05-07-2026

1103CMD303001260005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P of
the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is :-

(1) 0, 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

2) A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 20
sec. The total distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of the following
statements about the motion of the particle is false ?

(1) Displacement of the particle is zero.

(2) Average speed of the particle is 1.5 m/s
(3) Displacement of the particle is 30 m
(4) Both 1 and 2

3) The direction of average acceleration is :-

(1) in the direction of displacement

(2) in direction of velocity
(3) in direction of change of velocity
(4) None

4) A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5m/s. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes to 5m/s
northwards. The average acceleration in this time is :-

(1)
m/s2 towards north-east

(2)
m/s2 towards north
(3) zero

(4)
m/s2 towards north-west

5) Displacement x of a particle is related to time t as x = at + bt2 – ct3 where a, b and c are constants
of motion. The velocity of the particle when its acceleration is zero is given by :-

(1)
a+

(2)
a+

(3)
a+

(4)
a+

6) A body starts moving with a velocity v0 = 10 ms–1. It experiences a retardation equal to 0.2v2. Its
velocity after 2s is given by-

(1) +2 ms–1
(2) +4 ms–1
(3) –2 ms–1
(4) +6 ms–1

7) Yogesh and Manav are running on a straight road. If at an instant Manav has uniform speed 28
m/s and yogesh starts from rest with acceleration of 4 m/s2 from a point 80 m ahead of manav, if
both are running in same direction then find out time when yogesh overtakes manav:-

(1) 4 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) None of these

8) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/hr can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2 m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/hr, what is the minimum stopping distance

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 8 m

9) A ball thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s from the top of a tower returns to the
earth in 6 sec. Find the height of the tower ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 40 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 100 m

10)

A man thows a ball vertically upward and it rises through 20m and returns to his hands. What was
the initial velocity (u) of the ball and for how much time (T) it remained in the air (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) u = 10 m/s, T = 2s
(2) u = 10 m/s, T = 4s
(3) u = 20 m/s, T = 2s
(4) u = 20 m/s, T = 4s

11) A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10s before the parachute opens out. Then he
descends with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s2. If he bails out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g =
10 m/sec2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be :

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

12) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

13) Choose the correct graph for the equation " " , a is constant :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle moves according to velocity time graph shown in fig. then what is the ratio between

distance travelled in last 2 seconds and 7 seconds :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Calculate velocity at t = 4 sec if velocity at t=0 is zero :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 0 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

16)

Study the following graphs :-

The particle is moving with constant speed

(1) In graphs (i) and (iii)
(2) In graphs (i) and (iv)
(3) In graphs (i) and (ii)
(4) In graphs (i)

17)

The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given
below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The diameter of a cylinder is measured using a Vernier callipers with no zero error. It is found
that the zero of the Vernier scale lies between 5.10 cm and 5.15 cm of the main scale. The Vernier
scale has 50 divisions equivalent to 2.45 cm. The 24th division of the Vernier scale exactly coincides
with one of the main scale divisions. The diameter of the cylinder is :-

(1) 5.112 cm
(2) 5.124 cm
(3) 5.136 cm
(4) 5.148 cm

19)

The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against 29 divisions of main
scale. Each main scale division is 0.5°. The least count of the instrument is –

(1) 10'
(2) 0.1'
(3) 1'
(4) 30'

20) A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 19 divisions on the
main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The main scale divisions are of

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 2 mm
(4) 1/4 mm

21) The diameter of the ball is measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are
50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular
scale is 20 divisions. Then diameter of ball is :

(1) 2.60 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.70 mm
(4) 2.80 mm

22) Match the columns :

Column I Column II

A. Work P. [M1 L1 T–1]

B. Power Q. [M1 L2 T–1]

C. Momentum R. [M1 L2 T–3]

D. Angular momentum S. [M1 L2 T–2]

(1) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

23) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4mm, than what will be least count of the screw gauge ?

(1) 0.001 mm
(2) 0.005 mm
(3) 0.010 mm
(4) 0.100 mm

24) Match the type of unit (column I) with its corresponding example (column II) :

Column I Column II

A. Base unit P. N

B. Derived unit Q. hp

C. Improper unit R. kg - wt

D. Practical unit S. rad

E. Supplementary unit T. kg
(1) A-T, B-P, C-R, D-Q, E-S
(2) A-S, B-T, C-P, D-Q, E-R
(3) A-R, B-S, C-T, D-Q, E-P
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-T, D-R, E-S

25) Statement-1 : If U1 and U2 are units and n1 and n2 are their numerical values in two different
unit systems then n1 > n2 ⇒ U1 < U2.
Statement-2 : The numerical values of physical quantity is inversely proportional to its unit.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

26) Assertion : A positive acceleration can be associated with 'slowing down' of the body.
Reason : The origin and the positive direction of an axis are a matter of choice.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason false.

27) Assertion :- If a body is projected vertically upward then the rate of change of its velocity is
constant during its flight.
Reason :- The average acceleration of the body during its total journey is zero.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is measured value of length is 20.0
cm to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 sec using of
watch of 1 sec resolution. The accuracy in the determination of 'g' is nearly _______.

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 5%
(4) 10%

29) The acceleration–time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. At

what time the particle acquires its initial velocity ?

(1) 12 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 16 sec

30) If energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F), be taken as fundamental quantities, then what are the
dimensions of mass :-

(1) EV2
(2) EV–2
(3) FV–1
(4) FV–2

31)

In the given v-t graph the average speed of the body in 5 seconds will be :

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 80 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

32) The resistance is where V = (100 ± 5) volt and I = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the total
error in R ?

(1) 5 %
(2) 7 %
(3) 5.2 %

(4)
%

33) A body dropped from the top of a tower clears 7/16th of the total height of the tower in its last
second of flight. The time taken by the body to reach the ground is :

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s
34) The resistance R of a wire is given by the relation R = . Percentage error in the measurement
of ρ, ℓ and r is 1%, 3 % and 2% respectively. Then the percentage error in the measurement of R is

(1) 6%
(2) 9%
(3) 8%
(4) 10%

35)

A man holds four balls 180 m above the ground and drops them at regular intervals of time so that
when the first ball hits ground, the fourth ball is just leaving his hand. At this time, the second and
third balls from the ground are at the positions

(1) 160 m and 100 m respectively

(2) 80 m and 20 m respectively
(3) 20 m and 80 respectively
(4) 100 m and 160 m respectively

36) If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero integers x, y and z such that PxQycz is dimensionless,
can be (Dimension of P Q and C are M1 L–1 T–2, M T–3 and L1 T–1):

(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1
(2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1
(4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

37) A particle has an initial velocity of and an acceleration of . Its speed after 10 s is
:-

(1) 10 unit
(2) 7 unit
(3) 7 unit
(4) 8.5 unit

38) A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + 5)m/s2. If
it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2sec is :-

(1) 20m
(2) 18m
(3) 16m
(4) 25m

39) Which of the following relation cannot be deduced using dimensional analysis? [the symbols
have their usual meanings]
(1) y = A sin(ωt + kx)
(2) v = u + at

(3)
k= mv2
(4) All of these

40) Equation of displacement for any particle is

s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8 m. Its acceleration at time t = 1 sec is :-

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 16 m/s2
(3) 25 m/s2
(4) 32 m/s2

41) If P, Q, R are physical quantities having different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can give meaningful quantity ?

(1) (P – Q)/R
(2) PQ – R
(3) P + Q + R
(4) (R + Q)/P

42) A body is released from the top of a tower of height h metre. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. Where is the ball at the time T/2 seconds?

(1) at h/4 metre from the ground

(2) at h/2 metre from the ground
(3) at 3h/4 metre from the ground
(4) depends upon the mass of the ball

43) A particle moves on straight line in such way that it covers 1st half distance with speed 3ms–1
and next half distance covered 2 equal time intervals with speed 5ms–1 and 7ms–1 respectively then
average speed of the particle is :-

(1) 4ms–1
(2) 6ms–1
(3) 5ms–1
(4) 7ms–1

44) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed, then
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) A Body moves 6 m north, 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

CHEMISTRY

1) The nucleus of tritium contains :-

(1) 1 proton + 1 neutron

(2) 1 proton + 3 neutron
(3) 1 proton + 0 neutron
(4) 1 proton + 2 neutron

2) According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 3rd orbit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) What is the velocity of electron present in first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom :-

(1) 2.18 × 105 m/s

(2) 2.18 × 106 m/s
(3) 2.18 × 10–18 m/s
(4) None of these

4) The radius of hydrogen atom in ground state is 0.53 Å. What will be the radius of 3Li2+ in the
ground state :-

(1) 1.06 Å
(2) 0.265 Å
(3) 0.17 Å
(4) None of these

5) Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Uncertainty in position (i)

(B) Bohr's radius of an orbit (ii)

(C) Angular momentum of an electron (iii)

(D) de Broglie wavelength (iv)

(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)

(2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
(4) None of these

6) The energy of the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second
Bohr orbit of He+ ion would be :-

(1) –0.85 eV
(2) –13.64 eV
(3) –1.70 eV
(4) None of these

7) The angular momentum of electron in an excited H-atom is , the K.E. of electron will be:

(1) +13.6 eV
(2) +3.4 eV
(3) +0.85 eV
(4) +0.54 eV

8) Which of the following particles has the largest de-Broglie wavelength (all have equal velocity)?

(1) CO2 molecule

(2) NH3 molecule
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

9) If a0 be the radius of first Bohr's orbit of H-atom, the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
revolving in the second Bohr's orbit will be :
(1) 6πa0
(2) 4πa0
(3) 2πa0
(4) πa0

10) The third line of the Balmer series in the emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom is due to the
transition from the :-

(1) Fourth Bohr orbit to the first Bohr orbit

(2) Fifth Bohr orbit to the second Bohr orbit
(3) Sixth Bohr orbit to the third Bohr orbit
(4) None of these

11) What is the maximum wavelength of Lyman series in spectrum of H atom ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h
= 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 4.42 × 10–15

(2) 4.42 × 10–18
(3) 6.67 × 1015
(4) 6.67 × 1011

13) An element has 18 electrons when its charge is –2 and it also has 20 neutron. What is its mass
number?

(1) 38
(2) 39
(3) 40
(4) 36

14) Correct sequence for specific charge ratio of e, p, n, α is (with respect to magnitude only) :-

(1) e < p < n < α

(2) α < n < p < e
(3) n < α < p < e
(4) α < p < n < e
15) What will be the wavelength of an electron moving with th of velocity of light :-

(1) 2.43 × 10–11 m

(2) 243 × 10–11m
(3) 0.243 m
(4) 2.43 × 10–4 m

16) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
atom

(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

17) The relationship between energy E1 of the radiation with a wavelength 8000 Å and the energy,
(E2) of the radiation with a wavelength 16000 Å is

(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E1 = 4E2
(3) E1 = 6E2
(4) 2E1 = E2

18) 2px orbitals have :-

(1) n = 1, l = 2
(2) n = 1, l = 0
(3) n = 2, l = 1
(4) n = 2, l = 0

19) Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that atom has

(1) Electrons
(2) Protons
(3) Nucleus
(4) Neutrons

20) The radius of nucleus of will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
21) If mass of proton is doubled and mass of neutron is halved, and mass of electron is 3 times. Then
new atomic mass of will be :-

(1) 50% increased

(2) Unchanged
(3) 25% increased
(4) None of these

22) M+2 has 20 protons then find number of electrons in M–3.

(1) 23
(2) 20
(3) 17
(4) 15

23) Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species ?

(1) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+

(2) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, S2–
(3) Be2+, Mg2+, K+, Ca2+
(4) N3–, O2–, F–, S2–

24)

What is the corresponding wave number of ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

25) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f orbital?

(1) n=3, l=2, m=-2, s=+1/2

(2) n=4, l=4, m=-4, s=-1/2
(3) n=4, l=3, m=+1, s=+1/2
(4) n=4, l=3, m=+4, s=+1/2

26) Which electro magnetic radiation have minimum energy :-

(1) X-ray
(2) Visible waves
(3) Infrared waves
(4) Radio waves

27)
If change in energy (ΔE) = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of
the light is:-

(1) 6.66 × 103 Å

(2) 6.66 × 105 Å
(3) 6.64 × 10–8 Å
(4) 6.66 × 1018 Å

28) What is the energy content per photon (J) for light of frequency 4.2 × 1014 ?

(1) 2.8 × 10–21

(2) 2.5 × 1019
(3) 2.8 × 10–19
(4) 2.5 × 10–18

29) The manganese (Z = 25) has the outer configuration:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Maximum number of electrons present in a '5d' orbital is :-

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 2
(4) 6

31) Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +

32) There is no difference between a 2p and 3p orbital regarding ?

(1) Shape
(2) Size
(3) Energy
(4) Value of n

33)

The orbital with maximum energy is :-

(1) 3d
(2) 5p
(3) 4s
(4) 6d

34)

The wave number of the first emission line in the Balmer series of H-Spectrum is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) An electron of hydrogen transits from fifth excited state to first excited state in multisteps, so
formed no. of total lines are

(1) 20
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) 5

36) The energy of a subshell in a hydrogen atom depends on:

(1) The value of n

(2) The value of (n + ℓ)
(3) Only on the value of ℓ
(4) The values of n, ℓ, and m

37) Which orbital have double dum-bell shape :-

(1) dxy
(2) pz
(3) dz 2

(4) s-orbital

38) Maximum number of electron present in M shell is :-

(1) 8
(2) 18
(3) 32
(4) 10

39) Given set of quantum number is possible for how many electrons ? n = 3, ℓ = 2 , m = 0 :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 10

40) The electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom.
Ionisation energy of sodium in kJ/mol will be :

(1) 4.94 × 105 kJ/mol

(2) 4.94 × 102 kJ/mol
(3) 2.92 × 104 kJ/mol
(4) 3.6 × 10–3 kJ/mol

41)

How many unpaired electrons are present in Ni2+ cation (atomic number = 28) :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

42)

Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible ?

n l m s

(1) 3 1 0

(2) 3 0 0

(3) 2 1 -2

(4) 2 1 +1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Calculate the energy of Ist excited state of Li+2:

(1) –13.6 ev
(2) –3.6 ev
(3) –30.6 ev
(4) –1.51 ev

44) Number of waves produced by an electron in one revolution in nth orbit is :

(1) n2
(2) n
(3) (2n + ℓ)
(4) 1

45) A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. The number of photons
emitted per second by the bulb is :-

(1) 3 × 1020 s–1

(2) 2 × 10–20s–1
(3) 2 × 1020 s–1
(4) 1 × 10–20 s–1

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following sets of structure are ALL non-membrane bound?

(1) Ribosome, Centrosome, Nucleolus

(2) Ribosome, Chloroplast, Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus, Lysosome, Vacuole
(4) Centrosome, ER, Golgi body

2) Meiosis involve :

(1) One cycle of nuclear and cell division

(2) Two sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division
(3) Two sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
(4) Two sequential cycle of nuclear, cell division and DNA replication.

3) In animal cells, the plasma membrane is:

(1) Inside the cell wall.

(2) The outer boundary of the cell.
(3) Absent.
(4) Only present around the nucleus.

4) Identify the following figure-

(1) Early prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Telophase

5)

D=Protein
(1) A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Lipid
bilayer
D=Lipid
(2) A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Protein
bilayer
B=Peripheral D=Lipid
(3) A=Sugar C=Cholesterol
Protein bilayer
D=Protein
(4) A=Cholesterol B=Sugar C=Lipid
bilayer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely

(a) Metacentric chromosome (i)
short and one very long arms

(b) Acrocentric chromosome (ii) Centromere at the terminal end

 Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms
(c) Sub- metacentric (iii)
of chromosomes

Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one

(d) Telocentric chromosome (iv)
shorter arm and one longer arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)

7) Assertion : The golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Reason : Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the
golgi apparatus and move towards the maturing face.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

8) In which one of the following options two events of cell cycle are not correctly matched with their
particular phase?

Events Phase

Centriole duplication in the cytoplasm of animal

(i)
(1) cell S
(ii) DNA replication in nucleus

(i) Splitting of centromere

(2) Movement of centriole toward opposite poles of Anaphase
(ii)
cell

(i) Activity of recombinase enzyme

(3) Pachytene
(ii) Crossing over between non sister chromatid

(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(4) Diakinesis
(ii) Nucleolus disappear

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Choose the wrong match w.r.t. shapes of bacteria :

(1) Coccus — Spherical

(2) Vibrio — Comma
(3) Spirillum — Rod-like
(4) Bacillus — Rod-like

10) Arrange the following mitotic events in the correct sequence :-

(A) Equatorial plate
(B) Centromere division
(C) Condensation of chromatin
(D) Chromosomal decondensation
Choose the correct option :-

(1) A → C → B → D
(2) C → A → B → D
(3) C → D → A → B
(4) A → B → D → C

11) Consider the following statements:

(A) Schwann's hypothesis was that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and
products of cells.
(B) Schwann was a botanist who concluded that the cell wall is a unique character of plant cells.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

12) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A : Mitotic division occurs in meristematic tissue.
Statement B : Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis I.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

13) Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: The shape of the cell may vary with the function they perform.
Statement 2: Cells can be disc-like, polygonal, columnar, cuboid, thread-like, or even irregular.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false

(2) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are false

14) Which statement correctly describes metaphase?

(1) Nuclear membrane starts breaking down
(2) Chromosomes move to opposite poles
(3) Chromosomes are aligned at cell center
(4) DNA replication occurs

15) Cell membrane possess lipid, protein and carbohydrate. The ratio of protein and lipid varies
considerably in different cells types. In human beings, the membrane of the RBCs has approximately

(1) 40 per cent lipids and 52 per cent carbohydrates

(2) 40 per cent lipids and 52 per cent lipids
(3) 40 per cent protein and 52 per cent carbohydrates
(4) 40 per cent lipids and 52 per cent proteins

16)

During metaphase, chromosomes are most clearly observed because:

(1) They are fully condensed

(2) Nuclear membrane reforms
(3) Spindle fibres are absent
(4) Cytoplasm is highly fluid

17) Study the section of cilia/flagella it shows the different parts :

In which of the following options all the four blanks A, B, C

and D are correctly identified :

(1) A-Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge, C-Hub, D-Arm

(2) A-Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge, C-Hub, D-Radial spoke
(3) A-Plasma membrane, B-Arm, C-Central microtuble, D-Radial spoke
(4) A-Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge, C-Central microtuble, D-Radial spoke

18) Statement A: Matrix of mitochondria contain single stranded circular DNA.

Statement B: Cytoskeleton help in maintenance of shape of cell.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
19) Which one is not incorrect for plasma membrane?

(1) It is selectively permeable to some molecules present on either side of it

(2) It allows neutral solutes to pass through only by carrier proteins
(3) Na+ / K+ pump performs passive transport
(4) All of these

20) In a culture medium bacterial cell divides after every 3 minute, if one fourth of the medium filled
within 10 minute, so calculate the time to full fill the medium completely?

(1) 13 minute
(2) 16 minute
(3) 19 minute
(4) 21 minute

21) Polyribosomes or polysomes represent:

(1) Microbodies like glyoxysomes

(2) Ribosomes and snRNA
(3) Aggregation of rRNA
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA forming a chain

22) Cell growth result in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus & the cytoplasm. It there fore
becomes essential for the cell to divide to restore the ________?

(1) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio

(2) Cell organelle
(3) Amount of DNA
(4) Chromosome number

23) Select the correct matching:

Column-I Column-II
A. G1 Phase 1. Gap 1 Phase
B. Cytokinesis 2. Nuclear division
C. Karyokinesis 3. Cytoplasmic division
D. S phase 4. Synthesis phase
(1) B‒1, C‒2, A‒3, D‒4
(2) A‒1, C‒2, B‒3, D‒4
(3) D‒1, C‒2, B‒3, A‒4
(4) A‒1, D‒2, B‒3, C‒4

24) The cell wall of a young plant cell, the _____ is capable of growth, which gradually diminish as
the cell matures and the ___ is formed on the inner side of the cell :-

(1) Secondary wall, Primary wall

(2) Primary wall, Secondary wall
(3) Primary wall, Plasma membrane
(4) Plasma membrane, Primary cell wall

25) The leucoplasts, that store oils and fats

(1) Amyloplasts
(2) Elaioplasts
(3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Chloroplast

26) Match the column-I with column-II. With respect to the number of chromosomes if a diploid
cell (2n) has 10 chromosomes.

Column-I Column-II

A. Anaphase I. 5 chromosomes

B. S-phase II. 20 chromosomes

C. Prophase-II III. 10 chromosomes

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III

27) Major component of middle lamella that cements together two plant cells?

(1) Ca pectate
(2) Cellulose
(3) Hemi-cellulose
(4) Mg Pectate

28) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene
stage.
Statement-II : The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal
complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

29) What will be the number of chromosome in S phase if the number of chromosome in G1 phase is
46?

(1) 23
(2) 92
(3) 12
(4) 46

30) The sedimentation coefficient of ribosome is a indirect measure of

(1) density
(2) number
(3) structure
(4) None of these

31) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion : Metaphasic chromosome is made up of two sister chromatids which are held together by
centromere.
Reason : Condensation of chromosomes is completed and they can be observed clearly under the
microscope.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A and R both are true but R is correct explanation of A

32) Match the following column correctly.

Column - I
Column - II Size
Cell

(I) Mycoplasma (A) Longest cell

(II) Nerve cell (B) 0.3 μm

(III) Ostrich egg (C) 3-5 μm

Largest isolated
(IV) Bacteria (D)
single cell
(1) (I) – (A), (II) – (B), (III) – (C), (IV) – (D)
(2) (I) – (B), (II) – (A), (III) – (D), (IV) – (C)
(3) (I) – (A), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (D)
(4) (I) – (D), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (A)

33) The diplotene subphase of prophase-I can last for months or years in :

(1) Oocytes of all vertebrates

(2) Spermatocytes of all vertebrates
(3) Megaspore mother cells
(4) Oocytes of some vertebrates
34) Which of the following is NOT a correct inference from the "Overview of Cell" section in NCERT?

(1) All eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles.

(2) Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
(3) Ribosomes are only found in eukaryotic cells.
(4) Cells differ greatly in size, shape, and activities.

35) Identify the phase of mitosis in which ER and golgi complex are reformed:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Plant cell and Animal cells different in how many given options.
(A) cell wall
(B) Plastids
(C) Large central vacuole
(D) Centrosome
(E) Food storage

(1) Only 2
(2) Only 3
(3) Only 4
(4) 5

37) The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after anaphase?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 32

38) Chiasmata formation occurs during :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinesis

39)

Read the following statements and choose the incorrect one.

1. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities.
2. Prokaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles like ER and mitochondria.
3. Ribosomes are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
4. In Cytoplasm various metabolic reactions occurs to maintain life.

(1) Only statement 1

(2) Only statement 2
(3) Only statement 3
(4) Only statement 4

40) Match the columns I with columns II and choose the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(A) RER (P) Connect the cytoplasm

(B) SER (Q) Synthesis of lipid

Protection from mechanical damage and

(C) Plasmodesmata (R)
infection

(D) Cell wall (S) Protein synthesis and secretion

(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R

41) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

c–inner membrane, d–outer membrane,

(1)
e-intermembrane space, b–matrix, a–crista
 d–inner membrane, e–outer membrane,
(2)
c-intermembrane space, b–matrix, a–crista
d–inner membrane, e–outer membrane,
(3)
c-intermembrane space, a–matrix, b–crista
c–inner membrane, e–outer membrane,
(4)
d-intermembrane space, a–matrix, b–crista

42) If in a diploid plant cell the 'n' value is 16 then what is possible in metaphase - I of meiosis ?

(1) 32 Bivalents
(2) 64 Bivalents
(3) 16 Bivalents
(4) 8 Bivalents

43) Which of the following is the most dramatical phase of cell cycle?

(1) M phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S phase
(4) G1 phase

44) Assertion (A): DNA replication does not takes place before meiosis II.
Reason (R): Already double amount of DNA is present in cell after meiosis I as compare to G-1
phase.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

45) Choose the correct option with respect to cytokinesis in plant:

(1) Cell plate method, Centrifugal

(2) Cell plate method, Centripetal
(3) Cell furrow method, Centrifugal
(4) Cell furrow method, Centripetal

46) Animals in which any plane passing through the centre does not divide them into two equal
halves belong to the phylum

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Porifera
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Ctenophora

47) How many of the following given below in the box are monoecious animals?
 Pheretima, Nereis, Anopheles, Taenia, Wuchereria, Hirudinaria
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

48) Select the incorrect match.

(1) Sea Urchin – Echinus

(2) Sea hare – Pinctada
(3) Sea–fan – Gorgonia
(4) Sea–pen – Pennatula

49) Comprehend the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement–A: Flatworms exhibit the external fertilization with indirect development.
Statement–B: Metagenesis and metamerism are characteristics of Obelia and OCtopus respectively.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

50) The most distinctive feature of porifers is the presence of water canal system that does not help
in

(1) Locomotion
(2) Transport of food
(3) Respiration
(4) Excretion

51) Select the odd one w.r.t. incomplete digestive system.

(1) Meandrina
(2) Physalia
(3) Gorgonia
(4) Ascaris

52) Select the odd one among the following w.r.t marine habitat.

(1) Adamsia
(2) Spongilla
(3) Nereis
(4) Antedon

53) Select the incorrect match

 (1) Poriferans Commonly known as sponges

(2) Cnidarians Presence of cnidoblasts

(3) Ctenophores Reproduce via binary fission

(4) Platyhelminths Dorso-ventrally flattened body

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) In which one of the following options Column I is incorrectly matched with Column II?

Column I Column II

(1) Dorso-ventrally flattened body Fasciola

(2) Circular in cross-section Ancylostoma

(3) Presence of annulus Pheretima

(4) Dioecious Leeches

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55)

Which of the following non-chordate is not oviparous?

(1) Fasciola
(2) Periplaneta
(3) Ascaris
(4) Trichinella

56) Absence of head, unsegment body and endoskeleton of calcareous plate are the characters of :-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Annelida

57)

How many of the following feature are not related with phylum platyhelminthes -
(i) Some member like planaria possess high regeneration capacity
(ii) Specialised cells called flame cell help in osmoregulation & respiration.
(iii) have bilateral symmetry triploblastic coelomete
(iv) mostly are endoparasite
(v) Hooks & suckers are present in parasite form.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

58) Presence of radula and gills is feature of

(1) Cucumaria
(2) Gorgonia
(3) Limulus
(4) Pila

59) Which of the following non-chordate is deuterostome and enterocoelous coelomate ?

(1) Aplysia
(2) Ophiura
(3) Aphrodite
(4) Ascaris

60) Haemocoel is present in :-

(1) Flat worms

(2) Round worms
(3) Insects
(4) Annelida

61) Organ level of body organisation is found in :-

(1) Cnidaria
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

62) Open circulation is found in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Chordata
(4) Arthropoda, Cephalopoda, Echinodermata

63) Respiratory organs of insect are :-

(1) Gills
(2) Book Gills
(3) Book lungs
(4) Tracheal tubes

64) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Ascaris shows sexual dimorphism.

(2) Liver fluke has complete digestive tract
(3) Periplanata has 3 pairs of jointed legs.
(4) Earthworm shows metameric segmentation.

65) They are exclusively marine & radially symmetrical animals. They belong to :-

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Mollusca
(4) Hemi-chordata

66) Which one of the following is a correct match ?

(1) Taenia - Polymorphism

(2) Musca – Metamorphosis
(3) Chameleon – Asexual Reproduction
(4) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism

67) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I :- Choanocytes are found in spongilla and Euspongia.
Statement II :- Sponges have a water vascular system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both statements are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are correct.

68) Which of the following is a free living flat worm ?

(1) Planaria
(2) Taenia
(3) Fasciola
(4) Pheretima

69) Which one of the following statement about certain given animals is correct?

(1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates

70) How many of the following characters about tapeworm are true ?
a. Blind sac body plan
b. Absorbs food from body surface
c. Sexual dimorphism
d. Anaerobic respiration

(1) a and b
(2) b and d
(3) Only c
(4) a and c

71) In coelentrates, an undifferentiated layer present in between the ectoderm and the endoderm is
:-

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Mesoglea
(3) Mesenchyma
(4) Parenchyma

72)

How many phyla have schizocoelom among following ?

Porifera, Hemichordata, Coelenterata, Platyhelminthes, Ecinodermata and Arthropoda

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Tube within a tube plan is found in

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

74) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not completely lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called :

(1) Acoelmoate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate
75) One of the following animals is not hermaphrodite

(1) Earthworm
(2) Leech
(3) Taenia
(4) Enterobius

76) Digestion both extra cellular and intra cellular occurs in :-

(1) Sycon
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Hydra
(4) Both (2) and (3)

77) In Culex excretion takes place through -

(1) Statocyst
(2) Malpighian tubule
(3) Book gills
(4) Book lungs

78)

Which one of the following figure shows acoelomate condition :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A & C

79)

Which of the following is correct for medusa ?

(1) Sessile
(2) Cylindrical
(3) Present in Hydra
(4) Free-swimming

80)

One example of animals having a single opening to the out side that serves both as mouth as well as
anus is ?

(1) Fasciola
(2) Octopus
(3) Asterias
(4) Ascidia

81) Which of the following statement is not correct for echinodermata?

(1) Indirect development

(2) Complete digestive gut
(3) Hermaphrodites
(4) Radialy symmetrical

82)

Platyhelminthes are

(1) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical

(2) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical
(4) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical

83)

Pick out the odd one

(1) Nereis
(2) Pheretima
(3) Hirudinaria
(4) Wuchereria

84)

Which of the following statement / character is incorrect about the diagram given above ?
(1) Posses lateral appendages , parapodia which help in reproduction
(2) Body surface distinctly marked out into segment
(3) Circulatory system is closed
(4) Nephridia help in excretion and osmoregulation

85) All animals of which phylum are exclusively marine ?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Mollusca
(4) Both (1) and (2)

86)

Two common characters found in Centipede, Cockroach and Crab are

(1) Book lungs and antennae

(2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Compound eyes and anal cerci
(4) Green gland and tracheae

87) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals : -

(1) Earthworm
(2) Roundworm
(3) Sycon
(4) Hydra

88) Female ascaris is differentiated from male in :-

(1) Presence of cloaca

(2) Presence of penial setae
(3) Shorter size
(4) Straight posterior end

89) Radial symmetry occurs in :-

(1) Coelenterata and Annelida

(2) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
(3) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes
(4) Arthropoda and Mollusca

90) Which of the following is Hermaphrodite ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Cockroach
(3) Spongilla
(4) Scoliodon
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 1 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 1 4 2 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

because initial & final positions are same so the displacement is zero.

vavg =

2) Question Explanation:
Identify the false statement regarding the motion of a particle that returns to its starting point
after traveling a specific distance.
Concept:
Difference between Distance (scalar) and Displacement (vector), and the calculation of
Average Speed.
Solution:
To evaluate the statements, we must apply the fundamental definitions of kinematics:
Displacement: The change in position of an object. If an object returns to its starting point,
its final position is the same as its initial position.
Distance: The total path length traveled by the object.
Average Speed: The total distance divided by the total time taken.

Evaluate Displacement: Since the particle returns to the starting point, the initial and final
positions are identical.

Statement 1 is True.
Statement 3 is False.
Evaluate Average Speed:
Average speed is calculated as:

Statement 2 is True.
Since statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 ("Displacement of the particle is 30 m") is the
only false assertion.
Final Answer:
Option (3)

3)

in direction of change of velocity

4)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

5)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

6)

V = 2m/sec

7)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

8)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

9)

10)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

11)

The velocity v acquired by the parachutist after 10 sec. is :

v = u + gt = 0 + 10 × 10 = 100 m/s
Let s1 be height of fall for 10 sec. Then,

The distance travelled by the parachutist under retardatiion,

s2 = 2495 – 500 = 1995 m
Let v' be his velocity on reaching the ground
then v'2 – v2 = –2as2
or v'2 – (100)2 = –2 × 2.5 × 1995
Solving, we get, v' = 5 m/sec

12)

From t = 0 to t = t0, slope of curve is constant hence velocity increases and after that slope
becomes zero, so particle stops.
13)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

14)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

15)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

16)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

17)

V = 20 – 2x

a = 4x – 40
a – x graph is straight line with slope = 4
intercept = – 40

18)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

19)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

20) 20 VSD = 19 MSD ⇒ 1 VSD =

L·C· = 1MSD – 1VSD = 1 MSD –

L·C =

21)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

22)
Correct Answer is Option (3).

23)

24)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

25)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

26)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

27)

Explaining the Question :- The question presents an Assertion stating that a body projected
vertically upward has a constant rate of change of velocity (i.e, constant acceleration) during
its flight, and a Reason stating that the average acceleration of the body during its total
journey (up and down) is zero. determine the truth of each statement and whether the reason
correctly explains the Assertion
Concept:- This question is based on Motion under Gravity

Formula :-

Solution :- Assertion is true: The rate of change of velocity is acceleration, which is -g for a
projectile under gravity. This value is constant throughout the flight.
Reason is False : Average acceleration is

For the total journey back to the launch point vfinal = – vinitial. Thus

Which simplifies to-g (not zero)

Since the Assertion is true and the Reason is false, the correct option_3
Final Answer :- 3

28)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

29)
Correct Answer is Option (3).

30)

M = EaVbFc
[M1] = [ML2T–2]a [L1T–1]b [M1L1T–2]c
0 0
[M1L T ] = [Ma+c L2a+b+c T–2a–b–2c]
a + c = 1; 2a + b + c = 0; –2a – b – 2c = 0

31)

Vavg =

32)

R= ⇒

33) ...(1)

...(2)
n
Eq . (1)/(2)

⇒ t = 4 sec

34)

Explain question : Find percentage error in resistance R using errors in P, , and r.

Concept: This question is based on percentage error calculation.

Solution:

Formula: % error %ΔR = %ΔP + %Δ + %Δr

Calculation:
Resistance of a wire R =

= 1% + 2% + 2(3%) = 9%
Final answer: (3)

35)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

36) Question Explanation:

Determining the integer values x, y, z that make the product dimensionless using
dimensional analysis.
Concept:
Dimensional Homogeneity.
Solution:
The dimensions of the given quantities are:

For to be dimensionless :

Equating the powers:

Mass (M):
Length (L):
Time (T):
If we choose x = 1, then y = -1 and z = 1.
Checking Time: .
The values match Option 2: .
Final Answer:
Option (2)

37)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

38)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

39)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

40)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

 41) The quantities of different dimensions cannot be added or subtracted, but product of two
such quantities may be of same dimension as of third.

42)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

43)

44) Explain question : To find the average speed for total distance travelled by car.
Concept : This question is based on speed and velocity (average and instantaneous)
Solution :

Final answer : 4

45) Question Explanation: To find the net displacement of body.

Concept: Distance and displacement.

Formula: &
Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

CHEMISTRY

46) Tritium →
n=2 p=1

47)
48) From Bohr's theory, v = 2.18 × 106 × m/s

= 2.18 ×106 × = 2.18 × 106 m/s

49)

50) (A) Uncertainty of an object, Δx. Δv ≥

(B) Bohr's radius of an orbit, r =

(C) Angular momentum of an electron, mvr = n.

(D) de Broglie wavelength, λ =

51) = –3.41 × 22 = –13.64 eV

52) A.M. =
n=4
TE = –KE = –0.85 eV

53) ∴ (when ν is same )

54) mvrn = and P =

pr2 =

λ = πr2 and r2 = 4a0

λ = 4πa0

55) Rydberg's formula for calculation of wave numbers of lines in hydrogen spectrum is

For Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 4, 5, so third line of the Balmer series is due to transition
from fifth Bohr orbit to second Bohr orbit.
56)

and λmax =

57)

E= =

58)

Explain Question : We need to find the mass number of an element with 18 electrons in its –2
state and 20 neutrons.

Concept : Mass number (A) = Protons + Neutrons.

Solution :
For –2 charge → Protons = Electrons – 2 = 18 – 2 = 16.
Mass number A = Protons + Neutrons = 16 + 20 = 36.

Final Answer : Option (4)

59)

Explain Question : The question asks to arrange electron, proton, neutron, and α-particle by
their specific charge (q/m) magnitude.

Concept : Specific charge q/m depends on charge and mass of particle.

Solution :

A. Neutron: q = 0 ⇒ = 0 (smallest).

B. α-particle: q = +2, mass ≈ 4u ⇒ = (next).

C. Proton: q = +1, mass ≈ 1u ⇒ = 1 (larger).

D. Electron: q = –1, mass ≈ 1/1836 u ⇒ 1836 (maximum)

Order: n < α < p < e.

Final Answer : Option (3)

60) Question Explanation : The question asks to calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an
electron moving at one-tenth the speed of light. Concept
This question is based on De Broglie Wavelength.
Solution :

Using the de Broglie formula :

This value closely matches the provided option.

The wavelength of the electron is approximately 2.43 × 10–11 m.
Final Answer : option (1).

61)

62) Explain the question : Find the relation between energies of radiations with wavelengths
8000 Å and 16000 Å.
Concept : This question is based on energy of radiation –E = hc/λ
Solution:
Energy of radiation is given by :
E = hc/λ
For the two radiations :
E1 = hc/λ1, E2 = hc/λ2
So,
E1/E2 = (hc/λ1) ÷ (hc/λ2) = λ2/λ1
Substitute values :
E1/E2 = 16000/8000 = 2
Thus, E1 = 2E2
Final answer : 1

63)

Question Explanation
Asked: What are quantum numbers (n, l) for 2p orbitals?

Concept
Principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l).

Solution

For 2p orbital: n = 2, l = 1

Final Answer→ Option 3

64) Explanation question:

The question asks what new feature of the atom was discovered by Rutherford's α particle
scattering experiment.

Concept:
Rutherford's Atomic Model.

Solution:
According to Rutherford's atomic model –
''A tiny, dense and positively charged center that repelled the alpha particles.
He named this center the nucleus.

Final Answer: option (3)

65) Question Explanation: We are asked to calculate the radius of the nucleus of the
isotope .

Concept: Nuclear radius formula: R = R₀ A¹ᐟ³

Where
R₀ = 1.33 × 10⁻¹⁵ m
A = mass number

Solution:

For ²⁷Al, A = 27

R = 1.33 × 10⁻¹⁵ × (27)¹ᐟ³

Since (27)¹ᐟ³ = 3

R = 1.33 × 10⁻¹⁵ × 3

R = 4 × 10⁻¹⁵ m

Final Answer: Option 4

66) Question Explanation : We need to find new atomic mass of

Concept : Atomic mass

Solution :
⇒ Initial = 6 × (mass of 1 proton) + 6(mass of 1 neutrons)
= 6Mp + 6Mn

= 6Mp + 6 Mp ⇒ 12 Mp ...(1)

If = 2 Mp ,
 New = 6(2Mp) + 6
= 12Mp + 3Mn ( )
= 15Mp ...(2)

New atomic mass =

= 25% increased

Final Answer : Option (3)

67)

Question Explanation :
We need to find number of electron in M–3 if number of protons in M+3 is given.

Concept :
This question is based on Number of electrons = Z – (charge with sign)
Z = number of protons.

Solution :
M+2 ⇒ Z = number of protons = 20
M–3 ⇒ Number of electrons = 20 – (– 3) = 23

Final Answer : (1)

68) Each K+, Cl–, Ca2+, S2– has 18 electrons.

69)

Question Explanation : Find the wave number (reciprocal of wavelength) for radiation with
wavelength 5 nm.
Concept : Wave number : ; convert λ into meters or centimeters first.
Solution :

= 2 × 108m–1
Final Answer : Option (3)

70) For a 4f orbital, principal quantum number n=4 and azimuthal quantum number l=3. The
magnetic quantum number m must be between -l and +l (i.e., -3 to +3). Option 3 is the
only valid set.

71)

Question Explanation
Asked: Which electromagnetic radiation has minimum energy.

Concept
E ∝ 1/λ (energy inversely proportional to wavelength).

Solution

Order of wavelength: Radio waves > Infrared > Visible > X-rays.
So, radiation having maximum wavelength will have minimum energy i-e Radio waves.

Final Answer → Option (4)

72) Explain Question: Calculate wavelength of light corresponding to given energy change.

Concept: Planck relation

Solution:
Given:
ΔE = 3 × 10⁻⁸ J
h = 6.64 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s
c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹
Use Planck’s relation:
ΔE = hc / λ
λ = hc / ΔE
λ = (6.64 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3 × 10⁸) / (3 × 10⁻⁸)
λ = 6.64 × 10⁻¹⁸ m
Convert m to Å (1 m = 10¹⁰ Å):
λ = 6.64 × 10⁻⁸ Å

Final Answer: Option (3)

73)

Explain Question :
We need energy of a photon with frequency = 4.2×1014 Hz.
Concept : This question is based on Photon energy formula: E=
Solution :
E=
E=(6.626×10−34)×(4.2×1014)
E=2.78292×10−19J ≈ 2.8×10−19 J.
Final Answer : option (3)

74) To determine the electron configuration, we need to follow these rules:

Aufbau Principle: Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy.
Hund's Rule: Within a subshell, electrons individually occupy each orbital before any orbital
is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.
Pauli Exclusion Principle: No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four
quantum [Link] electron configuration of manganese (Z=25) is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5.
The outer configuration involves the 4s and 3d subshells.
4s subshell has one orbital, which can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
3d subshell has five orbitals, each of which can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
Following Hund's rule, the five electrons in the 3d subshell will individually occupy each of the
five d orbitals with the same spin before any pairing occurs. The two electrons in the 4s
subshell will pair up in the single 4s orbital.
Final Answer:
The correct representation of the outer electron configuration of manganese (Z = 25) is:
4s orbital: ↑↓
3d orbitals: ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
This corresponds to option (2).

75)

Question Explanation : Find maximum electrons that a 5d orbital can hold.

Concept : This question is based on quantum numbers.

Solution :
Each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons with opposite spins.

Final Answer : option (3)

76) Question Explanation : Identify the quantum numbers corresponding to the highest
every electron.
Concept : Energy is determined by the (n + ℓ) rule; higher (n + ℓ) means higher energy
Solution : The energy of an electron is determined by the (n + ℓ) value. Calculate (n + ℓ) for
each option.
Option (1) (4 + 0) = 4
Option (2) (2 + 0) = 2
Option (3) (3 + 1) = 4
Option (4) (3 + 2) = 5 (highest (n + ℓ) value so higher energy)
Final Answer : Option (4)

77)

A. Question Explanation: The question asks which property is not a difference between 2p
and 3p orbitals.

B. Given Data: We are comparing 2p and 3p orbitals.

C. Concept: Quantum Number

D. Solution:
There's no calculation needed here. We consider the properties related to the quantum
numbers.

A. Shape: Both 2p and 3p orbitals have the same dumbbell shape.

B. Size: The 3p orbital is larger than the 2p orbital because it has a higher principal
 quantum number (n=3 vs n=2).

C. Energy: The 3p orbital has higher energy than the 2p orbital, also due to the higher
principal quantum number.

D. Value of n: The 2p orbital has n=2, and the 3p orbital has n=3.

E. Final Answer:
The shape is the same for both 2p and 3p orbitals. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

78)

Explanation Question :
We are asked which orbital among 3d, 5p, 4s, and 6d has maximum energy.
Concept :
This question is based on use (n + ℓ) rule
Solution
Higher the value of (n + ℓ), higher the energy. If (n + ℓ) is same, then orbital with higher n has
more energy.
For 3d → n + ℓ = 3 + 2 = 5
For 5p → n + ℓ = 5 + 1 = 6
For 4s → n + ℓ = 4 + 0 = 4
For 6d → n + ℓ = 6 + 2 = 8
So, 6d has the highest energy.
Final Answer : Option 4

79) Question Explanation :

We need to find wave number of the first spectral line in Balmer series of H-spectrum.

Concept :
This question is based on Rydberg formula.

Solution :

Balmer 1st line

Final Answer : (3)

80) Question Explanation:

Calculate the total number of spectral lines when an electron fails from the fifth excited state
to the first excited state in multisteps.

Concept:
Number of spectral form level n to m is given by:

Number of lines =
Solution:
• Fifth excited state corresponds to n = 6 (since ground state is n = 1).
• First excited state is n = 2
Number of lines:

= 10
Final Answer
Option (3)

81)

Explain Question : Energy of a sub-shell in hydrogen atom depends on:

Concept : This question is based on quantum number.

Solution : In hydrogen (one electron), energy depends only on principal quantum number
(n).

Final Answer : option (1)

82)

Question Explanation :

The question asks which type of atomic orbital is non-directional.

Concept : This question is based on shape of orbitals.

Solution :

A. s-orbitals: These are spherical in shape and have no specific directional orientation. The
probability of finding an electron is the same in all directions from the nucleus.

B. p-orbitals: These have dumbbell shapes and are oriented along the x, y, and z axes (px,
py, pz). They have directional character.

C. d-orbitals: These have more complex shapes, often with four lobes or a dumbbell with a
donut shape. dz is not double dum-bell.
2

Final Answer : Option (1)

83) For n = 3 subshells are 3s, 3p, 3d

 ∴ electron = (2) + (6)+(10) = 18

84) m = 0 → One orbital → Contain max. Two electrons.

85)

E= eV
E = 5.12 eV

E= KJ/mol

= 493.4 KJ/mol

86)

Question Explanation
Asked: Number of unpaired electrons in Ni²⁺ (Z = 28).

Concept
Electronic configuration of transition metal ions

Solution

Ni (Z = 28): [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s²

Ni²⁺ → remove 2 e⁻ from 4s → [Ar] 3d⁸

2e– unpaired
In 3d⁸, two orbitals remain singly occupied → 2 unpaired e⁻

Final Answer→ Option (2)

87)

for P m = –2 not possible.

88)

Explain Question : Find the energy of the 1st excited state of Li2+ ion.

Concept : This question is based on Hydrogen-like species energy formula:

Solution :

For Li2+, Z=3.

 For 1st excited state, n=2.

E2​=−13.6 × ​= −13.6 × ​ = −30.6 eV

Final Answer : option (3)

89)

Explain Question:
Find the number of de Broglie waves formed by an electron in one revolution in the nth Bohr
orbit.
Concept:
This question is based on Bohr’s quantization condition: 2πrn = nλ.
Solution:
From 2πrn= nλ.
This means the circumference of the orbit holds exactly n wavelengths for stability.
Number of waves in one complete revolution = n.
Final Answer: (2)

90)

Question Explanation : Find number of photons emitted per second from a 100 W bulb of λ
= 400 nm.
Concept : This question is based on Planck quantum theory.
Solution : Given power = 100W
E = power×time=100 × 1=100 J
λ = 400 nm = 400 × 10⁻⁹ m
Formula: Etotal = n·hc/λ , here (n=no of photons)
n = Etotal·λ / (hc)

=
≈ 2 × 10²⁰ photons per second
Final Answer : Option (3) 2 × 1020 s–1

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation: Which group of organelles does not have a surrounding membrane?

Concept: The question is based on overview of cell

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Ribosome, centrosome, and nucleolus are non-membrane-bound organelles.

 B. They lack a lipid bilayer but perform essential cellular functions like protein synthesis
(ribosome), organization of microtubules (centrosome), and ribosome assembly
(nucleolus).

C. Chloroplast, mitochondria, nucleus, lysosome, ER, Golgi body, and vacuole are
all membrane-bound organelles.

Final Answer: Option 1

92) NCERT (XI) Page No. #125

93) Concept: An overview of cell.

Solution: In animal cells, the plasma membrane is the outer boundary of the cell.

Correct Answer: The outer boundary of the cell.

94) NCERT pg- 123

95)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

96)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

97)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

98) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

99)

NCERT XI, Pg # 127

100) NCERT-XI, Page # 122,123,129

A → Equatorial plate in metaphase
B → Centromere division in anaphase
C → Condensation of chromatin in prophase
D → Chromosomal elongation in telophase
101) Concept: Schwann’s identity and work.

Solution: Statement (A) is correct. Statement (B) is incorrect because Schwann was a
Zoologist, not a botanist (though he did study plant tissues).

Correct Answer: (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect.

102)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

103)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements about onion peel cells, cheek
cells, prokaryotic cells, and vacuoles are correct.

Concept: The question is based on Differences between Plant Cells, Animal Cells and
Prokaryotic Cells.

Solution: The correct answer is option (1).

• Statement A is correct: Onion peel cells are plant cells and have a rigid cell wall made of
cellulose.
• Statement B is correct: Cheek cells are animal cells and are bounded only by a plasma
membrane.
• Statement C is incorrect: Prokaryotic cells do not possess a membrane-bound nucleus; their
DNA is present in the nucleoid region.
• Statement D is correct: Vacuoles are large and prominent in plant cells and help maintain
turgor pressure.

Final Answer: Option (1)

104)

Concept: Metaphase

Solution:
• Metaphase is defined by the central alignment of chromosomes on the equatorial plane.
• Option 1 is prophase, Option 2 is anaphase, Option 4 is S-phase.

Correct Answer: 3

105)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

106)

Question explanation: Identify why chromosomes are easily visible under a microscope
during metaphase of mitosis.
 Concept: Mitosis

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. During metaphase, chromosomes are fully condensed and highly coiled, making them thick,
short, and easily visible under a microscope.
B. The spindle fibres attach to their kinetochores, and the nuclear membrane has already
disintegrated, allowing clear visualization.

Final answer: Option 1.

107)

Explain Question: The question asks us to correctly identify the labelled parts A, B, C, D in a
cross-section of a cilia or flagellum.

Concept : This question is based on cilia or flagellum.

Explanation : Cilia/flagella structure (axoneme): “9 + 2” arrangement of microtubules.

A: Outermost covering → Plasma membrane

B: Connections between peripheral doublets → Interdoublet bridge

C: Central pair of microtubules → Central microtubule (or hub)

D: Connections from central microtubule to doublets → Radial spoke

Final answer : 4 _A-Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge, C-Central microtubule, D-

Radial spoke

108)

Question Explanation: Identify the mode of cytokinesis in animal and plant cells.

Concept: Cytokinesis

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. Animal cells: Cytokinesis occurs by cleavage furrow formation, where the cell membrane
pinches inward.

B. Plant cells: Cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation, where a new cell wall forms
between the daughter cells due to the rigid cell wall.

Final Answer: Option 2

109)
 NCERT XI, Pg # 131 to 132

110)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

111)

NCERT XI, Pg # 129

112)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

113)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

115) Question Explanation :

The question asks which type of leucoplast stores oils and fats.

Concept :
This question is based on PLASTID

Solution :
Leucoplasts → colorless plastids for storage

A. Elaioplasts → store oils and fats

Final Answer :
Option (2)

116)

NCERT-XI, Page # 121

If 2n = 10, then
(B) S-phase — No. of chromosomes remains same but DNA content doubles
∴ 10 chromosomes

(A) Anaphase — Centromere divide, thus the number of chromosomes become double. Each
chromosome has single chromatid.
∴ 10 × 2 =20 chromosomes
(C) Prophase-II — Cell has already completed meiosis-I means the number of chromosomes have
reduced to half.
∴ 5 chromosomes
117)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

118)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

119)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

120) NCERT Pg. # 136

121) Correct Answer is Option (1).

122) Question Explanation :

We are asked to match cells in Column I with their correct sizes in Column II

Concept :
This question is based on SIZE AND SHAPE OF CELL

Solution :
(I) Mycoplasma →(B) smallest known free-living bacteria, ~0.3 μm.
(II) Nerve cells→ (A) can be very long, especially motor neurons → longest cell.
(III) Ostrich egg →(D largest isolated single cell. (IV) Bacteria → © average size 3–5 μm.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

123)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

124)

Question Explanation: Which statement about cells is incorrect according to the NCERT
"Overview of Cell" section?

Concept: The question is based on the general characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Ribosomes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, so the statement
that they are only in eukaryotes is incorrect.
 B. All eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles – correct.

C. Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus – correct.

D. Cells differ in size, shape, and activities – correct.

Final Answer: Option 3

125) NCERT XI Pg # 165-166

126)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

127)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

128) Explain Question: The question asks to find the stage where Chiasmata formation
occurs.

Concept: Meiosis (Prophase I).

Solution: Chiasmata formation occurs during the diplotene stage of prophase I of meiosis I.
So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: Option (1)

129)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement about cytoplasm and cell structure.

Concept: Overview of Cell

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. Statement 1: Correct – Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities where many
metabolic processes occur.

B. Statement 2: Incorrect – Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as

endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.

C. Statement 3: Correct – Ribosomes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
and are involved in protein synthesis.
 D. Statement 4: Correct – Cytoplasm contains enzymes and molecules where many life-
sustaining chemical reactions occur.

Final Answer: Option 2

130)

Explain Question:
This question asked to match cell structures (Column I) with their functions (Column II).

Concept :
This question is based on Endoplasmic Reticulum , CELL WALL

Explanation :
A. RER (Rough ER): Has ribosomes →S. Protein synthesis and secretion.

B. SER (Smooth ER): Lacks ribosomes →Q. Lipid synthesis.

C. Plasmodesmata: P. Cytoplasmic connections between plant cells.

D. Cell wall: R. Provides mechanical support and protection.

Final answer (4) : A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R

131)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

132)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

133) NCERT XI Pg # 164

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

135)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

136)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

137)
Correct Answer is Option (2).

138)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

139)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

140)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

141)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

142) Spongilla is a fresh water invertebrate.

143)

144) NCERT Pg # 51, 52

145) NCERT Pg # 51, 52

146) NCERT Pg. # 54

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg#51

148)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

149)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

150)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

151)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

152)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

153)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

154)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

155)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

156)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

157)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

158)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

159)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

160)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

161)
Correct Answer is Option (2).

162)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

163)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

164) NCERT-XI, Pg#48, Para.-IInd

165)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

th st nd
166) NCERT(XI ) Pg.#50, I para, Page#51, II para

167)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

168)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

169)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

170)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

171)

NCERT-XI, Pg#51

172)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

173)
Correct Answer is Option (4).

174)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

175)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

176)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

177)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

178)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

179)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

180)

Correct Answer is Option (3).