22-05-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS24 MD

PHYSICS

1) The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4)

2) A wire carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the form of the curve

, The force acting on the wire is :-

(1)

(2) iBLπ
(3) 2iBL
(4) Zero

3) Which of the following statement is false based graphs of y versus x as shown below ?

(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)

(1) slope at x0 is positive in graph (i) and (ii)

(2) slope is constant in graph (iii)
(3) slope at x0 is negative in graph (iv)
(4) slope at x0 is negative in graph (ii)

4) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

5) If only one hundred part of total current flowing in the circuit is to be passed through a
galvanometer of resistance G Ω. Then the value of shunt resistance of galvanometer will be ?

(1) G/10
(2) G/100
(3) G/99
(4) G/999

6) The equivalent resistance between the points P and Q in the network given here is equal to (given

r= )

(1)

(2) 1Ω

(3)
(4) 2Ω

7) In the circuit element given here, if the potential at point B, VB = 0, then the potentials of A and D
are given as

(1) VA = –1.5V, VD = +2V

(2) VA = +1.5V, VD = +2V
(3) VA = +1.5V, VD = +0.5V
(4) VA = +1.5V, VD = –0.5V

8) Two skaters A and B, having masses 50 kg and 70 kg respectively, stand facing each other 6 m
apart on a horizontal smooth surface. They pull on a rope stretched between them. How far does
each move before they meet ?

(1) Both move 3 m

(2) A moves 2.5 m and B moves 3.5 m
(3) A moves 3.5 m and B moves 2.5 m
(4) None of the above

9) Three blocks A, B and C of mass 2 kg, 4 kg and 4 kg respectively are kept on a horizontal
frictionless surface where B and C are attached with a spring and block A is given velocity 4 m/s

towards right. If block A strikes with B inelastically with e = . Find the maximum compression
energy stored in spring in subcequent motion :

(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 16 J

10) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates
of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles, then which of the following
is not correct?

(1) The capacitance decreases

(2) The charge on the capacitor increases
(3) The voltage across the plates increases
(4) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases

11) The capacitance of system is C, if the key K is closed, the charge flown from plate A to B :
(1) 2Q
(2) Q
(3) 3Q

(4)

12) A small body slides over the curved surface of a semicircular cylinder of radius r, kept
horizontally on the ground as shown in the figure. At what height from the ground would the body
lose contact with the surface :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its
centripetal acceleration ac is varying with time t as, ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power
delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it, is:

(1) zero
(2) mk2r2t2
(3) mk2r2t
(4) mk2rt

14) In a coil of resistance 100 Ω, a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is :
(1) 250 Wb
(2) 275 Wb
(3) 200 Wb
(4) 225 Wb

15) A loop, made of straight edges has four corners at A (L, L, O), B(–L, L, O), C(–L, –L, O), D(L, –L,
O). A magnetic field = B0 T is present in the region. The magnetic flux passing through the
loop ABCD is :-

2
(1) B0L Wb
(2) B0L2 Wb
(3) B0L2 Wb
2
(4) 4 B0L Wb

16) A point charge q is surrounded by six identical charges at distance r shown in the figure. How
much work is done by the force of electrostatic repulsion, when the point charge at the centre is

removed to infinity ?

(1) 6q/4πε0r
(2) 6q /4πε0r
2

(3) 36q /4πε0r

2

(4) Zero

17) Statement 1 : A point charge q is placed at centre of spherical cavity inside a spherical
conductor as shown. Another point Charge Q is placed outside the conductor as shown. Now as the
point charge Q is pushed away from conductor, the electric field at point A within the cavity of
sphere remains constant.

Statement 2 ​ : The electric field due to charges on outer surface of conductor and outside the
conductor is zero at all points inside the conductor :-
(1) Statement 1 true , statement 2 true
(2) Statement 1 true , statement 2 false
(3) Statement 1 false , statement 2 false
(4) Statement 1 false , statement 2 true

18) Three very large plates are given charges as shown in the figure. If cross-sectional area of each
plate is same, the final charge distribution on plate C is :-

(1) +5Q on the inner surface, + 5Q on the outer surface

(2) +6Q on the inner surface, +4Q on the outer surface
(3) +7Q on the inner surface, +9Q on the outer surface
(4) +8Q on the inner surface, +2Q on the outer surface

19) Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown
in figure. The unloaded length of the steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass is 1.0 m. Young's modulus
of steel is 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2 and that of brass is 1.0 × 1011 Nm–2. The ratio of elongations of steel and

brass wires :-

(1) 1.25
(2) 1.5
(3) 2.0
(4) 0.5

20) The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If it is subjected to uniform pressure 'p', the
fractional decrease in radius is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21) A equiconvex glass lens has a focal length f and power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by
a plane normal to the principal axis as shown in fig. (i). The two pieces are recombined as shown in
fig. (ii). Then the power of the combination is-

(1) P

(2)

(3) 2P
(4) Zero

22) If the radius of earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to
gravity on the earth's surface would :

(1) increase by 1%
(2) increase by 2%
(3) decrease by 2%
(4) decrease by 1%

23) Gravitational potential energy of satellite revolving in certain orbit is –E0 Then work done in
increasing its orbital radius to twice of the initial is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The cyclic process from a circle on a PV diagram as shown in figure, the work done by the gas is:
(1) (P2 – P1)2

(2) (V2 – V1)2

(3) (P2 – P1)(V2 – V1)

(4) (P2 – P1)(V2 – V1)

25) A solid material is supplied with heat at a constant rate. The temperature of material is changing
with heat input as shown in the figure. What does the slope of DE represent?

(1) latent heat of liquid

(2) latent heat of vaporization
(3) heat capacity of vapour
(4) inverse of heat capacity of vapour

26) A system consists of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 kept at temperatures T1 and T2
respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in substance between the two concentric spheres is
proportional to :

(1)

(2) r2 – r1

(3)

(4)

27) A ball A has twice the diameter as another ball B of the same material and with same surface
finish. A and B are both heated to the same temperature and allowed to cool radiatively; then

(1) rate of cooling of A is same as that of B

(2) rate of cooling of A is twice that of B
(3) rate of cooling of A is half that of B
(4) rate of cooling of A is four times that of B

28) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of
the particle at time t is given by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Assertion :- A small current carrying coil, in equilibrium, is perpendicular to the direction of the
uniform magnetic field.
Reason :- Torque is maximum when plane of coil and direction of the magnetic field are parallel to
each other.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

30) Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic moment M, are placed a distance of 2d
apart with axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point
midway between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If the K.E of a particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage change in the de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle is :-

(1) 25
(2) 75
(3) 60
(4) 50

32) AB is a string whose one end A is fixed at the highest point of a ring placed in vertical plane. C is
the centre of the ring. At other end B of the string, is attached a bead of mass m, which can slide
along the ring. If the bead is in equilibrium at B & string is taut then the tenson in the string is
(1) mgsin2θ
(2) mgcosθ
(3) 2mgcosθ
(4) none of these

33) System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. The spring and string are massless Now the

string is cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m just after the string is cut will be :-

(1) g/2 upwards , g downwards

(2) g upwards, g/ 2 downwards
(3) g upwards , 2g downwards
(4) 2g upwards , g downwards

34) A force F is applied to a block of mass kg as shown in the diagram. The maximum value of F

so that the block does not move is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) N
(4) N

35) A circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity ω.
Identical pieces of wax of mass m are dropped to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring gently.
The ring now rotates with an angular velocity :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36) A slender uniform rod of mass M and length ℓ is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a
vertical plane (see figure). There is negligible friction at the pivot. The free end is held vertically
above the pivot and then released. The angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle θ

with the vertical is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Assertion :- In the following circuit the potential drop across the resistance is zero.

Reason :- The given resistance has low value.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

38) The combination of gates shown below produces

(1) AND gate

(2) XOR gate
(3) NOR gate
(4) NAND gate

39) A particle of mass m is attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant k as
shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and released, then
the time period of oscillation is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A particle moves in the X-Y plane according to the equation . The motion of
the particle is :-

(1) on a straight line

(2) simple harmonic
(3) periodic
(4) All of these

41) What is the diameter of sphere shown in figure. Pitch of screwgauge is 1 mm and number of

divisions in circular scale are 50 :-

(1) 1.238 cm
(2) 1.218 cm
(3) 1.228 cm
(4) 1.215 cm

42) A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2
respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating
in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) A string is under tension so that its length is increased by times its original length. The ratio of
fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibration and transverse vibrations will be :-

(1) 1 : n
(2) n2 : 1
(3)
(4) n : 1

44) Two point sources separated by d = 5 µm emit light of wavelength λ = 2µm in phase. A circular

wire of radius 20 µm is placed around the source as shown in figure :-

(1) Point A and B are dark and points C and D are bright
(2) Point A and B are bright and point C and D are dark
(3) Point A and C are dark and points B and D are bright
(4) Points A and C are bright and points B and D are dark

45) A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such
that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60° with respect to the preceding one. The
fraction of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is :-

(1) 1/64
(2) 1/32
(3) 1/256
(4) 1/512

CHEMISTRY

1) To avoids bends as well as the toxic effect of high concentration of nitrogen in blood the tank used
by Scuba divers are filled with air contains

(1) 11.7% He, 56.2% O2, 32.1% N2

(2) 56.2% O2, 11.7% N2, 32.1% He
(3) 11.7% He, 32.1% O2, 56.2% N2
(4) 11.7% O2, 56.2% He, 32.1 N2

2) E.M.F. of cell Ni |Ni2+ (1.0M)| |Au3+(1.0M)| Au is .... if E° for Ni2+/Ni is –0.25 V and E° for Au3+/Au
is 1.50 V :-

(1) +1.25 V
(2) –1.75 V
(3) +1.75 V
(4) +4.0 V

3) Resistance of 0.01 N CaCl2 solution is 210 ohm at 298 K with cell constant 0.84 cm–1. Match the
column.

Column-I Column-II

Conductance
(i) (a) 4×10–3
(ohm–1)

Specific conductance
(ii) (b) 400
(ohm–1cm–1)

Molar conductance
(iii) (c) 800
(ohm–1cm2mol–1)

Equivalent conductance
(iv) (d)
(ohm–1cm2 eq–1)
(1) (i)→a, (ii)→b, (iii)→c, (iv)→d
(2) (i)→d, (ii)→a, (iii)→c, (iv)→b
(3) (i)→d, (ii)→a, (iii)→b, (iv)→c
(4) (i)→d, (ii)→c, (iii)→a, (iv)→b

4) What is the ratio of Al, Cu and Na when 3F current is pass through different electrolytic solution
ofmolten Al2O3 ; aqueous CuSO4 and molten NaCl ?

(1) 3 : 4 : 6
(2) 2 : 1 : 6
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3 : 6

5) The vapour pressure of benzene and toluene in pure state are 42 mm and 36 mm respectively. A
solution contains benzene and toluene in the molar ratio of 1 : 2. The mole fraction of benzene in
vapour phase is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) For the reaction xA + yB → zC

then x, y and z are respectively :-

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 3, 2, 3
(3) 3, 3, 2
(4) 2, 2, 3

7) For a 1st order reaction, slope of ln k vs graph is –4000 then activation energy in kcal/mol is :

(1) 8000
(2) 8
(3) 33.2
(4) 800

8) Equilibrium concentration of B if initial moles of 'A', ‘B' and 'C' are 8, 16 and 16 respectively in 1
litre container, is :
Given :
A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ C(g) ; Kc = 109 M–3

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 × 103 M
(4) 2 × 10–3M

9) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.25 M HA solution?(Ka = 4 × 10–8)

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–4

10) What will be the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 800 mL of 0.05 N NaOH & 200 mL of 0.1 N
HCl.

(1) 7
(2) 12.3
(3) 8.2
(4) 6.93
11) The pka of acetic acid and pkb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate
pH of ammonium acetate solution :-

(1) 2
(2) 7.005
(3) 6.995
(4) 12

12)

The maximum work done in expanding 16 g oxygen at 300K and occupying a volume of 5 dm3
isothermally and reversibly until the volume become 25 dm3 is:

(1) – 2.0 x 103 J

(2) + 2.81 x 103 J
(3) – 2.0 x 10–3 J
(4) + 2.01 x 10–6 J

13) The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given by the equations

what is the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction

3C(s) + Cr2O3(s) → 2Cr(s) + 3CO(g)

(1) –1460 kJ
(2) 800 kJ
(3) –800 kJ
(4) –500 kJ

14) Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction, H2 + F2 → 2HF given that:
Bond energy of H–H bond = 434 kJ/mol
Bond energy of F–F bond = 158 kJ/mol
Bond energy of H–F bond = 565 kJ/mol

(1) 538 kJ
(2) –538 kJ
(3) 27 kJ
(4) –27

15)

Find out ratio of following for photon

(νmax.)Lyman : (νmax)Brakett

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

16) For an electron, with n = 3 has only one radial node. The orbital angular momentum of the
electron will be :

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

17)

When 1 mole of glucose is completely burnt then find out produced volume of CO2 at STP

(1) 44.8 L
(2) 67.2 L
(3) 134.4 L
(4) 89.6 L

18) Oxymercuration-demercuration reaction of 1-methylcyclohexene gives

(1) Trans-2-methyl cyclohexanol

(2) Cis-2-methyl cyclohexanol
(3) 1-methyl cyclohexanol
(4) Mixture of cis- and trans-2-methylcyclohexanol

19)

Phenol reacts with bromine in at low temperature to give

(1) m - bromophenol
(2) o - and p-bromophenol
(3) p-bromophenol
(4) 2,4,6-tribromophenol

20) Write IUPAC name of C6H5 – O – CH2CH3

(1) Anisole
(2) Ethyl phenyl ether
(3) Ethoxy benzene
(4) Methyl phenyl ether

21) Which reaction is related to Williamson ether synthesis ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Identify D :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Consider the reaction :

CH3–CH2–CH2–Br + KCN
CH3–CH2–CH2–CN + KBr
This reaction will be fastest in :-

(1) Ethanol
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Dimethyl formamide (DMF)
(4) Water

24) How many compounds can show haloform reaction:-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

25) ; Product (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) CH3COOH x
Identify x

(1) CH3COCH3
(2) CH3CHO
(3) (CH3CO)2O
(4) CH4

27) Which of the following cannot show positive carbyl amine test?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) CH3 – NH – CH3

28)

Which is Sandmeyer reaction in the following :

(1)
C6H5N2Cl C6 H 5 F
(2) C6H5N2Cl C6H5Cl

(3) C6H5N2Cl C6H5Cl

(4) C6H5N2Cl C6H5Cl

29) N-Glycosidic bond is found in :-

(1) Glycogen
(2) Cellulose
(3) Starch
(4) DNA

30) The sugar present in milk is :-

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Lactose

31)
A and B are geometrical isomers (R–CH=CH–R)

(1) A - cis, B - trans

(2) A - trans, B - cis
(3) Both A and B are trans
(4) Both A and B are cis

32) Toluene is an aromatization product of

(1) n-hexane
(2) n-heptane
(3) n-octane
(4) Isooctane

33) Which of the following reactions of methane is incomplete combustion :-

(1) 2CH4 + O2 2CH3OH

CH4 + O2
(2)

(3) CH4 + O2

CH4 + 2O2
(4)

34) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) No of 5 membered ring in [(Ca(EDTA)]2– is :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

36) Which is correct for emerald ?

+3
(1) Cr ions occupy octahedral sites in Al2O3
(2) Cr+3 ions occupy octahedral sites in Mineral Beryl
(3) Co+3 ions occupy octahedral sites in Mineral Beryl
(4) All are incorrect

37) Which of the following pair of ions has same value of "spin-only" magnetic moment

(1) Cu+, Cu2+

(2) Co3+, Fe2+
(3) Ti2+, V2+
(4) Sc2+, Zn+2

38) In aqueus solution Eu+2 acts as :

(1) an oxidising agent

(2) reducing agent
(3) can act as redox agent
(4) None of these

39) Which of the following processes involves increasing in bond order?

(1)
(2) CO + e¯ → CO¯
(3) NO → NO+ + e¯
O2 + e¯ →
(4)

40) Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs NF3, , BF3, , HN3

(1) [NF3, ] and [BF3, ]

(2) [NF3, HN3] and [ , BF3]
(3) [NF3, ] and [ , BF3]
(4) [NF3, ] and [HN3, BF3]

41) The correct decreasing order of reducing character for the following :
NH3, PH3, ASH3, SbH3, BiH3

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(2) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(3) BiH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > BiH3 > SbH3

42) Element of atomic no. 55 belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

43) When salt 'A' reacts with acidified K2Cr2O7 it gives orange red gas 'B' which is passed to NaOH
solution and gives yellow soluble compound 'C'. Yellow ppt 'D' is obtained on adding lead acetate
solution to 'C' . 'A' gives brick red colour in flame test. A, B, C and D are respectively.

(1) CaSO4, CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7, PbCr2O7

(2) BaCl2, CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4, PbCrO4
(3) CaCl2, CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4, PbCrO4
(4) BaSO4, CrO2Cl2, CaCrO4, PbCrO4

44) Which of the following complex ion shows d2sp3 hybridisation ?

3–
(1) [FeF6]
3–
(2) [CoF6]
2+
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

45) A salt gives violet vapours when treated with concentrated H2SO4, it contains

(1) Cl¯
(2) I¯
(3) Br¯
(4)

BOTANY

1) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Nucleoplasm
(4) Ribosomes

2) The perinuclear space is about

(1) 1–5 nm
(2) 5–10 nm
(3) 10–50 nm
(4) > 100 nm

3) Match the following scientists with their discovery and research year-

Column-I Column-II
 (a) 1838 i Matthias Schleiden

(b) 1839 ii Theodore Schwann

(c) 1954 iii Rudolf Virchow

(d) 1855 iv G. N. Ramachandran

(1) (a)- iii, (b)- iv, (c)- ii, (d)- i
(2) (a)- i, (b)- ii, (c)- iv, (d)- iii
(3) (a)- ii, (b)- iv, (c)- iii, (d)- i
(4) (a)- i, (b)- iv, (c)- iii, (d)- ii

4) If the number of chromosomes is 24 in meiocytes then number of bivalents in metaphase 1 will be:

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 6

5) Arrange the following events of mitosis in correct order of their occurance and select the correct
option from options given below:
a. Centromere division
b. Movement of centriole towards opposite poles
c. Chromosome align on equator
d. Reformation of nuclear membrane and nucleolus

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, a, d
(3) c, a, b, d
(4) c, b, d, a

6) A loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres can be observed in :-

(1) Late prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Interphase nucleus

7) Which one of the floral formula is correct for given floral diagram ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) How many plants among Chian rose, Sunflower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium
(Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

9) Cladode is the modification of

(1) Whole stem

(2) Axillary bud
(3) Leaf
(4) Leaflets

10)

Region of
Region of Region of
Meristematic
elongation maturation
growth
(1) A D B
(2) B C A
(3) C A D
(4) D B C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) What type of symmetry is found in solanum ?

(1) Zygomorphic
(2) Asymmetric
(3) Actinomorphic
(4) 1 and 2

12) In plants, lateral roots arise from

(1) endodermis
(2) epidermis
(3) pericycle
(4) hypodermis

13) A vascular bundle in which a group of xylem and a group of phloem are on the same radius with
xylem near the pith and phloem near the cortex and the both are not separated by the cambium,
called as :-

(1) Radial
(2) Conjoint, collateral and open
(3) Conjoint, collateral and closed
(4) Concentric

14) Heterogenous pericycle is found in :-

(1) Cucurbita stem

(2) Sunflower stem
(3) Cicer stem
(4) All of these

15) Choose the correct option for identification of A to D in the given diagram.

A – Hypodermis, B – xylem, C – Phloem,

(1)
D – Ground tissue
A – Hypodermis, B – Phloem, C – xylem,
(2)
D – Ground tissue
(3) A – Epidermis, B – Hypodermis, C – xylem, D – Ground tissue
A – Epidermis, B – xylem, C – Phloem,
(4)
D – Ground tissue

16) Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the genetic code is
(1) overlapping
(2) wobbling
(3) degenerate
(4) generate

17) After the formation of a replication bubble, which of the following is the correct sequence of
enzymes used for the synthesis of the lagging DNA strand?

(1) primase, helicase, DNA polymerase, ligase

(2) helicase, DNA polymerase, primase, ligase
(3) helicase, primase, DNA polymerase, ligase
(4) ligase, primase, DNA polymerase, helicase

18) Which of the following feature is represented by chemically less reactive and structurally more
stable nucleic acid.

(1) Presence of 5-methyl uracil

(2) Catalytic nature
(3) Scope for rapid mutation
(4) Direct involvement in protein synthesis

19) Which of the following feature is not related to Double helix structure of DNA?

(1) back bone is constituted by sugar phosphate

(2) two chains have anti parallel polarity
(3) the ratio between adenine and guanine is constant and equals one
(4) two chains are coiled in a left hunded fashion in Z-DNA

20) All of the following would be found in prokaryotic cell except :-

(1) m RNA
(2) rRNA
(3) Translation
(4) RNA polymerase I, II & III

21) The following is a list of events in synthesis of protein from a DNA template.
i. mRNA attaches to the ribosome.
ii. The amino acid is attached to the growing polypeptide by a peptide bond.
iii. mRNA migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
iv. An aminoacyl tRNA binds to its specific codon on mRNA.
v. mRNA is transcribed from its DNA template.
Identify the correct sequence from the following options.

(1) v – iii – i – iv – ii
(2) v – ii – i – iii – iv
(3) v – iii – iv – ii – i
(4) v – iii – ii – iv – i

22) Which of the following is not true of RNA processing ?

(1) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus
(2) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of RNA
(3) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing
(4) RNA splicing can be catalysed by spliceosomes

23) Assertion (A) :- Transcription and translation are coupled in prokaryotes.

Reason (R) :- Prokaryotes lack well defined nucleus.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

24) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option-
A. The ovule is attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called filament.
B. The ovule fuses with the stalk in the region called hilum.
C. The two protective envelopes of ovule are called integuments.
D. The small opening in the tip of ovule is called germ pore.

(1) A and D are correct

(2) A and C are correct
(3) B and D are correct
(4) B and C are correct

25) Consider the following statements regarding alleles-

i. Alleles are different forms of a gene
ii. Alleles occupy some locus on homologous chromosome.
iii. Allele is a variant of the sequence of nucleotides at a particular locus on a DNA molecules.
How many statements is or are wrong?

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

26) In the case of starch synthesis in pea seed BB homozygotes produce large and round starch
grain bb homozygotes produce smaller and wrinkled starch grains and heterozygotes produce round
seed of intermediate size. What can be inferred from this observation?

(1) The gene B mutates at a faster rate.

(2) The gene B is easily influenced by the environment.
(3) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for
(4) Some genes do not follow the law of segregation
27) Chromosomal theory of inheritance is the united form of

(1) Mendelian principles and cell division

(2) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Boveri principles
(3) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Mendelian principles
(4) Knowledge of chromosomal assortment and chromosomal segregation

28) Given pedigree show inheritance of autosomal dominant disorder (Myotonic dystrophy) then.

What will be genotype of shaded symbol :

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

29) Organisms which breed only once in their life is :-

(1) Pacific Salmon fish

(2) Pacific Tuna fish
(3) Pacific Shark
(4) Pacific Oysters

30) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime, while others breed many times
Some organisms produce a large number of small-sized offspring, while others produce a small
(2)
number of large-sized offspring
(3) All organisms within a species have the same reproductive strategy to maximize fitness
A population growing in a habitat with limited resources show initially a lag phase, followed by
(4)
phases of acceleration and deceleration

31) Which of the curve do not represent effect of environmental resistant on population in the graph

of population density vs time :

(1) Curve-a
(2) Both curve-a and b
(3) Curve-b
(4) Both curve -a and b are affected by environmental resistant

32) _____ is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers)

(1) GPP
(2) NPP
(3) NCP
(4) SP

33) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is
called is-

(1) Catabolism
(2) Leaching
(3) Fragmentation
(4) Humification

34) Find the incorrect statement.

(1) In terrestrial ecosystem larger fraction of energy flow occurs through DFC.
(2) In aquatic ecosystem a major conduit for energy flow is GFC.
(3) Detritus food chain is not at all connected with grazing food chain at any level.
(4) Natural interconnection of food chain makes it a food web.

35) Endemism is related with, which of the following in-situ strategy :

(1) Zoological parks

(2) National parks
(3) Wild life sanctuaries
(4) Hot spots

36) Identify A, B and C in the following representation of global biodiversity of invertebrates :

A B C
Other animal
(1) Molluscs Crustacean
group
Other animal
(2) Molluscs Crustacean
group
Other animal
(3) Crustacean Molluscs
group
 Other animal
(4) Crustacean Molluscs
group
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following statements with respect to photosynthesis is/are correct?
(a) PEP is the primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants
(b) Five carbons are present in the primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants
(c) C3 cycle occurs in all photosynthetic plants

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) only
(4) All are correct

38) Photosystem II

(1) Is associated with oxygen evolving complex

(2) Participates in cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Has P700 as reaction center
(4) Is not involved in the light reaction of photosynthesis that produces NADPH

39) Variegated leaf experiment proves that ........ is essential for photosynthesis :-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Soil

40) Select the correct labelling–

(1) A – Reduction, B– Oxidation

(2) A–Oxidation, B – Oxidation
(3) A & B both oxidation
(4) A & B both reduction

41) Assertion: The presence of oxygen is vital for Aerobic respiration.

Reason: It derives the whole process by removing hydrogen from the system.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

42) What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

(1) More than 18%

(2) About 10%
(3) Less than 7%
(4) Approximately 15%

43) The given figure shows the comparison of growth rate of two leaves (A and B) over the period of
one day. Both the leaves A and B have increased their area in a given time to produce and
leaves respectively. If AGR = absolute growth rate and RGR = relative growth rate, then select the

correct option.

A-Leaf B-Leaf

AGR RGR AGR RGR

1 1% 1 2% 2

2 100 % 5 10 % 5

3 5 100 % 5 10 %

4 0.5 100 % 1.5 100 %

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
44) How many of the following plants have presence of dimorphic chloroplasts in their leaves
Wheat, Maize, Tomato, Sorghum, Bell pepper, Sugarcane

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five

45) How many of the following structure in angiosperm plant have haploid set of chromosomes in
cell ?
Microspore, generative cell, synergid, nucellus, integument, antipodal cell, archesporial cell,
endosperm, zygote, vegetative cell of pollen

(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Five
(4) Three

ZOOLOGY

1) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

a Anal cerci (1) 7th in females

Boat-shaped
b (2) 9th segment in males
sternum

c Anal styles (3) 10th segment

Genital Bounded by 9th and

d (4)
pouch 10th terga in males
Select the correct option
a b c d

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 1 4 3 2

(D) 3 1 2 4
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

2) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

3) Find out the correct statement

(A) Gluconeogenesis & lipolysis are stimulated by glucocorticoids of adrenal gland.
(B) In diabetes insipidus patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
(C) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is secreted which causes dialation of blood vessels to
increase B.P.
(D) Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

(1) A, C
(2) B, C
(3) A, D
(4) B, D

4) Along with the hypothalamus limbic system is involded in:

(a) Motivation
(b) Sexual behaviour
(c) Expression of emotions (Excitement, pleasure, rage and fear)
(d) Respiration

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, c and d

5)

From the following animal and character, mark the correct option
(a) Tapeworm – dorsoventrally flat
(b) Planaria – low regeneration capacity
(c) Ascaris – Triploblastic, acoelomate
(d) Nereis – an aquatic form , dioecious

(1) a–correct, b–incorrect, c–incorrect, d–correct

(2) a–correct , b–incorrect, c–incorrect, d–incorrect
(3) a–correct , b–incorrect, c–correct, d–incorrect
(4) a–incorrect, b–incorrect, c–incorrect, d–correct

6) In which one of the following all four animals of a set give birth to young ones ?

(1) Kangaroo, Cat, Dolphin, Dog

(2) Lion, Whale, Ostrich, Bat
(3) Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus, Platypus
(4) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Nereis

7) Given below the diagram of internal organs of frog. Identify A to F

 A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Testis,
(1)
D–Kidney, E–Urethra, F–Urinary bladder
A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Fat bodies,
(2)
D–Kidney, E–Rectum, F–Urinary bladder
A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Ovary,
(3)
D–Kidney, E–Ileum, F–Urinary bladder
A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Fat bodies,
(4)
D–Kidney, E–Colon, F–Urinary bladder

8) Match List-I and List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Protein (i) C = double bond

Unsaturated Phosphodiester
(B) (ii)
fatty acid bond

(C) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bond

(D) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bond

A B C D

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) i iv iii ii

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which of the following is the diagrammatic representation of phospholipid lecithin?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Identify the number of compounds from the box given below which form a part of acid soluble
fraction.

Monosaccharides, Lipids, Amino acids, Polysaccharides

Choose the correct option.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11) Match column I (category) with column II (secondary metabolites) and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary metabolites)
 A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A

B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Codeine

D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

12) Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes ?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor
(3) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Cofactor
(4) 1 & 2 both

13) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of :-

(1) Irreversible inhibition

(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Competitive inhibition
(4) Feed back inhibition

14) Which hormone primarily regulates basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

(1) Calcitonin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Insulin

15) A primary spermatocyte completes meiosis-I resulting in the formation of _____(A)_____haploid

cells called ____(B)______.The secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis-II to produce ____(C)____
haploid cells called _____(D)____.

(1) A-Two unequal, B-Secondary spermatocytes,C-Four equal, D- Spermatids,

(2) A-Two equal, B-Secondary spermatocytes, C-Four equal, D-Spermatids,
(3) A-Two equal, B-Spermatids, C-Four equal,D-Secondary spermatocytes,
(4) A-Two equal,B-Spermatids, C-Four unequal, D-Secondary spermatocytes

16) Assertion (A): During joint diastole, both atria and ventricles are in relaxed state.
Reason (R): During this phase, blood flows passively into the the left and the right ventricle
respectively through the left and right atria.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A
(3) A correct, R incorrect
(4) A incorrect, R correct

17) The ‘renin’ which plays a complex regulatory role in kidney functioning is released from:

(1) Liver
(2) Adrenal Cortex
(3) Adrenal medulla
(4) JG cells

18) Which of the following organisms are uricotelic?

A. Reptiles
B. Birds
C. Insects
D. Land snails

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) All of these

19) Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II:

Column-I Column-II

Crystallised
(a) Podocytes (i)
oxalates

(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids

(c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxsus

(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits

Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

20)

Which of the following is not correct regarding to neurons ?

(1) Neurons can detect, receive and transmit different type of stimules.
(2) In hydra network of neurons can be found
(3) Vertebrates have less developed neural system.
(4) Neurons are highly specialised cells.

21) Which of the following area of brain is associated with intersersory association, memory &
communication ?

(1) Motor area

(2) Sensory area
(3) Association area
(4) Corpus callosum

22) Mark the incorrect match–

(1) Saddle joint – Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(2) Ball and Socket joint – Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(3) Gliding joint – Between carpals
Cartilagenous joint – Between prezygapophyses and post zypapophyses of two adjacent
(4)
vertebrae

23) Read the following statements :-

(I) ATP has important role in deattachment of actin head from myosin.
(II) In smooth muscle fibre, myofibrils are not placed in a ordered pattern.
(III) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is more extensive in white muscle fibres.
(IV) After maximum muscle contraction H-zone disappears and length of I-band remains unchanged.
(V) First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, ventrally connected to sternum with the help of
elastic cartilage.
Choose the wrong statements only ?

(1) Statement – IV only

(2) Statements – IV and V only
(3) Statements – III, IV and V
(4) Statements – I, IV and V

24) Trachea divides at the level of

(1) 2nd thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th cervical vertebra
(4) 4th cervical vertebra

25) Conducting part of the respiratory system comprises

(1) External nostrils upto the terminal bronchioles

(2) Internal nostrils upto trachea
(3) Epiglottis upto trachea
(4) Larynx upto bronchi

26) Arrange embryonic development :

a. Blastocyst b. Zygote
c. Morula d. Implantation
(1) b-c-a-d
(2) d-a-c-b
(3) a-b-d-c
(4) c-b-a-d

27) Which of them is not a correct match?

(1) Proliferative phase - Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(2) Secretory phase - Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone
(3) Menstruation - Breakdown of endometrium
(4) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level and cause rupture of Graafian follicle

28) Which statement is correct regarding accessory ducts of male?

(1) Epididymis located along anterior surface of each testis

(2) Epididymis ascends to abdomen and loops over urinary bladder
(3) These duct store and transport sperm from testis to outside through urethra
(4) Seminiferous tubules directly opens into vas deferens

29) MTPs are not meant for

(1) Female foeticide

(2) Removing unsustainable pregancies
(3) Where pregnancy can be harmful oreven fatal to the mother or to the foctus or both
(4) Unwanted pregnancy

30) How many complications given in the box bellow occur due to veneral disease ?

Still birth, infertility, A bortion, Ectopic pregenancies

Choose the correct one
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) The story of evolution of modern man is most interesting and appears to ________ of human brain
and language.
Find the option which fills blank correctly.

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Mega evolution
(4) Macro–evolution

32) When two organisms undergo evolution independently leading to the production of analogous
structure which do not indicate any ancestral relationship then the type of evolution is said to be :
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Progressive evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

33)
Assertion (A): Common ancestor of ferns, conifers and seed ferns is Psilophyton.
Reason (R): The common ancestor of psilophyton and seed fern is chlorophyte.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

34) Following is the digrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection on different
traits.
Which of the following options correctly identifies all the three graphs A, B and C?

(1) A = Directional, B = Stabilising, C = Disruptive

(2) A = Stabilising, B = Directional, C = Disruptive
(3) A = Disruptive, B = Stabilising, C = Directional
(4) A = Directional, B = Disruptive, C = Stabilising

35) Identify the correct immune response to an antigen X in a healthy person:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Transplantation of tissues/organ to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such
tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) Auto - immune response

(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Cell-mediated immune response

37) Match Column –I with Column–II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I Column-II
(a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
(b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
(c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

Codes :-
a b c d

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Match different organisms in column-I with their uses in column-II and select the correct answer
from codes given below.
 Column-I Column-II
Lactobacilus
(A) (i) Formation of dough
acidophilus
Saccharomyces
(B) (ii) Single cell proteins
cerevisiae
Propionibacterium
(C) (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
sharmanii
(D) Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

39) Which is used for the introduction of alien DNA into the animal cell ?

(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens

(2) Retroviruses
(3) Biolistics
(4) Electroporation

40)
If the alien DNA is ligated at the Pvu-I site of ampicillin resistance gene in the given vector then
gene which get inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA helps in the selection of :-

(1) Transformants
(2) Recombinants
(3) Non-transformants
(4) Both (2) and (3)

41) Match List-I with List-II:-

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

42) RNA interference which is employed in making tobacco plant resistant to Meloidogyne incognita
is essentially involved in preventing the process of -

(1) Translation of mRNA

(2) Transcription
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Splicing of hnRNA

43) A correct pair of characteristics of molecular probe is —

A. Very long molecule
B. Double stranded
C. Single stranded DNA or RNA
D. Complementary to part of desired gene

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

44) From the techniques given below :

I. r-DNA technology
II. PCR
III. ELISA
IV. Conventional method of diagnosis (serum, urine analysis, etc)
How many techniques serve the purpose of early diagnosis?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
45) GM plants, whose genes have been altered by manipulation, are useful in many ways. Match
column-I (Genetic modification) to column-II (example) and choose the correct option.

(1) I-iii, II-iv, III–i, IV–ii

(2) I–ii, II–iv, III–iii, IV–i
(3) I–ii, II–iv, III–i, IV–iii
(4) I–iii, II–iv, III–ii, IV–i
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 1 4 2 1 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 1 4 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 3 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 3 3 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 3 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 3 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

0
V = V for 0 ≤ t ≤

V = 0 for ≤t≤T

Vrms =

= Vrms =

2)

2iBL

3) Question Explanation:
Identify the false statement concerning the slope of y versus x graphs at a specific point x0.
Concept:
Geometric interpretation of derivatives as the slope of a tangent line. Solution:

The slope of a graph at any point is determined by the tangent line at that
point. Positive Slope: The graph rises as x increases (acute angle with the positive x-axis).
Negative Slope: The graph falls as x increases (obtuse angle with the positive x-axis).
Zero/Constant Slope: The graph is a horizontal straight line. Analysis of Graphs: Graph (i):
The curve is increasing at x0. The slope is positive. Graph (ii): The curve is increasing at x0. The
slope is positive. Graph (iii): The graph is a horizontal straight line. The slope is zero and
constant everywhere. Graph (iv): The curve is decreasing at x0. The slope is negative.
Evaluating Options: Option 1: "slope at x0 is positive in graph (i) and (ii)" — This is true.
Option 2: "slope is constant in graph (iii)" — This is true. Option 3: "slope at x0 is negative in
graph (iv)" — This is true. Option 4: "slope at x0 is negative in graph (ii)" — This is false, as the
slope is clearly positive. Final Answer:
Option (4)
4)
From A to B : θ is acute and decreases, so slope (tan θ) will decreases.
From B to C : θ is obtuse and increases
but magnitude will be positive.
So, B to C magnitude will increases.

5) igRg = (i–ig) × s

ig × G = ×s

s = G/99

6) The given circuit be simplifies as follows

7) Potential difference between A and B

VA – VB = 1 × 1.5
Þ VA – 0 = 1.5V ⇒ VA = 1.5V
Potential difference between B and C
VB –VC = 1×2.5 = 2.5 V
⇒ 0–VC = 2.5V ⇒VC = –2.5V
Potential difference between C and D
VC – VD = –2V ⇒ –2.5–VD = –2 ⇒ VD= –0.5V.

8)

A moves 3.5 m and B moves 2.5 m

9)

4J

10) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is,

C=
When a parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is disconnected and
distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased then,

(1) Capacitance decreases as C ∝

(2) Charge on the capacitor remains constant
(3) Potential difference (voltage across the plates) increases as Q = CV and for constant
Q,

V∝
(4) Electrostatic energy stored on the capacitor increases

As U = QV and for constant Q, U ∝ V

Hence, statement (2) is not correct

11)

⇒ Charge flow =

12) Let at A the block loose contant

∴ N=0

mg cos θ – N =
 mg cos θ =
or = rg cos θ

or mgr = mgh + mrg cos θ

r=h+

13) aC = k2.r.t2

V = krt
at = kr
Ft = mat
Ft = mkr
P = Ft×V = (mkr) (krt) = mk2×r2×t

14)

250 Wb

15) Area of given loop

= 4L2
= B0 T
Now ϕ = = 4B0L2 Wb

16) W = Ui – Uf = 6

17)

Statement 1 true , statement 2 true

18)
Qnet = 2Q – 4Q + 10Q

19) Δℓ = ,

= 1.25

20) , ⇒ (ΔP = P)

21)

22)

23) Initial energy : ...(1)

Final energy :

⇒ ...(2)
Work done W = E2 – E1

24) (P2 – P1)(V2 – V1)

25)

inverse of heat capacity of vapour

26)

27)

rate of cooling of A is half that of B

28)

x = αt3 ⇒ Vx = 3αt2
y = βt3 ⇒ Vy = 3βt2
v= ​

29) Explain Question:

A small current-carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The assertion states its
equilibrium orientation, and the reason states the condition for maximum torque.

Concept:
Torque on a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field.

Solution:
For a current-carrying coil, torque T = m B sinθ, where is the angle between magnetic moment
and magnetic field.
In equilibrium, torque must be zero, which occurs when θ = θ°, i. e., magnetic moment is
parallel to B, hence the plane of the coil is perpendicular to B → Assertion is true.
Torque is maximum when θ = 90°, i. e., when the plane of the coil is parallel to B→ Reason is
true.
However, maximum torque condition does not explain equilibrium position.

Final answer: Option (1)

30) At point P net magnetic field

where and

31)
As Ex → 16 Ek
 ∴ λ →

32)
Using sin law,

=
⇒ T = 2mgcosθ

33)

g/2 upwards , g downwards

34)

20 N

35) According to law of conservation of angular momentum,

I1w1 = I2ω2
I1 = moment of inertia of the ring = MR2
I2 = moment of inertia of the ring and masses
= MR2 + mR2 + mR2 = (M + 2m)R2

(∴ ω1 = ω)

36)

37) Potential difference across the resistance is zero, because diode is in reverse biasing hence
no current flows.

38) Hence option (4) is correct

 39)

40) = (A cos wt) + (2A cos wt)

⇒ x = Acoswt, y = 2Acoswt ⇒ y = 2x ⇒ motion of the particle is on a straight line.

41) Zero error :

Least count of circular scale

Reading of main scale = 0.0 cm
Number of division coincied = 5
reading of circular scale = 5 × 0.02
Zero error = 0.10 mm = +0.010 cm
For diameter sphere :
Reading of main scale = 1.2 cm
Number of division coincied = 14
reading of circular scale = 14 × 0.02 = 0.28 mm
= 0.028 cm
Reading = 1.232 cm
Diameter = Reading – zero error
= 1.228 – 0.010 = 1.218 cm

42)

43)

44) At B & D

At point B & D are destructive i.e. dark fringe

At A & C Δx = 0
Δϕ = 0
At point A & C are constructive i.e. bright fringe

45)

If

CHEMISTRY
46) 11.7% He, 32.1% O2, 56.2% N2

47)
Cell reaction is -
3Ni + 2Au+3 → 3Ni+2 + 2Au

= 1.5 – (–0.25) = 1.75 V

and Ecell =

48)

49) 2 : 3 : 6

50) Question Explanation:

The question asked for a mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase.

Concept:
Raoult's Law and Dalton's Low:

Solution:
• Mole fraction in liquid:

• Partial pressures:

• Total pressure = 14 + 24 = 38mm

• Mole fraction in vapour:

Final Answer: Option(2)

51) Question Explanation: We must find the stoichiometric coefficients z, y, z that satisfy the
given rate relation for the reaction xA + yB → zC
Concept: This question is based on (relation between reaction rate and stoichiometry).

Solution: From Also,

Rate equality:

Taking smallest integers: z = 2 ⇒ x = 3, y = 3.

so, x = 3, y = 3, z = 2

Final Answer : Option (3)

52) Explanation the Question: The question provides the slope of a first-order reaction's
Arrhenius plot (In k vs 1/T) and asks for the activation energy (Ea) in kcal/mol.
Concept: This question is based on Arrhenius Equation
Solution:

In(k) =

Slope (m) = –
We are given: Slope (m) = –4000 K

–4000 K = –
Ea = 4000 K × R
Ea = 4000 K × 2 cal K–1 mol–1

Final Answer: Option 2

53)

Since, KC value is very high, reaction is favoured predominantly in forward direction.

54) Asking About :- Hydronium ion [H3O+]

Concept :- Based on O strand's dilution LAW
Soln / Explanation :- Ace. to strand's dilution law for weak electrolyte
=

=
[H+] = 10–4
[H3O+] = 10–4
Option -4 is correct answer

55) Milli equivalent of NaOH = 800 × 0.05 = 40

Milli equivalent of HCl = 200 × 0.1 = 20
Left milli equivalent of NaOH = 40 – 20 = 20
Total volume = 200 + 800 ⇒ 1000 mL ⇒ 1L
in 1 Litre, NaOH 20 milli equivalent or 0.02 equivalent ⇒
0.02 N NaOH = 0.02 M NaOH
[OH–] = 0.02 M = 2 × 10–2 M
pOH = –log (2 × 10–2) = 1.7
pH = 14 – 1.7 ⇒ 12.3

56) NCERT XIth Pg.#219 Part-I

57)

w = 2.303 nRT log

=-2.303 ×
=2×103J

58) Explain Question:

To find out ΔH for given reaction.

Concept:
Hess law.

Solution:

(i)

(ii)
(iii) 3C(s) + Cr2O3(s) → 2Cr(s) + 3CO(g) ΔH = ?
(iii) = 3 (ii) - (i)
ΔH = –3 × 110 – (–1130)
ΔH = –330 + 1130
ΔH = 800 kJ
Final Answer: Option (2)
59)

60)

61) Orbital angular momentum =

62)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

1 mol C6H12O6 produced = 6 mol CO2
= 6 × 22.4
= 134.4 L

63)

64)

Ncert,Class 12th,part-2, Article No: 7.4.4, Pg No: 212, Edition - 2023 - 24.

65)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is assking IUPAC name of given ether
Concept:- This question is based on
IUPAC name of ether
Solution :-
C6H5–O–CH2–CH3
IUPAC name of given ether is ethoxy benzene.
Final Answer :- (3)

66)

Question Explanation: reaction that yields an ether.

Concept: Williamson Ether Synthesis.

Solution:

Ph—CH2—O—CH3 + NaCl

Final Answer: Option (4)

67) Question Explanation: Identify the product 'D' of the given reaction sequence.

Concept: (i) E-2 Reaction of alkyl Halide.

(ii) EAR:- Halogenation of alkene.
(iii) SN2 reaction of alkyl halide.
(iv) Hydrolysis of nitrile in acidic medium
(v) Heating effect on dicarboxylic acid

Solution:

Final answer: option (3)

68) Explain Question:

The reaction shows the substitution of a bromide group with a cyanide group on a primary
alkyl halide. We need to identify the solvent that maximizes the reaction rate.

Concept:
This is an SN2 reaction involving a primary substrate and a strong nucleophile (CN–). Polar
aprotic solvents increase SN2 rates by solvating the cation (K+) while leaving the nucleophile
"naked" and highly reactive.

Solution:
Ethanol, Acetic acid, and Water are polar protic solvents. They form hydrogen bonds with CN–,
hindering its nucleophilicity.
DMF is a polar aprotic solvent. It does not cage the CN– ion, allowing it to attack the substrate
much faster.

Final Answer: Option (3)

69) Compounds which show haloform reaction

70)

Explaining the Question :-

Find out the product 'A' in given Reaction starting with cyclopentanone and dil KOH/Δ
Concept :- Aldol condensation reaction.
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (2)

71) Explain Question: Identify product formed when acetic acid heated with P₂O₅.

Concept: Dehydration

Solution:
P₂O₅ acts as a strong dehydrating agent. On heating, two molecules of CH₃COOH undergo
dehydration to form acetic anhydride, (CH₃CO)₂O.
2 CH3COOH —(Δ, P2O5) → (CH3CO)2O + H2O Thus X is acetic anhydride, (CH3CO)2O .

Final answer: Option (3)

72) Explain the question : Identify which of the following amine cannot show positive
carbylamine test?
Concept : This question is based on carbylamine reaction or isocyanide test.
Solution : Carbylamine test involves reaction of primary amines with CHCl3 + alc. KOH.
→ forms isocyanide (R–NC) with foul smell.
Secondary and tertiary amines do not give this test.

(1) Primary amines give test

(2) Primary amines give test

(3) Primary amines give test

(4) CH3–NH–CH3 secondary amines not give test
Final answer : 4

73)

Explain Question : Identify which of the following is sandmeyer reaction.

Concept : This question is based on sandmeyer reaction.

Solution : The Sandmeyer reaction is a classic method in organic chemistry used to replace
the diazonium group (–N2⊕) in aryl diazonium salts with a halogen atom (Cl, Br, or CN) using
copper(I) halide catalysts. It allows the synthesis of aryl halides from primary aromatic amines
via diazotization and subsequent substitution.
C6H5N2Cl C6H5Cl

Final Answer: option (3)

74) Explanation :
In DNA, N-Glycosidic bonds link the sugar (deoxyribose) to the nitrogenous bases (adenine,
thymine, cytosine, and guanine).

75) Explanation Question:

The question asks to identify the specific type of sugar that is naturally present in milk.
Concept:
This question is based on Biomolecules, Carbohydrates, Disaccharides
Solution:
The sugars listed are all common carbohydrates, but they are found in different sources.
• Sucrose is table sugar, primarily obtained from sugarcane and sugar beets.
• Maltose is malt sugar, found in germinating grains.
• Glucose is a simple sugar found in many foods and is the primary energy source for the body.
• Lactose is a disaccharide specifically found in milk and dairy products. It is composed of
 glucose and galactose units.
Therefore, the sugar present in milk is lactose.
Final Answer: (4)

76)

Explain the Question : Identify the correct geometrical isomers formed from hydrogenation
of R –C ≡ C – R using two reagent.

Concept : This question is based on catalytic hydrogenation by lindlar's catyst and birch
reduction, geometrical isomerism.

Solution :
Lindlar catalyst :- Partial reduction, gives cis alkane Na/NH3 (Birch reduction) :- partial
reduction. gives trans - alkene.

Final answer: option (2)

77)

n-heptane

78) Explain Question:

The question asks you to identify which reaction of methane represents incomplete
combustion. You need to distinguish between complete and incomplete combustion based on
the products formed.

Concept:
• Combustion: A chemical reaction where a substance reacts with oxygen, releasing energy.
• Complete Combustion: Occurs when there is enough oxygen, producing CO2 and H2O.
• Incomplete Combustion: Occurs with limited oxygen, producing CO or C (soot) and H2O.

Formula:
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O, CH4 + O2 → C(s) + 2 H2O

Solution:
Option 3 is the incomplete‐combustion reaction. Reasoning: • In complete combustion of methane
you get CO2 and H2O (as in option D). • If oxygen is insufficient, carbon (soot) is formed along with
water:CH4 + O2 → C(s) + 2 H2O(l) That is the hallmark of incomplete combustion, so 3 is correct.
Final answer: Option (3)

79)

Question Explanation: Identifying the strongest base.

Concept: Basicity.

Solution: Basicity depends on the availability of the lone pair on nitrogen. In options 2, 3, and
4, the nitrogen is directly attached to the benzene ring, causing the lone pair to delocalize into
the ring through resonance, which significantly decreases basicity. In option 1 (Benzylamine),
the nitrogen is attached to an aliphatic CH₂ group; thus, the lone pair is localized and not
involved in resonance. Localized lone pairs are much more available for donation to an acid.

Final answer - Option 1

80) Explain the question: Count five-membered chelate rings in Ca-EDTA complex

Concept: Chelation and ring formation in EDTA complexes

Solution:
- EDTA4– is a hexadentate ligand (2N + 4 O donors).
- When EDTA binds to Ca2+, it forms 6 chelate rings in total.
- Out of these, 5 are five-membered rings and 1 is a six-membered ring.

Final Answer: option (1) : Number of five-membered rings = 5

81) NCERT XII

Unit 9

82)

Explain Question: Identify pair of ions having same number of unpaired electrons and hence
same spin-only magnetic moment.

Concept: Spin-only magnetic moment

Solution:

A. Cu⁺, Cu²⁺ → Cu⁺ is d¹⁰ (no unpaired electrons), Cu²⁺ is d⁹ (1 unpaired electron) →
different μ.

B. Co³⁺, Fe²⁺ → Both can have 4 unpaired electrons (d6) → same spin-only magnetic
moment.

C. Ti²⁺, V²⁺ → Ti²⁺ is d² (2 unpaired), V²⁺ is d³ (3 unpaired) → different μ.

 D. Sc²⁺, Zn²⁺ → Sc²⁺ is d¹ (1 unpaired), Zn²⁺ is d¹⁰ (0 unpaired) → different μ.

Final answer: option (2)

83) Question Explanation: Identifying the nature of Eu2+ in aqueous solution.

Concept: Redox Tendency in Lanthanides.
Solution: Eu2+ (4f7) is easily oxidized (loses an electron) to the stable Eu3+. Species that are
easily oxidized are reducing agents. Final Answer: reducing agent.

At. no. 58 56

(III-B) (II-A) At. No.

84) According to molecular orbital theory

Bond order =

85)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
NF3 and H3O+ are pyramidal (sp3 hybridised) whereas and BF3 are triangular planar (sp2
hybridised) HN3 has a bent structure.
Final Answer : (3)

86) Explain Question: Arrange Group 15 hydrides in decreasing reducing nature.

Concept: Thermal stability and bond strength
Solution: Down the group, M–H bond weakens and hydrides become stronger reducing
agents. Hence, BiH₃ is the strongest reducer.
Final Answer: Option (2)

87) Answer - Option(1 )

Explanation - To identify the correct block for atomic number 55
Concept - The element with atomic number 55 (Cesium) belongs to the s-block.

88)

89) [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [CoF6]3–, [FeF6]3– involves sp3d2 hybridisation, while [Co(NH3)6]3+ involves d2sp3
hybridisation.
Co3+ with SFL → Pairing occurs
 90)

Explanation :- Question is asking about the anion gives violet vapours asking?

Concept :- This question is based on Colour of radicals

Solution :- lodine vapor ahs a characteristic dense, violet color. So A salt that gives violet
vapors when treated with concentrated H2SO4 contains. iodide ions (I–) 2I– (aq) + 2H2SO4
(conc)→I2 (g, violet vapors)+SO4–2 (aq) + SO2 (g) + 2H2O (I)

Answer :- 2

BOTANY

91)

Nucleolus

92)

10–50 nm

93)

(a)- i, (b)- ii, (c)- iv, (d)- iii

94) NCERT XI Pg # 169

95) NCERT XI Pg # 164-166

96)

Interphase nucleus

97)

98)
Two

99)

Axillary bud

100) NCERT XIth Pg # 67, Fig.#5.3

101)

Actinomorphic

102)

pericycle

103) Explain Question :

The question asks to identify a specific type of vascular bundle based on its description.
Concept :
This question is based on type of vascular bundle.
Explanation :
Xylem and phloem on same radius → Conjoint.
Phloem outside, xylem inside → Collateral
No cambium → Closed
Final answer : 3

104)

Sunflower stem

105) A – Epidermis, B – Hypodermis, C – xylem, D – Ground tissue

106) degenerate

107)

helicase, primase, DNA polymerase, ligase

108) Correct option 1

109) Correct option 3

110)
RNA polymerase I, II & III

111)

v – iii – i – iv – ii

112)

Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus

113)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

114)

B and C are correct

115)

116)

Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for

117)

Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Mendelian principles

118)

Aa

119) The correct answer is 1. Pacific Salmon fish.

Pacific Salmon are known for their semelparous life history strategy, meaning they breed only
once in their lifetime. They undertake a remarkable journey from the ocean to their freshwater
spawning grounds, where they reproduce and then die. This reproductive strategy is often
referred to as "spawning and dying."

120) NCERT, Pg # 191-196

121)

Curve-a
122)

NPP

123)

Question Explanation
Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process
is called—

Explanation:
Catabolism is the process by which microbial enzymes (from bacteria and fungi) break
down complex organic matter in detritus into simpler inorganic substances (like CO₂,
H₂O, and mineral nutrients). It is the final enzymatic step in decomposition.

Final Answer (1)

124)

The incorrect statement is Option 3: "Detritus food chain is not at all connected with
grazing food chain at any level."
Explanation: The detritus food chain (DFC) and the grazing food chain (GFC)
are interconnected. Decomposers in the DFC feed on detritus, and some of the decomposed
matter may eventually be consumed by organisms in the GFC. Thus, they are connected at
certain levels.

125) Question Explanation: The question asks which in-situ conservation strategy is related
to endemism. Concept: In-situ Conservation: Hotspots
Solution: Biodiversity hotspots are regions characterized by very high levels of species
richness and a high degree of endemism. These are areas where species are confined to that
region and not found anywhere else.
Final Answer: option (4)

126) Question Explanation: Identifying invertebrate groups in a pie chart.

Concept: Global Invertebrate Biodiversity
Solution: The pie chart represents global invertebrate species diversity, where Insects form
the largest group. Of the remaining major groups: A represents the next largest share, which
is Molluscs; B is the third largest share, which is Other animal groups; and C represents
Crustaceans.
Final Answer: (2) Molluscs, Other animal group, Crustacean

127)

(c) only

128)

Is associated with oxygen evolving complex

 129)

Chlorophyll

130)

A – Reduction, B– Oxidation

131)

If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

132)

Less than 7%

133)

134) Three

135) Microspore, Generative cell, synergid, antipodal cell, vegetative cell of pollen

ZOOLOGY

136)

Question Explanation –The question asks to correctly match insect abdominal structures
with their corresponding segments or descriptions.

Concept – External genitalia and abdominal segments in insects

Solution –

A. Anal cerci (a): 10th segment → 3

B. Boat-shaped sternum (b): 7th in females → 1

C. Anal styles (c): 9th segment in males → 2

D. Genital pouch (d): Bounded by 9th and 10th terga in males → 4

Correct matching: a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4

Final Answer – Option 4 (D)

137)

Question Explanation –
The question asks which hormones are responsible for milk ejection and milk production in
humans.

Concept –
Hormonal control of lactation

Solution –

A. Prolactin → stimulates milk production in mammary glands

B. Oxytocin → causes ejection of milk by contracting alveolar muscles

So, the correct order is Oxytocin for ejection, Prolactin for production.

Final Answer – Option 3

138)

Explain Question: The question asks which statements about hormones and their functions
are correct.

Concept : Hormone action

Explanation :

(A) True – Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis.

(B) False – Diabetes insipidus is due to ADH deficiency, not treated with insulin.
(C) False – ANF is secreted when blood pressure increases, not decreases.
(D) True – Glucagon decreases cellular glucose uptake and promotes glucose release.

Final answer : Option 3 – A and D

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 321, 21.4.1

140)

a–correct, b–incorrect, c–incorrect, d–correct

141)
 Kangaroo, Cat, Dolphin, Dog

142)

A–Gall bladder, B–Lungs, C–Fat bodies,

D–Kidney, E–Rectum, F–Urinary bladder

143) NCERT Page No. 109, 106

144) NCERT Page No. 107

145) NCERT Page No. 104

146) NCERT Page No. 106

147)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 117

148) Module-3 Pg. # 130

149) Concept:
Thyroid hormone function

Solution:
Thyroxine regulates basal metabolic rate and supports overall metabolism as per.

Final Answer: Option(2)

150)

A-Two equal, B-Secondary spermatocytes, C-Four equal, D-Spermatids,

151)

Question explanation: Identify whether Assertion and Reason are correct and related.

Concept: Cardiac cycle

Solution: The correct answer is Option 1 .

A. Assertion (A): During joint diastole, both atria and ventricles are in relaxed state → Correct.
Joint diastole is the phase when all chambers of the heart are relaxed, allowing passive filling.
B. Reason (R): During this phase, blood flows passively into the left and right ventricles through
the left and right atria → Correct. Because the atrioventricular valves (bicuspid and tricuspid)
are open, blood flows passively from atria into ventricles.

Since chambers are relaxed, passive ventricular filling occurs, so Reason correctly
explains Assertion.

Final answer: Option 1

152)

Ncert Page 212.

153)

All of these

154)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(i)

155) NCERT-Pg#316

156) NCERT-Pg#321

157)

Cartilagenous joint – Between prezygapophyses and post zypapophyses of two adjacent

vertebrae

158)

Statements – I, IV and V

159)

5th thoracic vertebra

160)

Ncert page 184.

161) Solution : Cleavage to morula, to blastocyst, then implantation

Final Answer : (1)

162) Solution : 0000

Final Answer : (1)

163) These duct store and transport sperm from testis to outside through urethra

164) Female foeticide

165) Conceptuals

166)

Question explanation:- The story of evolution of modern man is most interesting and
appears to ________ of human brain and language.

Concept: HUMAN EVOLUTION

Solution: The story of evolution of modern man is most interesting and appears to Parallel
evolution of human brain and language.

Final answer: Parallel evolution

167)

NCERT-XII Pg#115

168) Assertion is true and Reason is false.

169) A = Stabilising, B = Directional, C = Disruptive

170) New NCERT pg. # 136

171)

Cell-mediated immune response

172)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 153

173)

(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

174)
Retroviruses

175)

Recombinants

176) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

177)

Translation of mRNA

178)

C and D

179)

180) Explanation:
The question asks you to match types of genetic modification (Column I) with examples of
genetically modified (GM) crops or traits (Column II)

Concept :
GM techniques are applied in agriculture and biotechnology.

Solution :
Let's match each row correctly :
• I. Reduce reliance on chemical pesticides → Nematode resistant tobacco → (iii)
• II. Enhanced nutritional value of food → Golden rice → (iv)
• III. Reduce post-harvest losses → Flavr Savr tomato → (ii)
• IV. Tolerant to abiotic stresses → Salt-tolerant transgenic tomato → (i)

Final Answer :
4 – I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i