a emergency contraceptive pill.
(4) Barrier methods prevent the ovulation.

4) Which contraceptive can prevent HIV transmission ?

(1) Cervical caps

(2) Condoms
(3) IUD
(4) Vasectomy

5) How many of the following contraceptives involve role of hormone ?

Lactational amenorrhea, cervical caps, multiload 375, LNG-20, vasectomy, oral pills, implants.

(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

6) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding natural methods of contraception ?

(1) Natural method work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
Periodic abstinence is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from
(2)
day 1 to 5 of menstrual cycle.
Lactational amenorrhea method is reported to be effective only up to a maximum period of six
(3)
months following parturition.
Side effects of natural methods are almost nill. Chances of failure, though of this method are
(4)
also high.

7) Given below some Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). In which find out
Invitro Fertilisation (IVF).
(a) ZIFT (b) IUT (c) ICSI
(d) AI (e) GIFT (f) IUI

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) d, e, f
(4) b, e, f

8) Which of the following IUD make the uterus unsuitable for implantation ?

(1) CuT
(2) LNG-20
(3) Lippes loop
(4) Multiload 375

9) Aminiocentesis is:-
(1) analysis of chemical composition of fluids of pregnant woman
(2) withdrawal of allantoic fluid from pregnant women
(3) an in vitro diagnosis
(4) study of metaphase chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormality

10) In vasectomy, a small part of the _____ is removed or tied. This procedure is performed through a
small incision in the _____. In tubectomy, a part of the _____ is removed or tied, usually through a
small incision in the _____ or _____.

(1) Vas deferens, scrotum, fallopian tube, abdomen, vagina

(2) Fallopian tube, vagina, vas deferens, scrotum, urethra
(3) Vas deferens, abdomen, uterus, scrotum, vagina
(4) Urethra, scrotum, fallopian tube, vagina, uterus

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
children and are one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
Statement II: Pills, consisting of progestrone or progestrone–estrogen combinations, should be taken
for a period of 21 days starting on any day of the menstrual cycle. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

12) Choose the incorrect statement for 'Saheli' :-

(a) Developed at CDRI.
(b) Non-steroidal preparation.
(c) Once a week pill.
(d) Very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
(e) Very / numerous side effects and low contraceptive value.
Option are :

(1) Only 'c' & 'd'

(2) Only 'd' & 'b'
(3) Only 'a' & 'e'
(4) Only 'e'

13) Identify incorrect statement w.r.t MTP

(1) Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term

(2) Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over in India
(3) Government of India legalised in 1971
(4) Safe during first trimester

14) One could be free of venereal diseases by following. The simple principles given below:-
(1) Avoid sex with unknown partner/multiple partners
(2) Always use condoms during coitus
(3) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor.
(4) All of the above

15) Assertion A: Early symptoms of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are often minor, including
itching and slight pain, and can go undetected, especially in females.
Reason R: The lack of significant symptoms in the early stages and social stigma associated with
STIs prevent timely detection and treatment, leading to severe complications.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

16) Assertion A: In many cases of infertility in a couple, the problem lies with the male partner.
Reason R: Infertility can be due to various reasons including physical, congenital, diseases, drugs,
immunological or psychological factors.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

17) Assertion A: In vitro fertilisation (IVF) involves the collection of ova and sperms from donors and
the formation of zygote under laboratory conditions.
Reason R: IVF is a technique used to assist couples who are unable to conceive naturally due to
various fertility issues.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

18) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Abortions can happen spontaneously too

Infertility is defined as the ability to produce an inviable offspring and is always due to defects
(2)
in male partner
Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive
(3)
health of the people
Continued intense lactation could help as a natural method of contraception upto maximum six
(4)
months from parturition

19) Assertion (A): Increased population growth adversely affects economic development.
Reason (R): Population explosion leads to overexploitation of natural resources.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation.
(3) A true but R false.
(4) A false but R true.

20) Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is banned for sex determination in India.

Reason (R): It helps check female foeticides.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

21) Evaluate the correctness of the following two statements regarding (ART)procedures:
Statement I: (Artificial Insemination (AI)) is a technique used to correct infertility arising from
either the male's inability to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in the
ejaculates.
Statement II: The major difference between (ZIFT) and (IUT) is the developmental stage of the
embryo being transferred: (ZIFT) involves the transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres,
while (IUT) involves the transfer of the zygote or early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres).

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

22) Assertion (A): Implants are effective for longer periods than pills.
Reason (R): They are injected in muscles.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

23) Assertion (A): Hepatitis-B can be transmitted by blood transfusion.

Reason (R): It is a sexually transmitted infection.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

24)

Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
 (c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced
into the
uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot
produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development

Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a and d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

25) Female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and
further development could be assisted by :-

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IUI

26) Which of the following contraceptive methods can prevent ovulation?

(1) CuT, Condoms

(2) Combination of estrogen and progesterone taken orally
(3) Diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus and lactational amenorrhoea

27) Which of the following is a protozoan STD ?

(1) Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Trichomoniasis
(4) Genital herpes

28) Hormonal IUD effects :

A. Thick cervical mucus
B. Increase phagocytosis
C. Uterine lining unsuitable
D. Ovulation always suppressed

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, D
(3) A, C
(4) B, C, D

29) Which of the following best describes lactational amenorrhea?

(1) A permanent method of contraception
(2) The absence of menstruation due to breastfeeding
(3) A hormonal contraceptive method
(4) A barrier method used by females

30) Which of the following is a non-medicated Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) CuT
(3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375

31) STIs are high among which age group?

(1) 15-24 years

(2) 25-35 years
(3) 0-14 years
(4) Above 50

32) MTPs are safer up to which trimester?

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) All

33) Which STI is NOT completely curable as per the text?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Syphilis
(3) HIV
(4) Chlamydiasis

34) Regarding contraceptive methods: '

A. Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to 6 months postpartum.
B. Diaphragms and cervical caps are barrier methods for females.
C. Saheli is non steroidal and non hormonal weekly oral pill.
D. Mala D, Mala N are daily oral pills for women.
Choose the correct combination:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

35) Consider the following about contraception:

A. Oral contraceptives suppress ovulation by inhibiting FSH and LH.
B. Condoms are barrier methods and prevent STDs.
C. Copper-T increases phagocytosis of sperms.
D. Vasectomy involves removal of testes.
Choose the correct combination:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

36) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as a
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cu releasing IUDs prevent fertilization.
Reason (R) : Cu releasing IUDs suppress the sperm motility and the fertilization capacity of sperms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

37) Match the columns

Column - I Column - II

(A) Condom (i) Oral

(B) Pills (ii) Lippes loop

(C) Implants (iii) Barrier

(D) IUD (iv) Under skin

(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(2) A = (i), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(4) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)

38) Which of the following contraceptive methods has longer effective period?

(1) OCPs
(2) Condoms
(3) Implants
(4) Vaults

39) The mode of action of contraceptive method which is highly effective but has poor reversibility is

(1) Prevent gametogenesis

(2) Inhibit ovulation
(3) Block gamete transport
(4) Alter quality of cervical mucus

40) Choose the odd one w.r.t. in-vivo fertilisation.

(1) GIFT
(2) IUI
(3) AI
(4) IUT

41) How many characters from the box given below are related to diaphragms?
Cover cervix during coitus, Protect from STIs, Used by both males and females, Block entry of
sperms, Barrier made of rubber

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

42) Which of the following is correct?

India was the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national
(1)
level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal
(2) The 'family planning' programmes were initiated in 1951
(3) 'RCH-programme' deals with wider reproductive health related issues
(4) More than one option

43) Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptives to avoid possible pregnancy
:-

(1) Progestrone
(2) IUD within 72 hours
(3) Diaphragms
(4) (1) and (2)

44) Read the following statements

(a) According to WHO, reproductive health only refers to physical well-being.
(b) Introduction of sex education in schools should be discouraged.
(c) Indian laws permit legal adoption of orphan children.
(d) Improved health facilities has promoted an explosive growth of population.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
45) Comprehend the given statements
Statement A: Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with copper releasing
IUDs to increase their contraceptive value.
Statement B : Breakthrough bleeding and irregular menstrual bleeding are some of the ill-effects
associated with the use of contraceptives.
Select the correct option

(1) Only statement A is incorrect

(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 4 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 3 3 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 4 2 4 1 2 1 2 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 3 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

division of charge

so

2) . Doubling d halves C ( ). Since V is constant, U is halved.

3) Initial . After sharing, common

.
Total final energy . Loss
.

4) When switch is open =

qi = Ceq. V = × 200 = 1500 µC

When switch is closed Ceq. = 30 µF
qf = 30 × 200 = 6000 µC
Charge flow through AB = qf – qi = 4500 µC = 4.5 × 10–3 C

5)

6)

C1 = Ctotal =

C2 = Cof region III =

7)

Q = C1 × E
Q = K.C.E

8)

Maximum stored energy =

9)

10) VAB = V

V31 =

V12 =

E12 =

11) Charge of each capacitor

Q = Ceq V = × 100 = 20 C
For VA

VA – 3 =0
VA = 60 Volt
 For VB

O–2 = VB
VB = – 40 Volt

12) Zero charge appearing on capacitor B. Becuase circuit is not complete.

13) Due to induction attractive forces pulls the slab inside the plates of capacitor

14)
Q4µF = 24 µC

15) capacitor is isolated. q = q'

So C0V0 = C'V'
∴ V0 = V'
C0 = C'

0
C = & C' =
but d' → d + 2.4mm

0
So C = & C' =
C0 = C'

d = d + 2.4 – t +

, (Here t = 3 mm)

16)

C=

∴V= = 1V
17) C = [Parallel-plate capacitor]

A= V = Ed &

A=

A=
A = 0.45m2

18)

19)
Ceq. = 1 µF
Charge on 3 µF capacitor
q = Ceq. V = (1 µF) (10) = 10 µC

20)

21)

Explanation :
Find the effective capacitance between points A and B in a system of three parallel plates.
Concept:
The system forms two capacitors, and we analyze their configuration (parallel or series) to
compute the net capacitance.

Formula:
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor:

C=
Capacitors in parallel:
Ceq = C1 + C2

Calculation:
Two capacitors are formed

C1 =

C2 = (since plate separation is d/2)

They are in parallel, so:

Ceq = C1 + C2 = =
(The capacitors C1 and C2 are in parallel because the potential difference across then
is the same.)

Final Answer: The correct option is (2).

22) Explain Question: Asking about the percentage loss in the stored energy when switch
turned to position 2.

Concept: Energy redistribution between capacitors during charge sharing.

Solution: q1 = C1V = 3V = q
This charge will remain constant after switch is shifted from position 1 to position 2.

Energy dissipated = Ui – Uf =

=
% dissipation

Final answer: Option (2)

23) Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 0
C1(VA – V0) + C2(VB – V0) + C3(VD – V0) = 0
3µ(10 – V0) + 2µ(25 – V0) + 1µ(20 – V0) = 0
3(10 – V0) + 2(25 – V0) + 1(20 – V0) = 0
30 – 3V0 + 50 – 2V0 + 20 – V0 = 0
100 – 6V0 = 0

0 0
V = ⇒V =

24)

The confusion comes between (A) and (C) options. Option (A) will be negated because value of
d cannot be zero.
So answer is (C)

25)

It is clear from the graph that potential difference across C1 is more than that across C2.
Now, q = C1V1 = C2V2

or
Since, V1 > V2
∴ C1 < C2

26)

The given circuit is alternatively shown in the simplified form in the adjoining figure. The part
of the circuit just left to the dotted line is a Wheatstone's bridge in which the diagonal arm bd
becomes ineffective since the bridge is balanced. The simplified version of the above circuit is
now shown in the another adjoining figure.
Now the effective capacity in the branch cda is and also in the branch cba is

Thus, the effective capacity across ca is and across AB is C + C = 2C

27)

28) Explaining : To determine equivalent capacitance across A and B.

Concept : This question is based on circuit is mirror symmetric. So, a false junction can be
removed.
Solution :

then CAB =

CAB =
CAB = 4C + 3C
CAB = 7C
Final Answer : option (3)

29)

As dielectric slab is introduced C is increased V will remain same

30)

Explain Question : Asking about the relation between the capacitance of isolated sphere and
charge on them, keeping potential same.

Concept : This question is based on switching & sharing of charges between the spherical
capacitor.

Solution :

V1 = V2
Capacity of spherical capacitor is proportional to radius of sphere.

then
Final answer : Option (2)

31)

q4µF ⇒ 24 µC
q6µF ⇒ 6 × 4 ⇒ 24 µC
q1µF ⇒ 4 × 1 ⇒ 4 µC
q5µF ⇒ 4 × 5 ⇒ 20 µC
q3µF ⇒ 3 × 10 ⇒ 30 µC
∴ qF ⇒ 30 + 24 ⇒ 54 µC

32) Capacitance does not depend on charge on it,

In final charge distribution, charge on outer plates q1 = q4 = q and on inner plates q2 = q3 = 0
As charge on inner plates are zero so there is no field between the plates and no potential
difference and no energy is stored.

33)
In a capacitor, energy is stored in the electric field between the plates.
ΔU = Uf – Ui

Given, C = 6μF = 6 × 10–6 Vi = 10V Vf = 20V

= 3 × 10–6 × 300 = 9 × 10–4J

34)
Plate 1 is connected to plate 3 and plate 2 is connected to plate 4.
Thus, there are three capacitors in paralled, each of capacitance

The equivalent capacitance, as shown in the figure, is

35)

ΔU = decrease inpotential energy

= Ui – Uf

36)

The two condensers with K and with air are in parallel. With air,

With medium,

So, C' = C1 + C2
37)
3μF and 1 μ Fare in parallel hence
Cnet = C1 + C2, Hence it is equal to 4μF
now 2μF & 2μF are in series
With this equivelent capacitor (4μF).
Soving 2μF and 2 μ Fare in series, we get 1μF.

(Potential difference across 4μF capacitor is calculated by voltage division rule)

(Potential difference across 5μF is same as battery)

38) Question Explanation: Determine the sign and expression for the change in electric
potential (ΔV) when moving across a capacitor with charge Q and capacitance C from its
positively charged plate to its negatively charged plate.
Concept: Potential sign conventions and potential drop across circuit elements.
Solution:
When traversing a capacitor from its positive plate (+Q) to its negative plate (–Q), you are
moving from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential. This transition
represents a potential drop.

Using the fundamental relationship for capacitance:

Since it is a potential drop, the change in potential (ΔV) is negative:

Final answer: Option (2)

39) Explanation:
Question asks capacitor voltage using stored energy and capacitance values after charging
process campletes successfully.
Concept: Energy stored:

Formula:
 Calculation:

400 × 10–6 = 10–6 V2

V2 = 400
V = 20 V
Final Answer: Option (2)

40) Explanation: Question asks electrical behavior of capacitor after complete charging when
current stops flowing through circuit completely.
Concept:
After full charging:

A. Current becomes zero.

B. Capacitor blocks DC current.

Thus it behaves like an open circuit.

Formula: I = 0
Calculation:
At complete charging:
I=0
Hence capacitor acts as open circuit.

Final Answer: Option (2)

41) Explanation: Question asks expression for time constant controlling charging speed of
capacitor in RC circuit arrangement during charging.
Concept:
Time constant in RC circuit:

It represents time required for capacitor charge to reach about 63% of maximum value.
Formula:
Calculation:
By definition:
Final Answer: Option (2)

42) Explanation: Question asks capacitor charge value after one time constant during
charging process in an RC circuit arrangement.
Concept:
For charging capacitor:
q = q0(1 – e–t/RC)
At:
t = RC
q = q0 (1 – e–1)
q ≈ 0.63q0
Formula:
q = q0(1 – e–t/RC)
Calculation: q ≈ 63% of maximum charge
Final Answer: Option (3)
43) Explanation: Question asks instant when charging current has maximum value
immediately after circuit connection with battery source.
Concept:
Charging current:
I = I0 e–t/RC
At: t = 0
I = I0 which is maximum.
Calculation:
Current decreases with time, so maximum current occurs initially.
Final Answer: Option (3)

44) Explanation
1. Identify the potential at the nodes connecting the capacitors by treating the resistor
branches as voltage dividers.
2. Calculate the potential difference across each capacitor.
3. Calculate the charge Q using the capacitance value.
Concept
Steady State: Capacitors act as open circuits; no DC current flows through them.
Potential Divider: Voltage across resistors in series is proportional to their resistance.
Capacitor Charge: Q = CV.
Solution

Va – Vd = × 1 = 20 volt

Vb – Ve = × 2 = 40 volt
∴ Vd – Ve = 20 volt
charge on C1 = 2 × 20 = 40 μC

VG – VH = × 3 = 60 volt

VM – VN = × 3 = 60 volt
∴ VG – VM = 0
charge on C2 is zero
Final Answer (2)

45) Explaining : To find the current through the galvanometer, one must analyze the circuit
branches once the capacitors have reached their fully charged state and no longer allow
current flow.
Concept : This question is based on concept of RC Circuit At t = 0 And Steady State. In steady
state, capacitive branches act as open circuits, and the current flows only through the resistive
paths as determined by Ohm's Law.
Solution :
At steady state, capacitor behaves like open circuit
 Equivalent resistance in steady state
Req = 4 + 2 + 6 = 12Ω

Current,
Final Answer : (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation:

We are asked to compare rates of disappearance and formation of different species using the
stoichiometry of
the reaction:
H2O2 + 2H+ + 3I– → I3– + 2H2O.

Concept:
For a balanced chemical equation, rate relationships are proportional to stoichiometric
coefficients.

Solution:
From the balanced reaction:
H2O2 + 2H+ + 3I– → I3– + 2H2O.
The rate expression is:
-d[H2O2]/dt = -(1/3)d[I–]/dt = d[I3–]/dt = (1/2)d[H2O]/dt
Now check each option:
Option 1: Incorrect. H2O2 disappears at the same rate as I3– formation, not tree times I– .

Option 2: Incorrect. Rate of disappearance of H2O2 equals the rate of formation of I3– , not .
Option 3: Correct. I– has coefficient 3, so it disappears three times faster than I3– is formed.
Option 4: Incorrect. H2O forms at twice the rate of I3– , not half.

Final Answer: Option(3)

47)

[A]t = [A]0 – Kt
= 0.3 – 10–2 × 10
= 0.2 M
 48)

First order reaction

t1/2 =

k= min–1
rate of reaction after 60 min.
r = k[A]t

r=

r=

49) Question Explanation: Find possible order of reaction

Concept: This question is based on zero order reaction.

Solution:

From the graph concentration of reactant (R) is decreasing with the time
linearly.
So the order of reaction is zero.
For zero order reaction :
[R]0 – [R]t = kt

Final Answer: Option (4)

50) A → 2B + C
t=0 Pi 0 0
t=t Pi–y 2y y
Total pressure Pt = Pi –y + 2y + y = Pi + 2y

=y

K=

51) R = k [A]x [B]y

(a) 2R = k [2A]x [B]y x=1
(b) 8R = k [2A]x [2B]y y = 2
52) t1/2 = 3hr
T = 18 hr

n=
After 6 half life, remaining amount

will be = 4.68 g

53)

rate = atm sec–1

K = (atm)1–n sec–1
= (atm)1–3/2 sec–1
= atm–1/2 sec–1

54)

55)

56)

57)

58)

A2 —→ B +
t=0 100

t=t 100 – x x

⇒ 100 – x + x + = 120
⇒ x = 40
∴ ROD of A2 = = 8 mm min–1
​
59)

For zero order

60) = 4 i.e. after (4) half lifes [A]t = = = = = 6.25gm

61) k = = 7 × 10–4 s–1

⇒ t1/2 = ≈ 1000 s

62) In 2 years (730 days) around three Half life has been passed so after three half life
remaining value of gadolinium will be 12.5%.

63) First order reaction

64)
Rate constant only depend for temp
So

65)

Rate of reaction

or

66)

A(g) → 2B(g) + 3C(g)

t = 0 2atm
t = 5hr 2 – x 2x 3x

k = 2.303 × 10–3 =
x=1
Total pressure = 2 + 4x = 6 atm

67)

68) For single step reaction

Rate = K[A]2[B]

69) Ist order

70)

t99.9% = 5 × t75% = 5 × 2.38 = 11.9 hours

71)

At high pressure platinum surface is saturated with NH3 gas. Thus it's rate of reaction doesn't
depend upon pressure of gas at high pressure so its order is zero.

72)

Explaining the Question :-

Evaluate the truth of an assertion about zero-order half-life and a reason about zero-order
rate, and if the reason explains the assertion.
Concept:-
This question is based on Zero-order kinetics
Solution :-
Mathematical Analysis (in short):
 0
Assertion: t1/2 = . Directly proportional to [A] . TRUE.
0
Reason: Rate = k[A] = k. Independent of [A]0. TRUE. Explanation: The reason explains the
constant rate, not the direct proportionality of t1/2 to [A]0. The half-life dependence comes from
the time it takes to consume half the initial amount at a constant rate.
Final Answer : (2)

73)

Question Explanation :

To determine correctness of assertion and reason.

Concept :

Based on elementary and complex reactions.

Solution :

For elementary reaction order is equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of reactant
fractional order reaction are complex reactions.
so , (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
Final answer : Option(3)

74)

If the assertion is true but the reason is false

75)

Explain Question:
To select correct option for given A & R.

Concept:
Factors affecting rate constant.

Solution:
Assertion: In 1st order reaction rate constant because double on doubling the initial conc. of
reactant → false.
⇒ Rate constant depends only on temp and catalyst it does not depend on conc. of reactant.
Reason: The rate constant varies directly with the conc. of reactant in 1st order → false.
⇒ Rate constant does not depend on conc. of reactant.

Final Answer: Option(4)

76) Explain Question:

To select correct option for given A and R.

Concept:
Pseudo 1st order Reaction.
Solution:
Hydrolysis of ester in acidic medium.

r = K [ester] [H2O]
⇒ water is present is large excess, so it’s constant does not change significantly.
⇒ so it is treated as constant.
r = K' [ester]
ester K' [H2O]

Final Answer: Option (1)

77) Explain Question:

To select correct option for given statements.

Concept:
Order and molecularity.

Solution:
Statement-1 : Order and molecularity are always equal for a complex reaction → False.
⇒ For complex reaction molecularity is not define.
Statement-2 : Order is experimentally determined and molecularity is sum of stoichiometric
coefficient of RDS step → True.
⇒ For RDS step molecularity is sum of no. of reactant molecules present om the RDS.

Final Answer: Option(4)

78)

For gaseous compound ; pressure = concentration × RT

⇒Pressure ∝ concentration.

79) NCERT Pg. # 102

80) Explain Question:

Find the correct relation between the consumption rates of NO2 and Cl2 using stoichiometric
coefficients.

Concept:
This question is based on relation between rate of disappearance and stoichiometric ratios.

Solution:
Reaction:
2NO2 + Cl2 → 2NO2Cl

Rate relation :

Multiply both sides by 2:

 Final Answer: Option (4)

81)

∴ concn
& r = K [A]2 [B]3

r1 = K[2A]2 [2B]3 = 4 × 8K [A]2 [B]3

82)

r = K [SO2] [SO3]–1/2

over all order = 1 –

unit of
= L1/2 mol–1/2 sec–1

83)

• Amount Remaining after 'n' half-lives: Amount Remaining= Initial Amount ×

• Substitute the values: Amount Remaining= 10 g × Amount Remaining= 10 g ×

Amount Remaining= 0.15625 g
used amt (10 – 0.156)g ⇒ 9.844 gm

84) Question Explanation: Identify when reaction rate is unaffected by reactant

concentration.
Concept : Zero order reaction occur at constant rate, often due to catalysis
Solution :
2NH3 → N2 + 3H2 is a classic zero order reaction because the surface of the catalyst gets
saturated making rate independent of [NH3]
Final Answer : option (1)

85) Question Explanation: We have to find rate of reaction.

Concept : First order reaction.
Solution :
∵ rate = k[A]
r = 0.01 × 0.1
r = 10–3 M sec–1
∵ t1/2 =

k = 0.01
Final Answer : option (2)

86) Explain Question:

To calculate specific rate constant.

Concept :
Half life method in first order reactions.

Solution :
For first order
t0.75= 2 × t0.5

K=
= 10–3 s–1

Final answer: Option(1)

87) Question Explanation: For the given chemical reaction 4A + B → 2C + 2D, the task is to
identify which of the provided statements regarding the relative rates of disappearance of
reactants and appearance of products is incorrect.

Concept :
This question based on Chemical Kinetics - Stoichiometry and Reaction Rates.
Solution :
Given Data:
Reaction: 4A + B → 2C + 2D

CALCULATION- For the reaction 4A + B → 2C + 2D, the relationship between the rates of

change of concentrations is given by:

Evaluating each statement: 1. From , we get . So,

the rate of disappearance of B is one-fourth the rate of disappearance of A. (Correct)

2. From we get: . This means the rate of appearance

of C is twice the rate of disappearance of B. Statement 2 says it is half. (Not Correct)

3. From , we get: . So, the rate of

 formation of D is half the rate of consumption of A. (Correct)

4. From we get: . So, the rates of formation of C and D

are equal. (Correct)

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : The rate of appearance of C is half the rate of disappearance of B.

88) x = kt
a = kt For completion (x = a)

t=

89)

Quuestion Explanation:
To identify pseudo 1st order Reaction.

Concept:
pseudo order Reaction

Solution:
A pseudo 1st order reaction involve two or more reactant, but reactant is present in large
excess such that it's conc. does not change significantly during the reaction.
eq. Hydrolysis of ester, inversion of cane sugar ⇒ pseudo 1st order reaction
Decomposition of NH3 ⇒ zero order reaction

Final answer: Option (1) and (2)

90)

At ⇒ x = x = Kt

=Kt1/8 ...(1)

0
At ⇒ x = [A]

= ...(2)

= = = = 2 : 15

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 72-73

 92)

Explain Question:
The question asks about the percentage of heterozygous offsprings in F2 generation.

Concept:
Monohybrid Cross.-

Solution:
In a Mendelian monohybrid cross. the proportion of heterozygous (hybrid) plants becomes
half in each successive selfed generation.
F2 → 50% heterozygous
F3 → 25% heterozygous
So, the correct answer is : 3. 25%

Final answer: Option (3)

93) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.

94)

A. Autosomal Dominant: Affected individuals appear in every generation and both males and
females are affected. An affected individual has at least one affected parent.
B. Autosomal Recessive: The trait can skip generations. Two unaffected parents can have an
affected child.
C. X-linked Dominant: Affected males pass the trait to all their daughters but none of their
sons. Affected females can pass the trait to both sons and daughters.
D. X-linked Recessive: More males are affected. Affected males can pass the trait to their
daughters (carriers) but not to their sons. Carrier females can pass the trait to their sons.

95)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 76

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 74-75

97)

Question Explanation : identify how many of them were dominant traits used by Mendel in
his experiments.

Concept : Mendel’s Seven Contrasting Traits – Dominant vs Recessive

Solution : Mendel studied 7 pairs of contrasting traits. Their dominant traits are:

A. Round seeds
 B. Yellow seeds

C. Violet (purple) flowers

D. Axial flowers

E. Green pods

F. Inflated pods

G. Tall plant

Final answer : 4 → Four

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 81

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59

100) Explain Question – In which scemario will the phenotype remain unaffected.
Concept - This question Based on the relationship between genotype and phenotype.
Solution -
When modified allele produces a normal enzyme:If the enzyme is functional the biochemical
pathway works fine → No effect on phenotype
Correct option: (1) when modified allele produces normal gene.

101)

Explain Question :The question asks why Mendel’s work was not recognized for a long time.
Concept : This question is based on WHY MENDEL NOT GET SUCCESS
Explanation : All four given reasons contributed to the delayed recognition of Mendel’s work.
Final answer : 4

105)

Question Explanation: The question is asking: Which statement correctly describes genes?

Concept: Gene — Structure and Function (Molecular Basis of Inheritance)

Solution: Genes are segments of DNA that can form RNA (through transcription).
They are passed from parent to offspring through gametes as part of chromosomes.
They carry genetic information and are responsible for the expression of traits or characters in
an organism.
Since all statements given describe important characteristics of genes, they all are correct.

Final answer: All of these

106) Explaining : A modified allele may still code for a protein — which can be functional or
non-functional.
Concept : Mutated or modified alleles can produce altered enzymes.
Solution : Modified alleles vary in expression — some may produce active enzymes, some may
not.
Final Answer : (2)

107) Degree of carbon is assigned on the basis of the no of carbon directly bonded to a
particular carbon, 1∘ 2∘ 3∘ and 4∘ carbon has one, two, three and four respectively carbon

directly attitude to the particular carbon, Answer:

(2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane)

108)

In a monohybrid cross, starting with true-breeding (pure) parents (P generation), the F1

generation is always 100% hybrid (heterozygous, Aa). With continuous self-crossing, the
proportion of hybrids reduces in each subsequent generation. The question asks about the F4
generation.
Explaining the Question :- Each generation follows the mendelian ratio when self-crossed:
F1 (Aa × Aa) →F2 (1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa) → 50% pure (AA & aa) and 50% hybrid (Aa)
F2 self-crossed → F3
(Pure AA × Pure AA → 100 % AA)
(Pure aa × Pure aa → 100 % aa)
(Hybrid Aa × Hybrid Aa → 1 AA : Aa 1 aa → 50% pure, 50% hybrid)
Following the same process, in F4 generation:
87.5% will be pure (AA or aa)
12.5% will be hybrid (Aa)
Final Answer :- (3)

109) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 76

110) NCERT–XII Pg. # 74

111)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
 112) NCERT Pg. # 85

113)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason statements
and select the correct statement.
Concept: This question is based on Co dominance/ Multiple alleles.
Solution:
Assertion : A total of six different genotypes of the human ABO blood types are possible.
Reason : Gene-I for human ABO blood group has 3 alleles.
Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
So, the correct answer is: 1.
NCERT Pg. # 77
Final answer: 1

114)

NCERT XII pg no.72

115)

The correct answer is:

2. Inheritance
Explanation:

A. The phrase "Like begets like" refers to the idea that offspring resemble their parents due to
the process of inheritance. It Is through the inheritance of genes from both parents that the
traits of the parents are passed on to the offspring.
B. Eugenics refers to the study of improving genetic quality through selective breeding, which is
not the same as the basic inheritance process.
C. Dominance is a genetic concept where one allele masks the effect of another allele, but it is
not the reason for "like begets like."
D. Crossing-over occurs during meiosis and leads to genetic variation, but it is not the reason for
offspring resembling their parents in terms of basic inheritance.

Thus, the correct answer is:

2. Inheritance.

116) NCERT-XII (E), Pg#77 Fig. / Table 5.2

117) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. 79

119) Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason
statements and select the correct option.

Concept: Mendelism.
Solution:

Assertion : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting or non-contrasting traits are known as
alleles.

Reason : Genes are the units of inheritance.

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: 1

120) All dwarf

121) NCERT Pg. # 64

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72

123)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements about phenotype and genotype
are correct.

Concept: Phenotype–genotype relationship.

Solution:
(a) True — phenotype is external expression of genes.
(b) True — the same phenotype can arise from different genotypes.
(c) False — different phenotypes do not usually have similar genotypes.
(d) False — environment does influence phenotype.
(e) False — phenocopy = same phenotype, different genotype.

Correct statements = a & b

Final Answer: Option (4) — a & b are correct

124)

The correct answer is 1. Genotype – Bb, Phenotype – Brown eyes.

Explanation: Since blue eyes (bb) are recessive, the boy's mother must be genotype bb. The
boy has brown eyes, which means he has at least one B allele. His sister, who has blue eyes,
must also have the bb genotype. Therefore, the father must carry a B allele and a b allele
(genotype Bb), giving him brown eyes (phenotype).

125) NCERT XII Pg. # 71

126)

Explain Question : How many different types of gametes can be formed from the genotype
M/M, g/g, B/b, C/c, D/d?

Concept : Gamete formation & Mendel’s Law of Segregation

Explanation :

Here homozygous loci: M/M , g/g.

Heterozygous loci: B/b, C/c, D/d → 3 heterozygous loci → 23 = 8

Final answer :Option 3

127) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 78

128) NCERT XII Pg. # 61

129)

Explain Question – The question asks why a recessive trait is expressed at the molecular
level.

Concept – Mendelism- Introduction - Terminology

Solution –

Normal enzyme → corresponds to dominant allele, not recessive.

No enzyme → recessive trait can appear due to absence of enzyme.

Non-functional enzyme → recessive trait can also appear due to defective enzyme.

Both (2) and (3) → correct, as recessive traits are expressed when enzyme is absent or non-
functional.

Final Answer – Option 4

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

131) Asking About:

This question is asking about the probability of a son inheriting colorblindness from his
parents, given that the father is colorblind and the mother is homozygous normal.
Concept:
The question involves the concepts of :
• Sex-linked Inheritance: Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait meaning the gene is
located on the X chromosome.
• Carrier: A female who carries one copy of the recessive allele on one her X chromosomes
but does not express the trait.

Solution:
Parental Genotypes:
Father (colorblind): XcY (where Xc represents the X chromosome with the
colorblindness allele)
Mother (homozygous normal ): XX
Possible Gamete:
Father: Xc and Y
Mother: X
Punnett Square:

Possible offspring Genotypes and Phenotypes:

XcX: Daughter, carrier of colorblindness (but not colorblind herself)
XY: Son, normal vision
Therefore, the chance of a son being colorblind in this scenario is 0% Since the mother is
homozygous normal she will always pass on a normal X chromosome to her sons. The sons
receive their Y chromosome from the father which does not carry the gene for colorblindness.
Answer: (1)

132) NCERT-XII Pg. # 76

133) Explaining : (a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population & may be
dominant or recessive → ✅
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs → ✅
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele → ✅ (mutations often cause recessiveness).
(d) F₁ plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel’s experiments → ✅
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

134)

Explain Question – The question asks: Which statement correctly describes a mutant allele?

Concept – Mutation and mutant alleles

Solution –

Statement 1 → Incorrect (mutant allele is not original & not necessarily dominant).

Statement 2 → Incorrect (mutant allele is formed by mutation in wild allele).

Statement 3 → Correct (mutant alleles are generally recessive in expression).

Statement 4 → Incorrect (only one statement is correct here).

 Final Answer – Option 3

135)

Explain Question – The question asks: What are the genotypes of two pink-flowered
Antirrhinum plants that produce offspring in a 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white ratio?

Concept – Incomplete dominance in Antirrhinum

Solution –

Red flowers = RR

White flowers = rr

Pink flowers = Rr (incomplete dominance).

When two pink plants (Rr × Rr) are crossed, the offspring ratio is:

1 RR (red)

2 Rr (pink)

1 rr (white).

Final Answer – Option 2

ZOOLOGY

136)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the year Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(MTP) was legalized in India.

Concept: MTP

Solution: The MTP Act was passed to provide legal access to abortion under specific
conditions, including risk to the mother’s health, fetal abnormalities, or contraceptive failure.
This Act was enacted in/legalized in 1971.

Final answer: Option 3

137) NCERT(XII) Pg#61/67(H) Para:4.2

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 67 (H)

139) NEERT XII Page No. # 60

 140) NEERT XII Page No. # 50, 61

141) NCERT Page No. # 60

142) NCERT-XII, Pg # 64

143) NCERT-XII, Pg # 61

144) study of metaphase chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal

abnormality

145) NCERT Pg. # 45, 46

146)

Question Explanation: The question evaluates statements related to contraceptive methods.

Concept: Temporary contraceptive methods

Solution:

Statement I: - Correct - Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are ideal for females who want to delay
pregnancy or space [Link] of the most widely accepted contraceptive methods in India.

Statement II:- Incorrect - (starting “on any day” is wrong),pills should be taken daily for 21 days
starting preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle, not on any day.

Final answer: Option – 4 – Statement I is true but Statement II is false

147) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 61, Para-2

148) NCERT Page No. 62

149) NCERT, Pg: 146.

150) The assertion is true as the early symptoms of STIs can be minor and often go unnoticed,
particularly in females. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the assertion
because the absence of significant symptoms and the social stigma surrounding STIs can lead
to delays in seeking diagnosis and treatment, which may result in serious complications like
pelvic inflammatory diseases, infertility, and cancer of the reproductive tract.

151) The assertion is true as infertility can often be attributed to issues with the male partner.
The reason is also true as infertility can be caused by a variety of factors including physical,
congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological, or psychological issues. However, the reason does
not specifically explain why the male partner is often the one with the problem, hence R is not
the correct explanation of A.

152) The assertion is true as IVF involves the collection of ova from the female and sperms
from the male, and these are combined to form a zygote in laboratory conditions, which is then
transferred back to the female's body. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation
for the assertion because IVF is indeed a method used to assist couples who have difficulty
conceiving naturally, making it an assisted reproductive technology (ART).

153) NCERT Page no 58, 60, 64

154) Explaining : Rapid population growth → strain on food, water, housing, jobs, and
healthcare → hinders development.
Final Answer : (1)

155) Solution: Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination checks female foeticides.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Explanation: Statement II is Incorrect: The statement reverses the criteria for (ZIFT)
and (IUT). The text clearly states:
(ZIFT) involves transfer of the "zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres)" into the
fallopian tube.
(IUT) involves transfer of "embryos with more than 8 blastomeres" into the uterus (IUT).
Final Answer : (3)

157) Solution : Implants under skin provide longer effective periods, similar to injections.
Final Answer : (3)

158) Solution : Hepatitis-B is STI but also transmitted via blood, needles, etc.
Final Answer : (2)

159) NCERT XII Pg. # 64

160) NCERT Pg. # 64

161) NCERT(XII) Pg#61/67(H) Para:4.2

162) NCERT-XII; Page No. # 42

163) Solution : -
Final Answer : (3)
164) Solution : The absence of menstruation due to breastfeeding​
Final Answer : (2)

165) Solution : Lippes loop​(RH).

Final Answer : (1)

166) Solution : Incidences are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of
15-24 years.
Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., upto 12
weeks of pregnancy.
Final Answer : (1)

168) Solution : Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infections, other diseases are
completely curable
Final Answer : (3)

169) Solution : All satements are correct here.

Final Answer : (4)

170) Solution : Pills inhibit ovulation, condoms prevent STDs, copper-T increases
phagocytosis; vasectomy = vas deferens cut, not testis removal.
Final Answer : (1)

171) NCERT XII, Pg # 60

172) NCERT XII - Pg. 60-61

173) Correct Answer: (3)

174) Correct Answer: (3)

175) Correct Answer: (4)

176) Correct Answer: (2)

177) More than one option

178)
NCERT XII, Page # 45

179) • According to World Health Organisation, reproductive health means a total well being
in all aspects of reproduction i.e. physical, emotional, behavioural and social.
• Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged to provide right information
to the youth.
• Indian laws permit legal adoption and it is as yet, one of the best methods for couples
looking for parenthood.

180) Barrier methods of contraception are used along with spermicidal creams, jellies and
foams to increase their contraceptive efficiency.
The possible ill-effects of contraceptive methods are nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough
bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer, though not very significant,
should not be totally ignored.