28-06-2026

1001CMD303055260001 MD

PHYSICS

2
1) The equation of SHM of a particle is a + 4π x = 0 where a is instantaneous linear acceleration at
displacement x. The frequency of motion is :-

(1) 1 Hz
(2) 4π Hz
(3) 1/4 Hz
(4) 4 Hz

2) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal segment

on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the value of n
will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

3) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by equations

y1 = 4 sin (10t + ϕ)
y2 = 5 cos(10 t) What is the phase difference between their velocities ?

(1) ϕ
(2) – ϕ

(3)

(4)

4)

Which of the following is constant in SHM ?

(1) mechanical energy

(2) acceleration
(3) potential energy
(4) kinetic energy

5) A particle executes SHM of period 8 seconds. After what time of its passing through mean
position will the energy be half kinetic and half potential.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 1 sec
(3) 2.5 sec
(4) 4 sec

6) Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a time period 2 sec. After
what time will its kinetic energy will be 75% of the total energy ?

(1)
sec.

(2)
sec.

(3)
sec.

(4)
sec.

7) The length of seconds pendulum of the surface of earth is 1m. What will be the length of a second
pendulum on moon :-

(1)

(2) 6m
(3)

(4)

8) A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely immersed
in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of material of the bob is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Oscillators A and B shown in figure are oscillating with same amplitude and energy. Respective

spring constants are mentioned in the figure. Then :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) The ratio of frequencies of two pendulums are 2 : 3, then their lengths are in ratio

(1)
(2)
(3) 4/9
(4) 9/4

11) A mass M is suspended from a light spring. An additional mass m added displaces the spring
further by a distance x. Now the combined mass will oscillate by the spring with period :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The phase difference between two SHM y1 =10 sin and y2 = 12 sin at t =
0.5 s is :

(1)

(2)

(3) π

(4)

13) The displacement time graph of a particle executing S.H.M. is given in figure:

(sketch is schematic and not to scale) Which of the

following statement is/are true for this motion?

(1) The force is zero at

(2) The acceleration is maximum at t = T
(3) The speed is maximum at

(4) The P.E. is equal to K.E. of the oscillation at

(1) (1), (2) and (4)

(2) (2), (3) and (4)
(3) (1), (2) and (3)
(4) (1) and (4)

14) Assertion (A) : All simple harmonic motion are periodic.

Reason (R) : Periodic motion is the motion in which the particle repeats its motion in a fixed time
internal.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

15) The potential energy of a spring when stretched by 4 cm is U. When stretched by 20 cm, its
potential energy will be :-

(1) 25 U

(2)

(3) 20 U

(4)

16) The potential energy U of a particle is given by U = 2.5x2 + 100 joule. Is the motion simple
harmonic. If the the mass of the particle is 0.2 Kg, what is its time period :-

(1) Yes, 2.5 sec.

(2) Yes, 1.26 sec.
(3) Yes, 5.2 sec.
(4) No

17) A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion about x = 0 under the influence of a

force shown below : The period of the S.H.M. is :

(1) 1.05s
(2) 0.52s
(3) 0.25s
(4) 0.31s

18) On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass M is attached between two springs. The other ends
of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant K, the period of oscillation

of the body (assuming the springs as massless) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If a mass M suspended by a spring executes SHM with time period T, and the time period
become 5T/3 if mass is increased by m. Then find ratio of m/M

(1) 5/3
(2) 3/5
(3) 25/9
(4) 16/9

20) The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = sin2ωt. The motion of the particle
corresponds to

(1) Simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π

(2) Simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π
(3) Non simple harmonic motion
(4) Simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π

21) The following figure depict a circular motion. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution,
the initial position and the sense of revolution are indicated on the figure.

The simple harmonic motion of the x-projection of the radius vector of

the rotating particle P can be shown as :
(1)
x(t) = a cos

(2)
x(t) = a cos

(3)
x(t) = a sin
x(t) = a sin
(4)

22) In SHM, if mean kinetic energy is 50 J, then kinetic energy at mean position is :-

(1) 50 J
(2) 25 J
(3) 75 J
(4) 100 J

23) A particle executes SHM. Its velocities are v1and v2 at displacement x1 and x2 from mean position
respectively. The frequency of oscillation will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If x-t relation is given by x = then find time when speed will be zero first time
where T is time period of motion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The total phase of a particle executing SHM from mean positions is . Which of the following
statements is true regarding the position and motion of the particle?
(1)
The particle is at and moving in –x direction

(2)
The particle is at and moving in +x direction

(3)
The particle is at and moving in –x direction

(4)
The particle is at and moving in +x direction

26) If 3 cos θ – 4 sin θ = A cos (θ + α), then value of A and α, are :-

(1) 5, 37°
(2) 7, 37°
(3) 5, 53°
(4) 7, 53°

27) The integral is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) is :-

(1)

(2) 0
(3) 1

(4)

29) The sum of given series, is :-

(1) 2

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

2
30) The minimum value of y = 5x – 2x + 1 is

(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 3/5

2
31) If x = t and y = t then is equal to :-

(1) 2x
(2) 6t
(3) 2y
(4) 4t

32) (0.996)1/4 = ........ :-

(1) 0.992
(2) 1.002
(3) 0.999
(4) 1.001

33)

A ball is projected with speed u at an angle θ to the horizontal. The range R of projectile is given by

for which value of θ will the range be maximum

(1)
radian

(2)
radian

(3)
radian

(4)
radian

34)

If I = then ; If G and M are constant

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) For ellipse = 1, the co-ordinates of points A & B are respectively :-

(1) (0, 3) and (4, 0)

(2) (3, 0) and (0, 4)
(3) (4, 0) and (0, 3)
(4) (16, 0) and (0, 9)

36) Find the distance between the points (0,0,0) and (2,2,1)

(1)
(2) 2 +
(3) 3
(4) None

37) The radius of a circular plate increase at the rate 0.1 cm/s at what rate does the area increase

when the radius of plate is

(1) 1 cm2/s
(2) 0.1 cm2/s
(3) 0.5 cm2/s
(4) 2 cm2/s

38) If x = (3t2 – 2t + 4) m then find time when particle is at rest.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 3 sec
(3) 1/2 sec
(4) 1/3 sec

39) Calculate slope of shown line :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

40) Find integration of cos2x with respect to x -

(1)

(2)

(3) x + sin2x
(4) None of these

41) The value of integral is :-

(1) 3loge2
(2) loge2
(3) loge4
(4) 2loge8

42) Find if h << R

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
Find the value of

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

44) At point P, the value of is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Infinite

45) Which of the following statement is false based on graphs of y versus x as shown below? (i)

(ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Slope at x0 is positive in graph (i) and (ii)

(2) Slope is constant in graph (iii)
(3) Slope at x0 is negative in graph (iv)
(4) Slope at x0 is negative in graph (ii)

CHEMISTRY

1) 57La configuration will be :

0
(1) [Kr] 4f 5d1 6s2
0
(2) [Xe] 5f 6d1 7s2
0
(3) [Xe] 4f1 5d 6s2
 0
(4) [Xe] 4f 5d1 6s2

2) Incorrect statement is/are :

(1) All representative element are typical element
(2) All typical element are representative element
(3) 92U is a transuranic element.

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 3
(3) 2, 3
(4) 1, 2

14 10 2
3) An element having electronic configuration [Xe] 4f 5d 6s belongs to which block :-

(1) s
(2) p
(3) f
(4) d

4) Which of the following element have d electron in penultimate shell :

(1) Eu
(2) Pm
(3) Nd
(4) Gd

5) Match the column :-

Column-A
Column-B
General electronic
Block
configuration

(i) (n – 1)d1–10ns0–2 (a) s-block

(n – 2)f1–14
(ii) (b) p-block
(n – 1)d0–1ns2

(iii) ns2np1–6 (c) d-block

0
(iv) ns1–2np (d) f-block
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

6) Match the column :-

Column I Column II
 Natural transuranic
(A) (P) Na, Mg
element

(B) d-block element (Q) Be, Al

Diagonally related
(C) (R) Fe, Co
elements

(D) Typical elements (S) Np, Pu

Correct code is :-

A B C D
(1) R P S Q
(2) S R Q P
(3) S R P Q
(4) R S Q P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Ununtrium (Uut) belongs to :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) Transition element

8) Identify group, Period, block of element having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2
4p6 4d10 :-

(1) Group–10, Period–5, Block–d

(2) Group–12, Period–4, Block–d
(3) Group–10, Period–4, Block–d
(4) doesn't exist configuration is wrong

9) Which pair of element is not found in nature ?

(1) W, U
(2) Pm, Tc
(3) Pt, Au
(4) Ce, Pr

10) Assertion : All group 18 elements are gases at room temperature.

Reason : All have stable configuration ns2np6

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11)
– 10 2 1
If the electronic configuration of A is [Ar] 3d 4s 4p , then A will belong to which group & period :-

(1) Group - 9, Period - 3

(2) Group - 10, Period - 4
(3) Group - 12, Period - 4
(4) Group - 9 - Period - 4

12) Which of the following is not correctly matched :

(1) [Xe] 4f145d106s2 – Transition element

(2) – Inner transition element
(3) [Xe] 4f 5d 6s 6p67s2 – Normal element
14 10 2

(4) None

13) On the given part of periodic table the wrong statement is :-

(1) Atomic number of A is 15

(2) Atomic number of B is 33
(3) Atomic number of E is 52
(4) Atomic number of F is 54

14) The acidic hydrolysis of ester is –

(1) Psuedo Ist order reaction

(2) IInd order reaction
(3) Trimolecular reaction
(4) All of the above

15) For the reaction H2 + I2 → 2HI, the rate of disappearance of iodine is 10–6 mole litre–1 sec–1. What
will be the rate of formation of HI ?

(1) 10–6 mol L–1 sec–1

(2) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1 sec–1

(3)
mol L–1 sec–1
(4) None of these

16) For the following graphs,

Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is :

(1) (b) and (d) zero order (c) and (e) First order
(2) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order
(3) (b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order
(4) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

17) In collision theory of chemical reaction, ZAB represents

(1) the fraction of molecules with energies greater than Ea

(2) the collision frequency of reactants, A and B
(3) steric factor
(4) the fraction of molecules with energies equal to Ea

18) The kinetic data for the given reaction

A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) is provided in the following table for three experiments at 300 K:-

conc. B Initial rate

Ex. No. conc. A (M)
(M) (M sec-1)

1 0.01 0.01 6.930×10-6

2 0.02 0.01 1.386 × 10-5

3 0.02 0.02 1.386 ×10-5

then correct expression for rate of reaction is :-
(1) r = k[A]1[B]1
(2) r = k[A]2[B]1
(3) r = k[A]1
(4) r = k[B]1

19) Which integrated equation is correct for the following Ist order reaction started with only A(g) in
a closed rigid vessel.
A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
Pi = initial pressure;
Pt = total pressure at time t
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The correct statement (s) about following graph is/are :

(1) It is a complex reaction of two steps

(2) Step 1 of this reaction is rate determining step
(3) It is an exothermic reaction
(4) All are correct

21) The rate of the reaction A + 2B → 3C gets. increased by 72 times when the concentration of A is
tripled and that of B is doubled. The order of reaction with respect to A and B are respectively :-

(1) 1, 2
(2) 3, 2
(3) 2, 2
(4) 2, 3

22)

N2O5 is decomposed according to given reaction if initial pressure of N2O5 is 100 torr and after 10
min total pressure of reaction mixture becomes 150 torr then rate of decomposition of N2O5 upto 10
min is–
2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2

(1) 3.33 torr min–1

(2) 6.67 torr min–1
(3) 5 torr min–1
(4) 10 torr min–1

0
23) For a reaction A → P; A plot between [A] Vs is straight line having a positive slope. When
–2
initial concentration of A is 1 × 10 M its half life period is found to be 20 min. When concentration
of A is 2 × 10–2 M, then half life will be?

(1) 20 min.
(2) 10 min.
(3) 67 min.
(4) 56 min.

24) For a reaction K1 = , K2 = , K3 = . What will activation energy for a

reaction if K =

(1) 6000 R
(2) –6000 R
(3) 2000 R
(4) –1000 R

–1
25) In the reaction, 2H2O2 —→ 2H2O + O2 The rate of decomposition of H2O2 is 0.68 kg hr . What is
the rate of formation of O2 and H2O respectively in kg hr–1 :-

(1) 0.36, 0.32 kg hr–1

(2) 0.32, 0.36 kg hr–1
(3) 0.34, 0.68 kg hr–1
(4) 0.68, 0.34 kg hr–1

26) If = K [H+]n and rate becomes 100 times when pH changes from 2 to 1. Hence order is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

27) At point of intersection how much extent of reaction is completed :-

(1) 1/4
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/2
(4) 3/4

28) For the reaction 2A + 3B → products, A is in excess and on changing the concentration of B from
0.1 M to 0.4 M, rate becomes doubled, Thus, rate law is :-

(1) R = k[A]2[B]2
(2) R = k[A] [B]
0 0
(3) R = k[A] [B]
(4) R = k[B]1/2

29) A reaction rate constant is given by :

14 –25000/RT –1
k = 1.2 × 10 e sec . It means :-

(1) log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as 25000
(2) log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as –2500
(3) log k versus T will give a straight line with a slope as –25000
(4) log k versus 1/T will give a straight line

4 –1
30) For a reaction Ea = 0 and K = 3 × 10 s at 500 K then what will be the value of K at 520 K?

(1) 4 × 104 s–1

(2) 3 × 104 s–1
(3) 4 × 108 s–1
(4) 2 × 103 s–1

31) Half life of first order reaction is 30 minute. Calculate the time of completion of 99.999% of
reaction [in (min)]

(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 500
(4) 300

32) For reaction :

2NO2(g) + O3(g) → N2O5(g) + O2(g)
rate law is R = k [NO2] [O3].
Which of these possible reaction mechanisms is consistent with the rate law?
Mechanism I :
NO2(g) + O3(g) → NO3(g) + O2(g) (slow)
NO3(g) + NO2(g) → N2O5(g) (fast)
Mechanism II :
O3(g) ⇌ O2(g) + [O] (fast)
NO2(g) + [O] → NO3 (slow)
NO3(g) + NO2(g) → N2O5 (fast)

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II

33) For a chemical reaction temperature increased from 25°C to 55°C then rate of reaction will be
changed by a factor of (Assume µ = 3) :-
(1) 27
(2) 9
(3) 3
(4) 2

34) For a complex reaction A products

Ea1=180 kJ/mol; Ea2=80 kJ/mol; Ea3=50 kJ/mol Overall rate constant k is related to individual rate

constant by the equation . Activation energy (kJ/mol) for the overall reaction is :-

(1) 100
(2) 43.44
(3) 150
(4) 140

35) Consider the following graph of the kinetic energy distribution among molecules at temperature

T. If the temperature is increased, how would the resulting graph differ

from the one above :-

(1) Both area I and II would increase

(2) Both area I and II would decrease
(3) Area I would increase and area II would decrease
(4) Area I would decrease and area II would increase

36) Chemical reaction occurs as a result of collisions between reacting molecules. Therefore, the
reaction rate is given by -

(1) Total number of collisions occurring in a unit volume per second

(2) Fraction of molecules which possess energy less than the threshold energy
(3) Total number of effective collisions
(4) None of the above

37) The mass ratio of N and O in a compound is 7 : 20. Compound is :-

(1) N2O3
(2) NO
(3) N2O4
(4) N2O5

38) Which of the following has largest number of atoms ?

(1) 1 g of butane (C4H10)
(2) 1 g of nitrogen (N2)
(3) 1 g of silver (Ag)
(4) 1 g of water (H2O)

39) Maximum number of molecule is in :-

(1) 15 L H2 at STP
(2) 5 L N2 at STP
(3) 0.5 g H2
(4) 10 g O2

40) A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4, contains 3.18 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number
of mole of oxygen atoms in the sample is :-

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

41) Number of molecules in 1 litre of oxygen at NTP is :-

(1)

(2) 32 × 22.4

(3)

(4)

42) If Ca3(PO4)2 and H3PO3 contain same number of 'P' atom then the ratio of oxygen atoms in these
compounds respectively is :-

(1) 8/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 3
(4) 4/3

43) Number of H-atom in 1.8 mL of H2O is :-

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 1.2 × 1023
(4) 60.22 × 1023

44) Which of the following statement is correct about the gram atomic mass of any element :-
(1) It is the mass of 1 atom in grams
(2) It is 1 g mass of an element
(3) It is the mass of 1 mol atoms of an element in gram
(4) It is equal to the mass of 1 mol of atom in amu

45) Actual weight of CH4 is :-

(1) 2.67 × 10–23 g

(2) 16 g
(3) 16NA g
(4) All of the above

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is not true?

(1) All flowering plants show sexual reproduction

(2) Flower is the site of sexual reproduction
(3) End products of sexual reproduction are fruit and seed in flowering plants.
(4) Flowers are not morphological and embryological marvels to biologists.

2)
identify A ?

(1) Inflorescence
(2) Flower Bud
(3) Leaf
(4) Branches

3) The,........end of the filament is attached to the.............of the flower.

(1) Distal, thalamus

(2) Distal, sepal or petal
(3) Distal, Petal or Thalamus
(4) Proximal, Thalamus or petal

4) Male gametes are formed by :-

(1) Pollen mother cell

(2) Generative cell
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Microspore mother cell

5) In pollen bank, pollen grains are stored at :

(1) 196°C
(2) –135°C
(3) 0°C
(4) –196°C

6) Pollen grains remain viable for months in-

(1) Rosaceae and Solanaceae

(2) Poaceae and Leguminosae
(3) Brassicaceae and Poaceae
(4) Brassicaceae and Solanaceae

7) The microsporangia develop further and become :

(1) Pollen sacs

(2) Megasporangia
(3) Microspore
(4) Pollen grain

8) Meiosis can be observed in :-

(1) Megaspore mother cell

(2) Microspores
(3) Megaspores
(4) Tapetal cells

9) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Basal part of ovule - Micropyle

(2) Main part of ovule - Nucellus
(3) Junction of ovule and funicle - Hilum
(4) Female Gametophyte in ovule - Embryo sac

10) Select the incorrect option ?

(1) Cells of sporogenous tissue undergo meiosis to form microspore tetrads.

(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical
(3) Diameter of pollen grains are 25-100 µm.
(4) The exine exhibits a fascinating arrays of pattern and designs.
11) How many haploid nuclei are present in a mature pollen grain after reaching micropyle ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Statement-I : Flowers have to provide rewards to the animals to sustain animal visits.
Statement-II : Nectar and pollen grains are floral rewards only for insects.
Options :

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

13) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Exine of pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin.

(2) The inner wall of pollen grain is called intine
(3) Pollen grains represent the male gametophytes
(4) Mature pollen grain contain one cell

14)

Match column-I and column-II and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(A) Male gamete + Egg (i) Triple fusion

(B) Male gamete + Polar nuclei (ii) Syngamy

(C) Ovule (iii) Megasporophyll

(D) Carpel (iv) Megasporangium

Options :-
(1) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
(2) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
(3) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)
(4) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)

15) The disadvantage of cleistogamy is that

(1) Offspring produced have limited genetic diversity

(2) It produces limited number of pollen grains
(3) There is a little probability of flower to get pollinated
(4) There is always a need of pollinator
16) Even in the absence of pollinating agents seed setting is ensured in :

(1) Mango, Salvia

(2) Ficus, Zostera
(3) Viola, Commelina
(4) Hydrilla, Fig

17) How many division takes place in development of female gametophyte ?

(1) 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis

(2) 1 meiosis and 3 mitosis
(3) 3 meiosis and 1 mitosis
(4) 2 meiosis and 2 mitosis

18) Which of the following is incorrect

(1) Six of the eight nuclei of embryo sac are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells
(2) Two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell
(3) Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus
(4) The egg cells have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus

19) Which of the following is not a outbreeding devices?

(1) Hermaphrodite flowers

(2) Self - incompatibility
(3) Anther & stigma placed at different positions
(4) pollen release and stigma receptivity is not synchronised

20) Identify the Correctly matched.

(1) Vallisenaria - Flowers colourful and with nectar

(2) Water lily - flowers pollinated by water
(3) Zostera. - Ribbon like Pollen grain.
(4) Commelina - Invariably autogamous

21) Statement I: Pollination by Water is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.

Statement II: Wind pollinated plants often possess well exposed stamens so that the pollens are
easily dispersed into wind current.

(1) Both Statement I and statement Il are correct

(2) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect

22) How many megaspore mother cell are required for the the formation of 16 egg ?
(1) 16
(2) 4
(3) 64
(4) 32

23) Which of the following sequence is correct for microspore genesis?

(1) Microspore tetrad (2N) Microspore (N)

(2) Microspore Mother cell (2N) microspore tetrad (N)
(3) Microspore tetrad (N) Microspore (2N)
(4) Microspore tetrad (2N) Microspore (2N)

24) Unisexuality of flowers prevents -

(1) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy

(2) Both Autogamy and geitonogamy
(3) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(4) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy

25) Assertion (A) : Pistil can reject incompatible pollen by preventing pollen germination on the
stigma.
Reason (R) : Chemical dialogue between pollen and pistil helps in recognition of compatible or
incompatible pollen.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

26) Match the following columns :

Column I Column II
a. Antipodals 1. 3n
b. Central cell 2. 2n
c. Megaspore Mother cell 3. n+n
d. Endosperm 4. n
(1) a-(4), b-(3), c-(1), d-(2)
(2) a-(3), b-(2), c-(1), d-(4)
(3) a-(4), b-(3), c-(2), d-(1)
(4) a-(3), b-(4), c-(1), d-(2)

27) Match the column I with column II.

Column - I Column - II
 A. Vallisneria (i) Insect pollination

B. Water hyacinth (ii) Water pollination

C. Yucca (iii) Tallest flower

D. Amorphophallus (iv) Moth pollination

Correct answer is –
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(4) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv

28) Which among the following is correct development sequence?

(1) Pollen mother cell → Pollen grain → Microspore tetrad → Male gametes
(2) Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Pollen grain → Male gametes
(3) Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Pollen grain → Microspore tetrad → Male gametes
(4) Microspore tetrad → Microspore → Pollen mother cell → Male gametes

29) A mature embryo sac was observed under a microscope. It consisted of seven cells and eight
nuclei. At the micropylar end, three cells formed one of the apparatus. Three cells were present at
the chalazal end. A large central cell occupied the centre and contained two polar nuclei. Identify
the cells present at micropylar end and chalazal end respectively.
Options :-

Cell at micropylarend Cells at chalazal end

(1) 3 Antipodals 2 egg and 1 synergid

(2) 1 egg and 2 synergids 3 Antipodals

(3) 2 antipodals 1 egg and 2 synergids

(4) 2 egg and 1 synergid 3 Antipodals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30)

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

31) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct option.

List-I List-II

a. Sporopollenin i. Embryo sac formation

b. Typical embryo sac ii. Megaspore formation

c. Megasporogenesis iii. Hardest organic material

d. Megagametogenesis iv. Monosporic development

(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(3) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

32) Read following terminology of column-I and column-II and identify their correct match.

Column-I Column-II

A. Male gametophyte (i) Nucellus

B. Female gametophyte (ii) Funicle

C. Megasporangium (iii) Lucule

D. Ovarian cavity (iv) Ovule

(v) embryosac

(vi) Pollengrain
(1) A–vi, B–v, C–iv, D–iii
(2) A–vi, B–v, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–vi, B–v, C–ii, D–iv
(4) A–vi, B–iv, C–v, D–iii

33) Following diagrams represent :

 (A) Female flower of Hydrilla
(1)
(B) Male flower of Hydrilla
(A) Male flower of Hydrilla
(2)
(B) Female flower of Hydrilla
(A) Female flower of Vallisneria
(3)
(B) Male flower of Vallisneria
(A) Male flower of Vallisneria
(4)
(B) Female flower of Vallisneria

34) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Epidermis (i) Major role in dehiscence

(B) Tapetum (ii) Dense cytoplasm and more then one nuclei

(C) Endothecium (iii) Outer most protective layer

(D) Middle layer (iv) Food storage

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

35) Identify A, B, C, D and E in given diagram.

A B C D E

1 Synergids Polar nuclei Central cell Egg cell Antipodal cells

2 Synergids Polar nuclei Egg cell Central cell Antipodal cells

3 Antipodal cells Polar nuclei Central cell Egg cell Synergids

4 Antipodal cells Polar nuclei Egg cell Central cell Synergids

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
36) Identify the structure A, B, C, D in given fig. and select the right option :-

A B C D

(1) Pollen grains Nucellus Line of dehiscence Filament

(2) Pollen sacs Epidermis Line of dehiscence Filament

(3) Pollen grains Pollen sacs Line of dehiscence Filament

(4) Pollen grains Maga-sporangia Line of dehiscence Filament

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Choose the correct option with regarding above diagram :-

A-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Michelia

(1)
B-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Papaver
A-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Papaver
(2)
B-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-Michelia
A-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-Papaver
(3)
B-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Michelia
A-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-Papaver
(4)
B-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-Michelia

38) The given figure shows the plant of Commelina with two types of flowers (F1 and F2). The flowers
are :-

F1 F2

(1) Pistillate Staminate

(2) Cleistogamous Chasmogamous

(3) Chasmogamous Cleistogamous

(4) Cryptogamous Staminode

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) While performing a field study on a pond-side ecosystem, a student observes a Vallisneria plant.
They notice that the female flowers reach the surface of the water by a long stalk, while the male
flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of the water where they are carried passively
by water currents to reach the female flower
Statement-I : Epihydrophily is the technical term for this specific type of pollination that occurs on
the surface of water as observed in this aquatic plant
Statement-II : Hypohydrophily is the technical term for this specific type of pollination that occurs
on the surface of water as observed in this aquatic plant
Select the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

40) Assertion (A) : In certain plant species such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis, and Commelina,
the plant produces both chasmoganous flowers with exposed anthers and cleistogamous flowers
which remain permanently closed throughout their life cycle.
Reason (R) : Cleistogamous flowers ensure a guaranteed seed-set even in the total absence of
external pollinators like insects or wind because the anthers and stigma lie so close to each other,
that self-pollination is invitable.
Select the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

41) Observe the given diagram and fill in the boxes (A), (B) and (C) with appropriate words and
select the. Correct option regarding correct type of pollination-

A B C

(1) Autogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy

(2) Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy

Genetically cross- Genetically cross-

(3) Self-Pollination
pollination pollination

Genetically cross-
(4) Geitonogamy Xenogamy
pollination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) How many of the following features is/are associated with wind-pollinated plants?
(a) Flowers packed into inflorescence
(b) Large and feathery stigma
(c) Production of nectar and fragrance
(d) Non-sticky pollen grains

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

43) Which of the following feature(s) is/are correct for megaspore mother cell?
(a) Diploid cell
(b) Undergoes mitosis only
(c) Differentiated cell of nucellus
(d) Present in micropylar region

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All except (b)

44) Few events regarding pollen development is given in figures. Arrange the figures in correct

sequence and select the correct option from options given below :-

(1) B, D, C, A, E
(2) B, C, A, D, E
(3) B, C, D, A, E
(4) B, A, C, D, E

45) The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the
opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear division
result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the ___A___ stages of the embryo sac. It is of
interest to note that these mitotic divisions are ___B___, that is, nuclear division are not followed
immediately by cell wall formation.
In the above paragraph identify the A and B.

(1) A-strictly free nuclear, B-6 nucleated

(2) A-6 nucleated, B-strictly free nuclear
(3) A-strictly free nuclear, B-8 nucleated
(4) A-8 nucleated, B-strictly free nuclear

46) Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) Nucleus is present in both plant and animal cells.
(B) All chromosomes have a staining secondary constriction at constant location.
(C) Each centriole has an organisation like cartwheel in longitudinal section
(D) Matrix of mitochondria contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrate only.

(1) A only
(2) B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C & D

47) Select the correct match :

(1) Robert Hooke → First discovered the nucleus
(2) Robert Brown → First discovered the cell
(3) Rudolf Virchow → Omnis cellula - e cellula
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek → First invented electron microscope

48) Which one of the following cell organelle is enclosed by a single membrane?

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Lysosome
(3) Nucleus
(4) Mitochondria

49) The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is:

(1) spokes
(2) hub
(3) centrosome
(4) axonema

50) Select the correct statement for nucleolus.

(1) It is a site for mRNA synthesis

(2) Large and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis
(3) Nucleolus contains nucleoplasm
(4) Nucleolus is a single membrane bound structure

51) The below diagram represents chromosome. Identify the structures A, B and type of

chromosome C.

A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction,

(1)
C–Acrocentric
A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction,
(2)
C–Metacentric
A–Satellite, B–Centromere,
(3)
C–Telocentric
A–Satellite, B–Centromere,
(4)
C–Submetacentric

52) The cross section of a centriole shows -

 Peripheral Central Inter
microtubules microtubules Hub Spokes triplet
(Triplet) (Singlet) bridge

(1) 9 2 1 9 9

(2) 9 2 9 9 9

(3) 9 2 1 2 2

(4) 9 0 1 9 9
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Who modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final shape ?

(1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek

(2) Altmann
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Robert Hooke

54) (A) Photosynthetic pigments are present.

(B) It divides by fission.
(C) Involves in trapping of solar energy.
(D) Usually present in green plants.
These above mentioned characters are associated with :

(1) Amyloplast
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Leucoplast

55) Which organelle is not a part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

56) Assertion-(A):- Mitochondria are called "power houses" of the cell.

Reason-(R):- Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
57) Nature of plasma membrane is best described as :-

(1) Semi-permeable and fluid

(2) Semi-permeable and quasifluid
(3) Selectively permeable and fluid
(4) Selectively permeable and quasi-fluid

58)

Which cell organelle synthesis steroids ?

(1) Golgibody
(2) Lysosome
(3) Peroxisome
(4) E.R.

59) Which of the following are true for eukaryotic cell?

A. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of fiber known as chromosome
B. Mitochondrial matrix and Chloroplastidial stroma have enzyme for protein synthesis
C. Peripheral protein of cell membrane are completely embeded in plasma membrane
D. Cell wall also involve in cell-cell interaction

(1) A, B & D only

(2) B & D only
(3) A, B, C & D
(4) Only B

60) Which of the following is not a part of cytoskeleton ?

(1) Microtubule
(2) Microfilament
(3) Microbodies
(4) Intermediate filament

61) Identify the given diagram ?

(1) WBC
(2) RBC
(3) Mesophyll cell
(4) Nerve cell

62) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) All plant cells possess cell wall
(2) All eukaryotic cells are not identical
(3) Animal cell have centriole
(4) All eukaryotic cell possess plastid

63) A number of protein synthesized by ribosomes on the ___(a)___ are modified in the ___(b)___ of
golgi apparatus before they released form trans face of golgi apparatus. Find out 'a' and 'b' form
given option :

(1) a - ER, b - Cristae

(2) a - ER, b - Cisternae
(3) a - Mitochondria, b - Cristae
(4) a - Golgi body, b - Cisternae

64) Which of the following is not correct regarding sap vacuole in plants ?

(1) It's membrane called Tonoplast

(2) Found in plant cell
(3) Can occupy 90% of volume of the cell
(4) Also called gas vacuole

65) Select out the incorrect match :

(1) Osmosis – Movement of solvent by diffusion

(2) Simple diffusion – Require membrane protein
(3) Active transport – Na+/K+ pump
(4) Pinocytosis – Ingestion of liquid material

66) Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified into :-

(1) Amyloplasts, elaioplasts, and aleuroplasts

(2) Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll
(3) Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts
(4) Phytochrome, phycobilins and phycoerythrin

67) Which of following layer found closest to the plasma membranes ?

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Primary wall
(3) Tertiary wall
(4) Secondary wall

68) According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, the proteins are located :

(1) In a continuous layer over the outer surface of the membrane only
(2) In a continuous layer over the inner surface only
 In discontinuous arrangement both on the surface (as peripheral proteins) and in the interior of
(3)
the membrane (as integral proteins)
(4) In the middle of the membrane between the lipid bilayer

69) Match the columns and identify the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Eukaryotic cytoplasmic
a i 70s
ribosome

b Axoneme ii 9+0 array

c Prokaryotic ribosome iii 9+2 array

d Centriole iv 80s
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

70) The organelle frequently observed in the cells that actively involved in protein synthesis is :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) ER
(3) Vacuole
(4) Golgi Body

71) Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing :-

(1) Golgibody
(2) Centrosomes
(3) Vacuoles
(4) Plastid

72) Which among the following holds or glues the different neighbouring plant cells together ?

(1) Primary wall

(2) Secondary wall
(3) Tertiary wall
(4) Middle lamella

73) Which type of plastid is involved in storage of starch ?

(1) Elaioplast
(2) Chromoplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Chloroplast

74) The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of _____
enzymes optimally active at the _____ .

(1) Hydrolytic, Acidic pH

(2) Digestive, Basic pH
(3) Digestive, Neutral pH
(4) Hydrolytic, Basic pH

75) The fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by :

(1) Robert hook

(2) Robert brown
(3) Signer and Nicoloson
(4) Robertson

76) Chlorophyll pigments are present in which part of the chloroplast ?

(1) Outer chloroplastidial membrane

(2) Stroma
(3) Thylakoid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

77) Microbodies are :

(1) Membrane bound minute vesicles

(2) Contain various enzymes
(3) Present in both plant and animal cells
(4) All of these

78) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The vacuole is a membrane bound space found in cytoplasm

(2) The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging of materials
(3) Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures
(4) In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to 70% of the volume of the cell

79) Statement-1 : Plastids bear some specific pigments, thus imparting specific colours to the
plants.
Statement-2 : The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored
nutrients.

(1) Statement 1 and 2 both are correct.

(2) Statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

80) Match the column I with column II :

Column I Column II

(A) Centriole (i) Carbohydrate synthesis

(B) Mitochondria (ii) Help in cell division

(C) Ribosome (iii) Carbohydrate

(D) Chloroplast (iv) Protein factory of the cell

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

81) Matrix of mitochondria possess :

(1) A circular DNA few RNA molecules, 80s ribosomes and components for lipid synthesis.
(2) A circular DNA, a few RNA molecules, 70s ribosomes and components for protein synthesis.
(3) A linear DNA, a few RNA molecules, 70s ribosomes and components for lipid synthesis.
(4) A linear DNA, a few RNA molecules, 80s ribosomes and components for protein synthesis.

82) The cell organelle which form the basal body of cilia or flagella and spindle fibres that give rise
to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells ?

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Chromosome
(3) Centromere
(4) Centriole

83) Which of the following is not present in chloroplast ?

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Thylakoid
(3) 70s ribosome
(4) Stroma

84) Assertion : Quiescent (G0) stage is called active stage.

Reason : Cell in G0 stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
85) Which stage at mitosis follows S and G2 phase of interphase ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

86) If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then what will be amount of DNA after DNA
replication in S phase.

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) 4C
(4) 6C

87) Which process involves division of cells resulting in formation of two identical daughter cell ?

(1) Meiosis
(2) Mitosis
(3) Meiosis-I
(4) Both (1) and (2)

88) Choose the incorrect statement :

(1) M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle.

(2) Chromosome condensation occurs during prophase.
(3) In G1 phase most of the organelles duplicate.
(4) G1 phase marks the phase of DNA replication.

89) Which one is correct about S phase (synthetic phase).

(I) It occurs between G1 and G2.
(II) It marks the period during which DNA replicates.
(III) At the end of this phase DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains unchanged.
(IV) Centrioles replicate in plant cell in this phase.
(V) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
(VI) It is post G2 and pre G1 phase.

(1) I, II, IV, V, VI are correct

(2) I, II, III, V are correct
(3) II, IV, V are correct
(4) All are correct

90) Statement-1 : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin, nuclear matrix and one or more spherical bodies called nucleoli.
Statement-2 : Nuclear pores are the passages through which movement of RNA and protein
molecules takes place in both directions between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
(1) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 1 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 1 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 3 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 1 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
2 2
ω = 4π ⇒ ω = 2π

f= = 1 Hz

2) 1. Explanation: A spring is cut into equal parts; the spring constant changes and so does
the time period.

2. Concept: Time period . Cutting into n parts makes k'= nk.

3. Solution: Original time period:

After cutting into n parts:

Given :
Thus: n = 3
4. Final answer: Option (3)

3)

v1 = 40 cos(10t + ϕ)
v2 = – 50 sin(10t)

4) Explain the Question : Identify which quantity remains constant during simple harmonic
motion (SHM).
Concept : This question is based on total energy in ideal SHM.
Solution : In SHM :
a = –ω2x

Kinetic energy and potential energy change continuously.

Acceleration also changes with displacement.

Only total mechanical energy E = remains constant throughout the motion.

Final Answer : (1)

5) Explain Question: A particle executes SHM with period T = 8 s; we are asked when kinetic
and potential energies become equal after passing the mean.
Concept: In SHM:

K=U x= Position in SHM: x = A sin ωt.

Solution: x = A sin ωt=

Final answer: option (2)

6)

7)

8) Question Explanation:
In this question, we are asked how the time period of a pendulum changes when the bob is
fully immersed in a liquid.

Concept:
Time period of simple Pendulum

Solution:
When the bob is immersed in liquid, the effective ‘g’ gets modified

(ρL = density of liquid, ρb = density of bob)

Given:

Dentisy of liquid =
When bob is immersed, effective gravity becomes:
Time perioid of pendulum:

New time period:

Final Answer: Option (4)

9)

10)

11)

12) Phase for 1st SHM : ϕ1 = 10πt +

Phase for 2nd SHM : ϕ2 = 8πt +

Phase difference : Δϕ = ϕ1 – ϕ2 = 2πt +

Put t = 0.5 s
Δϕ = 2π (0.5) + =

13)

at → KE = 0, PE → max

14)

For SHM a ∝ – x

15)

U ∝ x2

16)
F = – 5x
k = 5, m = 0.2

T = 2π = 1.26 s

17)

a = –ω2x

⇒ ω = 20

18) Slope is irrelevant hence

19)

20)

x = sin2ωt = – cos2ωt
 21) Explain the Question : Asking about the equation of SHM of the x-projection of the
radius vector of rotating particle "P".
Concept : This question is based on SHM & circular motion.
Solution :

x = a cos

or x = a cos
Final Answer : 1

22)

< KE > = kA2 = 50 J

KEmean = kA2 = 100 J

23)

Explanation of question

For given velocities of an SHM particle at two different displacements and we have to
calculate the oscillation frequency using SHM relations.

Concept : Frequency of oscillation.

Formula : .

Solution:

V1 = ω ⇒ ....(1)

and ....(2)

Subtract equation (2) from (1)

ω=

ω = 2πf
f=

Final Answer : Option (2)

24) Explain the Question : Asking about the time period of motion for the given x-t relation,
when speed become zero.
Concept : This question is based on position speed w.r.t. time in SHM.
Solution :
x = Asin(ωt + π/4)
speed will be zero at x = +A first time
A = Asin(ωt + π/4)

⇒ ωt +

ωt =

t=
Final Answer : 2

25) Phase angle

Which indicates that particle has completed two oscillations and it is moving in +x direction (+

amplitude side). Its effective phase angle is

26) = 5cos(θ + 53°)

27)

28)

29)
 sum =

30)
2
Given y = 5x – 2x + 1

= 10x – 2 + 0 = 0

For minima

31)

If x = t & y = t2

y = x2

32)

y = (.996)1/4 = (1 – .004)1/4
= 1 – .001 = .999

33)

2θ = ⇒θ= rad

34)

35)

Point A (x-intercept): Set y = 0 in the equation:

A = (4,0).
Point B (y-intercept): set x = 0 in the equation:

36)

Distance =

37)
A = πr2

= 1 cm2/s

38)

U= = 6t – 2 = 0
⇒ t = 1/3 sec

39)

40)

Explanation the Question:

In this question we have to integrate cos2x with respect to x.
Concept:
This question is based on Indefinite Integration
Solution:
Given here

(∴ cos2x = 2cos2 x–1)

⇒
Final Answer: (1)
41) y =
=

42) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of , if h <<
R.

Concept : Binomial theorem (Binomial approximation)

Solution: By binomial approximation

n
(1 + x) = 1 + nx if x << 1

Given here =?

∵ h << R, ∴
comparing with above equation, we get

Final Answer: Option (3)

43)

Explain Question :

For the shown plot, find ⇒ =?

Concept : This question is based on definite integration within given limits is equal to the area
under curne.

Formula : = Area under "y-x" curve from x = a to x = b.

Solution :

= Area of trapezium OABC + Area of triangle CDE

=
 =

=
= +5
Final answer : 1

44) Explain Question : We need to select the correct value of at point P on the graph
shown.
Concept : This question is based on Differentiation (the slope of tangent)
Solution : slope at pt. p is zero
As the tangent at point P is horizontal.

⇒
Final Answer : option (1)

45)

In graph (ii) slope at x0 is +ve.

CHEMISTRY

46)

concept based

47) fact based

1st transuranic element in group 93

48)

last entering in d-subshell

49)
0
Eu = [Xe]6s24f75d
0
Pm = [Xe]6s24f55d
Gd = [Xe]6s2 4f75d1
0
Nd = [Xe]6s24f45d
50) NCERT, Pg. # 82-84

51) Explanation :- The question asks to match elements with their classifications: natural
transuranic, d-block, diagonally related, and typical elements, tasting table knowledge.
Concept- :-
• Natural transuranic elements (A) like Neptunium (Np) and Plutonium (Pu) match with (S).
• d-block elements (B) such as lron (Fe) and Cobalt (Co) correspond to (R).
• Diagonally related elements (C) like Beryllium (Be) and Aluminium (Al) match with (Q).
• Typical elements (D) such as sodium (Na) and Magnesium (Mg) correspond to (P).
• Therefore, the correct match is A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P, which corresponds to option (2)
Answer Option (2)

52)

Uut = 113 p-block group 13

0
53) 46Pd [Kr] 4d10 5s

54) 61Pm and 43Tc are synthetic element

55)

He - 1s2 (not shown ns2np6)

56)

A configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s2 (d block)

57)

It's II B group member hence not a transition element

58)

concept based

59) D Mathematical Calculation Based on the concept explained above, and experimental
observations:
Rate=k′[Ester]1=k′[Ester]
This indicates that the reaction rate depends only on the first power of the ester concentration.

60) Concept :- rate expression in terms of ROD & ROA

Solution :- H2 + I2 → 2HI
&=

Answer :- 2

61)

= 0.4 = 4 × 10–1 mol / L × hr

62) ZAB = Collision frequency

63) r = k[A]x[B]y
create (3) equation and devide them

64) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : -
A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
Initial Pi 0 0 0
At time t Pi–P P P P
Total pressure at time t
Pt = Pi – P + P + P + P Þ Pi + 2P
Pt = Pi + 2P

=P
st
1 order reaction

Final Answer : (3)

65) Theory Based

66) Solution : Rate ∝ [A]m[B]n

Given: Rate increases by 72 times when [A] is tripled and [B] doubled.
So, (3)m(2)n = 72
Try integer values:
2 3
3 × 2 = 9 × 8 = 72 ⇒ m = 2, n = 3
Order w.r.t A = 2, B = 3
Final Answer : 4

67) = Rate of decomposition.

2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2
Initial 100 torr 0 0
After time 10 min 100 – 2x 4x x
Total pressure = 100 – 2x + 4x + x
= 100 + 3x

x= torr

So, rate of decomposition = torr min–1

68)
OR

......(1)

......(2)

t1/2 = 10 min

69)

Simplify the numerator and denominator:

Comparing with Arrhenius form , we identify:

70) Solution:
2H2O → 2H2O + O2
(ROD)H2O2 = 0.68 kg

=
= 20 mol–1
(ROA)H2O = (ROD)H2O2
–1
= 20 mol

=
= 0.36 kg hr–1.

= 10 mol hr–1.

–1
= 0.32 kg hr .
Final answer: Option (2)

71)

Solution:
Given : rate becomes 100 times when pH changes from 2 to 1.
at pH=2: [H⁺]₁ = 10⁻² M
at pH=1: [H⁺]₂ = 10⁻¹ M
Rate₁ = K(10⁻²)n
Rate₂ = K(10⁻¹)n
given rate2= 100 × Rate

so: 100 = = (10¹)n

100 = 10n = 2

72) Solution:
For 2A → B, let initial [A] = 1.

2A → B
1 0
1–x x/2

At extent x:
[A] = 1 – x
[B] = x/2
At intersection: [A] = [B]
So, 1–x = x/2
3x/2 = 1
x = 2/3
Extent completed = 2/3
Final answer: option (2)

73) Solution: When one reactant is in excess, its concentration remains constant and is
included in k. Rate ∝ [B]ⁿ Rate ratio = ( [B]₂ / [B]₁)ⁿ Rate₂ / Rate₁ = 2 (0.4 / 0.1)ⁿ = 2 4ⁿ = 2 n =
1/2
1/2 Rate = k[B] Final Answer: Option 4

74) logK vs → linear

4 –1
75) K2 = K1 = 3 × 10 s

76) tx% = log

= log

= = 500

77) Solution :
Mechanism I:
Slow step: NO2 + O3 → NO3 + O2.
Rate of slow step ∝ [NO2][O3]
Matches given rate law.
Mechanism II:
Slow step: NO2 + O → NO3.
Rate ∝ [NO2][O].
Use fast equilibrium: O3 ⇌ O2 + O.

Rate becomes ∝ [NO2][O3][O2]–1, not matching required simple rate law.

Thus mechanism II is not consistent.
Final answer : 1

78)

rnew = rold × µΔT/10

ΔT = 55 – 25 = 30

79)
= 140 kJ/mol

80) Area I (Low-energy region): As the curve flattens and shift right, the proportion of
molecules with lower kinetic energy decreases.
Area II (High-energy region) The ‘’ tail’’ of the curve on the right side becomes higher,
representing an increase in the fraction of molecules with high kinetic energy (specifically
those exceeding the activation energy).
Final Answer: option (4)

81)

The reaction rate is directly proportional to the number of such effective collisions occurring
per unit time.

82)

Mole Ratio (N : O) =
2. Divide by the smallest value (0.5) to find the simplest whole number ratio:

Simplest Ratio =
Whole Number Ratio = (1×2) : (2.5×2) = 2 : 5
The ratio 2 : 5 corresponds to the empirical formula N2O5.
Final answer: option (4)

83)

Solution:
Formula for number of atoms:

Number of atoms = n × NA × number of atoms per molecule, n =

For butane (C4H10):

mol, Atoms = × NA × 14 = 0.241 NA

For nitrogen (N2):

n= mol, Atoms = × NA × 2 = 0.071 NA

For silver (Ag):

n= mol, Atoms = × NA = 0.009 NA

For water (H2O):

n= mol, Atoms = × NA × 3 = 0.167 NA

Comparison:
0.241NA > 0.167 NA > 0.071NA > 0.009 NA
Final Answer: (1)

84)
(1) ⇒ 0.669 NA

(2) ⇒ 0.223 NA

(3) ⇒ 0.25 NA

(4) ⇒ 0.312 NA

85)

Solution :
Moles of H = 3.18 mol
Moles of O = 3.18 ÷ 3 = 1.06 mol
Final answer : 3

86)

Solution:
• Volume of O2 = 1 L
• Number of molecules = (1 / 22.4) × 6.022 × 1023
Final Answer: (3)

87) 1 mole 1 mole

H3PO3
↓ ↓
2 mole P 1 mole P
Given same moles of P
2 mole P 2 mole P
↓ ↓
1 mole 2 mole
H3PO3
↓ ↓
8 mole 0 6 mole 0
⇒ 8/6 ⇒ 4/3

88)

1.8 mL H2O
= 1 gm/mL
Mass of H2O = 1.8 g

Moles =
N = 0.1 NA molecules of H2O
No. of H-atom = 0.1 × 6 × 1023 × 2
= 1.2 × 1023
 89)

Solution: Mass of 1 mol atoms of an element = Gram atomic mass

Final Answer: Option (3)

90)

Solution:
Molar mass of CH₄ = 12 + 4×1 = 16 g/mol
Actual weight = 16 / (6.022 × 10²³) = 2.657 × 10⁻²³ g ≈ 2.67 × 10⁻²³ g
Final Answer: Option (1)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII, Pg # 3, 4

92) NCERT-XII, Pg # 4

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 7

95)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 8

96) NCERT-XII, Pg # 8

97)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

98) NCERT-XII, Pg # 6

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 9, 10

100) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5, 7
101) NCERT -XII, Pg # 7

102) NCERT-XII, Pg # 14

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 6, 7

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 9, 18

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 12

106) NCERT-XII, Pg # 12

107) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10, 11

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 11

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 15

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 12, 13

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 13

112) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10, 11

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 6

114)
NCERT-XII, Pg # 15

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 15, 16

116) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10, 11

117) NCERT-XII, Pg # 13, 14

118) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5, 6, 7

119) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10, 11

120) NCERT-XII Pg # 11

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 7, 9, 10

122) NCERT-XII, Pg # 6, 8, 9

123) NCERT-XII, Pg # 14

124) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 10

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 9, Fig. 1.7(b,c)

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 12
Explaining the Question: The question asks about the two types of flowers (F1 and F2)
present in Commelina plants.
Concept: pollination (Chasmogamy and Cleistogamy)
Solution : In Commelina benghalensis, two types of flowers are present. F1 are
chasmogamous flowers, which open, expose the anthers and stigma, and allow cross-
pollination.
F2 are cleistogamous flowers, which never open, and self-pollination occurs within closed buds.
This dual strategy ensures both genetic variation (through cross-pollination) and assured seed
set (through self-pollination).
Final Answer: Option 3 – Chasmogamous (F1) and Cleistogamous (F2).

129) NCERT-XII, Pg # 14

130) NCERT-XII, Pg # 12

131) NCERT-XII, Pg # 11, 12

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 13

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 9, 10

134) NCERT-XII, Pg # 7

135) NCERT-XII, Pg # 11

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 135, 137, 140

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88

138) NCERT Pg. # 134

139) NCERT Pg. # 138

140) NCERT Pg. # 138

141) Question Explanation :

a chromosome with a small knob-like piece (A) attached to the main arm via a thin stalk (B).
You must name A and B, and identify the chromosome type (C).

Concept :
This question is based on chromosome

Solution :
A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction , C–Metacentric
Satellite = small knob-like structure distal to the secondary constriction.
B–Secondary constriction → an extra narrow region other than the primary constriction is
called as the Secondary constriction C–Metacentric - A chromosome in which the centromere
is in the middle, producing two arms of almost equal length.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

142) NCERT Pg. # 137 & 138

143)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88

144) NCERT-XI, Page No. 135, 136

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

146)

Explain question: This is an Assertion - Reason type question about mitochondria

Concept: Mitochondria

Solution:
Assertion (A): True ® Mitochondria are called powerhouses.
Mitochondria are called the "powerhouses of the cell" because they generate energy.
Reason (R): True → They produce ATP.
They produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the universal energy currency, by oxidative
phosphorylation.

Final answer: option (1)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

147) NCERT Page No. 94

148) Question Explanation : The question asks in which type of cellular activity nucleoli
become larger and more numerous.
 Concept : Nucleolus – Structure and Function
Solution :

A. The nucleolus is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome assembly.
B. Cells actively involved in protein synthesis need more ribosome → nucleoli become larger and
more numerous.

Final Answer : Option (4)

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

150)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify which of the given options is not a
component of the cell's cytoskeleton
Concept : This question is based on cytoskeleton
Explanation :"The cytoskeleton in a cell is composed of microtubules, microfilaments and
intermediate filaments."Microbodies are not a part of the cytoskeleton.
Final answer : 3

151) NCERT Pg.#127 (8.3)

152) NCERT Pg.#130 (8.5)

153) NCERT Pg.#133 ([Link])

154) NCERT XI Pg.#134 ([Link])

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

156)

Question Explanation: Classifying plastids by pigments.

Concept: Plastid Classification
Solution: Plastids are classified into three types based on the pigments they contain.
Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and are responsible for photosynthesis. Chromoplasts
contain carotenoid and xanthophyll pigments, giving flowers and fruits their vibrant colors.
Leucoplasts are colorless plastids that store food. . The other options are incorrect because
they list types of pigments or a subgroup of leucoplasts, not the main classifications of
plastids.
Final Answer: Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts

157) Module Exercise

158) NCERT XIth Pg.# 131

159)

Explain Question:
The question asks to match organelles/structures with their characteristic features,
specifically ribosomes, axoneme, and centriole.

Concept :
This question is based on ribosomes, axoneme, and centriole.

Explanation :
A. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosome → iv. 80S

B. Axoneme → iii. core of cilia/flagella with microtubule arrangement; typical is 9 + 2

C. Prokaryotic ribosome → i.70S

D. Centriole →ii. has 9 + 0 microtubule arrangement

Final answer (2) : a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

161)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

162) NCERT XI Pg # 94

163) NCERT XI Pg # 97

164) NCERT XI Pg # 96

165) NCERT XI Pg # 94

166) NCERT XI Pg # 98

167) NCERT XI Pg # 102

168) NCERT XI Pg # 96
169) NCERT XI Pg # 97

170) NCERT XI Pg # 97

171) NCERT XI Pg # 97

172) NCERT XI Pg # 99

173) NCERT XI Pg # 97

174) NCERT XI Pg # 122

175) NCERT XI Pg # 122

176) NCERT XI Pg # 122

177) NCERT XI Pg # 125

178) NCERT XI Pg # 121

179) NCERT XI Pg # 121

180) NCERT XI Pg # 100