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Llorente, PRE-TEST - SCIENCE 7
_____________________________________________________________________________________
Multiple Choice: Read each questions carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on
your answer sheet.
1. Which statement best reflects the fundamental premise of the Particle Model of Matter?
A. Matter can change its shape easily when heat is taken away.
B. All matter is made up of tiny particles with each pure substance having its own kind of particles.
C. Matter consists of large visible objects that lack gaps or spaces between them.
D. Every substance contains the exact same kind of standard particle.
2. What happens to the speed and spacing of particles in a substance when its temperature increases?
A. Particles move slower and the spaces between them decrease.
B. Particles move faster and the spaces between them increase.
C. Particles stop moving entirely and lock into fixed configurations.
D. Particle movement remains constant but chemical bonds dissolve instantly.
3. During the process of sublimation, a substance transitions directly from a solid into a vapor. How do
particle arrangement and energy change during this specific phase change?
A. Particles release energy and move closer together into a highly ordered grid.
B. Particles gain energy, breaking away from fixed positions into a highly disordered arrangement.
C. Energy stays exactly the same while particles slowly condense into a liquid.
D. Particles lose all kinetic energy and fuse into a singular massive atom.
4. A student wants to convert liquid water into ice (solidification). Which of the following describes the
necessary energy and particle changes?
A. Addition of heat, causing particles to move completely free of one another.
B. Removal of heat, allowing particles to slow down and settle into fixed, highly structured positions.
C. Maintenance of constant high temperature until particles spontaneously expand.
D. Rapid spinning of the particles until they generate mechanical magnetism.
5. You observe a drop of food coloring spreading faster in a beaker of hot water than in a beaker of ice-cold
water. Which concept explains this behavior?
A. Cold water has larger spaces between its particles than hot water.
B. Particles in hot water have more thermal energy and move faster, accelerating diffusion.
C. Food coloring is completely insoluble in cold fluids.
D. The particles of hot water attract the food coloring much less than cold water particles do.
6. When writing a scientific investigation report, where should you place the list of actions and sequence of
execution steps followed to test a hypothesis?
A. Aim or problem
B. Materials and equipment
C. Method or procedures
D. Conclusion
7. Why is it vital for scientists to utilize standard units (such as meters, grams, or liters) instead of non-
standard units (such as footsteps or cups) when recording data?
A. Standard units make data collections subjective to local interpretation.
B. Standard units provide consistent, accurate, and universally replicable measurements.
C. Non-standard units are completely illegal to use in school laboratories.
D. Standard units automatically change values based on room
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Llorente,
8. A student measures exactly 50.0 mL of water using a graduated cylinder to investigate solubility. To
ensure the measurement is accurate, how should the student read the liquid level?
A. Look at the edges of the liquid while standing above the cylinder.
B. Position the eye level directly horizontal to the bottom of the meniscus curve.
C. Tilt the graduated cylinder slightly until the liquid touches the top line.
D. Guess the midway point between the highest and lowest splashing droplets.
9. In a sugar-water solution, what are the specific roles of the sugar and the water?
A. Sugar is the solvent and water is the solute.
B. Sugar is the solute and water is the solvent.
C. Both sugar and water act simultaneously as solvents.
D. Sugar is the indicator and water is the precipitate.
10. You dissolve 15 grams of table salt into 150 milliliters of water. What is the quantitative concentration of
this solution expressed as mass per volume?
A. 0.01 g/mL
B. 0.10 g/mL
C. 1.50 g/mL
D. 10.0 g/mL
11. Which of the following actions will most effectively speed up the rate at which a solid sugar cube
dissolves in a glass of water?
A. Cooling the water down to just above freezing point.
B. Leaving the glass completely undisturbed in a dark room.
C. Crushing the sugar cube into fine powder and stirring the mixture vigorously.
D. Adding oil to form a protective layer over the water.
12. A clear liquid solution found in the kitchen turns blue litmus paper into red. This chemical behavior
indicates that the solution is a/an:
A. Acid
B. Base
C. Salt
D. Neutral solvent
13. Which of the following describes the correct procedure for carrying and moving a compound
microscope across a science laboratory room?
A. Hold it by the power cord and swing it gently by your side.
B. Grip the body tube firmly with your dominant hand and let the base hang freely.
C. Hold the arm securely with one hand and support the flat base underneath with your other hand.
D. Drag it carefully along the surface of the table using a ruler.
14. What microscope component is responsible for regulating and controlling the total amount of light that
passes upward through the stage and specimen?
A. Eyepiece
B. Coarse adjustment knob
C. Diaphragm
D. Stage clips
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15. If aspecimen is being
Llorente, viewed under a microscope using a 10\times eyepiece and a 40\times High
Power Objective (HPO), what is the total magnification of the image?
A. 30\times
B. 50\times
C. 400\times
D. 4000\times
16. A student switches the microscope objective from Low Power Objective (LPO) to High Power Objective
(HPO). Which adjustment knob should be exclusively used to sharpen the focus without breaking the slide?
A. Coarse adjustment knob
B. Fine adjustment knob
C. Inclination joint knob
D. Revolving nose-piece
17. While viewing pond water under a microscope, you notice a single-celled organism moving
independently. This organism can be classified as:
A. Multicellular
B. Unicellular
C. Non-cellular
D. Polycellular
18. Why is mitosis critical for the regular physiological maintenance of multicellular organisms like humans?
A. It halves the chromosome count to produce reproductive gametes.
B. It provides a mechanism for growth and the repair/replacement of damaged tissues.
C. It blends genetic materials from two distinct parents to maximize variation.
D. It prevents the cell from absorbing nutrients from its environment.
19. ow does meiosis differ fundamentally from mitosis regarding its primary biological outcome?
A. Meiosis produces two genetically identical diploid body cells.
B. Meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid gamete cells.
C. Meiosis occurs exclusively to repair skin cuts and bone fractures.
D. Meiosis increases the total number of chromosomes per cell with each cycle.
20. Which process ensures that genetic information from both parents is successfully combined to form a
unique offspring?
A. Binary fission
B. Budding
C. Meiosis and subsequent fertilization
D. Mitotic fragmentation
21. An organism reproduces asexually through budding. What will be the genetic similarity between the
parent organism and its resulting offspring?
A. The offspring will be 100\% genetically identical to the single parent.
B. The offspring will possess a random 50-50 mixture of two separate parents' traits.
C. The offspring will have completely mutated DNA no relation to the parent.
D. The offspring will have exactly half the total number of genes as the parent. no
relation to the parent. D. The offspring will have exactly half the total number of genes as the
parent
22. Examine the comparison table below regarding reproduction:
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Feature Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
Number of parents 2 parents 1 parent
Offspring variations High genetic diversity Genetically identical clones
Based on this table, which type of reproduction provides an evolutionary advantage in a
rapidly changing environment, and why?
A. Asexual reproduction, because clones can adapt faster to changing threats.
B. Sexual reproduction, because high genetic diversity increases the chance that some
individuals survive.
C. Asexual reproduction, because it entirely eliminates the need for cellular energy.
D. Sexual reproduction, because it produces fewer offspring that require nourishment.
23. Arrange the following levels of biological organization in the correct structural order from the simplest
component to the most complex system:
A. Organism - Organ - Tissue - Cell - Ecosystem
B. Cell - Tissue - Organ - Organ System - Organism
C. Biosphere - Community - Population - Organ - Cell
D. Tissue - Organism - Cell - Ecosystem - Organ System
24. Which level of biological organization consists of a group of similar cells working together to perform a
highly specific common function?
A. Organ
B. Tissue
C. Organ System
D. Population
25. In an ecological food pyramid, what name is given to the category of organisms situated at the absolute
base (the first trophic level)?
A. Primary Consumers
B. Apex Predators
C. Producers (Autotrophs)
D. Decomposers
26. As energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level up a food pyramid, what typically
happens to the total amount of usable energy?
A. It increases exponentially due to biological multiplication.
B. It remains exactly equal across all levels of the ecosystem.
C. It decreases, with only about 10% of the energy being passed on to the next level.
D. It transforms completely into solid mass that can never be consumed.
27. Why are there rarely more than four or five trophic levels present within a single food chain or
ecosystem?
A. Ecosystems run out of physical space to accommodate large animals.
B. The energy loss at each progressive level leaves too little energy to support higher levels.
C. Decomposers eat the top predators before they can reproduce.
D. Higher-level predators refuse to eat organisms from lower levels.
28. Which of the following represents an everyday situation governed by completely balanced forces?
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A. An apple detaching
Llorente, from a branch and freely falling down to earth.
B. A sports car accelerating rapidly from a complete stop.
C. A heavy wooden storage box resting entirely still on an inclined plane.
D. A spacecraft firing its booster rockets to change its flight path.
29. When an object is acted upon by unbalanced forces, what is the guaranteed physical outcome?
A. The object will remain permanently at rest.
B. The object will undergo a change in its speed, its direction, or both (acceleration).
C. The net total force acting on the object becomes exactly zero.
D. The mass of the object will suddenly decrease.
30. A heavy book sits motionlessly flat on top of a school desk. Which forces are acting on this book?
A. No forces are acting on it because it is not moving.
B. Only the downward force of gravity is acting on it.
C. Equal and opposite forces: gravity pulling down, and the table pushing up.
D. Only the horizontal force of friction keeping it from sliding.
31. What distinguishes velocity from speed in physics?
A. Speed is measured in meters per second, while velocity is measured only in miles
per hour.
B. Velocity includes both the rate of motion and a specific direction, making it a vector
quantity.
C. Speed is a vector quantity, whereas velocity is a scalar quantity.
D. Velocity only applies to objects that are slowing down.
32. A student walks 4 kilometers due North from their house, turns around, and walks 3 kilometers due
South along the exact same path. What are the total distance traveled and the net displacement from the
house?
A. Distance = 7 km, Displacement = 1 km North
B. Distance = 1 km, Displacement = 7 km South
C. Distance = 7 km, Displacement = 7 km North
D. Distance = 1 km, Displacement = 1 km South
33. On a standard distance-time graph, what does a perfectly straight, upward-sloping diagonal line
represent?
A. An object that is completely stationary and not moving.
B. An object moving with a uniform (constant) velocity.
C. An object that is continuously accelerating at an exponential rate.
D. An object returning backward through time to its origin point.
34. Study the distance-time graph below:
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What is happening to the
Llorente, object during segment B when the line becomes completely
horizontal?
A. The object is traveling at its maximum speed.
B. B. The object has stopped moving and is completely at rest.
C. C. The object is falling down under the influence of gravity.
D. D. The object is accelerating toward the reference point.
35. What is the fundamental operational difference between "heat" and "temperature"?
A. Heat is measured in degrees Celsius, while temperature is measured in Joules.
B. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of particles, whereas heat is the total
energy transferred between systems due to a temperature difference.
C. Heat only exists in hot objects, while temperature only exists in cold objects.
D. They are completely identical terms that can be used interchangeably without difference.
36. You heat one end of an iron poker rod in a campfire, and after a few minutes, the handle at the opposite
end becomes too hot to hold. Which process of heat transfer explains this phenomenon?
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Insulation
37. Using the particle model, how does convection occur within fluid substances like gases and liquids?
A. Highly energized particles freeze and fall directly to the bottom.
B. Heated particles gain energy, move faster, spread apart, become less dense, and rise while
cooler, denser fluid sinks.
C. Particles collide rigidly, passing kinetic energy along without changing their overall relative
positions.
D. Particles disappear completely, releasing pure electromagnetic radiation waves.
38. Which of the following is an example of an advantageous utilization of radiation heat transfer in daily
life?
A. The handles of pots being manufactured out of thick plastic material to prevent skin burns.
B. Solar panels absorbing direct electromagnetic energy from sunlight to generate electricity.
C. Boiling water circulating rapidly in a pot to cook noodles evenly.
D. Hot air escaping out of an open window during a winter evening.
39. To address global energy crises, engineers have developed Thermoelectric Generators (TEGs). What
primary energy transformation do these innovative devices perform?
A. They convert chemical energy directly into mechanical movement.
B. They transform heat energy derived from temperature differences into electrical energy.
C. They destroy electrical currents to produce massive amounts of cooling.
D. They capture wind vectors and compress them into liquid fuel.
40. Why does a metal spoon feel much colder than a wooden spoon when both are submerged inside the
exact same bowl of ice cream?
A. Metal naturally contains a lower internal temperature than wood.
B. Metal is a much better conductor of heat, pulling thermal energy away from your hand rapidly.
C. Wood generates its own internal heat energy via particle friction.
D. The metal spoon absorbs coldness from the ice cream through radiation.
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41. How do scientists
Llorente,classify geological faults into normal, reverse, or strike-slip faults?
A. By measuring the total duration of the shaking using a seismograph.
B. By looking at the angle of the fault plane and the relative direction of the slip movement.
C. By calculating the total economic damage inflicted upon local communities.
D. By determining whether the fault is located underwater or on land.
42. Sudden movements along a deep underground fault line release pent-up elastic energy. This
phenomenon results directly in:
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. Earthquakes
C. Monsoons
D. Land and sea breezes
43. What is the distinction between the "focus" (hypocenter) and the "epicenter" of an earthquake?
A. The focus is measured by human perception, while the epicenter is measured by machines.
B. The focus is the actual point of energy release deep inside the Earth, while the epicenter is the
point on the surface directly above the focus.
C. The focus is always located in the ocean, whereas the epicenter is located exclusively on land.
D. The epicenter is where the earthquake finishes, and the focus is where it breaks apart.
44. A community is located 5 kilometers away from an active fault line, while another community is 100
kilometers away. If a major fault slip occurs, how will the distance affect the earthquake's observed effects?
A. The distant community will experience a higher intensity of shaking.
B. The closer community will experience a much higher intensity of shaking and potential damage.
C. The distance from the fault has absolutely zero impact on the severity of surface shaking.
D. The closer community will experience a lower magnitude recording on instruments.
45. Which geological mechanism explains how an underwater earthquake can generate a devastating
tsunami?
A. The earthquake heats ocean water until it boils and creates massive steam waves.
B. Sudden vertical displacement of the seafloor shifts a massive volume of water above it,
generating powerful waves.
C. The fault movement opens a vacuum hole that sucks the entire ocean floor downward.
D. Sound waves from the subterranean fracture blow the surface water toward shoreline
communities.
46. You check the PHIVOLCS FaultFinder and find out that a branch of an active fault system runs near
your barangay. What is the most appropriate action to take according to disaster risk reduction plans?
A. Ignore the information to avoid creating unnecessary panic within the family.
B. Study evacuation maps, participate in earthquake drills, and secure heavy furniture to walls.
C. Move all household goods and emergency supplies into the deepest basement room available.
D. Assume that an earthquake will only happen during nighttime hours.
47. How does the tilt of the Earth's axis relative to its orbital plane around the Sun affect the intensity of
sunlight received by different regions over the course of a year?
A. It causes the Sun to physically move closer and further away from the Earth's core.
B. It alters the angle at which sunlight strikes the surface, concentrating heat on the hemisphere
tilted toward the Sun.
C. It completely turns off solar radiation for six months at a time across the equator.
D. It forces the atmosphere to change its chemical composition every three months.
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48. Why do theLlorente,
polar regions experience much colder climates than the equatorial regions throughout the
entire year?
A. The polar regions never face the Sun at any point during orbit.
B. Sunlight strikes the polar regions at a steep angle, spreading the solar energy over a much larger
surface area.
C. The poles are covered in thick sheets of ice that absorb solar radiation and destroy it.
D. The atmosphere over the equator is twice as thin, allowing direct fire to pass through.
49. During the daytime, the land heats up much faster than the adjacent sea. This differential heating
causes warm air over the land to rise and cool air from the sea to blow inland. What is this local weather
pattern called?
A. Sea breeze
B. Land breeze
C. Southwest monsoon
D. Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
50. What is the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), which frequently brings heavy rains and
thunderstorms to the Philippines?
A. A high-pressure system originating from the polar ice caps.
B. A region near the equator where the trade winds from the Northern and Southern Hemispheres
meet, causing warm air to rise and condense into clouds.
C. A dry wind system that blows exclusively off continental mountain ranges.
D. An artificial weather pattern caused by urban heat islands.
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