12-07-2026

7501CMD303036260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The equation of the stationary wave is :

Which statement is not true?

(1) The unit of ct is same as that of λ

(2) The unit of x is same as that of λ
(3) The unit of 2πc/λ is same as that of 2πx/λt
(4) The unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λ

2) A force is given by F = αsin(βt2). If 't' is time then dimension of α and β is

(1) [ML2T–2] and [T2]

(2) [MLT–2] and [T2]
(3) [MLT–2] and [T–2]
(4) [M2LT–2] and [T–2]

3) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by

F = AsinCt + BcosDx

Then the dimensions of and are given by :-

0 0
(1) MLT–2, M L T–1
0 0
(2) MLT–2, M L–1T
0 0 0 0
(3) M L T , M L1T–1
0 0 0 0
(4) M L1T–1, M L T

4) In each of the following expressions A,B and C represent lengths

I. A + B II. AB

III. IV.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) One of them has dimensions of volume

(2) one of them has dimensions of area
(3) Two of them have dimensions of length
(4) One of them is dimensionless

5) The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as where A and B are
constant. The dimensional formula for A × B is

(1) M1L7/2T–2
(2) M1L11/2T–2
(3) M1L5/2T–2
(4) M1L9/2T–2

6) Two physical quantities A and B have different dimension. Which of the following mathematical
operation can be possible ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) A + B

7) In the equation = constant, the unit of a is :-

(1) dyne × cm5

(2) dyne × cm4
(3) dyne × cm3
(4) dyne × cm2

8) Given that where a is a constant. Using dimensional analysis, the

value of n is:-

(1) 1
(2) zero
(3) –1
(4) None of these

9) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty (ρ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2ρ]
(2) [A2 vρ]
(3) [Avρ2]
(4) [Avρ]

10) If the velocity of light (c) , gravitational constant (G) and Planck's constant (h) are taken as
fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass in new system is :-​​
(1) c1/2G1/2h1/2
(2) c1/2G1/2h–1/2
(3) c1/2G–1/2h1/2
(4) c–1/2G1/2h1/2

11) If dimension of critical velocity νc, of liquid flowing through a tube is expressed as (ηx ρy rz),
where η, ρ and r the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube
respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by :

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 1, –1, –1
(3) –1, –1, 1
(4) –1, –1, –1

12) With the usual notations the following equation St = u +

th is

(1) Only numerically correct

(2) Only dimensionally correct
(3) Both numerically and dimensionally correct
(4) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct

13) The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derive which of the following relations

–λt
(1) N0 e
(2) A sin (ωt + kx)

(3)

(4) None of the above

14) Write the dimension of :–

(1) M1LT–2
(2) M1L2T–2
(3) M1L2T2
(4) M2LT–2

15) Statement-1 :- A dimensionally correct equation is always correct.

Statement-2 :- A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct.
Choose the correct alternative :-

(1) Statement-1 & statement-2 both are incorrect

(2) Statement-1 & statement-2 both are correct
(3) Statement-1 is correct & statement-2 is incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect & statement-2 is correct

16) Dimensional formula of angular velocity is-

0 0
(1) M L T–1
(2) M1L1T–1
0
(3) M L1T–1
0 0
(4) M L T–2

17) The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :-

(1) 0.04
(2) 0.4
(3) 40
(4) 400

18) Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc in CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS units is

(1) 500
(2) 5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5000

19) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

20)

If sin βt, find dimensions of α/β :-

[Here V = velocity, F = force, t = time]

(1) ML–1T–1
(2) M–1LT
(3) ML–1T
(4) M–1L–1T–1

21) A physical quantity P is measured and its value is found to be nu where n= numerical value and
u= unit. Then which of the following relations is true

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

22) If the three vectors are coplaner then find n = ?

(1) n = 2
(2) n = 12
(3) n = 3
(4) n = 1

23) If so find angle between & :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 120°
(4) 60°

24) The magnitude of scalar product of two vectors is 8 and of vector product is 8 . The angle
between the two vectors is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 150°

25) What is the value of ?

(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2
(3) A2 + B2 + 2AB
(4) none of these

26) Out of addition, subtraction, dot product and cross product, the following operation are
commutative

(1) Dot and cross products

(2) Addition and subtraction
(3) Subtraction and cross product
(4) Addition and dot product

27) In Figure, equals

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Resultant of which of a following may be equal to zero?

(1) 10N, 10N, 10N

(2) 10N, 10N, 25N
(3) 10N, 10N, 35N
(4) None of these

29) If ,

Column-I Column-II

(a) (P) –2

(b) (Q)

(c) (R)

(d) (S)
(1) a-R; b-S; c-Q; d-P
(2) a-Q; b-S; c-R; d-P
(3) a-P; b-Q; c-R; d-S
(4) a-S; b-P; c-R; d-Q

30) 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N act on a body. Each force makes angle π/50 with the
preceding force. What is the resultant of the forces :-

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

31) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of λ is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The component of a vector along the vector is :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3)
(4)

33) The angle between the two vectors and will be

(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

34) The expression is a -

(1) unit vector

(2) null vector
(3) vector of magnitude
(4) scalar

35) The vector that must be added to the vector and so that the resultant
vector is a unit vector along the Y-axis :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Null vector

36) If a vector is making an angle 60° with x-axis, 45° with y-axis then find the angle with z-axis :-

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

37) If the resultant of vectors and shown in figure is zero then magnitudes of and are
respectively :-

10,10
(1)

(2) 5,10
(3) 10 ,5
(4) 10,10

38) Three forces acting on a body are shown in figure. To have the resultant force only along y-

direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is :-

(1) 0.5N
(2) 1.5N

(3)

(4)

39) A person pushes a box kept on a horizontal surface with force of 100 N. In unit vector notation

force can be expressed as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of + is equal to n times the
magnitude of – , then the angle between and is :-
 cos–1
(1)

cos–1
(2)

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

41) If = 2 then equals :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)
(4)

42) Let the angle between two nonzero vectors and be 120° and resultant be then :-

(1)
C must be equal to

(2)
C must be less than

(3)
C must be greater than

(4)
C may be equal to

43) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector.

(2) may be a vector.
(3) may be both scalar and vector.
(4) none of the above.

44) If and are non-collinear unit vectors and if , then the value of
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) A vector points vertically downward and points toward south. The vector product is :-

(1) zero vector

(2) along east
(3) along west
(4) along north

CHEMISTRY

1)

Number of 1°, 2° and 3° hydrogen atoms in isopentane are respectively :

(1) 9, 2, 1
(2) 6, 3, 0
(3) 6, 1, 1
(4) 6, 2, 0

2)

Number of π-electrons present in 1-butyne are equal to π-electrons present in :

(1) 1-Butene
(2) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
(3) 1, 2-Propadiene
(4) 3-Methyl-1-butene

3)

IUPAC name of is :

(1) (1-methylpropyl) cyclopentane

(2) 2-cyclopentylpentane
(3) 2-Pentylbutane
(4) 2-Phenylbutane

4)

The structure of 4,4-Dimethylpentan-1-ol will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

The correct IUPAC name of is :

(1) Phenyl isopropane

(2) Cumene
(3) 2-Phenylpropane
(4) All are correct

6) Which one is secondary alcohol :

(1) 3-Methyl-1-butanol
(2) 2-Methyl-1-butanol
(3) 2,2-Dimethyl-1-propanol
(4) 3-Methyl-2-butanol

7)

Minimum number of carbon atoms present in an ester are:-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

8)

Which of the following is incorrectly matched :

(1) vinegar→ carboxylic aicd
(2) C2H6→alkane
(3) ethanol→alcohol
(4) methanol→ketone

9)

Which one is a tertiary radical :

(1) (CH3CH2)2CH—
(2) (CH3)2C—CH2—

(3)

(4) (CH3)2CH—

10)

This skeleton is different from the others.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

Which of the following is the triad of a homologogus series:

(1) CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N

(2) C2H5OH, (CH3)2CHOH, (CH3)3COH
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) CH2=CH2, CH3—CH=CH2, C2H5—CH=CH2

12)

The first member of homologous series of ester is:

(1) Methylmethanoate
(2) Ethylethanoate
(3) Methylethanoate
(4) None of these
13)

IUPAC name of is :

(1) 4,4-Dimethyl-2-phenylpentane
(2) 2,2-Dimethyl-3-phenylpentane
(3) t-Butyl-ethyl-phenylmethane
(4) 3,3-Dimethyl-2-phenylpentane

14)

Number of heteroatoms (other than C) present in the following heterocyclic compound is

–

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

15)

Hybridisation state of the compound (Left to right)

(1) sp2, sp2, sp, sp

(2) sp, sp, sp2, sp2
(3) sp2, sp, sp, sp
(4) sp, sp, sp, sp2

16) The correct IUPAC name of the following ?

(1) 5-Cyano cyclohex-2-ene carbaldehyde

(2) 3-Cyano cyclohex-5-ene carbaldehyde
(3) 5-Formyl cyclohex-3-ene carbonitrile
(4) 3-Formyl cyclohex-4-ene carbonitrile

17) The IUPAC name of

(1) 2-Ethyl butan-2-ol
(2) 3-Methylpentan-3-ol
(3) 3-Ethyl-3-methyl pentan-3-ol
(4) 1, 1-Diethyl ethanol

18) IUPAC name of the given compound is

(1) 4-Bromo-4-methyl but-1-ene

(2) 4-Bromo pent-1-ene
(3) 1-Bromo-1-methyl but-3-ene
(4) 2-Bromo pent-4-ene

19) How many secondary carbon atoms does methyl cyclopropane have ?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

20) Which of the following statement is false for isopentane

(1) It has three CH3 group

(2) It has one CH2 group
(3) It has one CH group
(4) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen

21)

The correct IUPAC name of is :

(1) 2-Methyl butanoic acid

(2) 2-Ethyl-2-propenoic acid
(3) 2-Carboxy-1-butene
(4) None of the above

22) The correct IUPAC name of 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

(1) 3–Chloro–2–hydroxy butane

(2) 3–Chloro–2–butanol
(3) 3–Hydroxy–2–chlorobutane
(4) 2–Chloro–3–hydroxybutane

23) Out of two structures the correct statement is:-

(1) (A) is sec. amine and (B) is primary alcohol

(2) (A) is primary amine and (B) is tertiary alcohol
(3) (A) and (B) both are tertiary
(4) (A) is primary amine and (B) is sec. alcohol

24) The Heterocyclic compound which have one olefinic bond and one hetero atom :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following groups is always taken as a subsituent in the IUPAC nomenclature ?

(1) – NH2
(2) –CHO
(3) –NO2
(4) –CN

26) Assertion : The name of the hydrocarbon is 2, 5

dimethylheptane and not 3, 6-dimethylheptane.
Reason : Numbering should be done in such a way that the locants on the parent chain get lowest
possible number according to lowest locant rule.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

27) Which of the following has incorrect IUPAC name?

(1)
2-Cyanoethanoic acid

(2)
But-3-en-2-ol

(3)
3, 3-Dimethylpent-1-ene
(4) CH3–CH=CH–C≡CH Pent-2-en-4-yne

28) IUPAC name of :-

(1) 5, 6-Dioxohex-2-enoic acid

(2) 6-Carboxy-2-oxohex-4-enal
(3) 6-Formyl-5-ketohex-2-enoic acid
(4) None of these

29) The IUPAC name for Allyl alcohol is :-

(1) Prop-1-en-3-ol
(2) Prop-1-en-1-ol
(3) Prop-3-en-1-ol
(4) Prop-2-en-1-ol

30) Common name of first member of ester is :-

(1) Methylformate
(2) Methyl acetate
(3) Ethyl formate
(4) Ethyl acetate
31) The ratio of σ and π bonds in mesitylene is:

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

32) Find the number of σ bonds and π bond present in :-

(1) 6π, 24σ

(2) 6π, 22σ
(3) 5π, 21σ
(4) 6π, 25σ

33) Which of the following has only sp2 hybridised carbon atoms ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

34) Total number of 1°H present in the following structure ? CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH(CH3)2

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 10

35) has correct IUPAC name:

(1) N-Cyclopropyl Cyclohexanamide

(2) N-Cyclopropyl Cyclopentane Carboxamide
(3) N-Cyclopentyl Cyclopropane Carboxamide
(4) N-Cyclopropyl Cyclopentanamide

36) What is general formula of amide homologus series :

(1) CnH2n+1 NO
(2) CnH2n NO
(3) CnH2n+3 NO
(4) None of the above

37) The derived name of neopentyl alcohol is :-

(1) Isopropyl carbinol

(2) Trimethyl carbinol
(3) Tert. butyl carbinol
(4) Neopentyl carbinol

38) IUPAC name of given compound is

(1) 3-Carboxy-3-hydroxypentanedicarboxylic acid

(2) 2-Hydroxypropane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
(3) 2-Hydroxypropane-1,2,3-trioic acid
(4) 3-Hydroxypropane-1,2,3-tricaboxylic acid

39) Which one of the following does not have sp2 hybridized carbon ?

(1) Acetone
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Acetonitrile
(4) Acetamide

40) How many 1°, 2° & 3° H atoms are present in [Toluene] respectively :-

(1) 3, 0, 5
(2) 3, 5, 0
(3) 4, 3, 0
(4) 0, 5, 3

41) Which of the following homologous series has incorrect general formula :-

(1) Alkyne CnH2n–2

(2) Alkanol CnH2n+2O
(3) Alkanal CnH2n+1O
(4) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2

42) The IUPAC name for the given structure is :-

(1) 3–Isopropyl–4–methylhexane
(2) 4–Isopropyl–3–methylhexane
(3) 3–Ethyl–2,5–dimethylhexane
(4) 2–Ethyl–3–isopropylpentane

43) The correct IUPAC name of the structure is :

(1) 3–Amino–2–formyl butane–1,4–dioic acid

(2) 3–Amino–2,3–dicarboxy propanal
(3) 2–Amino–3–formyl butane- 1,4– dioic acid
(4) 1–Amino–2–formyl succinic acid

44) Which one of the following is the heterocyclic compound ?

(1) Benzene
(2) Thiophene
(3) Phenol
(4) Aniline

45)

Which organic compound was the first to be synthesised in the laboratory ?

(1) Urea
(2) NH4CNO
(3)
(4) CH3–COOH

BIOLOGY

1) _____ can not be an all inclusive defining characterstic of all living organisms :

(1) Sexual reproduction

(2) Cellularity
(3) Metabolism
(4) Consciousness

2) Growth and Reproduction are mutually exclusive events in

(1) Unicellular organisms

(2) Multicellular organisms
(3) Amoeba
(4) Bacteria

3) Which of the following is a defining property of all living organism :-

(1) Reproduction
(2) Growth
(3) Consciousness
(4) Self consciousness

4) Non-living things show

(1) Extrinsic growth

(2) Extrinsic as well as intrinsic growth
(3) Can perform metabolism
(4) Show intrinsic growth only

5) Defining properties of living being are :-

(1) Cellular organisation, growth & consciousness

(2) Growth, reproduction & consciousness
(3) Cellular organisation, metabolism & consciousness
(4) Growth, metabolism & reproduction

6) Find out the correct match

(1) Self consciousness – Brain dead coma patient

(2) Isolated metabolic reaction – neither living nor non living
(3) Independent existence – viruses
(4) Growth and reproduction in Amoeba mutually exclusive events

7)

The most obvious and technically complicated feature of living organisms is :

(1) Ability to self replicate

(2) Ability to sense environment and give suitable response
(3) Ability to increase in mass
(4) Ability to envolve

8)
Select true statement from followings :-

(1) Consciousness is not a defining feature of livings

(2) Sum total of all chemical reactions going on in livings is called metabolism
(3) Response to external stimulus is called as self consciousness
(4) Growth is a defining feature of living beings

9) Which feature of living beings is absent in mules ?

(1) Growth
(2) Metabolism
(3) Reproduction
(4) Consciousness

10)

Which one of the following has least similar character?

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Genus
(4) Species

11)

How many features listed below exhibited by bacteria.

i. Growth by increase in mass only
ii. Regeneration
iii. Consciousness
iv. Metabolism
v. Binary fission

(1) iii, iv, v

(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iv, v
(4) i, iv, v

12) Biology can-be defined as :-

(1) Study of life (living beings) on earth

(2) Story of life forms and living process on earth
(3) Story of evolution of living organisms on earth
(4) All of the above

13) Which of the following show consciousness but cannot reproduce.

(1) Single celled organism

(2) Dead organisms
(3) Worker honeybee
(4) Both 1 and 2

14) Which among the following feature is not correct for living organisms :

(1) Self replication

(2) Evolution
(3) Self-regulation
(4) Non responding to external stimuli

15) Binomial nomenclature consists of

(1) One Latin and one vernacular name

(2) One scientific name and one Latin name
(3) One generic and one specific epithet name
(4) One scientific name and one vernacular name

16) Select incorrect statement with respect to genus

(1) Panthera and Felis are different genus

(2) Potato and brinjal are different species but belongs to same genus
(3) Genus always contain only one species
(4) Genus comprises of a group of related species

17) Which of the following is a feature of human only ?

(1) Consciousness
(2) Reproduction
(3) Metabolism
(4) Self consciousness

18) I can perform :-

(1) A virus
(2) A living bacterium only
(3) A living animal only
(4) May be any living entity
19) Organism that can respond to stimuli are :

(1) Eukaryotes only

(2) Prokaryotes only
(3) Only those with a well developed nervous system
(4) Both prokayotes & Eukaryotes

20) Which of the following has more common characters than genus ?

(1) Species
(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Class

21) Select the incorrect pair

Genus Family

(1) Musca Muscidae

(2) Triticum Poaceae

(3) Felis Canidae

(4) Mangifera Anacardiaceae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which of the following is the correct hierarchical sequence?

(1) Phylum, class, order, family

(2) Phylum, division, family, class
(3) Genus, species, order, family
(4) Division, order, class, genus.

23) Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat?

(1) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Dicotyledonae

(2) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Sapindales, Class-Monocotyledonae.
(3) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae.
(4) Genus-Triticum, Family-Anacardiaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae

24) The most convenient method of nomenclature system, used for nomenclature of maximum plants
is :-

(1) Polynomial nomenclature

(2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Trinomial nomenclature
(4) Both (1) & (2)

25)

ICBN stands for

(1) International classification of biological nomenclature

(2) International code of biological nomenclature
(3) International code of botanical nomenclature
(4) International classification of biological naming

26) Modern taxonomic studies are based on

(1) Cell structures

(2) External and internal structure
(3) Ecological information of organisms
(4) All of these

27) What is Solanum, Petunia and Datura :-

(1) Class
(2) Genus
(3) Family
(4) Extra taxonomic category

28) Which one of the following is correct binomial epithet for mango ?

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera Indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera indica

29) A collection of species, which bears a close resemblance to one another in the morphological
characters of the floral parts is known as :

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Variety

30) Which taxon is not related to wheat :-

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

31) How many species are present in the following group of organisms ?
Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, Panthera leo, Panthera pardus, Solanum nigrum.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Ten
(4) Three

32) Match the following & choose the correct option:-

(A) Family (i) Mangifera indica

(B) Kingdom (ii) Poales

(C) Order (iii) Datura

(D) Species (iv) Animalia

(E) Genus (v) Canidae

(1) i-E, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A, v-D
(2) i-E, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A, v-C
(3) i-D, ii-E, iii-B, iv-A, v-C
(4) i-D, ii-C, iii-E, iv-B, v-A

33) Which of the following is incorrect match ?

Common name Order

1 Man Primata

2 Housefly Insecta

3 Mango Sapindales

4 Wheat Poales
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which of the following taxonomic category has real existence?

(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Species
(4) Genus
35) How many taxonomic categories are obligate -

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 10

36) Which of the following taxa are closely related?

(1) Mango & Wheat

(2) Wheat & Rice
(3) Potato & sugarcane
(4) Dogs & Housefly

37) Arrange the following taxa in ascending order according to their rank in taxonomic hierarchy
(A) Angiospermae (B) Anacardiaceae
(C) Mangifera (D) Dicotyledonae

(1) A → D → B → C
(2) C → D → B → A
(3) A → B → D → C
(4) C → B → D → A

38) Wheat, Cereals, Monocots, Plants represent :-

(1) Different taxa at different levels

(2) Different taxa at same level
(3) Different levels of same taxa
(4) All are correct

39) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics:-

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

40) How many from the following are taxa ?

Leaves, Dogs, Cats, Wheat, Rocks, Eyes, Legs, Rice, Plants, Mammals, Animals, Wood

(1) Four
(2) Eight
(3) Seven
(4) Nine

41) Some members are given here. They all belong to how many genus, species and kingdom. Lion,
Tiger, Potato, Brinjal, Mango, Wheat.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42)

Observe the gradation of taxonomic categories and identify the missing categories according to the
statements given below;

(i) X is a group of related species

(ii) Y is a group related divisions
(iii) X is a group of related genera
(iv) Y is a group of related kingdoms
(v) Y is a group of related orders
The correct options are :
(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i). (ii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iii) and (v)
43)

Select odd one w.r.t. the taxa belonging to the same category level.

(1) Solanum, Dicot, Homonidae

(2) Solanaceae, Muscidae
(3) Wheat, Tiger, Housefly
(4) Monocot, Mammals, Reptiles

44) Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomic classification is?

(1) kingdom
(2) species
(3) family
(4) Variety

45) Which of the following taxonomic category are common for Triticum and Mangifera ?

(1) Division, Kingdom

(2) Division, Class
(3) Order, Class
(4) Family, Orders

46) Taenia solium has :-

(1) Complete digestive system

(2) Incomplete digestive system
(3) Digestive system absent
(4) Post anal tail

47) Metameric segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinoderms
(3) Aschelminthes, Arthropoda, Echinoderms
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

48) All protostomes are :-

(1) Blind sac types

(2) Triploblastic
(3) Enterocoelomates
(4) Pseudocoelomates

49) Which of the following groups of phylum show common body plan and symmetry ?

(1) Annelida and ctenophora

(2) Coelenterata and flat worms
(3) Annelida and arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata and cnidaria

50) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion, fertilization is internal, development through
many larval stage represent the characteristic property of :-

(1) Phylum – porifera

(2) Phylum – coelenterate
(3) Phylum – cetenophora
(4) Phylum – platyhelminthes

51) Radial and bilateral symmetry is found in different animals of diversity. Which one of following
examples are consider with these symmetries respectively ?

(1) Earthworm, Ascaris

(2) Gorgonia, Pennatula
(3) Hydra, Gorgonia
(4) Meandrina, Nereis

52) Which of the following is a gregareous pest ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Culex
(3) Locusta
(4) Ascaris

53) Sheep liver fluke is

(1) Schistosoma
(2) Fasciola hepatica
(3) Taenia solium
(4) Taenia saginata

54) Eight rows of ciliated comb-plates are the locomotary organs of :-

(1) Cnidaria
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Porifera
(4) Annelida

55) Following diagram represent which type of symmetry?

(1) Asymmetry
(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Biradial symmetry
(4) Bilateral symmetry

56) Which of the following option is correct about the figure given below ?

(1) Notochord
(2) Acoelom
(3) Pseudocoelom
(4) True coelom

57) Two basic forms of Coelenterates (Obelia) are given. Which option is correct ? (A) (B)

(1) (A) and (B) are free swimming

(2) (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually
(3) (A) is medusa and (B) is polyp
(4) (A) and (B) are sessile

58) Match the phyla listed under column-I with the level of organization given under column-II.
Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:

(1) A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
(2) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p
(3) A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p
(4) A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p
59) Which of following animals are pseudocoelomate

(1) Hookworm and Lepisma

(2) Jelly fish and cray fish
(3) Wuchereria and Ancylostoma
(4) Hirudinaria and Pinctada

60) Spongilla is :-

(1) Bath sponge

(2) Fresh water sponge
(3) Urn sponge
(4) Glass sponge

61) The name of cells, which line the spongocoel ?

(1) Archaeocytes
(2) Scleroblast
(3) Choanocytes
(4) Pinacocytes

62) Spongilla belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as :-

(1) Unicellular
(2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
(3) Multicellular with a gastrovascular cavity
(4) Multicellular having tissue organization but no body cavity

63)

Sponges are

(1) Mostly marine

(2) Hermaphrodite
(3) Mostly asymmetrical
(4) All of these

64)

Which of the following cannot be considered as function of canal system of sponges?

(1) Respiratory exchange

(2) Formation of gametes
(3) Removal of waste
(4) Food gathering

65) Cnidoblasts are used for :-

(1) Capture of the prey
(2) Anchorage
(3) Defense
(4) All of the above

66) In which phylum the cells performing the same function are arranged into tissues for the first
time ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

67) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata ? (A) They are
aquatic mostly marine, sessile or free swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(B) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity.
(C) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(D) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of these

68) Cnidarians are diploblastic and have a central cavity:-

(1) Para gastric cavity

(2) Gastro-vascular cavity
(3) Spongocoel
(4) Both 1 and 3

69) Match list ‘A’ and List ‘B’ correctly and find your answer from the code given below :-

List-A (Animal) List-B (Common name)

(i) Physalia (A) Brain coral

(ii) Pennatula (B) Sea fan

(iii) Gorgonia (C) Sea pen

(iv) Meandrina (D) Portuguese man of war

Code:
(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D
(2) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
(4) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
70) Identify the given animal and select the correct option which includes correct identification with

their symmetry ?

(1) Pleurobrachia – Bilateral symmetry

(2) Pleurobrachia – Radial symmetry
(3) Aurelia – Radial symmetry
(4) Fasciola – Bilateral symmetry

71) What is False for Ctenoplana?

(1) Exclusively marine

(2) Found in aquatic habitat
(3) Triploblastic
(4) Locomotion by 8 ciliary comb plates

72) 'Sea-walnutes' are :

(1) Freshwater organisms

(2) Freely swimming animals
(3) Totally sessile
(4) Lack tentacles

73) Which of the following are incorrect for platyhelminthes ?

(1) All are endoparasite

(2) All are bilateral & Triploblastic
(3) Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms
(4) Both 1 & 2

74) Which of the following character is not true for given figure :-

(1) Fertilisation is internal

(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion
(3) Development is through many larval stages
(4) Sexes are seperate

75) Bilateral symmetry begins from which phylum :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Ctenophora

76) Which one of the following is not a platyhelminthes ?

(1) Tape worm

(2) Liver fluke
(3) Hook worm
(4) Planaria

77) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum Aschelminthes ?
(a) The body is circular in cross-section hence the name roundworms.
(b) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
(c) Sexes are separate.
(d) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) All of these

78) Select the animals of phylum aschelminthes :

(1) Ancylostoma, Wuchereria

(2) Round worm, King crab
(3) Nereis, Dentalium
(4) Hookworm, Antedon

79) Identify the organism in the given diagram and their phylum

Organism Phylum

(1) a-male and b-female Ascaris Aschelminthes

(2) a-female and b-male Ascaris Aschelminthes

 (3) a-male earthworm and b-female earthworm Annelida

(4) a-female Ascaris and b-male Ascaris Annelida

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Nervous system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to _______ in annelida :-

(1) Single ventral nerve cord

(2) Single dorsal nerve cord
(3) Double ventral nerve cord
(4) Single posterior nerve cord

81)

Given below are the examples of annelida phylum marked as A and B

Choose the correct option w.r.t. A and B

(1) Locomotory structures in A are parapodia while in B are setae
(2) A is a marine free living form while B is terrestrial and free living
(3) A has double ventral nerve cord while B has double dorsal nerve cord
(4) A is dioecious while B is monoecious

82) Assertion : In Nereis the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial
repetition of at least some organs.
Reason : Nereis is metamerically segmented animal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

83) Statement-I : Annelids are triploblastic metameric ally segmented, coelomate animals.
Statement-II : Reproduction is sexual in members of phylum Annelida.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct.
84) Malpighian tubules are :-

(1) Excretory organs of insects

(2) Excretory organs of star fish
(3) Respiratory organs of insects
(4) Endocrine glands of insects

85) Examples of economically beneficial insect is

(1) Limulus
(2) Apis
(3) Anopheles
(4) Locusta

86) Body of 'Arthropods' covers by exoskeleton which is made up by :-

(1) Calcium carbonate.

(2) Silica.
(3) Chitin.
(4) Calcium carbonate + silica.

87) A table is given below of some arthropods with their respiratory and excretory organs. Find out
the correct one.

Respiratory Excretory
Arthropods
organs organs

Green
(1) Prawn Gills
glands

Malpighian
(2) Insect Book gills
tubes

Antennary
(3) Scorpion Book lungs
glands

Malpighian
(4) King crab Trachea
tubes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Statocysts are balancing structure may be present in :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Pheretima
(3) Prawn
(4) Leech

89) These following animals shows following characteristic. which animal shows correct match:

(1) Ascaris Annelida Elephantiasis

(2) Locust Arthropoda Gregraious

(3) Pennatula Coelentrata Cell aggregate plan

(4) Fasciola Platyhelminthes Tapeworm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Assertion : Limulus is a living fossil.

Reason : They have jointed appendages, bilateral symmetry. Triploblastic arthropods.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 2 1 4 4 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 1 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Here (2πct/λ) as well as (2πx/λ) are dimensionaless. So, unit of ct is same as that of λ. Unit of x
is same as that of λ.

Since,

Hence,
In the option (d) is unitless. It is not the case with c/λ.

2) F = α sin (βt2)
α = unit of F

sin (βt2)
Dimensionless

3)

Explain Question : Find dimension of and .

Given

F = A sin ct + B cos Dx

Where

F = force, t = time, x = distance

Concept : Finding dimension of unknown using law of homogeneity.

Solution :

F = A sin C t + B cos Dx
[Ct] = 1 ⇒ [C] = [T–1]
[A] = [F], [B] = [F] and [D]= [L–1]

⇒ and
Final Answer : option (3)
4)

[A+B] = [L], [AB] =[L2], =[L]

0

and = = [L ]

5) A =
B = L2
AB = ML11/2 T–2

6) Power of exponential must be dimensionless.

7) Units of a and PV2 are same and equal to

dyne × cm4

8)

= dimensions less

and = dimensionless
n
so a must be dimensionless ∴ n = 0

9) F = Aαvβργ
or [MLT]–2 = [L2]α[LT–1]β[ML–3]γ
= [MγL2α+β–3γT–β]
This gives: γ = 1, β = 2
and 2α + β – 3γ = 1
or α = 1; F = Av2ρ

10) Let
By substituting the following dimensions :
and
Now comparing both sides we will get
x = 1/2, y = –1/2, z = +1/2
So

11)

Question Explanation : In this question, we have to calculate the value of x, y and z by using
dimensional analysis.
Concept: Dimensional analysis (deducing relation between known quantities)

Solution: According to dimensional analysis

[vC] = [η]x [ρ]y [r]z

0
[M L1T–1] = [M1L–1T–1 ]x [M1 L–3]y [L1]z
0
M L1T–1 = [MxL–xT–x] [My L–3y ] [L]z
0
M L1T–1 = Mx+y L–x–3y+z T–x

Comparing both sides, we get

x+y=0
–x –3y +z =1
–x = – 1 ⇒ x = 1
on further solving we get
x = 1, y = – 1, z = –1

Final answer: Option (2)

12) Explain question:

Asking about the correctness of given physical equation.
Concept:
Limitations of dimensional analysis.
Solution:
The given equation represents the distance travelled by on object in a specific second of
motion i.e. for one second.

St =
th

[Sn ] = [u] =
th

[L] = [L] = [L]

Hence, the given equation is both numerically & dimensionally correct.
Final answer: Option (3)

13) Any formula of any physical quantity can be drived only when dependency is multiplication
type and should not contain any standard mathematical function.

14) → Dimension = M1LT–2

15)

Question Explanation : In this question, it is asking about the correct option related to
statement (1) & (2).

Concept : This question is based on limitation of Dimensional analysis.

Solution : Statement (1) : is incorrect because Dimensionally correct equation may or may not
be perfectly correct.
For example:

Statement (2) : is also incorrect, because for a physical equation to be correct it must be
Dimensionally correct.

Final Answer : option (1)

16) Explanation : express angular velocity in terms of the fundamental dimensions.

Concept : Angular velocity.

Formula : Angular Velocity (ω) = Angular Displacement (θ) / Time (t)

Calculation :
0 0 0 0 0
[ω] = (M L T ) / (T1) = [M L T–1]

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

17) n1u1 = n2u2

18) ρ = 0.5 gm/cc, 1gm = 10–3 kg

1cc = 10–6 m3

ρ= = 500 kg/m3

19)

Explain Question : We need to select the option, that indicates physical quantities having
same dimensions.

Concept : This question is based on Dimensions of physical quantities.

Solution : Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

• Force (F): The dimension of force is given by
• Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
• Torque(฀): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
• Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

Answer : Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .

Final Answer : option (2)

 20)

Explain Question : We need to find the dimensions of from the equation given.

Concept : This question is based on Dimensional analysis.

Solution :

∴
Final Answer : option (3)

21)

22)

Explain Question :
Find the value of n such that three given vectors are coplanar.

Concept:
For coplanar vectors, the scalar triple product is zero.

Solution:
The condition for coplanarity is that the determinant of the vector components must be zero:

Final answer : Option (3)

23)

Ans.-(1)

24) Question Explanation:

We have to calculate angle between two vectors.

Concept:
Mixed (Dot and cross product).
Solution:

So , θ = 60°

Final Answer: Option(2)

25)

Explain Question: We have to evaluate ( )( )

Concept: Vector addition & multiplication.

Solution:
( ).( )
We know that addition of two vectors is in the plane of these vectors but cross product of the
vectors always perpendicular to this plane hence resultant of cross product of two vectors is
perpendicular to the addition of these to vectors.

So, Finally dot product of perpendicular vectors is zero.

Final answer: option (1)

26)

27)
⇒
∴
=

28)

29) (a)
(b)
=
=

(c)
(d)

30) As per property studied in Polygon's law

31)
⇒ 0.16 + 0.64 + λ2 = 1
λ2 = 0.2 ⇒ λ =

32)

Explain Question : In this question we are asked to find the component of the vector
along the vector
Concept : This question is based on Projection of a vector on another vector.
Solution : The component of on given by

⇒ component of along =

⇒ = ,
⇒ = 6(1) + 4(1) = 10

component of along =
Final answer : Option (3)

33)

Conceptual

34) Explain Question:

The question asks what type of vector is this

Concept:

Solution:
Calculate magnitude
Since magnitude is 1, it is unit vector

Final Answer: Option (1)

35)

36)

α = 60º, β = 45º, γ = ?
cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ = 1

⇒ γ = 60°

37)

Explain Question:
Determine the magnitudes of two vectors such that the net resultant of three given vectors is
zero.

Concept:
Vector equilibrium and resolution of components

Solution:

B = 10

Final answer: Option (1)

38) 1cos60° – 4 sin 30° + 2 sin 30°

=
So minimum additional force required is
39)

40) Concept: The magnitude of the sum and difference of two vectors is given by:

Given Data:

Squaring both sides and solving for cosθ will yield the result.

Formula:

Calculation / Explanation:
Squaring both magnitude equations, we get:
A2 + B2 + 2AB cosθ = n2(A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ)
Since A = B, simplifying gives:
1 + cosθ = n2(1 – cosθ)
Solving for cosθ:

Final Answer:

Option (2) cos–1

41) Question Explanation: Find the value of if

Concept: Addition and Subtraction of vectors

Solution:
Given here two unit vectors and

Therefore, Magnitude of the resultant vector

Squaring both side we get

Final Answer: Option (1)

42)

43) Question Explanation: In this question we have to choose the correct statement
Concept: Definition of Vector.
Solution :
A physical quantity which has a magnitude and direction is a vector. But a vector quantity
must also follow the vector law of addition. If a physical quantity doesn't follow vector law of
addition, even if it having direction is not a vector.
For example:- current so having direction only is not enough to be a vector quantity because it
does not follow vector law of addition.
Final Answer : Option (2)

44)

= 6 – 13 cos θ – 5 = 1 –

45)
CHEMISTRY

46)

Explain the question : Find out the number of 1°, 2° and 3° hydrogen atoms present in
isopentane
Concept : This question is based on types of carbon and hydrogen, common name
Solution :-
Hydrogen attached to1°, 2° and 3° carbon atoms then they are known as 1°, 2° and 3°
hydrogen respectively.

1°C 3°C 2°C 1°C

1°C

1°H = 9
2°H = 2
3°H = 1
Final answer :- (1)

47)

There are four π-electrons presents in 1-butyne. 1, 2-Propadiene contains two double bonds.
So π-electrons are also four in this compound.

48)

Question Explanation - Identify correct IUPAC name of given compound containing a butane
chain with a cyclopentane ring attached at second carbon.

Concept - IUPAC nomenclature

Solution - The structure shows a four-carbon straight chain (butane) as the parent chain. A
cyclopentane ring is attached to the second carbon atom of this chain. Since the chain has
more priority than the ring (greater length rule), the ring is treated as a substituent called
cyclopentyl. Numbering gives the substituent lowest number at carbon 2, so name becomes 2-
cyclopentylbutane.

Final Answer - Option(1)

49)

Explain the question : The question asks to find the structure of 4,4-Dimethyl pentan-1-ol
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature.
Solution :-
1-ol represent alcohol (–OH) is the PFG
(Pentan) represent parent carbon chain have 5C with single bond
Dimethyl represent two methyl present as subs.
So the structure of 4, 4 Dimethylpentan –1–ol is.

Final answer :- (3)

50)

The IUPAC name of the given structue is 2-Phenylpropane.

51)

Explain the question : Identify which one of the following compound is a secondary alcohol.
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature and types of alcohol.
Solution :-

(1) 3-Methyl -1-butanol

(2) 2-methyl-1-butanol

(3) 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol

(4) 3-methyl-2-butanol
In option 4th OH group is directly attached to 2°C
so it is a secondary alcohol.
Final answer :- (4)

52)

Conceptual

53)

methanol→ketone

54)

Explain Question : Tertiary radical.

Concept : This question is based on types of radicals.
 Explanation :

Types of radical

1. (CH3CH2)2CH— 2°

2. (CH3)2C—CH2— 1°

3. 3°

4. (CH3)2CH— 2°

Final answer : 3

55)

Explain Question : Different structure from the others.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature of alkane.
Explanation :

Compounds IUPAC name

1. 2-Methyl pentane

2. 2-Methyl pentane

3. 3-Methyl pentane

4. 2-Methyl pentane

Final answer : 3

56)

Question Explanation : Which of the following triad belongs to a same homologous series.
Concept : This question is based on homologous series.
Solution : For same homologous series
Functional groups should be same.
Minimum difference of CH2 group.

Compounds Relationship
 1°, 2° and 3° amines are
1 CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N
different functional groups.

1°, 2° and 3° alcohols are

2 C2H5OH, (CH3)2CHOH, (CH3)3COH
different functional groups.

All having same general

formula, functional group
and chemical properties
CH2=CH2, CH3—CH=CH2, and successive members
4
C2H5—CH=CH2 differ by –CH2 groups but
have different physical
properties Hence all three
are homologous.

Final Answer : Option (4)

57)

Explain Question : The first member of homologous series of ester is.

Concept : This question is based on homologous series.
Explanation :

Compound's Member of homologous series of ester

1 Methylmethanoate Ist member

2 Ethylethanoate IIIre member

3 Methylethanoate IInd member

Final answer : 1

58)

2,2-Dimethyl-3-phenylpentane is the IUPAC name of the given compound.

59)

Question Explanation :
Number of Heteroatoms present in Hetero cyclic compound.

Concept :
This question is based on Number of atoms other than carbon atoms present in ring.

Solution :

In Number of Heteroatoms that is atom other than carbon present in ring is one.
Hence:
Option (3) is correct

60)

Question Explanation :
Find out the hybridisation state of all carbon in given compound from L to R.

Concept :
This question is based on Hybridisation.

Solution :
Hybridisation is find out by following way :
η = σ bond + ℓp

From L to R the hybridisation of C in given compound are : sp2, sp2, sp, sp

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Sp2, Sp2, Sp, Sp

61) Question explanation:

What is the correct IUPAC name of following structure.

Concept:
IUPAC nomenclature of cyclic compound.

Solution:

Identify th PFG - Among the – CN and – CHO, – CN will PFG on the basis of priority table.
So, we will use suffix carbonitrile'.
Close chain will PCC and it contain 6C with double bond. so we will write the parent name
'Cyclohexane'.

Numbering will start from that carbon where PFG (– CN) is attached and moves down towards
double bond.
Double bond at position 3, use suffix '3-ene' –CHO present as subs at position 5, we will use
prefix 'formyl' for it.
So, the IUPAC name is
5- Formylcyclohex-3-ene-carbonitrile

62)

63)

4 – Bromo – Pent – 1 – ene

64)
2°C → 2

65)
→ Three CH3
→ One CH2
→ One CH

66)

2-Ethyl-2-propenoic acid

67)

Explain the Question : The correct IUPAC name of 2−chlorobutan−3−ol

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of functional group containing
Solution :
Given Name : 2−chlorobutan−3−ol.

IUPAC Numbering prevariety = functional group > substituents

3−chlorobutan−2−ol.
Final answer : 2

68) Find out the catagory of compounds and correct statements regarding there.

Concept:
Homologous series.

Solution:

(A) (B)
In compound (A) – NH2 group is attached with one carbon, so it is example of primary amine.
In compound (B) - OH group is attached with 3° carbon, so it is example of tertiary alcohol.
so, A is primary and B is tertiary alcohol.

Correct option: (2)

69)

Explain the Question : Find out the heterocyclic compound which have on olefinic bond and
one hetero atom.
Concept : This question is based on classification of organic compound number of olefinic
bond.
Solution : Hetero atom : A atom other than carbon present in the ring.
olefinic bond : - double bond b/w carbons

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Compound 2 have one heteroatom & one olefinic bond
Final answer : 2

70) Question Explanation: Which of the following groups is always taken as a substituents in
the IUPAC nomenclature ?
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature.
Solution :
The following functional group are considered as principle functional group in IUPAC
nomenclature system acc- to priority table.
–COOH, –COOCO–, COR, –COX, –CONH2

– CN, –NC, –CHO, , –OH, –SH, –NH2

So Besides these FG remaining all groups one condridered as substituents.
So –NO2 is always taken as substituents in the IUPAC nomenclaturs ?
Final Answer : option (3)

71)
2,5-Dimethyl Heptane

72) pent-3-en-1-yne
* Numbering according to least No. pure.

73)

74) IUPAC name is prop-2-en-1-ol

75)

76) Number of σ bonds = 21 number of π bonds = 3 ration of

77)
6π, 25σ

78)

2
Explain Question : Identify which of the following compound has only sp hybridised
 carbon atoms.

Concept : If carbon has one double bond then Hybridisation of carbon is sp2.

Solution :
(1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(2)

(3)
In all of the above compound each carbon has one double bond.
Hence all the compounds has only sp2 hybjridised carbon.

Final Answer : option (4)

79)

Explaining the Question :- Total number of 1° H present in the given structure is.

Concept:- This question is based on Types of hydrogen.

Solution :-

Given compound 1°H 2°H 3°H

12 2 2

Final Answer :- 1

80)
N-cyclo propyl cyclopentane carboxamide.

81)

Amide
82)

83)
2-Hydroxy propane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid.

84)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85)
1°H = 3, 2°H = 5, 3°H = 0
 86)

Explain Question : Identify which homologous series has an incorrect general formula
from the given options

Concept : Each homologous series follows a specific general formula based on carbon and
hydrogen count and functional groups.

Solution :
Alkyne → CnH2n–2 √
Alcohol → CnH2n+2O √
Aldehyde → × Given: CnH2n+1O → Incorrect
Correct: CnH2nO (e.g., CH2O, C2H4O)
Carboxylic acid → CnH2nO2 √

Final Answer : option (3)

87) Question Explanation: The IUPAC name of the given compound is.
Concept : IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.
Solution:

3-Ethyl-2,5-dimethyl hexane

A. PCC has 6 carbons and three substituents

B. PCC is numbered using lowest set of locant rule
C. Substituents are at C-2, C-3 and C-5.

Final Answer : Option (3)

88) Question Explanation : The IUPAC name of the given compound is.
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of polyfunctional group containing
compound.
Solution :
IUPAC Nomenclature
Selection of Pcc
Numbering of Pcc
Naming acc. to IUPAC format.

–COOH IS PFG,
–NH2, –CHO are subs.
The IUPAC name is 2–Amino–3–formyl butanedioicacid.
 Final Answer : Option (3)

89)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

90) Question Explanation :

Which of the following compound was the first to be synthesised in the laboratory?

Concept :
This question is based on Histroy of organic chemistry.

Solution :
'Urea' was the first organic compound to be synthesised in lab by 'Wholar'

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Urea

BIOLOGY

91) Sexual reproduction

92)

Multicellular organisms

93)

Question Explanation :
Response to stimuli defines life.

Concept :
Characteristics of Living Organisms ( The Living World)

Explanation :
• consciousness (ability to sense and respond to stimuli) is the defining property of
living organisms.
• Reproduction is not universal (e.g., mules, sterile worker bees).
• Growth also occurs in non-living things like crystals.
• Self-consciousness is limited to humans.
Final Answer : Option 3 – Consciousness

94)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which characteristic is shown by non-living things.

Concept ( The Living World):

A. Living organisms show intrinsic growth (growth from inside by cell division).

B. Non-living things increase in size by extrinsic growth (by accumulation of material from
outside).

C. Non-living things do not perform metabolism.

Explanation :
• Mountains, sand mounds etc. grow by external deposition → extrinsic growth.
• They do not show intrinsic growth or metabolism.

Final answer : Option 1

95) Correct answer: 3 — Cellular organisation, metabolism & consciousness

Explanation:Reason: These are universal in all living [Link] and reproduction are not
defining, as non-living things can grow and some living beings may not reproduce.

96)

Isolated metabolic reaction – neither living nor non living

97)

The correct answer is: 2. Ability to sense environment and give suitable response
Explanation: The ability to sense the environment and respond to external stimuli is
considered the most obvious and technically complicated feature of living organisms
i.e. Consciousness.

98)

The correct statement is:

2. Sum total of all chemical reactions going on in livings is called metabolism.
Explanation:
• Option 1 is incorrect because consciousness is a characteristic of some living organisms, but
not all.
• Option 3 is incorrect because "response to external stimulus" is just a reaction, while self-
consciousness refers to being aware of one's own existence.
• Option 4 is incorrect because growth is a feature of living beings, but it's not the only
defining feature.
Metabolism refers to all the chemical processes that occur within living organisms to maintain
life.

99) Solution:
Mules are sterile hybrids resulting from the mating of a male donkey (jack) and a female horse
(mare). They are typically unable to reproduce because they have an odd number of
chromosomes (63), which prevents the formation of viable gametes.
Thus, the feature of living beings that is absent in mules is:
3. Reproduction

100)

Class

101)

iii, iv, v

102)

All of the above

103)

Worker honeybee

104)

Non responding to external stimuli

105)

One generic and one specific epithet name

106)

NCERT XI pg no.5

107)

Self consciousness

108)
 May be any living entity

109)

Both prokayotes & Eukaryotes

110)

Species

111)

Answer 3

112)

Phylum, class, order, family

113)

Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae.

114) NCERT Pg. # 6

115)

International code of botanical nomenclature

116)

Question explanation: Question is asking about modern taxonomic studies based on which
factor.

Concept: Taxonomy -definition

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. External and internal structure, along with the structure of cell, development process and
ecological information of organisms are essential and form the basis of modern taxonomic
studies.

Final answer: Option 4

117)

Genus
118) Mangifera indica Linn.

119)

Explain Question: The question asks for the taxonomic category defined as a collection of
species showing close resemblance
Concept: Genus
Solution: A collection of species with close resemblance in floral morphology is called a
genus.
Final answer: 2

120) Explain Question - The question asks which of the given taxa is not related to wheat.

Concept - Taxonomic Categories & Classification of Organisms

Solution -
Wheat belongs to Kingdom Plantae, Class Monocotyledonae, Family Poaceae, Genus Triticum.
Sapindales is an order that includes plants like neem, mango, etc., but not wheat.

Final Answer - Option 1

121) NCERT-XI Pg. # 9

122)

i-D, ii-C, iii-E, iv-B, v-A

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

124)

Species

125) NCERT-XI - Page No. 8

126)

Wheat & Rice

127) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 11, Table 1.1

128) Explain Question - The question asks what Animals, Mammals, and Dogs represent in
terms of taxonomic hierarchy.
Concept - Taxonomic Categories

Solution -
Animals → Kingdom Animalia (broadest level).
Mammals → Class Mammalia (within Animalia).
Dogs → Species Canis familiaris (within Class Mammalia).
Thus, they represent taxa at different hierarchical levels (Kingdom → Class → Species).

Final Answer - Option 1

129) NCERT XI Page No. # 10

130) NCERT, Pg. # 7

Leaves, Rocks, Eyes, Legs, Wood are not taxa

131)

Answer 1

132)

(iii) and (v)

133) Solanum, Dicot, Homonidae

134)

species

135) NCERT XI Page No. # 3,9,10

136)

Digestive system absent

137)

Question Explanation: Identify the animal groups that show true (metameric) segmentation.

Concept: The question is based on body segmentation

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

Metameric segmentation means the body is divided into repeated segments externally and
internally.
A. Annelida (e.g., earthworm): show clear metameric segmentation.
B. Arthropoda (e.g., insects): segmentation is present, though often modified.
C. Chordata (e.g., vertebrates): show internal metamerism (e.g., vertebrae, muscles).

Mollusca and Echinodermata do not show true metameric segmentation.

Final answer: Option 4

138)

Question explanation: Which feature is common to all protostomes?

Concept: Basis Of Classification Protostomes – basic body plan

Solution:

All protostomes are triploblastic, meaning they develop from three germ layers: ectoderm,
mesoderm, and endoderm.

Final answer: Triploblastic

139)

Annelida and arthropoda

140)

Phylum – platyhelminthes

141)

Meandrina, Nereis

142) NCERT Pg.#53, Para-4.2.7

143) Fasciola hepatica

144)

Ctenophora

145)

Radial symmetry

146)
Explain Question : This question asks about the body cavity shown in the given figure.
Concept : This question is based on Animal Kingdom → Body cavity
Solution :
The diagram shows a pseudocoelom: a body cavity present between the body wall and gut, not
lined completely by mesoderm (as in Aschelminthes).
Final answer : 3 (Pseudocoelom)

147)

Question Explanation: Identifying forms and life cycle of Obelia.

Concept: Alternation of generation in Obelia.
Solution: The two basic body forms of coelenterates are the polyp (sessile, cylindrical form,
represented by A) and the medusa (free-swimming, umbrella-shaped form, represented by B).
In Obelia, the polyp reproduces asexually to produce the medusa, and the medusa reproduces
sexually to form the polyp, a phenomenon known as alternation of generation.
Final Answer: (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually

148)

A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r

149) NCERT, Page # 52

150)

Fresh water sponge

151) NCERT XIth Pg # 49, para-4.2.1

152)

Multicellular without any tissue organization

153)

All of these

154)

Formation of gametes

155)

All of the above

156) Question Explanation: Phylum with first tissue organization.
Concept: Levels of body organization
Solution: The phylum Porifera (sponges) exhibits a cellular level of organization, where
cells are arranged as loose aggregates without forming true tissues. The next step in
complexity is the tissue level of organization, where cells performing the same function are
arranged into tissues. This is seen for the first time in the phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria),
which includes organisms like jellyfish and corals.
Final Answer: 2

157)

Question Explanation: Identify which statements correctly describe phylum Coelenterata

(Cnidaria).
Concept: Phylum – Coelenterata
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. (A) Aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or free-swimming, radially symmetrical - True for
cnidarians like Hydra, Aurelia, Obelia.

B. (B) Central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome - Correct
characteristics.

C. (C) Digestion is both extracellular (in GVC) and intracellular - True for Cnidaria.

D. (D) Examples: Sycon, Spongilla, Euspongia - These are Porifera, not Coelenterata.

So A, B, C are correct; D is incorrect.

Final answer: Option (3)

158) Question Explanation: Identifying the central cavity in cnidarians.

Concept: Cnidarian body structure
Solution: Cnidarians are diploblastic animals, meaning they have two germ layers. They
possess a central body cavity that serves for both digestion and circulation. This cavity is
called a gastro-vascular cavity. This is different from the spongocoel found in sponges
(phylum Porifera).
Final Answer: 2

159)

(i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A

160) Question Explanation: Animal identification with symmetry

Concept: Pleurobrachia; radial symmetry
Solution: The organism shown is Pleurobrachia, a comb jelly. It displays radial symmetry,
unlike bilateral symmetry seen in more complex animals.
Final Answer: Pleurobrachia – Radial symmetry

161)

Triploblastic

162)

Freely swimming animals

163) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 51

164)

Sexes are seperate

165)

Platyhelminthes

166)

Hook worm

167)

a, b and c

168)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 52

169)

Conceptual

170) NCERT-XI - Page No.-52 "Annelida"

171)

A is dioecious while B is monoecious

172) NCERT Pg#48, 52

173) NCERT Pg. # 52

174) Question Explanation: Function of Malpighian tubules.

Concept: Excretion in Insects.
Solution: Malpighian tubules are slender, blind-ended tubes arising at the junction of the
midgut and hindgut in insects. Their main function is to collect nitrogenous waste products
from the hemolymph (blood) and excrete them, primarily as uric acid.

Final Answer: Excretory organs of insects

175) Question Explanation: Identifying a commercially useful insect.

Concept: Economically Important Insects.
Solution: Apis (Honey bee ฀) is an economically beneficial insect as it produces honey and
wax and is vital for pollination. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil; Anopheles is a disease
vector; and Locusta is a pest.

Final Answer: Apis

176) NCERT XI (H) Pg. # 53

177)

Question explanation: Identify the correct combination of arthropod with its respiratory and
excretory organs.
Concept: Arthropoda – respiration & excretion
Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

Prawn

A. Respiration: Gills

B. Excretion: Green glands → Correct match

Other options are incorrect:

A. Insects have tracheae, not book gills.

B. Scorpions have book lungs, but excretory organs are Malpighian tubules, not antennary
glands.

C. King crab respires via book gills, not tracheae.

Final answer: Option (1)

178) Question Explanation: Identifying the animal with statocysts.
Concept: Balancing Organs (Statocysts).
Solution: Statocysts are sensory organs for balance and orientation commonly found in many
invertebrates, especially aquatic ones like some Cnidarians, Molluscs, and Crustaceans. The
Prawn is a Crustacean arthropod that possesses statocysts near the base of its antennae.

Final Answer: Prawn

179)

Answer 2

180)

Question Explanation:

Verifying statements about the King Crab (Limulus).

Concept:

Living Fossil and Arthropoda

Solution:

The Assertion is True: Limulus (the Horseshoe Crab) is often called a living fossil because it
has remained virtually unchanged for millions of years. The Reason is True: Limulus is an
Arthropod, and thus possesses jointed appendages and is triploblastic with bilateral symmetry.
However, the Reason describes general features of its phylum; it does not explain why it is a
living fossil. The reason for being a living fossil is its evolutionary stasis, not these basic
characteristics.

Final Answer:

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.