BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

#Answer Keys – Grandmaster Edition 26. The answer is C. The item is flawed. The high difficulty index (p-
Psychological Assessment value) of .95 means the item is too easy (95% got it right), and the
near-zero discrimination index shows it doesn't differentiate between
1. The answer is C. An excessively high Cronbach's alpha (e.g., > .95) high- and low-performing students.
suggests high item redundancy, meaning the items are too similar and 27. The answer is C. For a bilingual individual, it's common for verbal
may not be efficiently measuring the breadth of the construct. subtest scores to be lower than non-verbal scores, even with fluency.
2. The answer is C. Test A, validated on a large and diverse sample, This pattern is most likely a reflection of language and cultural factors
offers better generalizability, making it more suitable for the client's loading on the verbal tasks.
large, diverse hospital system than Test B, which was validated on a 28. The answer is C. The fundamental assumption of Classical Test
small, specific sample. Theory (CTT) is represented by the formula X = T + E, meaning an
3. The answer is C. A professionally responsible interpretation uses the individual's Observed Score (X) is a combination of their True Score
Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) to create a confidence interval (T) and some amount of random Measurement Error (E).
(Observed Score ± ~2*SEM), acknowledging that the true score lies 29. The answer is B. Career assessment for a 14-year-old is not about
within a range, not at an exact point. providing a single definitive answer. The most professional response
4. The answer is C. The findings demonstrate good construct validity, is to reframe the goal to one of exploration, using assessment to
supported by strong convergent validity (high correlation with a similar identify interests and aptitudes to help the teen explore a range of
"gold standard" measure) and good discriminant validity (weak options.
correlation with an unrelated measure). 30. The answer is B. The raw score of 60 has declined in relative terms.
5. The answer is C. Using Item Response Theory (IRT) to create forms Using z-scores to compare: on the old test, the score was +1.0 SD
with identical Test Information Functions is the most rigorous method above the mean ([60-50]/10), but on the new test, it was only +0.5 SD
to ensure tests are equally precise and difficult across all ability levels. above the mean ([60-50]/20).
6. The answer is C. The item has significant cross-loadings, meaning it 31. The answer is C. For a criterion-referenced test like a certification
measures multiple factors (Extraversion, Neuroticism) besides the exam, the cut score should represent a minimum standard of
intended one (Agreeableness). This makes it factorially complex and competence. This is best achieved through a standard-setting
impure, so it should be revised or eliminated. method, like the Angoff method, that involves subject matter experts.
7. The answer is C. The test's utility is acceptable only if the company's 32. The answer is C. For a client with a complex mix of symptoms and
strategy is to hire a small group of elite performers and it can absorb life challenges, a broad-spectrum personality inventory (like the
the cost of rejecting many adequate candidates. The psychologist MMPI-2-RF or PAI) is most appropriate to gain an integrated
must advise them of this trade-off. understanding of their personality and difficulties.
8. The answer is C. Standardized tests are culturally and educationally 33. The answer is C. The primary limitation of grade-equivalent scores is
inappropriate for this child. Dynamic assessment (a test-teach-retest that they are frequently misinterpreted. A 4th-grader scoring at a 7th-
method) is the most valid and ethical approach as it assesses learning grade equivalent does not mean they are ready for 7th-grade
potential rather than accumulated knowledge. curriculum; it means they scored as well on 4th-grade material as an
9. The answer is B. The celebrity's campaign is an external event that average 7th-grader would.
occurred during the study that could also explain the results. This 34. The answer is C. The executive's consistently agreeable response
threat to internal validity (the ability to claim the intervention caused style should be interpreted as a potential cultural variation in
the outcome) is known as "history." communication, where maintaining social harmony and showing
10. The answer is C. For assessing the reliability of judgments made by deference to authority is highly valued.
multiple raters on a scale, an inter-rater reliability coefficient is most 35. The answer is C. A professional report must do more than list scores
appropriate. The Intraclass Correlation (ICC) is the most robust and and provide a label. It must integrate and interpret the findings in a
suitable statistic for this purpose. clear narrative. A report that fails to do this is poorly written and
11. The answer is C. The psychologist's primary ethical responsibility is potentially unethical.
to maintain objectivity and integrity. Their role is to provide objective 36. The answer is C. A waitlist control group is inadequate because it
psychological findings, not to state a legal conclusion like "insane," so doesn't control for the placebo effect or expectations. The observed
they must refuse to alter the report. effect could be due to these non-specific factors rather than the app
12. The answer is A. This is a classic example of intercept bias (a form of itself. An active control group would be a better design.
test bias). The same slope means the test has equal predictive power, 37. The answer is C. This MMPI-2 validity profile—a high L (Lie) scale, a
but the different intercepts mean it systematically underpredicts high K (Correction) scale, and low clinical scales—is a classic
performance for one group (females) compared to the other (males). defensive pattern, suggesting the client is trying to present themselves
13. The answer is C. On a test with a mean of 100 and a standard in an overly positive and virtuous light ("faking good").
deviation (SD) of 15, a score of 78 is more than one SD below the 38. The answer is C. The main advantage of a structured interview is
mean, placing it in the Borderline range of functioning. that it increases the reliability and standardization of the data collected
14. The answer is C. Giving feedback ("You're doing a great job") after by ensuring all clients are asked the same questions, which is critical
each item is a significant deviation from standardized test for diagnosis and research.
administration procedures and can invalidate the scores by altering 39. The answer is C. The Block Design subtest is timed, and both
the test-taker's performance. accuracy and speed are components of the score. Therefore, the
15. The answer is C. A Cronbach's alpha of .55 is well below the psychometrician must adhere strictly to the time limits as specified in
generally accepted minimum of .70, indicating that the test has the administration manual.
unacceptably low internal consistency reliability. 40. The answer is B. The center wants to avoid missing at-risk students
16. The answer is A. This study design, in which test scores are used to (low false negatives). A test with a low false-negative rate is said to
predict a future outcome (re-arrest), is the definition of predictive have high sensitivity—the ability to correctly identify those who have
validity. the condition.
17. The answer is C. The Test Information Function (TIF) is a concept 41. The answer is B. A large, statistically rare, and clinically meaningful
from Item Response Theory that shows a test's reliability (or precision) difference between the index scores on an intelligence test is referred
at different points along the continuum of the trait being measured. to as a significant index-level discrepancy or scatter.
18. The answer is C. For a large-scale, district-wide screening, 42. The answer is B. The "Barnum effect" refers to the tendency for
administering a standardized behavior rating scale (like the BASC-3 people to accept vague and general personality descriptions (like
or CBCL) to be completed by teachers or parents is the most efficient those in horoscopes) as being specifically accurate for them.
and psychometrically sound approach. 43. The answer is B. The most appropriate initial step for a complaint of
19. The answer is C. A percentile rank indicates the percentage of memory problems is to directly assess memory and also to screen for
people in the norm group who scored at or below a particular score. depression, as depression can present with cognitive symptoms
Therefore, a score at the 5th percentile means the client's ("pseudodementia") that mimic dementia.
performance was equal to or worse than 95% of the normative sample. 44. The answer is B. The manager's approach is highly susceptible to a
20. The answer is C. In the Exner scoring system for the Rorschach, the wide range of well-documented cognitive and implicit biases (e.g.,
perception of animals engaged in movement is coded as the halo effect, first impression bias) that make unstructured interviews
determinant FM (Animal Movement). notoriously unreliable and poor predictors of job performance.
21. The answer is B. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) and 45. The answer is C. A forced-choice format, where a person must
the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) are specifically designed choose between two statements that are matched for social
as brief, widely-used, and appropriate bedside screening tools for desirability but differ on the underlying trait, is the most effective item
cognitive impairment. format for reducing social desirability bias.
22. The answer is C. The coefficient of determination is found by 46. The answer is C. A "ceiling effect" means that the test is too easy for
squaring the validity coefficient (r²). In this case, .30 * .30 = .09, the intended population, causing many of the highest-scoring
meaning the test accounts for 9% of the variance in job performance. individuals to get all or nearly all items correct, "bunching" their scores
23. The answer is C. Following the compensatory model, Applicant B's at the top and making it impossible to differentiate among them.
weighted score is higher. Applicant A: (90 x 0.6) + (70 x 0.4) = 82. 47. The answer is B. Ethically, the therapist must avoid a dual
Applicant B: (85 x 0.6) + (80 x 0.4) = 83. relationship. The role of a supportive therapist is different from that of
24. The answer is C. Ethically, a psychometrician must protect test an objective forensic evaluator. Therefore, the therapist should limit
security and prevent misuse of assessment tools. Therefore, they their testimony to factual information and avoid offering an opinion on
should provide a comprehensive report but refuse to release the raw "parental fitness."
test protocols to an unqualified person like a life coach. 48. The answer is C. The "Boulder Model" is the "scientist-practitioner"
25. The answer is C. Content validity is a technical, systematic model of training for clinical psychologists, which emphasizes the
evaluation by experts of how well test items represent a construct. integration of scientific research and clinical practice.
Face validity is a non-technical, subjective judgment of whether a test 49. The answer is C. This response ("It sounds like you felt...") is an
appears to measure what it claims. example of reflection or paraphrasing, a technique used to
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

demonstrate empathy and ensure understanding by restating the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula must be applied to the correlation
emotional content of what the client has said. of the two halves (.70) to estimate the reliability of the 100-item test.
50. The answer is B. A major advantage of using standardized scores 74. The answer is C. The ethical principle of communicating assessment
(like IQ scores or T-scores) is that they provide a common metric, results requires that psychologists provide explanations of results in
which allows for the comparison of an individual's performance across language that is reasonably understandable to the recipient. Using
different tests that have different raw scores and numbers of items. unexplained technical jargon violates this principle.
51. The answer is C. A z-score of +1.5 means the score is 1.5 standard 75. The answer is B. Factor analysis is a statistical technique used to
deviations above the mean. The raw score is calculated as Mean + (z- examine the intercorrelations among a set of items to identify the
score * SD), so: 500 + (1.5 * 100) = 650. underlying factor structure. It is the most appropriate method to
52. The answer is B. The primary problem with using a "convenience determine if the items on a scale all measure the same underlying
sample" to create norms is that the sample is unlikely to be construct.
representative of the broader population, which severely limits the 76. The answer is B. To have the highest validity, the assessment
generalizability of the test's norms. battery should be directly based on the job analysis. A physical ability
53. The answer is C. The most ethical and constructive response is to test, a situational judgment test, and a group task directly measure the
reframe the parents' interpretation. This involves explaining the score critical abilities identified (strength, grace under pressure, teamwork).
in the context of the child's specific strengths and weaknesses and 77. The answer is C. In the psychometric sense, a test is considered
focusing on how the information can be used to provide support. biased if it systematically under-predicts or over-predicts a relevant
54. The answer is C. Test-retest reliability measures the stability of a criterion (like job performance) for a particular group. The core issue
score over time. It is therefore least appropriate for a test of a construct is a lack of predictive validity equivalence.
that is expected to fluctuate, such as an individual's current mood or 78. The answer is C. A change of 8 points between two administrations
state anxiety. is well within the expected range of fluctuation due to measurement
55. The answer is C. Dynamic assessment differs from traditional static error and potential practice effects, especially given the test's
assessment because it uses a "test-teach-retest" procedure to reliability. It does not indicate a significant, real change in ability.
evaluate not just the individual's current performance, but also their 79. The answer is C. Psychologists are required to maintain records for a
process of learning and potential for change. period of time as mandated by law, institutional policy, and ethical
56. The answer is B. A power test is one where scores are determined codes. There is no universal rule; it varies by jurisdiction and context.
by the difficulty of the items one can answer, with time being ample. 80. The answer is C. The primary benefit of behavioral observation is
Since the scores were highly correlated with or without a generous that it provides a direct sample of an individual's behavior in a natural
time limit, the test is primarily a power test, not a speed test. or specific context, which can increase ecological validity and provide
57. The answer is C. The specific role of the school psychologist within information that contradicts or supplements self-report data.
an interdisciplinary evaluation team is to administer, score, and 81. The answer is C. A score at the 98th percentile corresponds to a z-
interpret formal and informal assessments related to the child's score of approximately +2.0, as roughly 97.7% of a normal distribution
cognitive, academic, and social-emotional functioning. falls below a z-score of +2.0.
58. The answer is B. The primary ethical concern with "conversion 82. The answer is C. In a double-blind procedure, neither the research
therapy" is that major professional mental health organizations (e.g., participants nor the researchers who are directly interacting with them
APA, PAP) have concluded, based on scientific evidence, that it is know who is in the experimental group and who is in the control group.
ineffective and harmful to clients. This is done to prevent bias from participant expectations and
59. The answer is C. "Leniency error" is a type of rater bias in researcher expectations.
performance appraisal where a manager has a tendency to give 83. The answer is B. A single IQ score should never be the sole criterion
consistently high, favorable ratings to all of their subordinates, failing for a high-stakes decision like gifted placement. Best practice requires
to differentiate between good and poor performers. using a comprehensive assessment that includes multiple sources of
60. The answer is C. First, convert the raw score to a z-score: z = (Score information (e.g., achievement, creativity, teacher ratings).
- Mean) / SD = (115 - 100) / 10 = +1.5. Then, convert the z-score to a 84. The answer is B. The first and most critical step in any assessment is
T-score: T = (z * 10) + 50 = (1.5 * 10) + 50 = 65. to obtain informed consent. This involves clearly explaining the
61. The answer is C. To create a screening measure, the best items are purpose, procedures, potential risks/benefits, and limits of
those that most effectively discriminate between the target group confidentiality to the client before beginning.
(veterans with PTSD) and a control group. Items with the highest item- 85. The answer is B. An item-to-criterion correlation directly assesses
discrimination indices are therefore the best candidates. how well an individual item predicts an external criterion. This is, by
62. The answer is C. This situation highlights that a structured, clinical definition, direct evidence for the item's criterion-related validity.
test of attention (CPT) measures performance in a specific context. It 86. The answer is B. A score at the 92nd percentile on Neuroticism
does not invalidate real-world reports from rating scales, which means the person scored higher than 92% of the normative sample
capture behavior in different, less structured environments. Both data on that trait. High Neuroticism indicates a tendency toward emotional
sources are valid pieces of the diagnostic puzzle. instability, not stability.
63. The answer is B. The primary purpose of validity scales on 87. The answer is B. Sentence Completion Tests are typically interpreted
inventories like the MMPI-2 is to assess the test-taker's response style qualitatively. The responses are not scored numerically but are
or approach to the test (e.g., defensiveness, exaggeration, random analyzed for recurring themes, conflicts, and concerns that can be
responding) to help determine the validity of the clinical profile. used to generate clinical hypotheses.
64. The answer is C. To ensure a valid and ethical assessment, the 88. The answer is B. The primary duty of an expert witness is to assist
psychometrician must use a qualified sign language interpreter. the court by providing objective, impartial, and scientifically grounded
Administering the test in written form or using a family member would information, regardless of which side hired them. Their loyalty is to the
violate standardized procedures and compromise validity. truth and to the court, not to the lawyer.
65. The answer is B. A 68% confidence interval is narrower than a 95% 89. The answer is B. To measure practice effects, a researcher should
confidence interval. To be more confident (95% vs. 68%) that the true use a test-retest design, administering the test to the same group on
score is captured, one must use a wider range. two occasions and then analyzing the mean difference in scores from
66. The answer is C. The psychologist's core ethical principle of integrity the first to the second administration.
requires them to be honest and accurate in their scientific work. "Re- 90. The answer is B. The standard error of the estimate is directly related
analyzing" data to produce a desired outcome would be a fraudulent to criterion-related validity. It represents the margin of error when
and serious ethical violation. predicting a criterion score (e.g., job performance) from a predictor
67. The answer is C. Executive functioning is a complex, multifaceted score (e.g., test score). A smaller error indicates a more accurate
construct. A comprehensive and ecologically valid assessment would prediction.
require a multi-method approach, combining performance-based 91. The answer is C. A Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is
tests, behavioral observations, and rating scales. designed to minimize rater bias. It does this by providing specific
68. The answer is C. The "halo effect" is a rater bias where a rater's behavioral examples ("anchors") for each point on the scale, making
overall positive (or negative) impression of a person on one dimension the ratings less subjective than simple graphic scales.
(e.g., "friendly") influences their ratings of that person on all other, 92. The answer is C. The VRIN (Variable Response Inconsistency) and
unrelated dimensions (e.g., "competent," "reliable"). TRIN (True Response Inconsistency) scales on the MMPI-2 are
69. The answer is B. Secretly recording a session fundamentally specifically designed to detect random or inconsistent responding by
changes the nature of the interaction and the client's responses. It looking at responses to pairs of items with similar or opposite content.
invalidates standardized procedures and compromises the integrity of 93. The answer is C. In a "fitness-for-duty" evaluation, the psychologist is
the assessment process and the resulting data. hired by the organization (the military) to answer a question about the
70. The answer is B. The main difference is the nature of the stimuli. employee (the soldier). Therefore, the primary client to whom the duty
Structured tests (like the NEO-PI-3) use standardized, unambiguous is owed is the military or the referring agency.
stimuli like direct questions or statements. Projective tests (like the 94. The answer is C. The primary limitation of self-report inventories is
TAT) use ambiguous stimuli to elicit unique responses. that their validity relies on the client's ability and willingness to be
71. The answer is A. In Classical Test Theory, the reliability coefficient honest, insightful, and self-aware. Response styles like defensiveness
represents the proportion of observed score variance that is or exaggeration can distort the results.
attributable to true score variance. Therefore, if the reliability is .84, 95. The answer is B. In meta-analysis, "generalizable" validity means
then 84% of the variance is true score variance. that the validity coefficient is relatively stable and does not vary
72. The answer is B. A psycho-educational assessment is designed to significantly across different situations (e.g., different organizations or
understand why a child is struggling in school. It typically integrates jobs). The test is likely to be valid in new settings as well.
assessment of cognitive ability (IQ) with assessment of academic 96. The answer is C. This MMPI-2 profile, with extreme elevations on
achievement to identify patterns of strengths and weaknesses. nearly all clinical scales and the F (Infrequency) scales, is a classic
73. The answer is C. The split-half method underestimates the reliability "faking bad" profile. In a forensic context with a clear external incentive
of the full-length test because reliability is related to test length. The
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

(a lawsuit), this should raise strong suspicion of symptom

exaggeration or malingering.
97. The answer is C. Informed consent requires that the client is given
adequate information about the nature, purpose, risks, and benefits of
the assessment in understandable language and that they voluntarily
agree to participate.
98. The answer is B. An ipsative assessment compares an individual's
scores on different scales within the same test to identify their relative
strengths and preferences. It does not compare the individual to an
external normative group.
99. The answer is B. The large amount of scatter between the index
scores (from a low of 82 to a high of 110) makes the Full Scale IQ
(FSIQ) of 98 an uninterpretable and misleading summary of the
student's abilities. The focus should be on the specific pattern of
strengths and weaknesses.
100. The answer is C. This is the most accurate and nuanced response.
It acknowledges the social reality of group score differences while
explaining the psychometric definition of bias (predictive validity
equivalence) and the need for careful, culturally-informed
interpretation.

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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 25. The answer is B. According to Open Systems Theory, entropy is the
tendency of a closed system to decay over time due to a lack of input
1. The answer is C. The rigid hierarchy, detailed job descriptions, and
and feedback from its environment. An organization that ignores its
top-down command are all hallmarks of Classical Organization
customers is at risk of entropy.
Theory, specifically the principles of bureaucracy (Weber) and
26. The answer is B. This is a multiple hurdle model, where an applicant
scientific management (Taylor) which prioritize efficiency and formal
must pass a minimum cutoff at each stage of the selection process to
structures.
advance to the next.
2. The answer is C. The CEO as a bottleneck and lack of clear roles are
27. The answer is B. The manager is intentionally misstating the
predictable consequences of an excessively wide span of control (one
employee's performance rating to make future administrative
manager for 50 employees) that becomes dysfunctional as an
decisions (like justifying pay raises) easier. This is an example of a
organization grows.
rating error driven by administrative or political motivations.
3. The answer is C. Maria reporting to two different managers and
28. The answer is B. Organizational Change is a broad, umbrella term
receiving conflicting instructions illustrates the key disadvantage of a
for any alteration. Organizational Development (OD) is a specific,
matrix structure: it violates the principle of unity of command, leading
planned, and systematic approach to change that is typically based on
to role conflict and ambiguity.
behavioral science principles and focused on improving organizational
4. The answer is B. Human Resource Development (HRD) specifically
effectiveness.
focuses on the training, education, and development of employees to
29. The answer is B. The "stand-up" meeting is an intervention designed
enhance their skills and knowledge, which includes personal growth
to improve the team's internal processes, specifically its
workshops like these.
communication and coordination, by ensuring all members are aware
5. The answer is B. The team is experiencing conflict over goals, roles,
of what others are doing and what obstacles exist.
and procedures. According to Tuckman's model, this is the classic
30. The answer is B. According to Fiedler's model, a situation is most
description of the "Storming" stage, which is a normal phase of team
favorable for a leader when they have good leader-member relations,
development.
the task is highly structured, and the leader has strong position power.
6. The answer is B. The advice to create a sense of urgency, build a
31. The answer is B. Utility analysis is a method used to evaluate the
guiding coalition, and create a vision directly follows the first steps of
financial return on investment (ROI) of a selection procedure,
John Kotter's 8-Step Process for Leading Change.
considering factors like its cost, validity, and the value of improved
7. The answer is B. The manager is rating subordinates based on his
employee performance.
personal feelings (liking/disliking) rather than on their actual
32. The answer is C. The Job Characteristics Model defines task identity
performance. This is a clear example of personal bias.
as the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and
8. The answer is C. The focus on understanding how processes and
identifiable piece of work. A carpenter building a whole piece of
systems led to failure, rather than blaming individuals, is consistent
furniture has high task identity.
with Senge's disciplines of Systems Thinking (seeing
33. The answer is B. By requiring every member to provide input before
interrelationships) and Team Learning.
a decision is made, the leader is improving the quality of the team's
9. The answer is B. Social loafing is the well-documented phenomenon
decision-making process. This technique helps prevent groupthink
where individuals exert less effort when working collectively in a group
and ensures diverse perspectives are heard.
compared to when they are working individually and are held
34. The answer is C. According to Lewin's model, the first step in change
accountable for their own output.
is to "unfreeze" the existing state. This involves reducing the forces
10. The answer is B. A deep shift in an organization's core values,
that maintain the status quo by communicating the need for change
beliefs, and culture, rather than just incremental process changes, is
and addressing employee anxieties and uncertainty.
best described as an Organizational Transformation.
35. The answer is C. Procedural justice refers to the perceived fairness
11. The answer is B. The consultant's technique of observing group
of the processes and procedures used to make decisions and allocate
interactions and then providing feedback to help the group understand
resources. Even if an outcome is negative, if the process is seen as
and improve its own processes is the definition of process
fair, it is more likely to be accepted.
consultation, an OD intervention pioneered by Edgar Schein.
36. The answer is B. Central tendency error is the rater bias where a
12. The answer is C. The key finding of the Hawthorne Studies was that
manager avoids giving high or low ratings and instead rates all
social and psychological factors, such as morale and feeling valued
employees as "average," regardless of their actual performance.
(the Hawthorne effect), had a greater impact on productivity than the
37. The answer is B. A cross-functional team is composed of members
physical conditions of work.
from different functional areas of a business (marketing, finance,
13. The answer is B. Questions about age, marital status, and religion
engineering) who are brought together to work on a specific project.
are not job-related and inquire about legally protected classes.
38. The answer is B. A transactional leader focuses on clarifying roles
Including them on an application form could be used as evidence of
and rewarding performance (an exchange). A transformational leader
discriminatory hiring practices.
inspires followers to look beyond their self-interest for the good of the
14. The answer is B. A team with high trust, clear roles, and a focus on
organization, often through vision and motivation.
achieving goals is operating in the "Performing" stage of Tuckman's
39. The answer is B. Succession planning is the strategic process of
model, the peak of productivity.
identifying and developing high-potential employees to fill future
15. The answer is B. Relying only on one-way formal announcements is
leadership roles within the organization, ensuring a pipeline of talent.
insufficient for managing change. Effective change management
40. The answer is C. Unlike traditional problem-solving, Appreciative
requires rich, two-way communication to address employee concerns,
Inquiry is a strengths-based approach to change that focuses on
manage the psychological impact, and build buy-in.
identifying and amplifying what is already working well within an
16. The answer is C. According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, job
organization to create a positive vision for the future.
enrichment aims to increase motivation by building "motivators" (like
41. The answer is C. The lack of coordination and communication
achievement, recognition, and responsibility) into the content of the
between departments, leading to problems, is a classic disadvantage
job itself, not by improving "hygiene factors" like pay or conditions.
of functional structures known as the "silo effect."
17. The answer is B. The finding that ideal leadership styles vary by
42. The answer is A. In Vroom's Expectancy Theory, instrumentality is
country strongly supports contingency theories and specifically the
the individual's belief that successful performance will actually lead to
GLOBE study's findings, which demonstrate that culture moderates
receiving a desired outcome or reward.
the perception and effectiveness of leadership behaviors.
43. The answer is B. According to Lencioni's model, the foundational
18. The answer is B. Kirkpatrick's model has four levels: 1) Reaction, 2)
dysfunction of a team, from which all others stem, is the absence of
Learning, 3) Behavior, and 4) Results. After measuring reaction (Level
trust among team members.
1), the next logical step is to measure what knowledge and skills were
44. The answer is B. The main advantage of a Behaviorally Anchored
actually acquired (Level 2: Learning).
Rating Scale (BARS) is that it provides specific, observable behavioral
19. The answer is B. Groupthink is a phenomenon where the desire for
examples for each point on the scale, reducing subjectivity and
harmony or conformity in a cohesive group results in an irrational or
providing clearer feedback.
dysfunctional decision-making outcome, as members suppress
45. The answer is B. Involving resistors in the planning and
doubts to avoid conflict.
implementation of a change is a classic change management strategy
20. The answer is C. Schein's model has three levels: artifacts,
known as participation and involvement, which can increase buy-in
espoused values, and basic assumptions. The consultant found a
and reduce resistance.
conflict between the stated espoused values ("we value innovation")
46. The answer is C. Organizational Citizenship Behavior (OCB) refers to
and the lived reality, which reflects the true basic underlying
voluntary, discretionary behaviors that are not part of an employee's
assumptions (failure is punished).
formal job but contribute to the organization's social and psychological
21. The answer is C. HRM is a broad field covering all aspects of
environment, such as helping a coworker.
managing people (recruitment, compensation, etc.). HRD is a specific
47. The answer is A. This diagnostic approach, which views an
subset of HRM that focuses on employee training, education, and
organization as a system of interconnected parts (strategy, structure,
development to improve performance.
people, etc.) and emphasizes the need for "fit" or congruence between
22. The answer is C. A "360-degree feedback" system collects
them, is the core of the Nadler-Tushman Congruence Model.
performance data from multiple sources, typically including the
48. The answer is B. A structured interview, which asks all candidates
manager's supervisor (upward), peers (lateral), direct reports
the same pre-determined, job-related questions and uses a
(downward), and a self-assessment.
standardized scoring guide, has been consistently shown to have
23. The answer is B. Clarifying roles, setting goals, and establishing a
higher reliability and predictive validity than an unstructured interview.
shared purpose are all interventions aimed at improving a team's
49. The answer is C. A team's "mental model" refers to the shared,
internal processes—how they work together to accomplish their tasks.
organized understanding that team members have about key
24. The answer is B. This OD intervention, which involves using a
elements of their work, such as their tasks, equipment, and how they
comprehensive, anonymous survey to gather data and then feeding
should interact.
that data back to employee groups to stimulate discussion and
change, is known as survey feedback.
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

50. The answer is B. The final "Refreezing" step in Lewin's model is 75. The answer is C. An organization's culture is best understood as the
about stabilizing the change by reinforcing the new behaviors and shared values, beliefs, assumptions, and norms that guide the
embedding them into the organization's culture, policies, and reward behavior of its members, often described simply as "the way we do
systems to prevent regression to the old state. things around here."
51. The answer is C. An organization's "span of control" refers to the 76. The answer is C. In a Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS), the rater
number of subordinates who report directly to a single manager. evaluates an employee by rating the frequency with which they have
52. The answer is C. Organizational Behavior (OB) is the field of study observed the employee engaging in specific, critical job behaviors.
that investigates the impact of individuals, groups, and structure on 77. The answer is B. A virtual team is composed of members who are
behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such geographically dispersed and rely on technology to communicate and
knowledge toward improving an organization's effectiveness. collaborate.
53. The answer is C. The recency error is a rater bias where a manager's 78. The answer is C. The "glass ceiling" is a metaphor for an invisible,
evaluation is overly influenced by the employee's most recent artificial barrier based on prejudice that prevents qualified individuals
performance, while ignoring performance over the majority of the (often women and minorities) from advancing to senior leadership
appraisal period. positions.
54. The answer is C. A self-managed work team is a group of employees 79. The answer is C. A "cafeteria-style" benefits plan provides
who have a high degree of autonomy and are responsible for employees with a budget of benefit credits and allows them to choose
managing their own work, including planning, scheduling, and from a menu of options to create a personalized benefits package that
decision-making, without direct supervision. best fits their individual needs.
55. The answer is C. According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, 80. The answer is B. Effective feedback is behavioral and specific.
"hygiene factors" are aspects of the work context that can cause Instead of a general judgment ("unacceptable"), the manager should
dissatisfaction if they are inadequate but do not motivate on their own. describe the specific, observable behaviors that were problematic and
Salary and working conditions are classic examples. what needs to be corrected.
56. The answer is C. Interactional justice refers to the perceived fairness 81. The answer is C. The fundamental premise of contingency theories
of the interpersonal treatment people receive from authority figures of leadership is that the effectiveness of a particular leadership style
during procedures and decision-making, emphasizing dignity, respect, is contingent upon the situation. There is no single best style for all
and politeness. situations.
57. The answer is B. A structure characterized by high centralization, tall 82. The answer is C. The selection ratio is calculated as the number of
hierarchies, and high formalization (many rules) is known as a people hired for a job divided by the total number of applicants for that
mechanistic structure. It is rigid and bureaucratic, designed for job. A low selection ratio (e.g., 10 hired / 200 applicants = .05) is more
efficiency. favorable for the organization.
58. The answer is C. The primary purpose of a well-designed onboarding 83. The answer is D. The "competing" or "forcing" conflict management
program is to facilitate the new employee's socialization into the style is characterized by low cooperativeness and high assertiveness,
organization by helping them understand and adapt to the company's where an individual pursues their own concerns at the expense of
culture, norms, and social environment. others.
59. The answer is C. Psychological safety, a concept developed by Amy 84. The answer is C. A large-scale organizational change is much more
Edmondson, describes a climate where team members feel safe to likely to succeed when top leadership is visibly and consistently
take interpersonal risks—such as asking questions, admitting committed to the change, as this signals its importance and helps align
mistakes, or offering a new idea—without fear of being punished or the organization.
humiliated. 85. The answer is C. A biodata instrument collects information about an
60. The answer is C. This intervention, which forces conflicting groups to applicant's past life experiences (education, hobbies, leadership roles)
cooperate to achieve a shared, superordinate goal, is designed to based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of
reduce intergroup conflict by breaking down "us vs. them" thinking and future behavior.
changing negative stereotypes. 86. The answer is C. The "similar-to-me" error is a rater bias where a
61. The answer is C. Delegation is the process where a manager manager gives more favorable ratings to employees who are similar
assigns authority and responsibility for specific tasks to a subordinate, to them in terms of background, personality, or attitudes.
although the manager retains ultimate accountability for the outcome. 87. The answer is C. The key distinction is that a team is characterized
62. The answer is B. According to Equity Theory, an employee who by a high degree of interdependence and shared responsibility for a
perceives that their input/outcome ratio is less favorable than that of a common goal, while a group is a collection of individuals with less
comparable coworker will experience distress and be motivated to interdependence.
take action to restore a sense of equity. 88. The answer is B. A compressed workweek involves employees
63. The answer is C. The most significant challenge for virtual teams is working the same total number of hours but in fewer days, such as a
typically the difficulty of building trust, cohesion, and effective "4/10" schedule (four 10-hour days).
communication when team members lack the informal, face-to-face 89. The answer is B. This style of close supervision and control, based
interaction that co-located teams benefit from. on the belief that employees are motivated by money and fear, is a
64. The answer is B. A force field analysis, developed by Kurt Lewin, is a direct application of the principles of Scientific Management and
change management tool that involves identifying the driving forces McGregor's Theory X.
(factors promoting the change) and restraining forces (factors resisting 90. The answer is B. This intervention, which focuses on improving the
the change) to develop a strategy for managing them. functioning of an intact work group by having them discuss their
65. The answer is B. A job analysis is the systematic process of strengths, weaknesses, and processes, is a classic example of team
gathering and analyzing detailed information about a job, including its building.
tasks, responsibilities, and the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other 91. The answer is C. A multidivisional structure organizes the company
characteristics (KSAOs) required to perform it successfully. into a set of autonomous divisions, each of which is responsible for a
66. The answer is C. A situational interview question presents a different product, geographic region, or customer base.
candidate with a hypothetical, job-related situation and asks how they 92. The answer is C. Person-organization (P-O) fit refers to the
would respond. compatibility between an individual's personality, values, and beliefs
67. The answer is A. Theory Y, proposed by Douglas McGregor, and the culture, values, and norms of the organization as a whole.
assumes that employees are inherently motivated, enjoy work, and 93. The answer is C. Group polarization is the tendency for a group's
are capable of self-direction and responsibility. discussion to strengthen the initial, pre-discussion inclinations of its
68. The answer is B. A key rule of brainstorming is to defer judgment. members, leading to a final decision that is more extreme than the
Criticism of any idea is forbidden during the idea-generation phase to average of the members' initial positions.
encourage a free flow of creative and unconventional thoughts. 94. The answer is B. The primary purpose of a needs assessment, the
69. The answer is C. A "laissez-faire" leadership style is one in which the first step in the training cycle, is to identify performance gaps and
leader provides little to no direction or supervision, essentially determine if training is the right solution to close those gaps.
abdicating responsibility and leaving the group to manage itself. 95. The answer is C. A change agent is an individual or group who takes
70. The answer is B. A Realistic Job Preview (RJP) aims to give responsibility for initiating and managing a change within an
applicants a balanced and honest view of a job, including both positive organization.
and negative aspects, to manage their expectations, improve person- 96. The answer is C. Of the Big Five personality traits,
job fit, and ultimately reduce turnover. Conscientiousness has been found to be the most consistent and valid
71. The answer is C. A "network" organizational structure is one where predictor of job performance across a wide variety of jobs.
the organization outsources many of its major functions to other 97. The answer is B. Departmentation is the process of grouping jobs
companies and coordinates their activities from a small central hub. together into logical units or departments. This can be done by
72. The answer is B. Organizational commitment refers to the function, product, customer, or geography.
psychological attachment an employee feels towards their 98. The answer is C. A work sample test is a performance-based test
organization, which has three components: affective (emotional), that requires an applicant to perform tasks that are actually part of the
continuance (cost of leaving), and normative (obligation). job. For a mechanic, this would involve diagnosing and repairing a
73. The answer is D. The "norming" stage of team development is faulty engine.
characterized by the resolution of earlier conflicts, the development of 99. The answer is C. A common modern critique of classical theories is
group cohesion, and the establishment of shared norms and that they treat the organization as a closed system and tend to neglect
expectations for behavior. the human element, viewing employees more as interchangeable
74. The answer is C. A core principle of adult learning (andragogy) is that parts than as complex individuals.
adults learn best by doing and being actively involved in the learning 100. The answer is C. The goal of strategic HRM is to ensure that all HR
process, which is why methods like simulations and case studies are policies and practices are aligned with the organization's overall
effective. business strategy to help the organization achieve its strategic goals.

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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

Developmental Psychology success to caring for and contributing to the welfare of future
generations.
1. The answer is C. This outcome illustrates the concept of a reaction
22. The answer is B. According to Piaget, this attribution of human
range. The twins' heredity provided a high potential for intelligence
feelings to an inanimate object ("the sun is sad") is a classic example
(similar IQs), but their different environments shaped how that
of animistic thinking, a characteristic of the preoperational stage.
potential was expressed (different career achievements).
23. The answer is C. The politician's reasoning, which justifies breaking a
2. The answer is D. This is a classic example of a gene-environment
law by appealing to higher moral principles like human dignity and
interaction (an epigenetic effect), where environmental factors
justice, is characteristic of Kohlberg's Postconventional Level of moral
(parenting style) directly influence the expression of a genetic
thought.
predisposition, determining whether the gene for aggression is "turned
24. The answer is C. According to Marcia, this stage of active exploration
on."
of roles and beliefs without having made a firm commitment is known
3. The answer is B. This scenario illustrates an evocative gene-
as Identity Moratorium.
environment correlation, where a child's genetically influenced
25. The answer is C. According to Mahler's theory, this ambivalent
temperament (calm vs. irritable) evokes specific responses from their
"clinging and pushing away" behavior is the hallmark of the
parents, and these responses, in turn, shape the child's development.
rapprochement subphase, where the toddler grapples with the conflict
4. The answer is D. The psychologist should reframe the client's
between their desire for autonomy and their fear of abandonment.
deterministic view by explaining the diathesis-stress model. This
26. The answer is A. According to Erikson, this man's bitterness and
model suggests he may have a genetic predisposition (diathesis) for
feeling that his life has been a waste is a sign that he is experiencing
anxiety, but environmental factors and coping skills (which can be
Stagnation, the negative outcome of the primary psychosocial crisis of
changed) play a crucial role in whether it is expressed.
middle adulthood (Generativity vs. Stagnation).
5. The answer is B. The universal, robust, and seemingly pre-
27. The answer is C. From a Skinnerian (behaviorist) perspective, the
programmed acquisition of language, which is buffered against most
process of teaching reading by breaking it down into small steps (letter
environmental variations, is the best illustration of canalization. This
sounds, blending) and reinforcing each successful attempt with praise
concept suggests some developmental paths are strongly guided by
is an example of shaping through operant conditioning.
genetics.
28. The answer is C. According to attachment theory, inconsistent and
6. The answer is C. The conclusion is flawed because it is based on a
unpredictable caregiving, where a caregiver is sometimes responsive
cross-sectional design. The observed differences between the age
and sometimes neglectful, is most likely to lead to an anxious-
groups might be due to a cohort effect (e.g., generational differences
ambivalent (or resistant) attachment pattern.
in education or health) rather than a true decline with age.
29. The answer is B. According to Piaget, initially calling the zebra a
7. The answer is C. The most profound ethical problem is the violation of
"horsey" is assimilation (fitting a new object into an existing schema).
the principle of non-maleficence (do no harm). The researcher is
Modifying the schema to create a new category for "zebra" is
proposing to intentionally assign children to a potentially harmful
accommodation.
environment (an orphanage) for research purposes, which is ethically
30. The answer is B. A Freudian analyst would likely view her inability to
unacceptable.
recognize her anger and her physical symptoms as a result of
8. The answer is C. The finding's validity is threatened by selective
repression, where the threatening feeling (anger) is pushed out of
attrition. The participants who dropped out were systematically
conscious awareness and manifests somatically.
different (e.g., less stable) from those who remained, which could
31. The answer is C. A Vygotskian approach emphasizes the role of
artificially inflate the apparent stability of personality in the remaining
social interaction in learning. A cooperative learning program would
sample.
create a social Zone of Proximal Development, where peers can
9. The answer is B. This research approach, which combines elements
scaffold pro-social behaviors for one another.
of both cross-sectional and longitudinal studies by following multiple
32. The answer is C. According to Erikson, the primary psychosocial
cohorts over time, is known as a sequential design. It is the best
crisis of young adulthood is Intimacy vs. Isolation. An inability to form
method for separating age changes from cohort effects.
deep, committed relationships after establishing a sense of identity
10. The answer is C. The child's contradictory and fearful behaviors are
results in a sense of isolation.
characteristic of a disorganized attachment style, which is strongly
33. The answer is C. A Freudian psychologist would likely see an
associated with a history of trauma or abuse. The primary ethical
intense, all-consuming hobby as an example of sublimation, where
concern must be the child's welfare and the potential need for
powerful, unacceptable instinctual energies are channeled into a
intervention.
socially acceptable and non-sexual outlet.
11. The answer is C. According to Freudian theory, this personality—
34. The answer is C. According to Erikson, this man's acceptance of his
characterized by rigidity, orderliness, and a preoccupation with
life as it was, including its triumphs and mistakes, and his lack of fear
control—is a classic presentation of an "anal-retentive" character,
of death, is a sign of Ego Integrity, the positive resolution of the final
resulting from a fixation during the anal stage due to overly strict toilet
stage of life.
training.
35. The answer is C. A concrete operational child would give a practical
12. The answer is C. According to Erikson, this woman is successfully
answer (eye on the back of the head). A formal operational teenager
navigating the crisis of Generativity vs. Stagnation. She is finding
can think hypothetically and abstractly, generating more creative and
fulfillment by creating and nurturing things that will outlast her,
systematic possibilities (eye on a fingertip).
primarily through mentoring and contributing to the next generation.
36. The answer is B. This scenario, with simultaneous gains and losses
13. The answer is B. According to Piaget, Leo's error is due to centration
in different life domains, illustrates that development is
(focusing only on the height of the water) and a lack of understanding
multidirectional. It is not a simple linear progression but involves
of conservation (the principle that the amount of water remains the
growth and decline occurring together throughout life.
same despite the change in the container's appearance).
37. The answer is C. This ability for the brain to reorganize and for
14. The answer is D. This reasoning, which appeals to self-chosen,
abilities to be improved with practice, even in old age, is a
abstract principles of duty and personal conscience that can override
demonstration of plasticity, a core principle of lifespan development.
social norms, is characteristic of Kohlberg's Stage 6: Universal Ethical
38. The answer is A. This example, highlighting how development is
Principles Orientation.
shaped by cultural norms, historical time, and socioeconomic
15. The answer is B. This approach, which analyzes development within
conditions, illustrates the principle that development is contextual.
a complex system of nested environmental influences—from the
39. The answer is C. The idea that development is shaped by the
immediate family (microsystem) to broad cultural values
continuous interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural
(macrosystem)—is the hallmark of Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological
forces is known as the biopsychosocial framework.
systems theory.
40. The answer is A. This continuous journey of change, adaptation, and
16. The answer is B. According to Vygotsky, the father's process of
role shifts from conception to death highlights the principle that
providing a temporary, adjustable level of support that is tailored to the
development is lifelong, not something completed in childhood or
child's needs is known as scaffolding. This helps the learner master a
adolescence.
skill within their zone of proximal development.
41. The answer is C. The first trimester is the critical period for
17. The answer is C. This adult relationship pattern, characterized by a
organogenesis. Exposure to a powerful teratogen like Zika during this
craving for intimacy combined with a deep fear of abandonment, is a
period is likely to cause severe structural defects (like microcephaly),
classic manifestation of an anxious-ambivalent (or resistant)
whereas later exposure may cause more subtle functional deficits.
attachment style, likely stemming from inconsistent caregiving in
42. The answer is C. This specific pattern of facial abnormalities (small
infancy.
eyes, thin upper lip), microcephaly, and later intellectual disability is
18. The answer is C. According to Marcia, Jason's state is Identity
the classic presentation of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS), caused by
Foreclosure. He has made a commitment to an identity (doctor,
prenatal alcohol exposure.
Republican) without going through a period of personal exploration or
43. The answer is C. The combination of persistent deficits in social
crisis, simply accepting the identity provided by his parents.
communication and interaction, along with restricted, repetitive
19. The answer is C. According to Bandura's social learning theory, the
patterns of behavior and interests (like distress at routine changes),
younger boy's behavior is a result of observational learning,
are the core diagnostic features of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD).
specifically vicarious reinforcement. He learned the behavior and its
44. The answer is C. While her parents dismiss it as "teenage angst,"
positive consequences by observing his brother.
this cluster of symptoms—social withdrawal, irritability, loss of interest
20. The answer is C. An evolutionary psychologist would analyze these
(anhedonia), and changes in sleep and appetite—are the classic signs
differing mate preferences as a product of evolved psychological
of Major Depressive Disorder.
mechanisms rooted in differential parental investment. Women
45. The answer is B. This state of physical, emotional, and mental
prioritize resources for offspring, while men prioritize cues of fertility.
exhaustion resulting from the chronic stress of caring for her aging
21. The answer is C. According to Erikson, the woman's career change
mother, children, and job, is known as caregiver burnout.
reflects a healthy shift into the primary task of middle adulthood:
46. The answer is B. While grief is normal, this severe, prolonged, and
Generativity vs. Stagnation. Her focus has moved from personal
debilitating reaction, accompanied by functional impairment and
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

suicidal ideation, is characteristic of Complicated Grief (or Persistent 71. The answer is B. This is a classic example of the imaginary
Complex Bereavement Disorder). audience, a form of adolescent egocentrism where teenagers believe
47. The answer is B. This transitional period, typically from the late teens they are "on stage" and that their appearance and behavior are the
to mid-to-late twenties, characterized by identity exploration, focus of everyone's attention.
instability, and feeling "in-between" adolescence and full adulthood, is 72. The answer is C. This pattern of behavior, characterized by a
known as emerging adulthood. desperate attempt to recapture one's youth in response to the
48. The answer is B. This pattern, caused by social neglect in infancy, awareness of aging and mortality, is a common (though not universal)
characterized by emotionally withdrawn and inhibited behavior maladaptive response to the challenges of middle adulthood known
towards caregivers, is indicative of Reactive Attachment Disorder as a midlife crisis.
(RAD). 73. The answer is C. This experience of being the victim of repeated,
49. The answer is B. This is a clear example of ageism—prejudice and intentional aggression by peers is a serious developmental challenge
discrimination based on age, rooted in the stereotype that all elderly known as bullying, which has significant negative consequences.
people are frail, incompetent, and incapable of making their own 74. The answer is A. The developmental challenge of simultaneously
decisions. caring for the needs of aging parents and one's own children is a
50. The answer is B. Regression is an ego defense mechanism where hallmark of the sandwich generation.
an individual, when faced with stress or anxiety, reverts to an earlier, 75. The answer is B. A central developmental challenge of late adulthood
less mature stage of development and its characteristic behaviors (like is coping with bereavement and loss, as individuals inevitably face the
bedwetting or tantrums). deaths of spouses, siblings, friends, and peers.
51. The answer is B. This struggle is a critical developmental issue 76. The answer is B. This belief in one's own uniqueness and
related to peer pressure and the development of autonomy. invulnerability ("it can't happen to me") is a form of adolescent
Adolescence involves navigating the powerful influence of peers while egocentrism known as the personal fable.
trying to form an independent identity. 77. The answer is B. Acculturation is the complex process of
52. The answer is B. This illustrates the developmental challenge of role psychological and cultural change that occurs when an individual from
transition and redefinition. Retirement forces a significant change in a one culture comes into contact with another, involving the challenge
major life role, requiring the individual to find new sources of identity of adapting to new norms while maintaining one's own identity.
and purpose. 78. The answer is B. Starting school is a predictable life change that
53. The answer is B. The feelings of loneliness and marital disorientation requires adaptation. This is a common developmental challenge
that parents may experience after their last child leaves home is related to normative life transitions.
known as the empty nest syndrome. 79. The answer is B. The chronic stress and lack of resources
54. The answer is B. Teratogens are environmental agents, such as associated with poverty are a powerful contextual influence on
nicotine from smoking, that can cause damage and developmental development. This illustrates the developmental challenge imposed by
issues during the prenatal period. adverse socioeconomic conditions.
55. The answer is C. Children's understanding of death is 80. The answer is B. Adapting to widowhood involves not only grieving
developmental. A child this age may not yet grasp the finality and the emotional loss but also meeting the practical challenge of learning
permanence of death, leading them to process grief differently and and mastering the tasks that were previously performed by the
appear unaffected at times. deceased spouse.
56. The answer is B. According to Erikson, a toddler's insistence on 81. The answer is B. This experience of being developmentally "off-time"
doing things for themselves ("Me do it!") is a normal and healthy compared to one's peers is a challenge known as asynchronous
expression of the psychosocial crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame and development or early/late maturation, which can pose significant
Doubt. social and emotional challenges.
57. The answer is B. According to most developmental theories, the 82. The answer is B. For many adults, parenting is a primary expression
central tasks of Young Adulthood are establishing a career and of generativity. The challenge of involuntary childlessness can
developing the capacity for intimate, long-term relationships. therefore significantly impact one's ability to successfully navigate the
58. The answer is C. According to Erikson, the central psychosocial task Generativity vs. Stagnation stage.
of middle childhood (elementary school) is Industry vs. Inferiority, 83. The answer is A. This is a critical developmental challenge related to
where children focus on mastering academic and social skills, leading the transition to independence, which requires young adults to
to a sense of competence. develop a new set of self-regulation, time management, and practical
59. The answer is A. According to Erikson, the first psychosocial stage is life skills.
Trust vs. Mistrust, where an infant's primary developmental task is to 84. The answer is B. Parental mental illness is a major risk factor that
learn that their caregivers can be relied upon to meet their basic can disrupt a child's development in multiple ways (e.g., insecure
needs. attachment, chaotic environment), placing the child at risk for a wide
60. The answer is B. According to Erikson, the primary psychosocial range of emotional and behavioral problems.
crisis of the preschool years is Initiative vs. Guilt, where children assert 85. The answer is B. Profound developmental challenges related to end-
their power through play and social interaction. Encouraging their of-life decisions, medical choices, and confronting one's own mortality
questions and desire to "help" fosters a sense of initiative. become most salient during Late Adulthood.
61. The answer is B. Robert Butler termed this process of reminiscence 86. The answer is C. Pulling to stand, saying "mama" meaningfully, and
and reflection in late adulthood as the Life Review, a critical showing separation anxiety are all age-appropriate developmental
developmental task for achieving a sense of ego integrity. milestones for a 12-month-old infant across the motor, language, and
62. The answer is B. According to Erikson, the central developmental socio-emotional domains.
task of adolescence is resolving the psychosocial crisis of Identity vs. 87. The answer is C. The key developmental milestone for a 24-month-
Role Confusion by exploring and committing to a coherent sense of old is the "language explosion," which includes beginning to use two-
self. word phrases. Having only single words at this age indicates a
63. The answer is B. Middle Adulthood is often characterized as a period potential delay in expressive language.
of peak responsibility and "command," where a key developmental 88. The answer is B. Riding a tricycle, drawing a 3-part person, stating
task is successfully managing multiple, complex roles in one's career, one's name and age, and engaging in pretend play are all normative
family, and community. developmental milestones for a typical preschool-aged (4-year-old)
64. The answer is C. According to Erikson, this individual is struggling child.
with the primary developmental task of young adulthood, Intimacy vs. 89. The answer is B. These cognitive and social milestones are
Isolation. His failure to form deep, committed relationships is leading characteristic of middle childhood. Understanding conservation is a
to a sense of Isolation. hallmark of Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage, and mastering skills
65. The answer is C. According to Piaget, the primary cognitive to feel competent is the core of Erikson's Industry vs. Inferiority stage.
developmental task of the sensorimotor stage (birth to ~2 years) is for 90. The answer is C. The emergence of stranger anxiety is a positive
infants to learn about the world by coordinating sensory information cognitive milestone because it indicates the infant can now
with motor actions. differentiate between familiar and unfamiliar people, which is a
66. The answer is C. The ability to think logically about concrete prerequisite for forming a specific, secure attachment.
relationships and rules, such as those required for multiplication 91. The answer is B. Object permanence, a key achievement of Piaget's
tables, is the hallmark of Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage. sensorimotor stage, is the understanding that objects continue to exist
67. The answer is C. The ability to systematically test a hypothesis by even when they are out of sight.
manipulating variables requires abstract and logical thought, which 92. The answer is C. The developmental milestones for a 20-year-old
Piaget termed hypothetical-deductive reasoning, the key achievement (young adulthood) include being at or near one's peak physical
of the formal operational stage. performance, having achieved formal operational thought, and
68. The answer is B. This difficulty with logical operations like focusing on the psychosocial tasks of intimacy and career
classification is a key feature of Piaget's Preoperational stage, where establishment.
the main cognitive achievement is the development of symbolic 93. The answer is C. This inability to see a situation from another
thought. person's perspective is a classic example of egocentrism. While most
69. The answer is C. This process of adapting to age-related decline by prominent in the preoperational stage, overcoming it is a key milestone
selecting important goals (competition), optimizing resources of concrete operational thought.
(choosing a new game), and compensating for losses (switching from 94. The answer is C. Metacognition is "thinking about thinking." Realizing
golf to chess) is the core of Baltes' model of Selective Optimization that different subjects require different study strategies is a prime
with Compensation (SOC). example of a teenager demonstrating this advanced cognitive
70. The answer is C. The primary socio-emotional developmental task of milestone.
infancy is the formation of a secure attachment bond with a primary 95. The answer is C. For a 6-month-old, normative motor milestones
caregiver, which serves as the foundation for all future emotional and include sitting without support, rolling over, and passing objects from
social development. one hand to another. Walking and crawling come later.
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

96. The answer is B. The "vocabulary spurt" or "naming explosion," a

critical language milestone where a toddler's vocabulary rapidly
expands, typically occurs around 18-24 months of age.
97. The answer is C. Early adulthood is typically a period of peak
physical functioning. Middle adulthood is the period when the first
noticeable, salient signs of age-related physical decline often become
apparent.
98. The answer is C. While solitary and parallel play are common in
younger toddlers, the beginning of cooperative play, where children
share a common goal, represents the most socially advanced
milestone for a 3-year-old.
99. The answer is C. Achieving a "theory of mind" is best demonstrated
by passing a false-belief task. Understanding that a friend will have a
false belief (thinking crayons are in the box) shows the child can
recognize that others have mental states different from their own.
100. The answer is C. According to Carstensen's socioemotional
selectivity theory, a normative milestone of late adulthood is to shift
social priorities, investing time and energy in a smaller, select group
of emotionally meaningful relationships rather than seeking novelty.

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Abnormal Psychology 22. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Factitious Disorder Imposed on
Self. The patient is intentionally producing physical symptoms
1. The answer is C. The man's experiences are not causing distress or
(deception) to assume the sick role. The key is the absence of any
dysfunction; in fact, they are seen as adaptive and helpful within his
obvious external reward (like money).
community. A culturally competent assessment requires evaluating
23. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Dissociative Amnesia with
these experiences within his specific cultural and social context rather
Dissociative Fugue. This involves an inability to recall important
than immediately labeling them as psychopathology.
autobiographical information following a stressful event, combined
2. The answer is B. Hiroki's behaviors (silence in meetings, deference to
with purposeful travel or bewildered wandering associated with
authority, meticulousness) are highly valued and normative in
amnesia for one's identity.
traditional Japanese work culture. The issue is most likely one of
24. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Depersonalization/Derealization
cultural misinterpretation by his Filipino colleagues, not individual
Disorder. It is characterized by persistent experiences of
psychopathology.
depersonalization (feeling detached from oneself) and/or derealization
3. The answer is C. Using the "four D's" of abnormality, her behavior,
(feeling the world is unreal), while reality testing remains intact.
while Deviant from her family's norms, is not Dysfunctional (she is
25. The answer is C. This presentation is most consistent with
successful), Distressing to her, or Dangerous. Therefore, it does not
Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID). The key features are the
meet the clinical threshold for a mental disorder.
disruption of identity manifested by two or more distinct personality
4. The answer is B. The fisherman's tireless work and denial of problems
states ("alters") and recurrent gaps in memory (amnesia).
may be a trauma response. His private symptoms (nightmares, startle
26. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Persistent Depressive Disorder
response, avoidance of discussing his losses) suggest he is masking
(Dysthymia). It is defined by a chronic (at least 2 years) depressed
significant underlying distress consistent with Acute Stress Disorder
mood that is not severe enough to meet the criteria for a major
or PTSD.
depressive episode, along with other depressive symptoms.
5. The answer is D. The key factor in differentiating a strongly held
27. The answer is C. This specific cluster of symptoms—mood reactivity
subcultural belief from a clinical delusion is the degree of impairment
(mood brightens with positive events), hypersomnia, increased
and inflexibility. The assessment must focus on whether the belief
appetite/weight gain, and leaden paralysis—is the definition of the
system is causing harm and whether the person can consider
Atypical Features specifier for Major Depressive Disorder.
contradictory evidence.
28. The answer is D. This is likely the "postpartum blues." It is a
6. The answer is D. Marco's presentation is a classic example of
common, transient, and non-pathological condition of mood lability
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), characterized by chronic,
and anxiety that peaks within the first week after delivery and resolves
excessive, and uncontrollable worry about multiple life domains,
on its own.
accompanied by physical symptoms like muscle tension and
29. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Disruptive Mood Dysregulation
insomnia.
Disorder (DMDD). It is characterized by severe, recurrent temper
7. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Panic Disorder. It is characterized
outbursts and a persistently irritable or angry mood between the
by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and at least one month of
outbursts, with onset before age 10.
persistent worry about having another attack, which leads to
30. The answer is D. The diagnosis is Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
maladaptive behavioral changes like avoidance.
(PMDD). It is characterized by a reliable pattern of severe mood and
8. The answer is D. Leo's condition is best described as Social Anxiety
physical symptoms that begin in the week before menstruation,
Disorder (Social Phobia). It involves a marked fear of social situations
improve within a few days of onset, and disappear post-menses.
due to fear of scrutiny or negative judgment by others, leading to
31. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Anorexia Nervosa, Restricting
avoidance and significant distress.
Type. She meets the criteria of significantly low body weight due to
9. The answer is C. This is a Specific Phobia, Situational Type. The fear
energy restriction, intense fear of gaining weight, and body image
is marked, persistent, excessive, and cued by a specific situation
disturbance. The "restricting" subtype is used as she does not binge
(bridges). It leads to active avoidance and significant interference in
or purge.
her life.
32. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Bulimia Nervosa. It involves
10. The answer is D. Elena's fear and avoidance of multiple situations
recurrent binge eating with a sense of lost control, followed by
(crowds, public transport, being outside alone) due to thoughts that
inappropriate compensatory behaviors (like vomiting) to prevent
escape might be difficult if she panics is the textbook definition of
weight gain. A key feature is that the individual is not significantly
Agoraphobia.
underweight.
11. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Acute Stress Disorder (ASD). The
33. The answer is C. The combination of loud snoring, gasping/choking
symptoms (intrusion, avoidance, dissociation, hyperarousal) are
in sleep, and excessive daytime sleepiness in an overweight individual
identical to PTSD, but the diagnosis of ASD is used when the duration
is the classic presentation of Obstructive Sleep Apnea Hypopnea.
of symptoms is between three days and one month after the traumatic
34. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Erectile Disorder. It involves a
event.
persistent (at least 6 months) difficulty in obtaining or maintaining an
12. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with
erection, causing significant personal distress.
depressed mood. The depressive symptoms are a clear and
35. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Gender Dysphoria. It is defined by
excessive reaction to an identifiable psychosocial stressor (being
a marked and persistent incongruence between one's
passed over for promotion) and began within 3 months of the stressor.
experienced/expressed gender and one's assigned gender, which
13. The answer is B. Her symptoms of intrusion (dreams), avoidance (of
causes clinically significant distress.
places and thoughts), negative alterations in cognition/mood (negative
36. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Stimulant-Induced Psychotic
view of the world, self-blame), and arousal (insomnia, startle
Disorder. The symptoms (paranoia, tactile hallucinations) are
response) have persisted for two years, meeting the criteria for
prominent, developed during or soon after stimulant intoxication, are
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
in excess of simple intoxication, and warrant clinical attention.
14. The answer is D. While all the symptoms are relevant, the post-
37. The answer is C. This pattern meets multiple criteria for Alcohol Use
traumatic repetitive play with themes directly related to the accident is
Disorder, including tolerance, withdrawal, unsuccessful efforts to cut
a specific diagnostic criterion for PTSD that is unique to its
down, and continued use despite physical problems. With 6 or more
manifestation in young children.
criteria met, the severity is specified as Severe.
15. The answer is D. The diagnosis is Hoarding Disorder. It is
38. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Intermittent Explosive Disorder. It
characterized by persistent difficulty discarding possessions, resulting
is characterized by recurrent, impulsive aggressive outbursts that are
in clutter that compromises living spaces, and significant distress
grossly out of proportion to the provocation and are not premeditated.
associated with the thought of discarding them.
39. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Pyromania. It is defined by
16. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD).
deliberate fire setting on more than one occasion, preceded by tension
It is defined by a preoccupation with a perceived flaw in appearance
or arousal, and followed by pleasure or relief. The fire setting is not
that is not observable to others, leading to repetitive behaviors (like
done for other motives like financial gain or revenge.
mirror checking) and significant functional impairment.
40. The answer is C. This is a classic presentation of Kleptomania,
17. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Obsessive-Compulsive Personality
defined by a recurrent failure to resist the impulse to steal objects that
Disorder (OCPD). It is a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with
are not needed, preceded by rising tension and followed by relief or
orderliness, perfectionism, and control, at the expense of flexibility.
gratification.
Crucially, the traits are ego-syntonic (the person sees them as "the
41. The answer is B. This CEO's pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need
right way").
for admiration, lack of empathy, sense of entitlement, and exploitation
18. The answer is C. Her diagnosis is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
of others are the core features of Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
(OCD). She experiences obsessions (intrusive, unwanted thoughts of
42. The answer is C. This woman's pattern of unstable relationships
harming her baby) that cause anxiety, which she tries to neutralize
(idealization/devaluation), unstable self-image, impulsivity, recurrent
with compulsions (checking, hiding knives, praying).
self-harm, affective instability, and fear of abandonment are the
19. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Somatic Symptom Disorder. She
hallmark features of Borderline Personality Disorder.
has one or more distressing somatic symptoms (pain, fatigue) and
43. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Schizoid Personality Disorder. It is
exhibits excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to them
characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social
(high health anxiety, excessive time devoted to them).
relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression. Crucially,
20. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Illness Anxiety Disorder. He is
the individual does not desire close relationships.
preoccupied with having a serious illness (aneurysm) in the absence
44. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Histrionic Personality Disorder,
of significant physical symptoms. His anxiety is high, and he performs
defined by a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-
excessive health-related behaviors (checking, reassurance seeking).
seeking behavior. Individuals are often dramatic, theatrical, and
21. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Conversion Disorder. It involves a
uncomfortable when not the center of attention.
neurological symptom (blindness) that is medically unexplained and
45. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Avoidant Personality Disorder. It is
incompatible with neurological pathways. It is often preceded by a
characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of
significant stressor.

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inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, leading to 68. The answer is C. These physiological markers are central to the
avoidance of social situations despite a desire for connection. underarousal hypothesis of ASPD, which suggests that individuals
46. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Schizophrenia. The man exhibits with the disorder have an abnormally low level of cortical arousal,
the characteristic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized which leads them to engage in thrill-seeking behaviors to reach
speech, negative symptoms) for a duration of more than 6 months, optimal arousal.
with a significant decline in functioning. 69. The answer is B. This explanation is based on Seligman's theory of
47. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Schizoaffective Disorder. The key prepared conditioning, which posits that humans are evolutionarily
feature is the presence of a major mood episode (depressive or manic) prepared to more easily learn fears for stimuli that were dangerous to
concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia, AND delusions or our ancestors, like snakes and heights.
hallucinations for at least 2 weeks in the absence of a major mood 70. The answer is C. A culturally competent approach would view Lanti
episode. as a culturally meaningful "illness narrative" or explanatory model. It
48. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Brief Psychotic Disorder. It is provides a framework for the client to understand and communicate
defined by the presence of psychotic symptoms with a duration of at distress that may not align with Western diagnostic categories.
least one day but less than one month, with an eventual full return to 71. The answer is C. The Contrast Avoidance Model of GAD posits that
the previous level of functioning. chronic worry is a dysfunctional strategy used to avoid the sharp,
49. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Delusional Disorder, Erotomanic negative emotional shift that would occur if a bad event happened
Type. He has a single, non-bizarre delusion (erotomanic) for more unexpectedly, thus maintaining a stable but negative emotional state.
than one month, and his functioning is not markedly impaired apart 72. The answer is B. The primary competing theory to the post-traumatic
from the impact of the delusion. Criterion A for schizophrenia has model of DID is the sociocognitive model. It proposes that DID is not
never been met. a naturally occurring trauma response but is iatrogenic, created in
50. The answer is C. The diagnosis is Schizophreniform Disorder. The suggestible individuals by therapeutic practices and media portrayals.
symptomatic criteria for schizophrenia are met, but the duration of the 73. The answer is D. The monoamine hypothesis is considered overly
illness is between 1 and 6 months. If it persists beyond 6 months, the simplistic and incomplete for all of the above reasons: the delayed
diagnosis is changed to Schizophrenia. effect of SSRIs, the effectiveness of non-biological treatments, and the
51. The answer is C. Her lifelong pattern of inattention (careless lack of consistent direct evidence for low serotonin levels in depressed
mistakes, easily distracted, forgetful) and hyperactivity/impulsivity individuals.
(fidgets, interrupts) causing impairment in multiple settings is the 74. The answer is C. The mesolimbic dopamine pathway, often called
classic presentation of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder the "reward pathway," is central to motivation, reinforcement, and
(ADHD), Combined Presentation. addiction. Its dysregulation is a key neurobiological factor in gambling
52. The answer is C. This boy's persistent deficits in social disorder and other substance/behavioral addictions.
communication and interaction, combined with restricted, repetitive 75. The answer is C. A rigid, perfectionistic, and dichotomous ("all-or-
patterns of behavior, interests, and insistence on sameness, are the nothing") thinking style is a core cognitive feature and vulnerability
core diagnostic features of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). factor for both Anorexia Nervosa and Obsessive-Compulsive
53. The answer is B. The diagnosis is Intellectual Disability. It requires Personality Disorder.
deficits in both intellectual functions (confirmed by IQ testing) and 76. The answer is B. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is an evidence-
adaptive functioning (conceptual, social, and practical skills), with an based psychotherapy specifically designed by Marsha Linehan to treat
onset during the developmental period. BPD. It directly targets emotional dysregulation and self-harm by
54. The answer is C. This presentation—an insidious onset and gradual, teaching skills in mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotion regulation,
progressive decline in memory and other cognitive functions—is the and interpersonal effectiveness.
characteristic pattern of Major Neurocognitive Disorder Probable due 77. The answer is B. This technique is known as Systematic
to Alzheimer's Disease. Desensitization. It is a behavior therapy that pairs relaxation with
55. The answer is B. The key features for Major Neurocognitive Disorder gradual exposure to an anxiety-provoking stimulus by working up a
due to Vascular Disease are the "stepwise" decline in functioning that fear hierarchy.
is temporally related to cerebrovascular events, with deficits often 78. The answer is B. This is the core component of Exposure and
prominent in complex attention and executive function. Response Prevention (ERP), the most effective psychological
56. The answer is C. Clark's cognitive-behavioral model of panic treatment for OCD. It involves exposing the client to their feared
specifically posits that panic attacks result from a catastrophic stimulus (exposure) and preventing them from engaging in their
misinterpretation of normal bodily sensations, creating a vicious cycle compulsive ritual (response prevention).
of fear and physiological arousal that culminates in a panic attack. 79. The answer is C. The first-line and most critical biomedical
57. The answer is C. The behavioral explanation is that classical intervention for an acute manic episode is a mood stabilizer (like
conditioning created the phobia. The fear (unconditioned response) lithium or valproate), often augmented in the short-term with an
from being trapped (unconditioned stimulus) became associated with antipsychotic medication to manage agitation and psychosis.
the toy snake (neutral stimulus), which became a conditioned stimulus 80. The answer is C. This therapy is Eye Movement Desensitization and
that now elicits fear (conditioned response). Reprocessing (EMDR). It is a therapy for PTSD that combines
58. The answer is D. The diathesis-stress model provides the best recounting a traumatic memory with bilateral stimulation, such as
framework for integrating these factors. It posits that a genetic guided lateral eye movements.
predisposition (diathesis) for schizophrenia was triggered by 81. The answer is B. This approach is characteristic of the Gottman
environmental stressors (high expressed emotion family, university), Method Couples Therapy, a research-based therapy that focuses on
leading to the disorder's onset. analyzing and changing specific dysfunctional communication
59. The answer is C. This therapeutic approach is the hallmark of patterns and behaviors in relationships.
cognitive therapy, developed by Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis. They 82. The answer is C. This treatment is Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT).
proposed that psychological disorders are caused by maladaptive It is a highly effective biomedical treatment reserved for severe,
automatic thoughts, core beliefs, and cognitive distortions. treatment-resistant depression or other severe mental illnesses.
60. The answer is D. This is a prime example of a gene-environment 83. The answer is B. This collaborative, client-centered counseling style,
interaction (GxE). The effect of the environmental stressor (bullying) which aims to resolve ambivalence and strengthen a person's intrinsic
on the outcome (depression) is moderated by the individual's specific motivation to change, is the hallmark of Motivational Interviewing.
genetic makeup (the 5-HTTLPR variant). 84. The answer is B. This intensive, structured intervention, which uses
61. The answer is C. An adoption study where the disorder appears principles of operant conditioning (breaking down behaviors,
despite a low-risk environment provides strong evidence for the role reinforcement) to teach socially significant skills, is known as Applied
of genetic contributions to that disorder, suggesting a significant Behavior Analysis (ABA) and is the most widely used evidence-based
heritable component. treatment for ASD.
62. The answer is C. This finding provides the strongest support for the 85. The answer is B. The most powerful therapeutic factor in this group
neurological/biological perspective of OCD, which implicates therapy is in-vivo exposure and behavioral experiments. The group
dysfunction in the cortico-striatal-thalamic-cortical (CSTC) brain circuit provides a controlled social environment where clients can directly
in the etiology of the disorder. confront their fears and test their anxious predictions.
63. The answer is C. According to Mowrer's two-factor theory, the phobia 86. The answer is C. The most culturally competent first step is to
is maintained by operant conditioning, specifically negative engage respectfully with the family's explanatory model (the engkanto
reinforcement. The avoidance behavior (crossing the street) is belief) while simultaneously conducting a thorough, standard clinical
reinforced because it removes the aversive feeling of anxiety. assessment to see if the boy's symptoms meet criteria for a DSM-5
64. The answer is D. A sociocultural perspective would emphasize the diagnosis.
role of broader societal and cultural factors. For eating disorders, this 87. The answer is C. The therapist's primary ethical obligation is to
includes the pervasive societal and media messages that glorify uphold the principle of "release of minimum necessary information."
thinness, creating cultural pressure that fosters body dissatisfaction. This involves discussing the specific request with the client and
65. The answer is B. This attributional style (attributing negative events releasing only the essential information required, not the entire
to internal, stable, and global causes) is a central component of the detailed record.
Hopelessness Theory of Depression. 88. The answer is C. The ethical principles of Integrity and Objectivity are
66. The answer is C. Linehan's biosocial theory posits that BPD develops most at risk. The psychologist is being pressured to compromise their
from a transaction between a biological predisposition for emotional professional, unbiased judgment for personal gain (future referrals),
sensitivity and a chronically invalidating environment where the child's which would violate their duty to be honest and objective.
emotional experiences are consistently dismissed or punished. 89. The answer is B. This is an example of a category fallacy, the
67. The answer is B. According to the dopamine hypothesis of cognitive error of imposing a diagnostic category from one culture
schizophrenia, a deficit of dopamine activity in the mesocortical (GAD) onto a member of another culture without considering their
pathway is thought to be responsible for the negative and cognitive indigenous idioms of distress (nerbiyos) and their cultural meanings.
symptoms of the disorder.
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90. The answer is C. According to ethical codes, a psychologist must

decline to conduct a formal assessment on a close friend. The pre-
existing dual relationship would impair the objectivity and professional
judgment required for an assessment. The proper action is to provide
a referral.
91. The answer is B. RA 11036 mandates that mental health services
should be community-based, integrated into primary healthcare, and
accessible to reduce stigma and improve access, rather than being
primarily hospital-based.
92. The answer is C. Under RA 11036, the student has the right to
access age-appropriate, community-level mental health services
without discrimination and the right to provide informed consent, as
the law recognizes the evolving capacity of minors.
93. The answer is B. The program is likely insufficient. The IRR of RA
11036 requires employers to develop comprehensive, evidence-
based mental health policies that go beyond simple promotion and
include access to treatment and support for employees.
94. The answer is B. This approach conflicts with RA 11036's mandate to
treat substance use as a public health issue, which requires a
comprehensive approach including prevention, treatment, and harm
reduction, not just law enforcement.
95. The answer is C. The psychologist's most critical responsibility in
teletherapy is to have established a clear emergency and safety plan
at the beginning of treatment, including the client's location and
emergency contacts, so that it can be activated in a crisis.
96. The answer is B. The initiative that best represents the mandate to
integrate mental health into all levels of care is training barangay
health workers (BHWs) and primary care physicians on mental health
first aid, as this builds capacity at the community/primary care level.
97. The answer is B. This is a direct violation of the provision on the
rights of service users in RA 11036, which explicitly prohibits
discrimination in the workplace on the basis of having a mental health
condition.
98. The answer is B. To conduct research ethically and in compliance
with the law, the researcher must obtain informed consent from all
participants and ensure that all data is anonymized or de-identified to
protect individual privacy and confidentiality.
99. The answer is B. To address the shortage of specialists in rural
areas, the most viable approach in line with the law's community-
based focus is "task-shifting." This involves training and supervising
non-specialist health workers to deliver basic, evidence-based
psychosocial interventions.
100. The answer is C. The most accurate evaluation is that the pandemic
acted as both a challenge and a catalyst. It strained the system but
also increased public awareness, reduced stigma, and accelerated
the adoption of new service models like teletherapy, which are in line
with the goals of RA 11036.

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