12-07-2026

3010CMD303001260112 MD

PHYSICS

1) Fig. shows the displacement of a particle moving along x-axis as a function of time. The velocity of

the particle is zero at :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

2) Which one of the following curves do not represent motion in one dimension :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle moves according to given velocity–time graph. Then the ratio of distance travelled in

last 4 seconds and 9 seconds is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A particle starts from rest, its acceleration-time graph is shown in figure :-

Find out velocity at t = 4 sec

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) None of these

5) A body falling from height 'h' takes 't' times to reach the ground. The time taken to cover the first
half of the height is

(1)

(2)

(3) 2t
(4)

6) A body released from a height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the same
point exactly one second later. The separation between them three seconds after the release of the
second body is :– (g 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 34.3 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 19.6 m

7) A water tap leaks such that water drops fall at regular intervals. Tap is fixed 8 m above the
ground. First drop reaches the ground and at that very instant fifth drop leaves the tap. At that
instant third drop is at a height of: (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 3 m
(2) 4.5 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 6.75 m

8) A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at one third of the maximum height is 20 m/s.
The maximum height attained by it is (g = 10 ms-2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 40 m

9)

A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming the air resistance to be constant and considerable

(1) the time of ascent > the time of desent

(2) time time of ascent < the time of descent
(3) the time of ascent > the time of descent
(4) the time of ascent = the time of descent

10) A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of the earth, then the velocity time graph
is (if upward direction is +ve) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two bodies of masses 100 kg and 50 kg are projected horizontally from same height with speeds
40 m/s and 20 m/s, simultaneously. The ratio of time taken by both the bodies to reach the ground is
:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

12) A person can throw a ball with certain maximum speed. He can throw the ball up to maximum
horizontal distance of x, then up to what maximum height he can throw the ball?

(1) x

(2)

(3)

(4) 2x

13) A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another
ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t =
[Link] is the value of v ? (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 75 m/s
(3) 55 m/s
(4) 90 m/s

14) The equation of motion of a projectile is :

What is the range of the projectile ?

(1) 8 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 32 m

15)

A ball is dropped onto a step at point A and rebounds with a velocity v0 at an angle of 45° with the
vertical. The value of v0 knowing that just before the ball bounces at point B its velocity vB forms an
angle of 30° with the vertical is:

(1) 0.7 m/s

(2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 2.1 m/s
(4) 2.8m/s

16) The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is times of its initial velocity u. Its range
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

17) A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 15 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the
ground after some time with a velocity of 65 m/s. The height of the tower is : )g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 100 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 400 m

18) A boy throws a ball with speed 40 m/s in vertically upward direction, find the time after which he
catches the ball again. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 16 sec

19) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 25 ms–1 from the top of a tower of height 30
m. What will be maximum height from ground. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 61.25 m
(2) 31.25 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 50 m

20) A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next
5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is :-

(1) h1 = h2 = h3
(2) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3
(3)
h1 =
(4) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2

21) A body is projected with a speed ‘u’ at an angle to the horizontal to have maximum range, at the
highest point the velocity is–

(1) Zero
(2) u

(3)

(4)

22) When a ball is thrown vertically up with velocity v0, it reaches a maximum height of h. If one
wishes to triple the maximum height, then the ball should be thrown with velocity :

(1) v0

(2) 3v0
(3) 9v0
(4) 3/2v0

23) In a projectile motion :-

(1) Velocity is always perpendicular to the acceleration

(2) Velocity is never perpendicular to the acceleration
(3) Magnitude of velocity remain constant
(4) Acceleration is constant

24) A body is thrown with some velocity from the ground. Maximum height attained when it is
thrown at 37° to the horizontal is 90 m. What is the height attained when it is thrown with same
speed at 53° to the horizontal ?

(1) 90 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 120 m
(4) 160 m

25) A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of m/s, from some height at t = 0. At what

time will its velocity make 30° angle with the initial velocity

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2/3 sec

26) A rocket is fired upward from the earth's surface such that it creates an acceleration of 20
m/sec2. If after 5 sec its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth's
surface would be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 250 m
(2) 500 m
(3) 1000 m
(4) 750 m

27) A body is thrown upwards with velocity 100m/s and it travels 5m in the last second of its upward
journey. If the same body is thrown upward with velocity 200 m/s, what distance will it travel in the
last second of upward journey?

(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 25 m

28) An object is projected as shown in X-Y plane. Find it's speed after 1 second :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

29) A particle moving along x-axis, its v2 and position graph given in the figure. Initial acceleration of

the object is:-

(1) zero
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

30) x-t graph of a particle moving along x-axis is shown. Then magnitude of average acceleration

from time 3 sec to 9 sec is :-

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

Common Content for Question No. 31 to 32

A ball is released from the top of a tower, assuming no air resistance acting on the ball. Ball strike
the ground and rebound with half of the speed of striking consider upward direction as positive.

31) Which of the following represents velocity time graph of the ball (Note :- graph is not up to
scale)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If time of flight of a projectile is 10 seconds. Range is 500 meters. The angle of projection is :-
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) None

33) At the uppermost point of a projectile its velocity and acceleration are at an angle of :–

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

34) A projectile is projected with initial velocity (6î + 8ĵ) m/sec. If g = 10 ms–2, then horizontal range
is :-

(1) 4.8 m
(2) 9.6 m
(3) 19.2 m
(4) 14.0 m

35) Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their

trajectories are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The time of flight is largest for particle C

(2) The launch speed is same for all the three
(3) The vertical component of velocity is same for all the three
(4) The horizontal component of velocity is same for all the three

36) An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 100 m/s drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 500 m. The horizontal range of the packet is :-

(1) 1000 m
(2) 500 m
(3) 5000 m
(4) 750 m

37) A projectile is projected from ground such that the maximum height attained by it is equal to half
the horizontal range. The angle of projection with horizontal would be.

(1) tan–1(2)
(2) tan–1(3)
(3) tan–1(4)
(4)

38) A particle is projected with velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 15° with horizontal. The horizontal
range will be

(1) 10m
(2) 5m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 1m

39) A particle is thrown from the ground upward with velocity 40 m/s. Calculate maximum height:-

(1) 40 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 160 m
(4) 8 m

40) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with 40 m/s. its velocity after three seconds will be :

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

41) In a projectile motion, the velocity :-

(1) is always perpendicular to the acceleration

(2) is never perpendicular to the acceleration
(3) is perpendicular to the acceleration for one instant only
(4) is perpendicular to the acceleration for two instants

42) A particle is fired with velocity u making q angle with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of
change in velocity when it returns to the ground.

(1) u cos θ
(2) u
(3) 2u sin θ
(4) (u cosθ – u)

43) At the uppermost point of a projectile its linear momentum and acceleration are at an angle of :–

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°
44) A ball is projected to attain the maximum range. If the height attained is H, the range is

(1) H
(2) 2H
(3) 4H
(4) H/2

45) A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. At any instant, its
velocity v is at right angle to its initial velocity u; then v is:

(1) u cos θ
(2) u tan θ
(3) u cot θ
(4) u sec θ

CHEMISTRY

1) With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Atomic radii of F and Ne (in Å) are given by :-

(1) 0.72, 0.71

(2) 0.72, 1.6
(3) 1.6, 1.58
(4) 0.71, 0.72

3) When the following five anions are arranged in the order of decreasing ionic radius, the correct
sequence is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Element with their electronic configurations are given below :-

(I) 1s2 2s2 (II) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (III) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (IV) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (V) 1s2 2s2 2p5
which of the following is the correct order of increasing size :-

(1) I < III < IV < V

(2) V < IV < III < I
(3) I < IV < V < III
(4) V < IV < I < III

5) [Xe] 4f4 5d° 6s2 above element belong to which group :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

6) Representative elements belong to–

(1) s and p-blocks

(2) p and d-block
(3) f-block only
(4) d and f-blocks

7) Correct order of decreasing first ionisation energy of Li, Be, B, C, N, O :-

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O

(2) Li > Be > B > C > N > O
(3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N
(4) Li < Be > B < C > N < O

8) IE of 1st values of Al, Si and S are 496, 530 and 640 kJ/mol respectively then what will be 1st IE
value for phosphorus ?

(1) more than 640 kJ/mol

(2) between [496-530] kJ/mol
(3) between [530-640] kJ/mol
(4) Can't be predicted

9) Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :

(A)1s2 2s2 2p6 (B)1s2 2s2 2p4
2 2 6 1
(C)1s 2s 2p 3s (D)1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing order to ionization energy:

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) C < B < D < A
(4) D < A < B < C

10) Select the correct order of I.E. :-

(1) Cl– > Cl > Cl+

(2) Cl+ > Cl > Cl–
(3) Cl > Cl– > Cl+
(4) Cl+ > Cl– > Cl

11) Compared to the 2nd ionisation potential the value of first ionisation potential of an element is :-

(1) Negligible
(2) Smaller
(3) Greater
(4) Double

12) An element having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2 4s2, belongs to :-

(1) d-block
(2) f-block
(3) s-block
(4) p-block

13) The ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because of :-

(1) The Size of nitrogen atom is smaller

(2) More penetrating effect
(3) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
(4) The extra stability of half filled P-orbital

14) The energy required for loss of electron from Ne and Na+ ion (both isoelectronic) are :-

(1) 4562 kJ/mol, 2081 kJ/mol

(2) 2081 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol
(3) 2081 kJ/mol each
(4) 4562 kJ/mol each

15) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :-

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

16) Correct order of 1st ionisation potential are : (i) Li < B < Be < C
(ii) O < N < F
(iii) Be < N < Ne

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iii
(4) i, iii

17) Which one is in the ground state :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

The atomic number of an element is 17, the number of orbitals containing electron pairs in the
valence shell is:-

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6

19)

If the value of n + ℓ ≤ 3 then calculate No. of subshells?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

20) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Consider the following electronic configuration of an element(P)

[Xe]4f145d16s2
Then correct statement about element 'P' is :-

(1) It belongs to 6th period and 1st group

(2) It belongs to 6th period and 2nd group
(3) It belongs to 6th period and 3rd group
(4) None of these

22) The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is

(1)
2, 0, 0, +
2, 1, –1, +
(2)

(3)
3, 1, 1, +

(4)
3, 0, 0, ±

23) 2p orbital can accomodate

(1) 4 electrons
(2) 6 electrons
(3) 2 electrons with parallel spins
(4) 2 electrons with opposite spins

24) In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electron, the number of electrons with m = 0; are

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 16

25) Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by :-

(At. no.), Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27

(1) Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

26) List-I and List-II contains six entries each. Entries of List-Iare to be matched with some entries of
List-II

List-I List-II
 Aufbau Line spectrum
(i) (p)
Principle in visible region
Maximum
(ii) De broglie (q) multiplicity
of electron
Angular
(iii) (r) Photon
momentum

(iv) Hund's rule (s)

Electronic
(v) Balmer Series (t)
configuration
(vi) Planck's law (u) mvr
(1) (i)-(q); (ii)-(p); (iii)-(r); (iv)-(t); (v)-(s); (vi)-(u)
(2) (i)-(q); (ii)-(p); (iii)-(t); (iv)-(s); (v)-(u); (vi)-(r)
(3) (i)-(t); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(u); (iv)-(q); (v)-(p); (vi)-(r)
(4) (i)-(r); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(q); (iv)-(t); (v)-(p); (vi)-(q)

27) Correct order of Ionic radius is :

(1) Mg+2 < Na+

(2) Mn+7 < Mn+2
(3) Fe+3 < Fe+2
(4) All are correct

28) For n = 4, which of the following is true

(1) The total possible values of ℓ are 3

(2) The highest value of ℓ is 4
(3) The total number of possible values of m is 7
(4) The highest value of m is +3

29) The number of orbitals in d sub-shell is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

30)

Which among the following has successive ionization enthalpy as 0.8, 1.1, 27.2, 29.4, 31.6 eV ?

(1) Mg
(2) K
(3) Cu
(4) Li
31) Match the Column – I and Column - II

Column - I Column - II
The orbital wave function for an electron
(a) (p) no physical meaning
in an atom has
(b) Total number of nodes (q) (n – 1)
maximum near to nucleus and decreases
(c) for 1s orbital probability density is (r)
sharply as we move away from it
region where probability density function
(d) nodal surfaces are (s)
reduces to zero.
(1) (a) – (s), (b) – (p), (c) – (q), (d) – (r)
(2) (a) – (p), (b) – (r), (c) – (s), (d) – (q)
(3) (a) – (q), (b) – (p), (c) – (s), (d) – (r)
(4) (a) – (p), (b) – (q), (c) – (r), (d) – (s)

32) Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
(2) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
The shapes of dxy, dyz, and dzx orbitals are similar to each other and shapes
(3) of and orbitals
are similar to each other.
(4) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals

33) In which of the following pairs is the probability of finding the electron in only xy - plane is zero
for both orbitals ?

(1) 3dyz,

(2) 2Pz,
(3) 4dzx, 3Pz
(4) 2Pz, 3Pz

34) Total number of electrons which have m = 0, in atomic number z = 15 is :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 9

35) Elements upto atomic number 103 have been discovered till now. If an element with atomic
number 106 were ever discovered which of the following electronic configuration will it possess —

(1) [Rn] 5f14 6d4 7s2

(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s1
0
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d7 7s
(4) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s2

36) An ion Mna+ has the magnetic moment equal to 4.9 BM, what is the value of a :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in an orbit of maximum magnetic quantum
number +2:-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

38) Which one is a wrong statement ?

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated
(2)
by four quantum numbers.
The electronic configuration of N atom is

(3)

(4) The value of m for is zero

39) The quantum number not obtained from the Schrodinger’s wave equation is -

(1) n
(2) l
(3) m
(4) s

40) Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct codes given below :

List-I List-II

(A) Orbital angular momentum a.

(B) No of orbitals in a sub shell b. n

(C) No. of sub-shells in an orbit c. 2ℓ + 1

(1) A–a, B–c, C–b
(2) A–b, B–c, C–a
(3) A–a, B–b, C–c
(4) A–c, B–a, C–b

41) How many electrons in an atom can have n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = –2 and s = + ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 10

42)

Which of the following quantum number is not represented correctly :-

(1) n = 3, =2 m=1 s = +1/2

(2) n = 3, =2 m = +2 s = –1/2
(3) n = 4, =1 m = +1 s = +1/2
(4) n = 2, =0 m = +1 s = –1/2

43) Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents an impossible arrangement?

n m1 ms

(1) 3 2 –2 + 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 + 1/2

(3) 3 2 -3 + 1/2

(4) 5 3 0 – 1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44)

How many electrons in calcium have ℓ = 0

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

45)

What is atomic number of element with maximum number of unpaired 4p e– s :-

(1) 33
(2) 17
(3) 53
(4) 15

BIOLOGY

1) Statement - I : Pennatula also known as sea pen

Statement - II : In the life cycle of obelia polyp produce medusa sexually.

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Both Statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

2) Identify the correct match

(1) Taenia solum - Liver fluke

(2) Fasciola - Tapeworm
(3) Wuchereria - Filaria worm
(4) Ascaris - Flatworm

3) Sycon belongs to a group of animals,which are best described as?

(1) Acellular
(2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
(3) Multicellular with a Cnidoblast
(4) Multicellular having tissue organisation, but no body cavity

4) Give the correct match in the following

Column I Column II

A. Flame Cells p. Sponges

B. Collar Cells q. Hydra

Stinging Cells
C. r. Planaria
(Cnidoblast)

s. Ascaris
(1) A-r, B-p, C-q
(2) A-r, B-p, C-s
(3) A-r, B-s, C-p
(4) A-r, B-q, C-s

5) Parapodia are locomotary structures in :

(1) Sycon
(2) Nereis
(3) Pleurobrachia
(4) Earthworm

6) Which of the following animal contain nephridia for excretion.

(1) Hydra
(2) Taenia
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Earthwrom

7) ........... Commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies are exclusively marine.

(1) Annelida
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Ctenophora

8) In which triploblastic organization is observed for the 1st time ?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropod
(4) Chordata

9) Which animal phylum possesses organ system level of organization ?

(1) Annelida and Echinodermata

(2) Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Chordata
(4) All

10) Radial symmetry is often exhibited by

(1) Most of sponges

(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Adult stage of echinodermates
(4) Larval stage of echinodermates

11) Which one of the following groups of animals are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

(1) Coelenterates (cnidarians)

(2) Aschelminthes (roundworms)
(3) Ctenophores
(4) Sponges
12) In contrast to annelids, the platyhelminths show

(1) Radial symmetry

(2) The presence of pseudocoel
(3) Excretion by nephridia
(4) Excretion by flame cell

13) Which of the following is not correct?

(1) Sponges do not have tissue level of organisation

(2) Organ system level of organisation is found in coelentrates
In annelids, arthropods, molluscs, echinoderms and chordates organ system level of
(3)
organisation is found
(4) Coelenterates, ctenophores have radial symmetry

14) Schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates are

(1) acoelomates
(2) true coelomates
(3) invertebrates
(4) echinoderms only

15) In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:

(1) osculum
(2) choanocytes
(3) mesenchymal cells
(4) ostia

16) Which is universal for all sponges ?

(1) Marine
(2) Cydippid larva
(3) Radial symmetry
(4) Cellular level of organisation

17) First phylum to have complete digestive tract can be represented by :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Taenia
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Pheretima

18) Bath sponge is common name of -

(1) Spongilla
(2) Euspongia
(3) Euplectella
(4) Leucosolenia

19) Hermaphrodite is :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Spongilla
(4) Round worm

20) Nephridia helps in the excretion in

(1) Nereis
(2) Pheretima
(3) Hirudinaria
(4) All of these

21) True Coelom has evolved for the first time in

(1) Arthopoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Annelida
(4) Platyhelminthes

22) Male Ascaris differs from the female in

(1) Having pineal spicule

(2) Curvature of tail
(3) Short body length
(4) All of these

23) Select the incorrect matching:

(1) Gorgonia – Sea fan

(2) Adamsia – Sea anemone
(3) Gorgonia – Sea cucumber
(4) Aurelia – Jelly fish

24) Incomplete digestive system is found in

(1) W. bancrofti
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Chordata
25) Which is correctly matched?

(1) Bilateral symmetry – Jelly fish

(2) Radial symmetry – Sea-fan
(3) Acoelomate animals – Nereis
(4) Eucoelomate animal – Planaria

26) A taxonomist has observed following characters in few animals. Segmented body, bilateral
symmetry coelomate and having close type circulatory system. Most likely he will place this animal
into:

(1) Mollusca
(2) Annelida
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Arthropoda

27) Functions of suckers in Tapeworm :-

(1) Ingestion of food

(2) Sucking of blood
(3) Absorption of food
(4) For Attachment

28) The following features are seen in which of the below options?
(1) Cuticle
(2) Hooks
(3) Suckers
(4) Proglottids

(1) Limulus
(2) Prawn
(3) Crab
(4) Taenia

29) The following features belong to which of the following phylum?

(1) Triploblastic
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Eucoelomate
(4) Metamerism

(1) Mollusca
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelida

30) Find out the correct match

(1) Open circulatory – Annelida
(2) Protostomes – Molluscan
(3) Enterocoelomates – Arthropods
(4) Metamerism – Aschehelminths

31) Given diagram shows :

(1) Asymmetry
(2) Radial Symmetry
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Bilateral Symmetry

32) On basis of coelom ascaris is :-

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate
(4) Enterocoelomate

33) Which of the following phylum comprises of animals with blind sac body plan?

(1) Cnidaria
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Chordata
(4) Annelida

34) In which animals, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches ?

(1) Coelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Aeoelomate
(4) Chordate

35) Match the following list of animal with their level of organisation :-

Division of Labour Animal

(A) Organ level (i) Pheritima
(B) Cellular level (ii) Fasciola
(C) Tissue level (iii) Spongilla
(D) Organ system level (iv) Obelia
Choose the correct match showing division of labour with an example :-
(1) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D) and (iv)-(A)
(2) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C) and (iv)-(A)
(3) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B) and (iv)-(C)
(4) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C) and (iv)-(B)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Following diagram represent which animal ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Sycon
(3) Pleurobranchia
(4) Spongila

37) Which of the following belong to phylum annelida?

(1) Hirudinaria, Nereis and Wuchereria

(2) Earthworms, Aphrodite and Pila
(3) Pheretima, Hirudinaria and Nereis
(4) Aplysia, Nereis and Sycon

38) Which of the following statement is correct for the given figure ? (A) Excretion by flame
cell
(B) Rounded unsegmented body
(C) Radially symmetrical
(D) It is male.
(1) A & B
(2) B & D
(3) C & D
(4) A & D

39) In which animal the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers an external ectoderm and
internal endoderm :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Taenia
(3) Ascaris
(4) Earthworm

40) First triploblastic, bilateral symmetrical and acoelomate animals are included in :-

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Coelenterate

41) Which parts is/are indicated by A and C in given diagram ?

(1) Ectoderm, Endoderm

(2) Ectoderm. Mesoderm
(3) Mesoderm, Ectoderm
(4) Mesoderm, Endoderm

42) Sponges are :-

(1) Generally fresh water and mostly symmetrical

(2) Generally marine and mostly symmetrical
(3) Generally fresh water and mostly asymmetrical
(4) Generally marine and mostly asymmetrical
43) Consider the classification which is given below: In above
classification, (A) and (B) respectively represents–

(1) Porifera, Cnidaria

(2) Porifera, Annelida
(3) Chordata, Porifera
(4) Cnidaria, Arthropoda

44) Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the related explanation and select the right option
for the two together :-

Symmetry Explanation
Any plane that passes through
1 Asymmetrical the centre does not divide them
equal halves
The body can be divided into
2 Radial identical left and right halves in only
one plane
Any plane pass through the central
3 Bilateral axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves
The body can be divided into
4 Bilateral identical left and right halves in only
one plane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) The characteristics of a phylum are -

(a) Tissue level and radially symmetrical
(b) Diploblastic
(c) Eight comb plates
(d) Digestion both extra cellular and intracellular
The phylum is -

(1) Porifera
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

46) Following are two categories of symmetry and germ layer given below. Choose an appropriate

answer which belongs to the figures given:

Category Symmetry Germ layer Phylum

(1) A Radial Diploblastic Cnidaria

(2) B Bilateral Triploblastic Sycon

(3) A Bilateral Diploblastic Coelenterata

(4) B Radial Triploblastic Annelida

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) The body is externally and internally divided into segments in the members of phylum -

(1) Annelida
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Mollusca
(4) Both (1) and (3)

48) Enterocoelom first developed in which phylum ?

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Chordata

49) Notochord is a ______ derived rod like structure formed on the ______ side during embryonic
development in some animals.

(1) Mesodermally, dorsal

(2) Mesodermally, ventral
(3) Endodermally, dorsal
(4) Ectodermally, dorsal

50)

Triploblastic condition is found in :-

(1) Porifera
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Coelentrata

51) Paragastric cavity is found in the members of phylum :-

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Porifera
(4) Coelenterata

52) Choose the option that correctly matches the organism with its characteristics:

(1) Liver fluke - Suckers for locomotion and flame cells for digestion
(2) Ctenoplana - Fresh water habitat and muscular foot for locomotion
(3) Obelia - Diploblastic with metagenesis during its life cycle
(4) Spongilla - Bath sponge and its habitat is sea water

53) Match Column I with column II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Sycon (i) Bath sponge

(b) Spongilla (ii) Simplest sponge

(c) Euspongia (iii) Fresh water sponge

(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)

54) In which animal body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between ectoderm and endoderm :

(1) Sycon
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Taenia

55) Portuguese Man of War is called as

(1) Pennatula
(2) Coral
(3) Physalia
(4) Obelia

56)

The correct sequence of flow of water through body of sponges is :-

(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia

(2) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
(3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel →Osculum

57) Identify incorrect match

(1) Notochord - Mesoderm

(2) Flatworm - Suckers
(3) Spongilla - Cnidoblast
(4) Hydra - Radial symmetry

58) The figure below show symmetry in animal select the option giving correct identification

together with it's explanation ? Options :

(1) Asymmetrical - any plane that passes through the centre does not divide into two equal halves.
(2) Radial - any plane that passes through the centre does not divide into two equal halves.
Radial - any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
(3)
equal havles
(4) Bilateral - The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane.
59) The figure below shows three figures (A,B,C) of animals. Select the option giving correct
identification with habitat-

(1) C-Adamsia, Marine

(2) A-Pleurobrachia, Fresh water
(3) B-Euspongia, Marine
(4) A-Aurelia, Marine

60) Which of the following is a free-living flat worm ?

(1) Planaria
(2) Taenia
(3) Fasciola
(4) Pheretima

61) Pick the odd pair out :-

(1) Cellular level : Porifera

(2) Tissue level : Aschelminthes
(3) Organ level : Platyhelminthes
(4) Organ system level : Annelida

62) Following figures (a) and (b) represents the animals which are respectively

(1) (a) Diploblastic (b) Diploblastic

(2) (a) Triploblastic (b) Triploblastic
(3) (a) Diploblastic (b) Triploblastic
(4) (a) Triploblastic (b) Diploblastic

63) Segmentation (metamerism) is found in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata
(4) Arthropoda, Echinodermata, Chordata

64) Select the correctly matched example of Cnidarians with their common names :-

(1) Gorgonia - Sea pen

(2) Pennatula - Sea fan
(3) Meandrina - Brain coral
(4) Obelia - Portuguese man of war

65) Which of the following is a coelenterate?

(1) Sea Dollar

(2) Sea Horse
(3) Sea cucumber
(4) Sea Pen

66) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1 : All triploblastic animals are eucoelomates.
Statement-2 : All triploblastic animals have a false coelom.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

67) Consider following features:

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Porifera
(3) Arthropoda, Cnidaria and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Ctenophora

68) Which of the following represents aschelminthes?

(1) Filarial worm & ascaris

(2) Hook worm & sycon
(3) Sand worm & Earthworm
(4) Earthworm & Hookworm

69) Assertion :- The members of phylum-Aschelminthes are called round worms.

Reason :- The body of the Aschelminthes is circular in cross-section.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida ?

(1) Metamerism
(2) Closed blood vascular system
(3) Comb plates for locomotion
(4) Nephridia for excretion

71) Cnidoblasts are not used for :-

(1) Anchorage
(2) Defence
(3) Capture of prey
(4) Reproduction

72) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metameric segmentation (metamerism)
(4) Metachrosis

73) Bioluminescence is well marked in?

(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Pleurobrachia
(4) Hydra

74) In given diagram cross section of animal body is present

Which of following phylum will satisfy the cross section?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Porifera
(4) Cnidaria

75) Which one is correct about the figure given below along with its phylum ?

(1) Cnidoblast cell - Coelenterata

(2) Flame cell - Platyhelminthes
(3) Lasso cell - Ctenophora
(4) Trichocyst - Protozoa

76) 8 ciliary comb plates & lasso cell found in:-

(1) Aurelia
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Taenia
(4) Nereis

77) Which of the following feature is incorrect about the diagrams

above given ?

(1) Dorsoventrally flat body

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Diploblastic
(4) Flame cells for excretion
78) Identify the phylum ‘X’

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Chordata
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Platyhelminthes

79) Ascaris is

(1) Radially symmetrical

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Asymmetrical
(4) Diploblastic

80) Common among tapeworm, fasciola & planaria is :-

(1) They are segmented (True segment)

(2) They are free living
(3) They are parasites
(4) They have flat bodies

81) Excretion in most cnidaria take place by -

(1) Kidneys
(2) Flame cells
(3) Body wall
(4) Ciliated funnel
82) Assertion : Members of phylum Platyhelminthes are also called flat worms.
Reason : It have dorso-ventrally flattened body.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

83) Which of the following contain open circulatory system?

(1) Annelida
(2) Cephalopoda mollusca
(3) Higher chordata
(4) Arthropoda

84) Renette cell for excretion present in

(1) Flatworm
(2) Hydra
(3) Sycon
(4) Ascaris

85)

First time Organ level of organisation occur in ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthopoda

86) A notocord like structure stomocord is present in ?

(1) Star fish

(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Octopus
(4) Herdmania

87) Which character is not correct for echinoderm?

(1) Ventral mouth and dorsal anus

(2) Absence of excretory system
(3) Presence of proboscis
(4) Fertilisation is usually external
88) Malpighian Tubules are excretory organ of :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Cockroach
(3) Sycon
(4) Nereis

89) Rasping organ radula is characteristic of :-

(1) Arthropoda animals

(2) Echinodermata animals
(3) Annelid animals
(4) Mollusca animals

90) Assertion :- In sponge, polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form the polyps
asexually.
Reason :- Polyps and medusae are the common feature of different group of sponge.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 4 4 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 4 3 4 4 2 3 1 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain the question : For the given figure velocity is zero at point.
Concept : This question is based on graphical analysis (x-t)
Solution :

Slope of s-t curve is equal to velocity.

When slope of s-t curve is zero, at point B slope is zero velocity is also zero.
Final answer : 2

2)

3)

4)

Question Explanation : Asking about the velocity at t = 4 sec from the given a-t graph.
Concept : This question is based on Area of "a - t" graph
Solution : Area under the acceleration-time graph = change in velocity

(4 + 2) × 10 = v – 0
v = 30 m/s
Final Answer : Option (2)

5)

6) Explain the question : According to question

We have to calculate height difference

H1 – H2 = ?
Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity

[for u = 0, H = g(Δt)2]
Solution : for body (i) : H = H1, u = 0, Δt = 4 sec, g = 9.8

H1 = × 9.8 × 16 = 78.4 m
for body (ii) : H= H2, u = 0, Δt = 3 sec, g = 9.8

H2 = × 9.8 × 9 = 44.1 m
H1 – H2 = 78.4 – 44.1 = 34.3 m
Final answer : 2

7)

6 m6 m6 m

8)

30 m30 m

9)

time time of ascent < the time of descent

10)

11)

1 : 11 : 11 : 1

12)

13)

14) Explain question:

Question asks for the range of projectile it equation of motion is given.

Concept:
Projectile motion.

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (2)

15)

2.8m/s2.8m/s2.8m/s

16)

17)

200 m200 m200 m200 m

18)

8 sec8 sec

19)

Maximum height above the tower,

= 31.25m
Maximum height from ground = 31.25 + 30 = 61.25 m

20)

h1 = h1 =

21)

22)

23)

24)

160 m160 m
25)

2/3 sec2/3 sec

26)

750 m750 m

27) Question Explanation: To find the distance travelled by the body in the last second of
upward journey when it is thrown upward with velocity 200 m/s.
Concept : Motion under gravity

Solution:
In every last second of upward journey distance travelled by body is g/2.

Final Answer: option (1)

28) 10 m/s10 m/s

29) Slope =

30) = 5 m/s

= –10 m/s m/s2

31)

Before strike with ground v = –gt

After strike with ground where v0 is maximum velocity before strike

 32)

45°45°45°

33)

∴ ∠α=90°

34)

35) Question Explanation:

A. Observation: The figure shows three projectile trajectories (A, B, and C) starting from the
same point.
B. Key Visual Data: All three projectiles reach the same maximum height (Hmax) but they have
different horizontal ranges (RC > RB > RA)

Concept: Projectile Motion: Maximum Height and Time of Flight.

Solution:

which is same for all

∴ u sinθ is same for all

{same for all}

for large θ value of sinθ is large and hence u will be less
∴
i.e. launch speed is maximum for particle C horizontal range R = ux × T
T is same for all and RC is maximum for C
∴ ux is maximum for C

Final Answer : Option (3)

36) Explain the question : An airplane is moving horizontally with a speed of 100 m/s at a
height of 500 m and drops a food packet. The problem required finding the horizontal range
the food packet travels before hitting the ground.
Concept : This question is based on projection from height (horizontal projection)
Solution :

Time of flight 'T' is the time to fall from height h under gravity.

= 10 sec
Horizontal range, 'R' is
R = Ux × T = 100 × 10 = 1000 M
Final answer : 1

37)

tan–1(2)

38)

5m5m5m

39) 80 m 80 m 80 m

40) 10 m/s10 m/s10 m/s

41) is perpendicular to the acceleration for one instant only

42) 2u sin θ 2u sin θ

43) 90° 90° 90° 90°

44) 4H4H4H4H4H

45)

u cot θ
CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

0.72, 1.60.72, 1.6

48)

49)

V < IV < I < III

50)

333333333

60)

Explain Question : Arrange the lead atom and its positive ions by decreasing size.

Concept : This question is based on Ionic Radius.

Solution : Cations are always smaller than their neutral parent atoms. As positive charge
increases, the nucleus pulls the remaining electrons closer, thus further decreasing the ionic
size. So, the correct order is Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+

Final Answer : option (2)

61) Question Explanation : Identify which of the three given sequences for 1st ionization
potential are
correct.
Concept: This question is based on Ionization Potential.
Solution: (i) Correct: Li < B < Be < C (due to Be's 2s2 stability).
(ii) Correct: O < N < F (due to N's 2p3 stability).
(iii) Correct: Be < N < Ne (follows the general left-to-right trend and stability).
Final Answer : 3

63)
 Explain the Question : The question asks for the number of orbitals in the valence shell of an
element with atomic number Z = 17 that contain a complete electrons pair (i.e., lone pairs of
filled orbitals).
Concept : This question is based on electronic configuration.
Solution :
Z = 17

Total 3 orbitals.
Final answer : 3

65) Question Explanation: The question asks for which of the provided electron distributions
for a ground state atom violates only Hund's rule, while still following other principles (Aufbau
and Pauli exclusion).

Concept: The problem requires applying the three fundamental rules of electron
configuration: the Aufbau principle (filling lowest energy orbitals first), the Pauli exclusion
principle (max 2 electrons per orbital with opposite spins), and Hund's rule (degenerate
orbitals filled singly with parallel spins before pairing).

Solution:
We analyze the options, assuming a total of 6 electrons in the 2s and 2p subshells (e.g.,
Carbon's valence shell):

A. Option 1 (↑↓ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑, _ in 2p): Follows Aufbau and Pauli, but violates Hund's rule by
pairing electrons in the first 2p orbital before the other two were filled singly. This is the
correct answer.
B. Option 2 (↑↓ in 2s; ↑, ↑, ↑ in 2p): Follows all rules correctly.
C. Option 3 (↑↑ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑, ↑ in 2p): Violates the Pauli exclusion principle (same spin in 2s).
D. Option 4 (↑ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑↓, _ in 2p): Violates the Aufbau principle (2s is not full before 2p is
filled).

Final Answer: Option (1)

66)

It belongs to 6th period and 3rd group

70)

Ni2+ has 2 unpaired electron

71)

(i)-(t); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(u); (iv)-(q); (v)-(p); (vi)-(r)

72)

73) For n = 4
ℓ = 0, 1, 2, 3 ..... (n – 1)
So highest value of m is +3

75) answer is Mg

76)

Explanation Question:
Match the correct definitions and properties of orbital wave function, nodes, probability
density, and nodal surfaces.
Concept:
This question is based on Wave function, nodes, and probability density describe electron
spatial distribution.
Solution:
(a) The orbital wave function (Ψ) has no direct physical meaning; only |Ψ| 2 has physical
significance.
→(a)→(p)
(b) The total number of nodes in an orbital is given by:
Total nodes = n – 1
→(b)→(q)
(c) For the 1s orbital, the probability density is maximum near the nucleus and decreases
sharply away from it.
→(c)→(r)
(d) Nodal surfaces are regions where the probability density function reduces to zero.
→(d)→(s)
Final Answer: (4)

77)

dxy, dyz, dzx & these 4 orbitals has similar shape but dz2 has different shape.

78)

Explanation Question:
Find the pair of orbitals where electron probability in the xy-plane is zero in both.
Concept:
This question is based on Nodal planes are regions where electron probability density is zero
Solution:
2Pz orbital:
Has its lobes along the z-axis. The xy-plane is a nodal plane → Probability zero in xy-plane.
3Pz orbital:
Same as 2Pz but in higher energy state. The xy-plane remains a nodal plane → Probability zero
in xy-plane.
 Final Answer: (4)

81) Explain Question:

Mna+ has magnetic momentum equal to 4.9 BM then find out value of a.

Concept:
Magnetic momentum.

Solution:
Magnetic momentum = 4.9 BM

n = 4 (unpaired electron)
Mna+ = 152, 252, 2p6, 352, 3p6, 3d4
a=3

Final answer: (3)

84)

Question Explanation : The question asks which quantum number does not arise from
solving Schrodinger’s wave equation.

Concept: Quantum Numbers from Schrodinger’s equation.

Solution: n , l , m obtained by Schrodinger’s wave equation but Spin quantum number ( s )

is not obtained by Schrodinger’s wave equation.

Final answer : Option (4)

88)

According option check it

89)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
2 2 2 2 =8

BIOLOGY

91)

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

92)

Wuchereria - Filaria worm

93)

Multicellular without any tissue organization

94)

A-r, B-p, C-q

95)

NereisNereis

96) Earthwrom

97)

Ctenophora

98)

Platyhelminthes

99)

ANSWER : All

100)

Adult stage of echinodermates

101)

Aschelminthes (roundworms)

102)

Excretion by flame cell

103)

Organ system level of organisation is found in coelentrates

104)

true coelomates

105)

choanocytes

106)

Cellular level of organisation

107)

Explain Question : Identify the first phylum in which a complete digestive tract evolved.
Concept : This question is based on Aschelminthes
Solution : The correct answer is option 3, Ancylostoma is the earliest phylum with a complete
digestive system.
Final answer : 3

108) Euspongia

109) Spongilla

110)

All of these

111)

Explain Question : First phylum to evolve true coelom

Concept : This question is based on Coelom

Solution : A true coelom is a body cavity completely lined by mesoderm and Annelida is the
first phylum in evolution to show a true coelom (schizocoelom).

Final Answer : option (3) Annelida

112)

All of these

113)

Gorgonia – Sea cucumber

114)

Platyhelminthes

115)

Radial symmetry – Sea-fan

116)

Annelida

117)

For Attachment

118)

ANSWER : Taenia

119)

Annelida

120)

Protostomes – Molluscan

121)

Bilateral Symmetry

122)

Pseudocoelomate

123)

Cnidaria

124)

Pseudocoelomate

125)
 Explain Question: The question asks to match four different animals with their correct level of
body organization or division of labor.

Concept: Level of Organisation in animals

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. (i) Pheritima (Earthworm) has an (D) Organ system level of organization.

B. (ii) Fasciola (Liver fluke) has an (A) Organ level of organization.
C. (iii) Spongilla (Sponge) has a (B) Cellular level of organization.
D. (iv) Obelia (Cnidarian) has a (C) Tissue level of organization.

Final answer : 3

126)

Pleurobranchia

127)

Pheretima, Hirudinaria and Nereis

128)

ANSWER : B & D

129)

Question Explanation: Identify the animal in which cells are arranged in two embryonic
layers (ectoderm and endoderm).

Concept: Germ layers - Diploblastic

Solution: The correct answer is option 1 – Hydra.

A. Animals with two embryonic germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm) are called diploblastic
animals. Hydra (phylum Cnidaria) is diploblastic.
B. The other options — Taenia, Ascaris, and Earthworm — are triploblastic (having three germ
layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm).

Final Answer: Option 1

130)

Platyhelminthes

131)

Ectoderm. Mesoderm
 132)

Generally marine and mostly asymmetrical

133)

Porifera, Cnidaria

134)

ANSWER : 4

135)

Ctenophora

136)

ANSWER : 1

137)

Annelida

138)

Echinodermata

139)

Mesodermally, dorsal

140)

Explain Question: Identify the phylum where triploblastic (three germ layers) condition is
present.
Concept: Germ layer- Basis classification of animal
Solution: The correct answer is option 2. Annelida

A. Porifera → No germ layers (cellular level of organization).

B. Coelenterata (Cnidaria) & Ctenophora → Diploblastic (ectoderm + endoderm only).

C. Annelida → Triploblastic (ectoderm + mesoderm + endoderm).

Final Answer: Option 2

141)
Porifera

142)

Obelia - Diploblastic with metagenesis during its life cycle

143)

a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

144)

Explain Question : Identify the animal in which body cavity is not lined by mesoderm but
mesoderm is present as scattered pouches.

Concept : This question is based on Coelom.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 – Ascaris.

A. In Ascaris (a roundworm), the body cavity is a pseudocoelom, which is not completely

lined by mesoderm. Instead, mesoderm occurs as scattered pouches between ectoderm
and endoderm.

B. Sycon (Porifera) and Hydra (Cnidaria) lack a body cavity, Taenia (Platyhelminthes) is
acoelomate.

Final answer : option (3)

145)

PhysaliaPhysalia

146)

Ostia → Spongocoel →Osculum

147)

Spongilla - Cnidoblast

148)

Radial - any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
equal havles
149)

B-Euspongia, Marine

150)

Planaria

151)

Tissue level : Aschelminthes

152)

(a) Diploblastic (b) Triploblastic

153)

Question Explanation: The question asks which animal groups show segmentation
(metamerism).

Concept: Segmentation (metamerism)

Solution: Segmentation or metamerism is a body plan where the body is externally and
internally divided into a series of repeating segments. It is a characteristic feature of:

A. Annelids (e.g., earthworm)

B. Arthropods (e.g., insects)

C. Chordates (e.g., vertebral column and muscles)

Thus, the correct combination is Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata.

Final answer: Option 3

154)

Meandrina - Brain coral

155)

Sea Pen

156)
 Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

157)

Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

158)

Filarial worm & ascaris

159)

If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

160)

Comb plates for locomotion

161)

Reproduction

162)

Metameric segmentation (metamerism)

163)

Explain Question: Identify the organism in which bioluminescence is well marked.

Concept: Ctenophora

Solution:The correct answer is option 3.

Bioluminescence is a characteristic feature of ctenophores, and Pleurobrachia (commonly called sea

gooseberry) shows it prominently.

Final Answer: Option 3

164)

Platyhelminthes

165)

Explain Question: Identify the correct name and phylum of the cell shown in the diagram.
Concept: This question is based on Coelenterata
 Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

A. The diagram shows a cnidoblast cell, which is characteristic of organisms in the phylum
Coelenterata. These cells contain nematocysts—specialized organelles used for stinging,
capturing prey, and defense.

Final answer: 1

166)

Pleurobrachia

167)

Diploblastic

168)

Aschelminthes

169)

Bilaterally symmetrical

170)

They have flat bodies

171)

Body wall

172)

If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

173)

Arthropoda

174) Ascaris

175) Platyhelminthes

176)
Balanoglossus

177)

Presence of proboscis

178) Cockroach

179)

Mollusca animals

180)

If both Assertion & Reason are False.