24-06-2026

7101CMD303001260008 MD

PHYSICS

1)

If displacement of a particle is zero, the distance covered :

(1) Must be zero

(2) May or may not be zero
(3) Cannot be zero
(4) Depends upon the particle

2) Three particles P, Q and R are situated at point A on the circular path of radius 10 m. All three
particles move along different paths and reach point B as shown in figure. Then the ratio of distance

traversed by particles R and Q is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A body has speed V, 2V and 3V in first 1/3 part of total travelled distance S, second 1/3 part of S
and third 1/3 part of S respectively. Its average speed will be :-

(1) V
(2) 2V

(3)

(4)

4) A car starts from rest travelling with constant acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10th second
of its journey is 19m, what will be the acceleration of car?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

5) A body falling from height 'h' takes t1 time to reach the ground. The time taken to cover the first

of the height is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) A stone is thrown upwards with a speed 'u' from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a
velocity '2u'. The height of the tower is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following velocity-time graphs represent uniformly accelerated motion ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as shown

in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be :

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 37.5 m/s

9) A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up
vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, The graph according to
which its velocity V varies with the height h above the ground is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If the instantaneous velocity of a particle projected as shown in figure is given by

where a, b and c are positive constants, the range on the horizontal plane will be :
(1) 2ab/c
(2) ab/c
(3) ac/b
(4) a/2bc

11) Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their
trajectories are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is same for all the three
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) The maximum height is same for all the three

12) A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. At any instant, its
velocity v is at right angle to its initial velocity u; then v is :

(1) u cos θ
(2) u tan θ
(3) u cot θ
(4) u sec θ

13) An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 km/h drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The horizontal range of the packet is : (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 180 m
(2) 250 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 670 m

14) Which of the following quantities remains constant during projectile motion?
(A) Average velocity between two points.
(B) Average speed between two points.

(C)

(D)

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

15) A lift is moving upwards with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a ball within the lift. The
acceleration of the ball as observed by the man in the lift and a man standing stationary on the
ground are respectively :

(1) g, g
(2) g – a, g – a
(3) g + a, g
(4) a, g

16) A person walks up a stalled escalator in 45 sec. He is carried in 60s, when standing on the same
escalator which is now moving. The time he would take to walk up the moving escalator will be :-

(1) 27 s
(2) 72 s
(3) 18 s
(4) 25.71 s

17) A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km/h and a ship B 100 km South of A, is
moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km/h. The time after which the distance between them
becomes shortest, is :-

(1) 5 h
(2)
(3)
(4) 0 H

18) Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof tops of two
buildings 100 m apart and of same height of 200 m with the same velocity of 25 m/s. When and
where will the two bullets collide. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) After 2s at a height of 180 m

(2) After 2s at a height of 20 m
(3) After 4s at a height of 120 m
(4) They will not collide

19) Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of 35 m/s. Wind starts blowing after some time
with a speed of 12 m/s in East of West direction. The direction in which a boy standing at the place
should hold his umbrella is :

(1)
w.r.t. wind

(2)
w.r.t. rain
(3)
w.r.t. wind

(4)
w.r.t. rain

20) A particle is thrown with velocity u making an angle θ with the vertical. It just crosses the top of
two poles each of height h after 1 s and 3 s respectively. The maximum height of projectile is [g =

9.8 m/s2] -

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 19.6 m
(3) 39.2 m
(4) 4.9 m

21) The magnitude of average velocity is equal to the average speed when a particle moves:

(1) on a curved path

(2) in the same direction
(3) with constant acceleration
(4) with constant retardation

22) If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t2)m/s then the average acceleration of particle between 2
sec and 5 sec is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

23) A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration a, its velocity after n seconds is [Link]
displacement of the body in last 3 s is : (assume total time of journey from 0 to n seconds) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) For the given v2 – s graph, find the acceleration at s = 0.

(1) 0.4 m/s2

(2) – 0.4 m/s2
(3) 0.2 m/s2
(4) – 0.2 m/s2

25) A stone is thrown vertically downward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s from the top of a
building. If it reaches the ground with velocity 60 m/s, then the height of the building is: (Take g =
10 m/s2)

(1) 140 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 120 m

26) At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the velocity of a projectile in vector from is
The angle of projection is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) tan–1 (3/4)

27)

A ball is projected with the same velocity but at different angles with the horizontal. For which angle
of projection from the following the height reached by the ball is maximum?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 80°

28)

For same speed the range R of a projectile is same when its maximum heights are h1 and h2. What is
the releation between R, h1 and h2?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally at constant speed. If air resistance is
neglected then the bomb

(1) Falls on the earth exactly below the aeroplane.

(2) Falls on the earth behind the aeroplane.
(3) Falls on the earth ahead of the aeroplane.
(4) Flies with an aeroplane.

30) From the top of a tower of height 40 m, a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20 m/s at an
angle 30° to the horizontal. The ball will hit the ground in time : (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 4 s

31) Assertion : If at certain instant velocity of a particle is –4 m/s and its acceleration is +2 m/s2,
speed of particle is decreasing.
Reason : When velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, particle retards.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) Assertion : Horizontal range is same for angle of projection θ and (90° – θ), if speed of
projection is same.
Reason : Horizontal range is independent of angle of projection.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is equal to average speed if velocity is uniform.
Reason : If velocity is uniform, then there is no change in the direction of motion.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

34) A particle is moving with constant acceleration from A to B in a straight line AB. If u and v are
the velocities at A and B, respectively, then its velocity at the midpoint C will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be

the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Car A and car B start moving simultaneously in the same direction along the line joining them.
Car A with a constant acceleration a = 4 m/s2, while car B moves with a constant velocity v = 1m/s.
At time t = 0, car A is 10 m behind car B. The time when car A overtakes car B is

(1) 2s
(2) 1.5s
(3) 2.5s
(4) never

37) To the captain of a ship A travelling with velocity km/h, a second ship B appears to
have a velocity km/h. What is the true velocity of the ship B ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38)
A man is walking due to east at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The rain appears to him to come down vertically
at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The actual velocity and direction of rainfall with the vertical respectively are :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 kmh–1, 0°
(4) 1 kmh–1, 90°

39) A boat covers certain distance between two spots on a river taking 't1' time going down stream
and 't2' time going upstream. What time will be taken by the boat to cover the same distance in still
water ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A man wishes to swim across a river 0.5 km wide. If he can swim at the rate of 2 km/h in still
water and the river flows at the rate of 1 km/h. The angle made by the direction (w.r.t. the flow of
the river) along which he should swim so as to reach a point exactly opposite his starting point,
should be :

(1) 60o
(2) 120o
(3) 145o
(4) 90o

41) Assertion :- Path of a projected ball is parabolic in uniform gravitational field for oblique
projection in absence of air resistance.
Reason :- Gravitational force is always act perpendicular to velocity during the motion of a
projectile.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

42) Assertion :- If a body is projected vertically upward then the rate of change of its velocity is
constant during its flight.
Reason :- The average acceleration of the body during its total journey is zero.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) The initial velocity of B so that both particle collide to each

other is

(1) 20 m/sec
(2) 30 m/sec
(3) m/sec
(4) 10 m/sec

44)

An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s making an angle of 45° with horizontal. The equation
for the trajectory is h = Ax - Bx2 where h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are constants.
The ratio A : B is :- (g = 10 ms-2)

(1) 1 : 5
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 1 : 40
(4) 40 : 1

45) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 9 m above the ground. The third drop is
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the
second drop at that instant ?

(1) 5.50 m
(2) 6.75 m
(3) 6.00 m
(4) 2.25 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

2) Which process is endothermic in nature?

O(g) →
(1)

(2) S(g) →

(3) Be(g) →
F(g) →
(4)

3) Which of the following have nearly same atomic radius :-

(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs

(2) Li, Be, B, C
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) F, Cl, Br, I

4) Screening effect is not observed in :–

(1) H
(2) Li+
(3) Be+2
(4) B+3

5) 1st Ionisation energy values of Al, Si and S are 496, 530 and 640 kJ/mol respectively then what will
be 1st IE value for phosphorus ?

(1) More than 640 kJ/mol

(2) Between [496-530] kJ/mol
(3) between [530-640] kJ/mol
(4) Can't be predicted

6) Second ionisation potential of oxygen and fluorine are respectively :-

(1) 35.1, 38.3

(2) 38.3, 35.1
(3) 38.3, 38.3
(4) 35.1, 35.1

7) The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its
outer shell electron is :-

(1) s < p < d < f

(2) s > p > d > f
(3) s > p > f > d
(4) p > s > d > f

8) Correct order of atomic radius.

(1) Mg > Na
(2) Cl > S
(3) Ne > Be
(4) Rb > Cs

9) Match the following :-

1 (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 a Noble gas

2 Sc b Halogen

3 Ar c Transition element

4 Cl d Eka Boron
(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

10) The element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d104s1 belongs to :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

11) The correct order of increasing atomic radius of the following elements is :

(1) S < O < Se < C

(2) O < C < S < Se
(3) O < S < Se < C
(4) C < O < S < Se

12) The correct decreasing order of first ionisation potential of Li, Be and B is

(1) Li > Be > B

(2) Be > B > Li
(3) Be > Li > B
(4) B > Be > Li

13) Among the following configuration, the element which has the highest electron affinity is:

(1) [Ne]3s2 3p2

(2) [Ne]3s2 3p5
(3) [Ne]3s2 3p4
(4) [Ne]3s2 3p3

14) Which of the following is smallest in size?

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1

(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2

15) The ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because of :-

(1) The Size of nitrogen atom is smaller

(2) More penetrating effect
(3) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
(4) The extra stability of half filled P-orbital

16) The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, 85 are all :-

(1) Noble gases

(2) Halogens
(3) Chalcogens
(4) Pnictogens

17) Which of the following processes is endothermic?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) The atomic numbers of two elements A and B are 17 and 20 respectively. The formula of an ionic
compound made by A and B is (where the cation is conventionally written first)

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) AB2
(4) BA2

19) The successive ionization energies (IE) for an element A are as follows:

If the IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ mol−1

and 51 kJ mol−1 respectively, then the value of IE2 is ___________ kJ mol−1.

(1) 21
(2) 33
(3) 59
(4) 63

20) For an element the successive ionisation energy values (in eV atom–1) are given below:
12.32, 26.84, 44.56, 65.73, 203.9, 251.12, 308.4.
The element that satisfies the above values is

(1) Si
(2) Ca
(3) Al
(4) S

21) The group number for the inner transition element is

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

22) In the following set of questions, a Statement I is given and a corresponding Statement II is
given below it. Mark the correct answer as:
Statement I: The size H− is greater than that of F−.
Statement II: The e/p ratio in H− is 2 while that in F− is 10/9.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(1)
Statement I.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation for
(2)
Statement I.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

23) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 element is

(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(2) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

24) The number of elements in 5th and 6th period respectively all-

(1) 8, 18
(2) 18, 18
(3) 18, 32
(4) 18, 28

25) Number of elements in 11th period of the long form of periodic table:
(1) 18
(2) 32
(3) 50
(4) 72

26) If the effective nuclear charge of sodium (Na) is x. Find the effective nuclear charge of Ca?

(1) x
(2) x + 0.65
(3) x + 1.55
(4) x + 1.3

27) Match the following

Column -I Column-II

(P) s-block (a) Contains metalloid

(Q) p-block (b) inner transition element

(R) d-block (c) group 3 to 12

(S) f-block (d) period 1 to 7

(1) (P)-a, (Q) -b, (R) -c, (S) -d
(2) (P)-d, (Q) -a, (R) -b, (S) -c
(3) (P)-d, (Q) -a, (R) -c, (S) -b
(4) None of these

28) Select the amphoteric substance in the following

(1) SO3
(2) Na2O
(3) CO2
(4) Al2O3

29) Find the formula of halide of a metal whose successive ionization enthalpies are x, 2x, 5x, 100 x
kJmol–1 respectively

(1) MX
(2) MX2
(3) MX3
(4) M2X

30) In CO2, SO2, SiO2 each central atom is covalently bonded with :-

(1) 2,2,4 oxygen atoms respectively

(2) 2,2,2 oxygen atoms respectively
(3) 2,4,4 oxygen atoms respectively
(4) 4,4,4 oxygen atoms respectively

31) Total no. of vacant orbitals in valence shell of sulphur when it undergoes formation of SF4:-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

32) Correct order of extent strength of overlapping is:-

(1) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p

(2) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p
(3) 1s – 1s < 2s – 2s < 3s – 3s
(4) 3s – 3s > 3s – 3p > 3p – 3p

33) Which compound is formed in 2nd excited state?

(1) PCl5
(2) SH6
(3) SO3
(4) IF7

34) The electron affinity values for the halogens shows the following trend:-

(1) F< Cl > Br > I

(2) F< Cl > Br < I
(3) F > Cl > Br > I
(4) F< Cl > Br < I

35) The octet rule is not obeyed in :

(A) CO2 (B) BCl3
(C) PCl5 (D) SiF4

(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) B, C
(4) A, D

36) Covalent radii of atoms varies in range of 72 pm to 133 pm from F to I while that of noble gases
He to Xe varies from 120pm to 220pm. This is because in case of noble gases

(1) Covalent radius is very large

(2) Van der Waal radius is considered
(3) Metallic radii is considered
(4) None of these

37) Look at the following potential energy curve which of the following correctly represents the most

stable state of hydrogen molecule.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

38)

The cause of chemical combination is/are

(1) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration

(2) Tendency to acquire minimum energy
(3) Tendency to acquire maximum stability
(4) Both (1) & (2)

39)

Variable covalency is shown by

(1) P
(2) S
(3) I
(4) All of these

40) Which of the following species is odd electrons:

(1) CO2
(2) BCl3
(3) NO2
(4) H2O

41) Which molecule does not exist

(1) OF6
(2) SF4
(3) SF6
(4) XeF6

42) Max strength is of :-

(1) 1s – 2p
(2) 1s – 3p
(3) 1s – 4p
(4) All equal

43) Which of the following has pπ–dπ bonding.

–
(1) NO3
–2
(2) SO4
–3
(3) BO3
–2
(4) CO3

44) p-p overlapping will be observed in the molecules of

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Hydrogen bromide
(3) Hydrogen chloride
(4) Chlorine

45) According to the valence bond theory, when a covalent bond in formed between two reacting
atoms, the potential energy of the system becomes -

(1) negative
(2) positive
(3) minimum
(4) maximum

BIOLOGY

1) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises the other constituents
of the cell and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as:

(1) Cell division

(2) Cell cycle
(3) Cell growth
(4) Cell duplication

2) Diakinesis is characterized by

(1) Full condensation of chromosome

(2) Assemblage of spindle
(3) Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear membrane
(4) All the above

3) A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle when compared to the gamete
of the same species has

(1) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
(2) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.
(3) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA.
(4) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

4)

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement-A: Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and DNA replication but only a
single cycle of cell division.
Statement-B: Meiosis I is initiated, after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce
identical sister chromatids at the S phase.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

5)

Select the sequence of events that take place during mitosis in correct chronological order.
(a) Splitting of centromeres.
(b) Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(c) Reformation of Golgi complex and ER.
(d) Condensation of chromosomal material.
Options:

(1) (d) → (a) → (b) → (c)

(2) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d)
(3) (c) → (b) → (a) → (d)
(4) (d) → (b) → (a) → (c)

6)

In oocytes of some vertebrates, ______ lasts for months or years.

Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis
7) The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(1) G1 → G2 → S → M
(2) S → G1 → G2 → M
(3) G1 → S → G2 → M
(4) M → G1 → G2 → S

8) Determine the stage at which the following structure is visible :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Transition to metaphase
(4) Metaphase

9) Synaptonemal complexes are formed in :-

(1) Zygotene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene

10) When are bivalents of chromosomes first clearly visible in meiosis ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinesis

11) Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species
is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms, even though the process, per se
paradoxically results in reducing of chromosome number by half.
Given below are two statements about this process :
Statement 1 : It also increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one
generation to the next.
Statement 2 : Variations are very important for the process of evolution.
Options :

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct.
(4) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect.

12) The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope in a cell cycle marks the :-

(1) Start of prophase of mitosis

(2) Start of metaphase of mitosis
(3) End of anaphase of mitosis
(4) Start of telophase of mitosis

13) In plants, mitosis occurs in -

(1) Only in haploid cells

(2) Only in diploid cells
(3) Both in haploid and diploid cells
(4) Neither in haploid nor diploid cell

14) In meiosis, division of centromere occurs during:-

(1) Interphase
(2) Anaphase - I
(3) Anaphase - II
(4) Metaphase - I

15) Which of the following phase is best phase for study of morphology of chromosome ?

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

16) How many chromosome shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has
ten chromosome?

(1) 10 (Ten)
(2) 20 (Twenty)
(3) 30 (Thirty)
(4) 40 (Forty)

17) A bivalent consists of

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
18) Crossing over occurs between ____A____ chromatids of ___B_____ chromosomes.

(1) Sister, Homologous

(2) Sister, Non-homologous
(3) Non-sister, Homologous
(4) Non-sister, Non-homologous

19) Significance of Mitosis:

(A) Growth of multicellular organisms.
(B) Cell repair.
(C) Production of gametes in higher animals.
(D) Maintenance of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) All are correct

20) Select the events of Prophase:

(A) Chromosomal material condenses.
(B) Centrosome moves to opposite poles.
(C) Nuclear envelope, Golgi and ER disappear.
(D) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) All are correct

21) Match the Meiosis I Prophase sub-stage with Event:

List -I List-II

(P) Zygotene (1) Crossing over

(Q) Pachytene (2) Synapsis

(R) Diplotene (3) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(S) Diakinesis (4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

(1) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(2) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(3) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(4) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

22) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process occurs in Zygotene.
Statement II : DNA Duplication is an enzyme-mediated process occurs in Inter-kinesis of Meiosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

23) Nucleolus and the nuclear envelope reappear at which stage of mitosis?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

24) Select the correct match.

(1) Zygotene – Homologous chromosomes start pairing together

(2) G2 phase – Metabolically inactive stage
(3) S phase – Chromosome number becomes double
(4) Diplotene – Formation of synaptonemal complex

25) If a cell in G1 phase has 20 chromosome (chromatin) and 20 Pg DNA in nucleus then which one

option is correct for given diagrams (A-D) :-

(1) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-20, 20

(2) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-10, 20
(3) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20
(4) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20

26) If the amount of DNA at the ‘S’ phase of a gamete producing cell is 40 pg. Than what will the
amount of DNA in the gamete cell :-

(1) 40 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 10 pg
(4) 80 pg

27) Assertion :- During zygotene chromosome shows bivalent stage.

Reason :- The number of bivalent in the cell is half the number of chromosome in the cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Most dramatic period of cell cycle is

(1) Gap 1 only

(2) M-phase
(3) S-phase only
(4) Interphase

29) Which pair is wrong :-

(1) Anaphase Centromere spliting

(2) Telophase Reformation of nucleolus
(3) Metaphase Duplication of cell organells
(4) Cellplate Plant cell division
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Find the correct sequence with respect to prophase-I of meiosis-I ?

(1) Leptotene → zygotene → diplotene → pachytene → diakinesis

(2) Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diakinesis → diplotene
(3) Leptotene → pachytene → zygotene → diplotene → diakinesis
(4) Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis

31)

Which of the following is/are correct with respect to meiosis?

(A) Diplotene is marked by terminalization of chiasmata
(B) Splitting of centromere occurs in anaphase-II
(C) Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in prophase-II

(D) Interkinesis is short lived phase which is followed by prophase-II, a much simpler phase than
prophase-I
(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) A, C
(4) Only D

32) Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

(1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

33) Formation of synaptonemal complex and dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs

respectively in which of the following phases of meiosis ?

(1) Leptotene and Diakinesis

(2) Pachytene and Zygotene
(3) Zygotene and Diplotene
(4) Zygotene and Diakinesis

34) In which phase centriole move toward opposite poles of the cell :

(1) G1 phase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Prophase

35) Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis ?

(1) Chromatin condensation

(2) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere
(4) Crossing over

36) Some characters/statements are given below. How many of them are found in M-phase of
somatic cell?
A. 95% of duration of cell cycle consume M-phase.
B. Starts with the nuclear division.
C. Known as resting phase.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

37) What should be correct among following if diploid cell go for meiosis ?

(1) Anaphase I – 2n, 4c

(2) Anaphase II – n, 2c
(3) Prophase I – 4n, 4c
(4) Metaphase II – 2n, 2c

38)

Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them.
Statement A: The steps of cell cycle are themselves under genetic control.
Statement B: Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

39) All of the following are the phases of interphase, except;

(1) S phase.
(2) G1 phase.
(3) G2 phase.
(4) M phase.

40) Tetrad of cells is formed in meiosis by cytokinesis after;

(1) prophase I.
(2) prophase II.
(3) telophase II.
(4) telophase I

41) Meiosis is commonly studied by using-

(1) Onion floral bud

(2) Onion root tip
(3) Onion shoot tip
(4) Both (2) & (3)

42) The region of attachment of chromosome to spindle fibre is called-

(1) Centriole
(2) Centrosome
(3) Chromosome
(4) Kinetochore

43) A cell plate is laid down during

(1) Cytokinesis
(2) Karyokinesis
(3) S-phase
(4) G2-phase

44) The stage during which cell decides to get specialised is

(1) S-phase
(2) M-phase
(3) G1-phase
(4) G2-phase

45) If 22 chromosomes are present at G1 phase of the cell cycle then, the number of chromosomes
after G2 phase will be

(1) 44
(2) 22
(3) 66
(4) 11

46) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and

function ?

Tissue Location Function

(1) (A) Simple squamous epithelium Air sacs of lungs Diffusion

(2) (B) Unicellular gland Alimentary canal Secretion

(3) (C) Bone Trachea Support

(4) (D) Compound epithelium Skin Protection

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47)

Read the given statements and select the correct answer:-

a. fibroblasts are mature cells of connective cell which secrete serotonin
b. collagen fibres are unbranched and found in bundle form
c. Adipocytes contain fat globules to store fat.
d. Mast cells are phagocytic in nature.

(1) a,b and c are correct

(2) c and d are incorrect
(3) a and d are incorrect
(4) b,c and d are correct

48) Identify the correct set of statements that are incorrect.

(A) In the complex body of multicellular animals the basic functions are carried out by different
groups of cells in a well organised manner.
(B) When two or more organs perform different functions by their physical and/or chemical
interaction, they together form organ system.
(C) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment and thus provides a covering or a lining for some parts of the body.
(D) In dense irregular connective tissue collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel
bundles of fibres

(1) (A) & (B)

(2) (B) & (C)
(3) (A), (C) & (D)
(4) (B) & (D)

49) Smooth muscles are :-

(1) Involuntary, Spindle-shaped, uninucleated

(2) Voluntary, multinucleated, cylindrical
(3) Involuntary, Cylindrical, multinucleated
(4) Voluntary, branched, uninucleated

50) Mast cells secrete –

(1) Hippurin
(2) Myoglobin
(3) Histamine
(4) Hemoglobin

51) Areolar connective tissue joins –

(1) Fat body with muscles

(2) Integument with muscles
(3) Bones with muscles
(4) Bones with bones

52) Haversian canals are found in :

(1) Bones of birds

(2) Bones of amphibians
(3) Bones of mammals
(4) Cartilage of mammals

53) _______ connect bone to bone.

(1) Cartilage
(2) Muscles
(3) Ligaments
(4) Tendons

54) Protein present in cartilage & bone :-

(1) Chondrin & ossein respectively
(2) Chondroitin sulphate
(3) Cartilagein
(4) Ossein & chondrin respectively

55) How many of the following are true for glandular epithelium?
(a) Some of the cuboidal or columnar cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular
epithelium.
(b) Salivary gland is a multicellular gland consisting of cluster of cells.
(c) On the basis of mode of secretion glands are divided into 4 types namely endocrine, exocrine,
heterocrine and mixocrine.
(d) Endocrine glands are ductless glands and their products are secreted directly into the fluid
bathing the gland.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) Matrix of cartilage is produced by :-

(1) Chondrocytes
(2) Chondroclasts
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Histiocytes

57) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts

labelled as A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them.

Options :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macrophage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell

(2) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cell

(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Statement I: Connective tissue are the most abundant tissue in complex animals. Statement
II: It connects different body parts, tissues and organs.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

59) Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and neuroglial cells. Point out which of the following
statement about these two cells is false :
I. Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body.
II. Neuroglia protect and support neurons.
III. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels
along its cytosol.
IV. Arrival of this disturbance at the neuron endings triggers events that may cause stimulation or
inhibition of adjacent neurons or other cells.

(1) Only I and IV

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III
(4) Only IV

60) Assertion : Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits
division of labour.
Reason : Division of labour helps an organism to efficiently integrate distinct cellular activities thus
increases the chances of survival of an organism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

61) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
Reason : Gap junction helps rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Given below are two statements —

Statement I : Adipose tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium.
Statement II : In all connective tissue except blood the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins
called collagen or elastin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement - I and statement - II are incorrect

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement — II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct

63) Statement-I : Fibre and fibroblast are loosely packed in the dense connective tissue.
Statement-II : Tendon & Ligament are example of dense irregular connective tissue.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

64) Statement-I : Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment.
Statement-II : Epithelium tissue provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

65) Statement-I : Intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression.
Statement-II : Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground substances rich in calcium salts.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

66) Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding connective tissues?
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose connective
tissues.
(iv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs.
(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) (iv) only

(2) (v) only
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (v)

67) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding simple cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is an epithelial tissue

(2) It is composed of a single layer of cube like cells
(3) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs
(4) Secretion and absorption are the main functions of these tissue.

68) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions

(2) The intercellular material of cartilage is semi-fluid and pliable
(3) The products of the exocrine glands are released through ducts or tubes
(4) Blood is a fluid connective tissue

69) Find the wrong statement with respect to neural tissue.

(1) Neuroglia make nearly half the volume of neural tissue

(2) Neuroglia protect and support neurons
(3) Neural tissue controls the body's responsiveness to changing conditions
(4) Neurons are the unit of neural system.

70) Read the following statements carefully. These statements are correct for which type of
epithelium?
(A) Made up of more than one layer of cells.
(B) Has limited role in secretion and absorption.
(C) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(D) They covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx.

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple coloumnar
(4) Compound epithelium

71) Read the following four statements (a-d) :-

(a) Ciliated epithelium are mainly present in the inner surface of alveoli
(b) Stratified squamous epithelium is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of
nephron.
(c) The simple squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular
boundaries.
(d) Microvilli help in movement of substances.
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

72) Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)
Found in DCT
(2)
Found in Mesothelium

(3)
Bowman's capsule

(4)

Found in blood vessel

73)
The given figure represent :-

(1) Ligaments
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Cartilage
(4) Adipose tissue

74) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the epithelium found in lining of small
intestine?

(1) Composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells

(2) Nuclei are situated at the base of cell
(3) Free surface may have microvilli
(4) It also lines bronchioles

75) A student scraped thin layer of cells from inner surface of cheeks by blunt end of a scalpel and
then observed it under microscope. Which types of cells can be seen in microscopic observation ?

(1) Columnar cells

(2) Squamous cells
(3) Cuboidal cells
(4) Pigmental cells

76) Match the columns :-

Tight
(A) Unicellular gland (1)
junctions

Facilitate rapid Gap

(B) (2)
transfer of ions junctions
 Stops leakage of Compound
(C) (3)
substance epithelia

Provide
Goblet
(D) protection to (4)
cell
underlying tissues

Simple
(5)
epithelia
(1) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 5
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3

77) Which of the following is not correct for epithelium?

(a) Cells are compactly packed
(b) Little or no intercellular spaces
(c) Highly vascularised
(d) Forms covering or lining of some organs
(e) Plays a role in protection but not in secretion

(1) All except (a) and (c)

(2) Only (c) and (e)
(3) Only (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (e)

78) Match the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scavanger
(i) Fibroblast (a) Serotonin (1)
cells

Clone of
(ii) Plasma cell (b) Largest cell (2)
Lymphocyte

Cart
(iii) Mast cell (c) (3) Vasoconstrictor
wheel cell

Kidney Matrix
(iv) Macrophages (d) shaped (4) producing
nucleus cells
(1) (i)-b-4, (ii)-c-2, (iii)-a-3, (iv)-d-1
(2) (i)-b-4, (ii)-a-3, (iii)-c-2, (iv)-d-1
(3) (i)-a-2, (ii)-b-1, (iii)-d-4, (iv)-c-3
(4) (i)-a-2, (ii)-c-3, (iii)-d-4, (iv)-b-1

79)

Mark the correct match :-

 Tissue Character

Fibroblasts and fibres are

(1)
parallely arranged

It contains fibroblasts,
(2)
mast cell and macrophages

Located mainly beneath

(3) the skin and form
lymphocytes

Ground substances is
(4)
hard and non-pliable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) The supportive skeletal structures in human external ears and in the nose tip are example of

(1) Ligament
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

81) Identify (A), (B), (C) in the table given below :-

Tendon Ligament
It is composed of white fibrous It is composed of yellow elastic
tissue tissue
A It is strong and elastic
The fibroblast lie in almost
The fibroblast are scattered
continuous rows
B C
A = It is tough and inelastic B = It connects skeletal muscle to bones C = It connects bone to
(1)
another bone
A = It is weak and inelastic
(2)
B = It connects skeletal muscles to viscera C = It connects a bone to another bone
A = It is strong and highly elastic
(3)
B = It connects skeletal muscles to bone C = It connects a bone to another bone
A = It is tough and inelastic
(4)
B = It contains scanty collagen fibres C = It contains abundant collagen fibres

82)
Identify the correct match

Column I Column II Column III

1. Bone A. Vascular P. Unidirectional growth

Q. Connects skin with

2. Cartilage B. Stores fat
muscles

3. Areolar tissue C. Avascular R. Present under the skin

D. Areolar connective
4. Adipose tissue S. Bidirectional growth
tissue
(1) 1-C-S
(2) 2-C-P
(3) 3-B-R
(4) 2-C-S

83) Which of the following is not correct regarding areolar tissue?

(1) It serves as supporting framework for epithelium

(2) Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground substance
(3) Collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres
(4) It contains mast cells, fibroblasts and macrophages

84) Epithelium present in skin and pharynx is :-

(1) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

(2) Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
(3) Stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

85) Thyroid follicle is lined by :-

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium
(4) Areolar connective tissue

86) The similarity between wall of intestine, gall bladder and proximal convoluted tubules is :-

(1) Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

(2) Stratified columnar Epithelium
(3) Presence of Microvilli
(4) Presence of cilia

87) Ligaments are mainly made up of

(1) Reticulin
(2) Elastin
(3) Myosin
(4) Collagen

88) Choose the correct match.

(a) Decalcified bone (i) Treated with KOH

(b) Dried bone (ii) Kept at high temperature

(c) Bright bone (iii) Treated with dilute HCl

(1) (a)-i, (b)-iii, (c)-ii
(2) (a)-ii, (b)-i, (c)-iii
(3) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i

89) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) On the basis of structural modification of the cells, simple epithelium is divided into three types.
If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their basal surface, they are called ciliated
(2)
epithelium.
(3) The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has cilia.
(4) Cuboidal epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.

90) The cell junctions like gap junction, tight junction are found in

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 1 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 1 1 1 3 2 1 4 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) May or may not be zero

2)

3)

4) 2 m/s2​

5)

6)

7)

8) 15 m/s

9)

10) 2ab/c
11) The launch speed is same for all the three

12) u cot θ

13) 500 m

14) C and D

15) g + a, g

16) 25.71 s

17) 5 h

18) After 2s at a height of 180 m

19) w.r.t. rain

20) 19.6 m

21)

in the same direction

22)

V)t=2 = 18 m/s
V)t = 5 = 60 m/s

23) Sn = an2
Sn – 3 = a(n – 3)2 Also V = an ⇒ a = V/n

So, Sn – Sn–3 = . [n2 – (n – 3)2]

Displacement in last 3 second =

24)

eq of this curve

v2 = –
diff. w.r.t s

= – 0.2 m/s2

25) v2 – u2 = 2gh

⇒h= = = 100 m

26)

27)

Maximum Height

D 80°.
28)

29) Horizontal Velocity of the bomb is same as horizontal velocity of the plane. Therefore, the
bomb falls exactly below the plane.

30) Explain the Question : In this question a ball is projected upward from a 40 m high tower
with speed 20 m/s at 30°. We need to find the total time it takes to strike the ground.
Concept : This question is based on projection from height (oblique projection)
Solution :

For vertical motion (along with sign convention upwards → –ve, downward → +ve)

⇒ Sy = +40m, uy = –usin 30° = –20 × = – 10 m/s

ay = +g = +10 m/s2, t = time of flight

⇒ 40 = –10 ×t + × 10 × t2
⇒ 40 = – 10t + 5t2 ⇒ 5t2 – 10t – 40 = 0
or t2 – 2t – 8 = 0
⇒ t2 – 4t + 2t – 8 = 0
t(t – 4) + 2 (t – 4) = 0
(t + 2) (t – 4) = 0
∴ t = 4 sec (t = –2 sec → not valid)
Final Answer :

31) Question Explanation : We're given an assertion about a particle's motion and a reason
that explains it. We need to determine if both are true and if the reason correctly explains the
assertion.
Concept : Velocity & Acceleration.
Solution :
Velocity (v) = – 4 m/s (negative sign indicates the direction)
Acceleration (a) = +2 m/s2 (positive sign indicates the direction)
Since velocity and acceleration have opposite signs, the acceleration is acting to decrease the
magnitude of the velocity (speed).
∴ Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Final Answer: option (1)

32) Explain the Question : In this question we need to check the truth of the statements
about projectile range symmetry for complementary angle.
Concept : This question is based on ground to ground projectile motion (range of a projectile).
Solution :

Horizontal range depends upon angle of projection and it is same for complementary angles
i.e. θ and (90 - θ).
Final Answer : 3

33) Conceptual

34)

2 2
A to B : V = u + 2a ...(i)
2 2
A to C : v = u + 2a. d ...(ii)

From (ii), ad =

35) Sn = Distance in nth sec. i.e. t = n – 1 to t = n

Sn + 1 = Distance in (n + 1)th sec.
i.e. t = n to t = n + 1
So
as we know
Sn = a = acceleration

36) Given uA = 0, uB = 1m/s,

aA = 4 m/s2 and aB = 0
Assuming car B to be at rest, we have
uAB = uA – uB = 0 – 1 = –1m/s
aAB = aA – aB = 4 – 0 = 4 m/s2
Now, the problem can be assumed in simplified form as follows

Substituting the proper values in equation

we get 10 = –t +
or 2t2 – t – 10 = 0

or

= or t = 2.5 s and –2s

Ignoring the negative value, the desired time is 2.5s

37)

38)

Given velocity of man, vm = 2 kmh–1

and velocity of rain with respect to man

vrm = 2 km/h

tanθ =
tanθ = 1
⇒ θ = 45°
Thus, direction of rainfall with the vertical is 45°
Actual velocity of rain

sinθ =

sin45° =
⇒ vr =

39) Explain question : In this question we are asked to find the time a boat would take to
cover the same distance in still water when the downstream and upstream times are given.
Concept : This question is based on river-man problem/
Solution : Let velocity of river = u
velocity of boat w.r.t. river = v

For downstream
vboat = v + u

....(1)
For upstream

....(2)
Adding equation 91) and equation (2)

⇒ (v + u) + (v – u) =

⇒v= (v = velocity of boat in still water i.e. vR = u = 0)

⇒ Let 't' be the time taken to cover distance 'd' in still water

⇒
Final answer: 4
40)

41) The angle between gravitational force and velocity changes continously.

42)

Explaining the Question :- The question presents an Assertion stating that a body projected
vertically upward has a constant rate of change of velocity (i.e, constant acceleration) during
its flight, and a Reason stating that the average acceleration of the body during its total
journey (up and down) is zero. determine the truth of each statement and whether the reason
correctly explains the Assertion
Concept:- This question is based on Motion under Gravity

Formula :-

Solution :- Assertion is true: The rate of change of velocity is acceleration, which is -g for a
projectile under gravity. This value is constant throughout the flight.
Reason is False : Average acceleration is

For the total journey back to the launch point vfinal = – vinitial. Thus

Which simplifies to-g (not zero)

Since the Assertion is true and the Reason is false, the correct option_3
Final Answer :- 3

43)

Question Explanation : Asking about the initial velocity of B, for partiles to be collide.

Concept : Collision between projectiles.

Solution :

The projectiles to be collide in air, their relative velocity must follow the equation.
 Now, comparing both the components, on both sides
(u + 10)t = 40
10t = 10
Now,

u = 30 m/s

Final Answer: option (2)

44) Explain question : In this question we are given with the equation of trajectory h = Ax –
Bx2, for an object projected with 20 m/s at an angle 45° with horizontal. We need to find A : B
Concept : This question is based on equation of trajectory in ground to ground projection
Solution : Standard equation of trajectory is

y = x tan θ –
h = Ax – Bx2 (given equation)
on comparing with the standard equation, we get

A = tan θ, B =

(∵ θ = 45º)

(∵ tan 45º = 1 & cos 45º = )

Final answer : option (4)

45)
4x = 9

x=
height of second drop from ground = 9 – x

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain Question: Arrange the given isoelectronic ions in order of increasing size.
Concept: This question is based on Ionic Radii
Solution: All species have 10 electrons. For isoelectronic ions, radius decreases as nuclear
charge (protons) increases. Cations are smaller than anions, so Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–.
 Atomic/Ionic Radius ∝
Final Answer : 2

47) Beryllium has a very low electron affinity due to stable electronic configuration, and
adding an electron to it requires energy, making this process endothermic (energy is
absorbed).

48) Explanation :- The question asks which set of elements has similar atomic sizes.
Concept- :- Fe, Co, Ni, transition metals in the same period, have similar radii due to d-orbital
filling. Alkali metals (Na, K, Rb, Cs) and halogens (F, Cl, Br, I) show increasing radii down
their groups. Elements Li, Be, B, C show decreasing radii across their period, thus, only Fe,
Co, Ni have nearly the same atomic radius.
Answer-3 (Fe, Co, Ni)

49) Answer - Option(1)

Explanation - To analyze the options
Concept - Hydrogen has only one electron and no inner electrons to provide
shielding. Screening effect is not observed.

50) Explain Question : Predict the first ionization energy of phosphorus from given values.
Concept : This question is based on Half-filled Stability.
Solution : Phosphorus has a stable, half-filled 3p orbital ([Ne] 3s23p3). This extra stability
means its ionization
energy is exceptionally high, even higher than sulfur.
Final Answer : 1

51)

Question Explanation :
The question asks for the respective values of the second ionization potentials of oxygen and
fluorine.

Concept : Ionization potential

Solution :

The second ionization potential of Oxygen (O+ with a half-filled 2p3 configuration) is higher
because removing another electron disrupts this stability. For Fluorine (F+), removing the
second electron leads to a more stable 2p3 configuration, resulting in a lower second ionization
potential.
Thus, Second ionization potentials of O(38.3) > F(35.1)

Final Answer : Option (2)

52) Explain the question : Asking about order of screening effect.

Concept : This question is based on screening effect
Solution : s orbitals penetrate closest to nucleus, giving maximum shielding. p orbitals
penetrate less than s. d orbitals are diffuse with poor penetration. f orbitals are most diffuse,
giving minimum screening.
Final answer : Option (2)

53) Explain the question : Identify correct order of atomic radius.

Concept : This question is based on atomic radius.
Solution :
Ne > Be
2, 8 2, 2
Due to vander waal's radius Ne is large than Be.
Final answer : Option (3)

54)

1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

55)

Explaining the Question :- Identify the periodic table block for the given electron
configuration.

Concept:- This question is based on Periodic blocks

Solution :- [Ar]3d10 4s1 -Copper (Cu) → d-block.

Final Answer :- 3

56)

O < C < S < Se

57)

Question Explanation : We are asked: What is the correct decreasing order of first
ionisation potential of Li, Be, and B?

Concept :

Ionisation potential increases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge, but Be > B
because of stable ns² configuration.

Solution :

A. Li (Z=3) < Be (Z=4) < B (Z=5) in general trend.

B. Exception: Be has higher IP than B because removing electron from stable 2s² is harder
than from 2p¹.
 C. So order: Be > B > Li.

Final Answer : Option (2)

58)

[Ne]3s2 3p5 =
'Cl' has max. EA in periodic table.

59)

The given electronic configuration belongs to the elements Na, Cl, P and Mg. The correct
decreasing size of the elements is Na > Mg > P > Cl.

60)

The extra stability of half filled P-orbital

61) Explain Question: Classify the elements with the given atomic numbers into a group.
Concept: This question is based on periodic table groups.
Solution: The atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, and 85 correspond to Fluorine, Chlorine,
Bromine, Iodine, and Astatine, which are the elements of Group 17, known as the halogens.
Final Answer: 2

62)

63)

BA2

64)

33

65)

Si

66)

3
67)

Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.

68)

B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

69)

18, 32

70)

72

71)

x + 0.65

72)

(P)-d, (Q) -a, (R) -c, (S) -b

73)

Al2O3

74)

MX3

75)
76)

77)

1s – 1s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p

78)

Covalency Covalency Covalency Covalency

in G.S. in E.S.I. in ESII in ES III
PCl5 3 5
(form in ESI)
SH6 2 Not possible
(Not possible)
SO3 2 4 6
(form in ESII)
IF7 1 3 5 7
(form in ESIII)

79)

F< Cl > Br > I

80)

81)

Van der Waal radius is considered

82)

ANSWER (B)

83)
 Both (1) & (2)

84)

All of these

85) Explaining the Question :- Identify molecule containing an odd electron.

Concept:- This question is based on Odd-electron species.
Solution :- NO2 has 23 ( 7+16) electrons, leaving one unpaired electron.

Final Answer :- Option 3

86)

OF6

87)

1s – 2p

88)

Explain Question : Asking about Which has pπ–dπ bonding

Concept: Hybridisation & vbt.

Solution:
In SO42–, sulfur (Period 3 element) can use vacant 3d orbitals for π bonding with oxygen →
pπ–dπ interaction.

Final Answer: Option (2) SO4–2

89)

Chlorine

90)

minimum

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT pg. 120

92) NCERT pg. 126

93) Allen module.

94)

NCERT pg. 125

95)

NCERT Pg: 122, 123, 124

96)

NCERT Pg: 126

97) NCERT Based.

98)

Transition to metaphase

99)

Zygotene

100)

Pachytene

101)

Both statements are correct.

102)

Start of metaphase of mitosis

103)

Both in haploid and diploid cells

104)
Anaphase - II

105)

Metaphase

106)

40 (Forty)

107)

Four chromatids and two centromeres

108) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Ref: NCERT Page 168.

109) Gametes are produced by Meiosis (C is false). Ref: NCERT Page 167.

110) Spindle attachment to kinetochores is a Metaphase event (D is false). Ref: NCERT Page
165.

111) Zygo (Synapsis), Pachy (Cross over), Diplo (Dissolution), Dia (Terminalisation). Ref:
NCERT Page 168.

112)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

113)

Telophase

114)

Zygotene – Homologous chromosomes start pairing together

115)

Explain Question – You’re asked to identify which option correctly matches chromosome
number and DNA content across four different cell cycle stages (A–D).

Concept – This question based on meiosis.

Solution –

A: Prophase I -> 20 chromosomes, 40 Pg DNA

B: Metaphase I -> 20 chromosomes, 40 Pg DNA

C: Anaphase I -> 10 chromosomes, 20 Pg DNA

D:Telophase I -> 10 chromosomes, 10 Pg DNA

Final Answer – Option (2)

116) Explaining the Question – The question is asking about DNA content changes during
meiosis, specifically after the S phase.
Concept – Cell cycle
Solution –

Since the DNA content at the S phase is 40 pg, representing the diploid (2C) state, the haploid
(C) state would have half the DNA content.

Therefore, the DNA content in the resulting gamete is 40 pg / 4 = 10 pg.

Final Answer - 3

117)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

118) NCERT Page no. 122

119)

NCERT, Pg # 166

120)

NCERT Pg. # 168

121) NCERT Pg. # 168

122)

During metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes align at the cell's equator, also known as the
metaphase plate. Spindle fibers attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes, ensuring their
precise movement and alignment at the metaphase plate. This alignment is crucial for the
equal distribution of genetic material into daughter cells.
The correct answer is:
Option: (4). Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate
in metaphase
 123) Explanation

A. Zygotene: The synaptonemal complex forms during this stage when homologous
chromosomes begin to pair and align. This is part of the synapsis process, where the
chromosomes get physically connected by the synaptonemal complex.

B. Diplotene: During this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolves. Chromosomes begin to
separate slightly, but they remain attached at chiasmata where crossing over has occurred.
This marks the end of the intense pairing and recombination phase.

Correct Answer: 3. Zygotene and Diplotene

124)

Prophase

125)

SOLUTION —
Crossing over occurs during meiosis (specifically during Prophase I), not mitosis. It involves
the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, leading to genetic
variation.
The correct answer is: OPTION(4)Crossing over

126)

The correct answer is:

2. 1
Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement:
A. "95% of duration of cell cycle consume M-phase"
• False: The M-phase is actually quite short, typically lasting around 10% of the cell cycle, not
95%.
B. "Starts with the nuclear division"
• True: The M-phase begins with karyokinesis (nuclear division), which includes mitosis
(dividing the nucleus) and cytokinesis (dividing the cytoplasm).
C. "Known as resting phase"
• False: The resting phase is the Go phase (not M-phase). The M-phase is an active phase of
the cell cycle.
Thus, only statement B is true for M-phase.
Final Answer:
Option 2 - 1 (Only 1 statement is true for M-phase).

127)

NCERT XI, Topic # 10.1.1

 128)

Pending
Both the statements are correct

129) NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 121

130) (NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 128)

131)

Onion floral bud

132)

Kinetochore

133)

Cytokinesis

134)

G1-phase

135)

22

136)

(4) (D) Compound epithelium Skin Protection

137) Allen module

138)

(B) & (D)

139)

Involuntary, Spindle-shaped, uninucleated

140)

Question is Asking About :

Function of Cells of Areolar CT .

Solution/Explanation :
Mast cells Secretes Histamin Serotonin, Heparin

141)

Integument with muscles

142)

Bones of mammals

143)

Ligaments

144)

Chondrin & ossein respectively

145)

NCERT XI _ Pg.105

146)

Question explanation: The question is asking which cell produces the matrix of cartilage.
Concept: Cartilage.
Solution: The matrix of cartilage is secreted by chondrocytes, the mature cartilage cells
present in lacunae.

Final answer:Option 1

147)

Question Explanation: The question is asking to identify the labelled parts A, B, C and D in a
diagram of connective tissue and choose the correct matching option.
Concept: Areolar connective tissue components.
Solution: In areolar connective tissue, macrophages are irregular cells, fibroblasts are
elongated cells, collagen fibres are thick fibres, and mast cells are granular. Option 3 correctly
matches the sequence: macrophage, fibroblast, collagen fibres, mast cell.
Final answer: Option 3

148)

Question Explanation: Statement based question

Concept: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Solution: Statement I: Connective tissue are the most abundant tissue in complex-correct
animals.

Statement II: It connects different body parts, tissues and organs-correct

Both statements I and II are correct

Final answer: Option(3)

149) NCERT XI, Page # 104

Only III

150)

Question explanation:
The question is asking whether the statements about division of labour in cells, tissues,
organs, and systems are correct and whether the reason explains the assertion properly.
Concept: This question is based on Structural Organisation in Animals.
Solution:
Assertion: Correct – Cells, tissues, organs, and systems divide work to ensure efficiency.
Reason: Correct – Division of labour integrates different functions and increases survival.
The reason directly explains why division of labour exists.
Final answer:
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102

152)

Statement - I is incorrect but statement — II is correct.

153) NCERT Pg. # 103 (Para : 7.1.2.)

154)

Question explanation:
The question is asking whether two statements about epithelial tissue—its free surface
orientation and its role in covering/lining—are correct.

Concept:
Epithelial tissue

Solution:
Statement-I is correct: epithelium has a free (apical) surface facing a body lumen/fluid or the
external environment.
Statement-II is correct: epithelium forms coverings and linings of organs and body surfaces.

Final answer: Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

155) NCERT Pg. # 104

156) Question Explanation:

Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding connective tissue?

Concept: This question is based on connnective tissue, types and functions.

Solution:
Statement (iv) is incorrect: The internal and external linings are formed by epithelial tissue,
not connective tissue.

Final Answer: (1)

157) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 100

158)

The intercellular material of cartilage is semi-fluid and pliable

159)

Neuroglia make nearly half the volume of neural tissue

160)

Compound epithelium

161)

Three

162) NCERT Pg. # 101

 163)

Ligaments

164)

If also lines bronchioles

165)

Squamous cells

166) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

167)

Only (c) and (e)

168)

Question explanation : Match the given connective tissue cells in Column I with their
features (Column II) and functions (Column III).

Concept : Connective tissue – cell types and functions

Solution :

A. Fibroblast: Matrix-producing cells → (b) Largest cell ,linked with (4) Matrix producing
cells.

B. Plasma cell: Derived from lymphocytes, cart-wheel nucleus → (c) Cart wheel cell, (2)
Clone of lymphocyte.

C. Mast cell: Contains histamine & serotonin, causes vasoconstriction → (a) Serotonin, (3)
Vasoconstrictor.

D. Macrophages: Kidney-shaped nucleus, scavenger cells → (d) Kidney shaped nucleus, (1)
Scavenger cells.

So , the matching is : (i) Fibroblast → (b, 4) ,(ii) Plasma cell → (c, 2), (iii) Mast cell → (a, 3) ,(iv)
Macrophages → (d, 1)

Final answer : Option 1

169)

Explain Question:
The question is asking to mark the correct option regarding connective tissue.

Concept:
Connective tissue types

Solution:
(1) Image identification: The first image shows dense irregular connective tissue, where
collagen fiber and fibroblasts are oriented in various directions.
Character: ''Fibroblasts and fibers are parallelly arranged,'' which actually describes dense
regular connective tissue (like tendons). Therefore this match is incorrect.
(2) Image identification: areolar tissue, a type of loose connective tissue.
Character: Areolar tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium and contains various
cells including fibroblasts, mast cells, and macrophages. this match is correct.
(3): Image identification: adipose tissue, characterized by large cells (adipocytes) that store
fats.
Character: While it is located beneath the skin, it does not ''form lymphocytes.'' Lymphocytes
are white blood cells formed in lymphoid organs or bone marrow. Therefore this match is
incorrect.
(4) Image identification: Cartilage, specifically showing chondrocytes enclosed in small
cavities called lacunae within a matrix.
Character: The description says the ground substance is ;;hard and non-pliable,;; which
describes bone tissue. So incorrect.

Final Answer: Option(2)

170)

Cartilage

171) A = It is tough and inelastic B = It connects skeletal muscle to bones C = It connects

bone to another bone

172)

2-C-P

173)

Collagen fibres are present in rectus between many parallel bundles of fibres

174)

Stratified squamous epithelium

175)
Cuboidal epithelium

176) Module No.-5, Pg # 88

177)

Elastin

178)

(a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i

179) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 101

180) Allen module page 67.