RTO(R)-T007

TOPFLYER PILOT TRAINING ACADEMY PVT LTD

PAPER SET 1

RADIO TELEPHONE OPERATOR’S(RESTRICTED)

MAX MARKS: 100
TIME: 90 MINS
QUESTIONS: 50

1. ATC: “Maintain FL120 until further advised.” Which

pilot reply is legally weakest?

A. “Maintaining FL120.”
B. “Roger, maintaining.”
C. “Maintain FL120.”
D. “Wilco.”

2. ATC issues: “Descend when ready FL080.” Which

interpretation is correct?

A. Immediate descent required

B. Pilot may choose timing
C. Descent prohibited until further clearance
D. Advisory only, no descent authorised

3. Which phrase subtly implies clearance that was never issued?

A. “Request descent.”
B. “Descending to FL100.”
C. “Unable descent.”
D. “Standing by.”

4. ATC: “Traffic crossing left to right, maintain visual.” Which

pilot response is non-compliant?

A. “Traffic in sight.”
B. “Maintaining visual separation.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Negative, traffic not in sight.”

5. ATC says: “Report passing FL090.” Correct

reporting point is:

A. Approaching FL090
B. Leaving FL090
C. Exactly at FL090
D. Any of the above

6. Which reply changes the responsibility balance without ATC asking for it?

A. “Roger.”
B. “Wilco.”
C. “Maintaining own separation.”
D. “Unable.”
7. ATC: “Taxi to holding point Runway 14 via Bravo.” Which
reply is technically incorrect?

A. “Taxiing to holding point Runway 14 via Bravo.”

B. “Via Bravo, holding point Runway 14.”
C. “Taxi via Bravo.”
D. “Roger, via Bravo.”

8. Which phrase is most dangerous in congested aerodrome operations?

A. “Standby.”
B. “Roger.”
C. “Ready.”
D. “Unable.”

9. ATC: “Line up and wait.”

Which pilot reply creates ambiguity of action?

A. “Lining up and waiting.”

B. “Line up and wait.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Wilco.”

10. ATC: “Confirm established.” This

request is asking the pilot to:

A. Read back clearance

B. State position relative to a navigation reference
C. Confirm receipt
D. Request further clearance

11. Which phrase indicates future intent, not present action?

A. “Holding short.”
B. “We will hold short.”
C. “Hold short Runway 09.”
D. “Unable hold short.”

12. ATC issues a heading but no callsign is heard. Best pilot response?

A. “Say again.”
B. “Confirm heading for <callsign>.”
C. “Roger.”
D. Maintain current heading silently

13. Which RT error most often leads to altitude deviation without ATC noticing immediately?

A. Saying “Climbing”
B. Saying “Wilco”
C. Saying “Roger”
D. Saying “Leaving FL100”

14. ATC: “Expect approach clearance in five minutes.” Pilot

should:

A. Descend to approach altitude

B. Configure aircraft
C. Take no vertical action
D. Request clearance

15. Which response to “Contact radar 124.6” is weakest?

A. “124.6.”
B. “Radar 124.6.”
C. “Contacting radar.”
D. “Roger.”

16. ATC: “Cross Runway 18, expedite.” Which

readback is legally insufficient?

A. “Crossing Runway 18, expediting.”

B. “Cross Runway 18.”
C. “Wilco.”
D. “Crossing 18 now.”

17. Which phrase wrongly suggests ATC authority transfer to pilot?

A. “When able.”
B. “At your discretion.”
C. “Immediately.”
D. “Maintain.”

18. ATC: “Maintain present speed.”

Which reply introduces unnecessary ambiguity?

A. “Roger.”
B. “Maintaining speed.”
C. “Speed unchanged.”
D. “Wilco.”

19. Which phrase should be avoided because it can sound like an instruction?

A. “Stop climb.”
B. “Stopping climb.”
C. “Leaving climb.”
D. “Unable climb.”

20. ATC issues an amended clearance without saying “Correction”. Pilot should:

A. Follow the last part

B. Ignore the message
C. Request clarification
D. Read back assumed clearance

21. Which RT practice best mitigates similar call sign confusion?

A. Faster readbacks
B. Full callsign use
C. Reduced transmissions
D. Using “Roger”
22. ATC: “Maintain runway heading.” Which
reply is least acceptable?
A. “Maintaining runway heading.”
B. “Runway heading.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Wilco.”

23. Which phrase implies execution without clearance?

A. “Descending.”
B. “Request descent.”
C. “Unable descent.”
D. “Standing by.”

24. ATC: “Vacate runway left when able.” Which

pilot action is incorrect?

A. Vacate at a safe taxiway

B. Slow down to ensure control
C. Stop on runway to clarify
D. Continue rollout normally

25. Which RT phrase provides least situational awareness to ATC?

A. “Leaving FL150 for FL100.”

B. “Descending to FL100.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Passing FL120.”

26. ATC: “Hold short Runway 04.” Which

reply is operationally weakest?

A. “Holding short Runway 04.”

B. “Hold short Runway 04.”
C. “Wilco.”
D. “Unable hold short.”

27. Which phrase should NOT be used to acknowledge a clearance?

A. Wilco
B. Affirm
C. Roger
D. Correct

28. ATC: “Report ready.” This

instruction lacks:

A. Time
B. Altitude
C. Context
D. Frequency

29. Which phrase causes confusion between compliance and acknowledgment?

A. Wilco
B. Roger
C. Affirm
D. Correct
30. The primary reason a VOR becomes unreliable at very long ranges is due to:
A. Increased bearing ambiguity
B. Signal attenuation and noise
C. Cone of confusion
D. Magnetic variation change

31. When tracking a VOR radial inbound, a reverse sensing indication occurs if the aircraft:
A. Has excessive drift
B. Tunes the wrong frequency
C. Is using a non-HSI CDI
D. Is tracking outbound on the reciprocal without correction

32. In DME/DME RNAV navigation, position accuracy degrades most when the two DMEs:
A. Are at different elevations
B. Are nearly aligned with the aircraft
C. Are both behind the aircraft
D. Operate on paired frequencies

33. ADF bearing errors caused by coastal refraction are most noticeable when the aircraft is:
A. Flying inland at high altitude
B. Tracking directly toward the beacon
C. Crossing the coastline at low altitude
D. Flying at night over land

34. The main operational advantage of dual-frequency GNSS receivers in aircraft is:
A. Higher signal power
B. Reduced satellite clock error
C. Direct ionospheric delay compensation
D. Elimination of RAIM requirements

35. For a given aircraft configuration and weight, the stall angle of attack:
A. Increases with altitude
B. Decreases with speed
C. Remains essentially constant
D. Changes with air density

36. An increase in aircraft weight primarily results in:

A. A higher stall speed
B. A higher stall angle of attack
C. A lower induced drag
D. A higher maximum lift coefficient

37. At a constant IAS, climbing to higher altitude requires:

A. Lower thrust
B. Higher lift coefficient
C. Lower angle of attack
D. No change in aerodynamic conditions

38. Induced drag is highest when the aircraft is flying:

A. Fast and clean
B. At low airspeed and high angle of attack
C. At maximum operating speed
D. In a descent

39. Best glide speed in still air provides:

A. Minimum sink rate
B. Maximum endurance
C. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio
D. Minimum drag

40. In a jet engine, a compressor stall is most likely to occur during:

A. Steady cruise
B. Rapid thrust increase at low airspeed
C. Descent at idle thrust
D. High-altitude cruise

41. The primary function of a propeller governor in a turboprop is to:

A. Control engine torque
B. Control fuel flow
C. Maintain selected propeller RPM
D. Prevent engine flameout

42. Bleed air extracted from a jet engine is commonly used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pressurisation
B. Air conditioning
C. Wing anti-icing
D. Electrical power generation

43. At high density altitude, a normally aspirated piston engine will experience:
A. Increased power output
B. Reduced power output
C. Unchanged power output
D. Increased fuel efficiency

44. The main reason modern aircraft use higher system voltages is to:
A. Increase electrical power availability
B. Reduce current for the same power
C. Eliminate circuit protection devices
D. Simplify generator design

45. In an aircraft electrical system, a circuit breaker primarily protects against:

A. Overvoltage
B. Overtemperature of equipment
C. Excessive current flow
D. Frequency variation

46. If an essential bus is automatically powered following generator failure, it indicates that the system
is designed to:
A. Increase redundancy
B. Increase voltage stability
C. Reduce electrical load
D. Improve frequency control

47. For a given aircraft, increasing weight will generally:

A. Reduce take-off distance
B. Increase climb gradient
C. Increase take-off distance
D. Reduce stall speed

48. Maximum endurance for a jet aircraft is achieved at:

A. Best glide speed
B. Maximum speed
C. Speed for minimum drag
D. Speed for minimum thrust required
49. A tailwind component on take-off will primarily:
A. Improve climb performance
B. Reduce ground run
C. Increase take-off distance
D. Reduce stall speed

50. During an RNAV (GNSS) approach, the aircraft is established on final with a stable lateral path.
Suddenly, the GNSS integrity alert is displayed (loss of RAIM), but raw data indications remain steady.
The correct pilot interpretation is that:

A. Lateral guidance remains fully reliable and the approach may be continued
B. Vertical guidance becomes unreliable, but lateral guidance is unaffected
C. Position accuracy can no longer be assured to the required level, even if indications appear
normal
D. The failure only affects missed approach navigation, not the final approach segment