06-07-2025

1001CMD303052250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A positively charged ring with uniform charge density λ is fixed in a plane. A particle of mass 'm'
and charge '–q' is allowed to move from a large distance on the axis of ring under the influence of
electrostatic forces only. The maximum speed of particle is V. The ring is replaced with another ring
of the same linear charge density but radius 2R and the experiment is repeated. What is new
maximum speed of particle (in both cases ring is fixed) :-

(1)

(2)

(3) V
(4)

2) For the system shown in figure find Q for which resultant force on q is zero.

(1)
Q=
Q=
(2)

(3)
Q=
Q=
(4)

3) A Semicircular ring of radius 0.5 m is non uniformly charged with a total charge of 1.4 × 10–9 C
then electric potential at centre of ring will approximately be -

(1) zero
(2) 32 V
(3) 25 V
(4) 35 V
4) A circular wire of radius R carries a total charge Q distributed uniformly over its circumference. A
small length of wire subtending angle θ at the centre is cutoff. Find out the electric field at the
centre due to remaining portion.

(1)
sin (θ)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at
a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E3 respectively, then

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) E3 > E1 > E2
(3) E2 > E1 > E3
(4) E3 > E2 > E1

6) A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the
following graphs most closely represents the electric field E (r) produced by the shell in the range 0
≤ r < ∞, where r is the distance from the centre of the shell?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Two concentric shells of radii r1 and r2 cary charges q1 and q2 respectively. If the surface charge
density (σ) is the same for both spheres, the electric potential at the common centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(r1 – r2)

(4)
(r1 + r2)

8) Three charges 2q, –q, –q are located at the vertices of an equilaterial triangle. At the centre of the
triangle:-

(1) the field is zero but potential is non-zero

(2) the field is non-zero but potential is zero
(3) both field and potential are zero
(4) both field and potential are non-zero

9)

If the potential at the centre of a uniformly charged hollow sphere of radius R is V then electric field
at a distance r from the centre of sphere will be (r > R) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Five positive equal charges are placed at vertices of a regular hexagon and net electric field at
the centre is E1. if A negative charge having equal magnitude is also placed at sixth vertex and then

net electric field is E2. Find .

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) None of these

11) Three charges q1 = 1 × 10–6 , q2 = 2 × 10–6 , q3 = –3 × 10–6 C have been placed, as shown in
figure, in four surfaces S1, S2, S3 and S4 electrical flux emitted from the surface S2 in N–m2/C will be -

(1) 36π × 103

(2) –36π × 103
(3) 36π × 109
(4) –36π × 109

12) Two charges 4q and q are placed 30 cm. apart. At what point the value of electric field will be
zero

(1) 10 cm. away from q and between the charge

(2) 20 cm. away from q and between the charge
(3) 10 cm. away from q and out side the line joining the charge.
(4) 10 cm. away from 4q and out side the line joining them.

13) The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and
radius R will be :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) If electric potential energy of given system is positive then :

(1) 2Q > 3q
(2) 2Q < 3q
(3) Q > 2q
(4) Q > 3q

15) Two identical positive point charge placed on x-axis the variation of E along x-axis.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
16) A ring has total charge Q. Find work done by external agent to
move –Q charge from point A to centre of ring :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure, the potentials at points A, B, C and D are

VA, VB, VC and VD respectively. Then :

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

18) Two large metal plates are kept parallel to each other. Inner faces of plates are charged by +σ
and –σ (coulomb/m2). Outer faces are neutral. Electric field between and outside the plates are
respectively.

(1)

(2)
, zero

(3)
, zero
zero,
(4)

19) Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Charge 2Q and –Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field intensity is

zero will be:

(1) Somewhere between –Q and 2Q

(2) Somewhere on the left of –Q
(3) Somewhere on the right of 2Q
(4) Somewhere on the right bisector of line joining –Q and 2Q

21) Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II

Two like charges The force between

(a) (e)
are brought nearer them decreases.

Potential energy
Two unlike charge
(b) (f) of the system
are brought nearer
increases
 When a third charge of
same nature is placed Mutual forces are not
(c) (g)
equidistance from two like affected
charges

When a dielectric Potential energy

(d) medium is introduced (h) of the system
between two charges decreases
(1) a - f, b - h, c - g, d - e
(2) a - f, b - h, c - f & g, d - g & h
(3) a - h, b - f, c - e, d - g
(4) a - g, b - e, c - f, d - h

22) List–I shows the electric field lines diagram for two point charges q1 (left) and q2 (right). List–II
has the possible information about the charges q1 and q2. Match the correct combination of charges
with their field line diagram.

List-I List-II

(P) (1) |q1| > |q2|

q1 > 0,
(Q) (2)
q2 < 0

q1 > 0,
(R) (3)
q2 > 0

q1 < 0,
(S) (4)
q2 < 0

(5) |q1|< |q2|

(1) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 3, 5;S → 3, 4
(2) P → 1, 2;Q → 3, 4;R → 4, 5;S → 1, 2
(3) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4, 5;S → 1, 2
(4) P → 3, 4;Q → 1, 2;R → 4, 5;S → 1, 2

23) Assertion(A) :- The flux crossing through a closed surface is independent of the location of
charge within the surface.
Reason(R) :- On displacement of charges within a closed surface, electric field at any point on the
surface does not change.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

24) Focus length of a convex lens will be minimum for

(1) Blue light

(2) Yellow light
(3) Green light
(4) Red light

25) A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see this entire
height right from top to bottom, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from him. The
height of the mirror from the ground :

(1) 180 cm
(2) 90 cm
(3) 85 cm
(4) 170 cm

26) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for :-

(1) red
(2) green
(3) yellow
(4) violet

27) In reflection and refraction which quantity remain same :-

(1) Wavelength
(2) Intensity
(3) Frequency
(4) Velocity

28) When the rectangular metal tank is filled to the top with an unknown liquid. An observer with
eyes level with the top of the tank can just see the corner E. A Ray that refracts towards the
observer at the top surface of the liquid is shown. The refractive index of the liquid will be :-
(1) 1.25
(2) 1.40
(3) 1.60
(4) 1.9

29)

The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or 10 cm from
the lens. The focal length of convex lens is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 20 cm

30) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The
power of combination is :-

(1) –1.5D
(2) –6.5 D
(3) +6.5 D
(4) +6.67 D

31) At what distance from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm an object should be placed so that the
size of image be 1/4th of the object :-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 150 cm

32) Where will be the image point :-

(1) v = + 5
(2) v = + 10
(3) v = – 5
(4) v = – 10

33) A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. The
refractive index of material is :-

(1) 1.75
(2) 1.33
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.0

34) Behind a thin converging lens having both the surface of the same radius 10cm, a plane mirror
has been placed. The image of an object at a distance 40 cm from the lens is formed at same

position. What is the refractive index of lens ?

(1) 1.5
(2) 5/3
(3) 9/8
(4) None

35) The figure shows different arrangements of two identical pieces of plano-convex lenses. The
refractive index of the liquid used is equal to that of the glass. Then, the effective focal lengths in the

three cases are related as

(1) f1 = f2, f3 =0
(2) f1 ≠ f2 ≠ f3
(3) f1 = f2 > f3
(4) f1 = f2, f3 → ∞

36) A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface of water, the radius of the

circle in centimeter is:

 12×3×
(1)

(2)

12×3×
(3)

(4)

37) A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index µ1 and other half is filled with water of
refractive index µ2. The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from above is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A square wire of side 3.0cm is placed 25 cm away from a concave mirror of focal length 10cm.
What is the area enclosed by the image of the wire? (The centre of the wire is on the axis of the
mirror, with its plane normal to the axis)

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 2 cm2
(3) 8 cm2
(4) 5 cm2

39) For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition of total internal reflection of this ray

the minimum refractive index of the transparent slab will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
40) A prism ABC of angle 30º has its face AC silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45º at the
face AB retraces its path after refraction of face AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive index of

the material of the prism is :

(1) 1.5
(2)
(3)
(4) 4/3

41) Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of
curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening
space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the combination is :-

(1) –20 cm
(2) –25cm
(3) –50cm
(4) 50 cm

42) In a converging lens of focal length f, distance between real object and real image is 4f. If the
object moves x1 distance towards lens, image moves x2 distance away from the lens. When object
moves y1 distance away from lens, image moves y2 distance towards lens. Choose the correct option
:-

(1) x1 > x2, y1 > y2

(2) x1 < x2, y1 < y2
(3) x1 < x2, y1 > y2
(4) x1 > x2, y2 > y1

43) When an object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a mirror, the magnification is m1. The
object is moved 15 cm away with respect to the earlier position, magnification becomes m2. If m1/m2
= 4, the focal length of the mirror is :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

44) Find the power of given lens :-

(1) +5 D
(2) +7.5 D
(3) +2.5 D
(4) –2.5 D

45) A ray of light falls on a glass slab of refractive index . What is the angle of incidence of
the ray if the angle between the reflected and refracted ray is 90°.

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

CHEMISTRY

1) Covalency of 'N' in HNO3 is ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

2) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

st
(1) ClF3, excited state I of Cl
(2) XeO2F2, excited state II of Xe
(3) , excited state I of Be
(4) SF6, excited state II of S

3) Which of the following species are hypervalent

(a) (b) BF3
(c) (d) CO2

(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, d
4) Which of the following order correct of bond strength :-

(1) 1s–1s < 1s – 2p < 1s – 2s

(2) 2s–2s < 2s–2p < 2p–2p
(3) 1s–3p < 1s–2p < 1s–1s
(4) Both 2 and 3

5) Assertion : XeF2 is a linear molecule.

Reason : Xe atom assumes sp hybrid state in XeF2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) If pure unhybridised orbitals are used in forming CH4 then which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Three bond angle will be at 90°.

(2) Three bond lengths are identical and fourth is smaller than other three.
(3) Geometry will be tetrahedral.
(4) All of these

7) Which of the set of species have same hybridisation state but different shapes ?

+ –
(1) NO2 ,NO2, NO2
–
(2) ClO4 , SF4, XeF2
+ +
(3) NH4 , H3O , OF2
–2 –3 –
(4) SO4 , PO4 , ClO4

8) Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom ?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+
(iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only.

9) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding hybridisation?

(1) The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number of the atomic orbitals that get hybridised
(2) The hybridised orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape
(3) The hybrid orbitals are less effective in forming stable bonds than the pure atomic orbitals
(4) Orbital participate in hybridisation, not electron
10) Correct order of % s-character in hybrid orbital of following molecule :
A. I3–
B. XeF4
C.

(1) C > A > B

(2) A > B > C
(3) C > B > A
(4) B > A > C

11) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
Elements Property

(i) Li (A) Most Acidic oxide

(ii) Be (B) Most Metallic character

(iii) C (C) Nature of oxide and hydroxide is similar to Al

(iv) Cs (D) Highest IE2

(1) (i) D (ii) C (iii) A (iv) B
(2) (i) D (ii) A (iii) C (iv) B
(3) (i) A (ii) C (iii) B (iv) D
(4) (i) C (ii) D (iii) B (iv) A

12) Which is correct order of atomic/ionic size of following species.

(1) Ba < Mg < Ca < Sr < Be

(2) Sc < Y < La
(3) N+1 > N+3 > N+5 > N–3
(4) F– < Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3

13) Among isoelectronic species

Na+, Mg+2, Al+3, O2– ...........
all are similar in -
(a) Size (b) σ (c) Zeff (d) Number of
(e) Ionisation energy

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) c & d
(4) b & d

14) Which of the following order of I.P. is correct :

(1) Fϴ < Cl < Clϴ < F

(2) Cl– < Fϴ < Cl < F
(3) Fϴ < Clϴ < Cl < F
(4) F < Fϴ < Clϴ < Cl

15) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

Energy
(a) (p) S → S–
Released

Energy
(b) (q) O– → O2–
absorbed

Inert gas
(c) configuration (r) Sr → Sr2+
in achieved

half filled
(d) configuration (s) N– → N
is achieved
(1) (a) p, s; (b) q, s; (c) q, r; (d) p
(2) (a) p, s; (b) q, r; (c) q, r; (d) s
(3) (a) p, s, r; (b) q, p; (c) q, s; (d) s, r
(4) (a) r, q, s; (b) s, p; (c) q, p; (d) s, q

16) Select the correct option(s) -

(a) MgO < Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 (acidic nature)
(b) FeO < Fe2O3 (basic nature)
(c) HOF < HOCl < HOBr (basic nature)
(d) CO2 < SiO2 < GeO2 (acidic nature)

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) a, c
(4) none

17) Which of the following electronic configuration is most electro positive element :

(1) [He] 2s1

(2) [Xe] 6s1
(3) [Xe] 6s2
(4) [He] 2s2

18) Choose endothermic process in the following

(1) N → N⊝
(2) O → O2–
(3) Na → Na+
(4) All

19) Considering the elements B, C, N, F, Si the correct order of their non metallic character is :

(1) F > N > C > B > Si

(2) B > C > Si > N > F
(3) Si > C > B > N > F
(4) F > N > C > Si > B

20) The oxidation number and covalency of Al in [AlCl(H2O)5]+2 compound respectively is :

(1) +2 , 6
(2) +3, 6
(3) 6, +3
(4) +2, 5

21) Which formula is not correctly match

(1) Lithium and Oxygen : Li2O

(2) Aluminium and Iodine : AℓI3
(3) Silicon and Oxygen : SiO4
(4) Magnesium and Nitrogen : Mg3N2

22) How many of following do not exist

OF4, PF6–, BF63–, SiF62–, IF5, SiCl62–,
PH3, PH5, HFO3, HClO4, ClF7

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) Assertion : When NaCl is added to pure water, depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of solvent causes depression in the freezing point.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) A 0.18% w/v aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) at 300 K
has observed osmotic pressure of 0.369 atm. What will be its van't Hoff factor (i).

(1) 1.2
(2) 1.5
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

25) 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionized. The boiling point of the solution
is - (Kb for H2O = 0.52 K Kg/mol)

(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25 K

26) Which of the following statement is false ?

Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its
(1)
mole fraction in liquid phase.
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same
(2)
freezing point depression
(3) Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure.
The osmotic pressure (π) of a solution is given by the equation π = MRT, where M is the
(4)
molarity of the solution

27) Which one of the following aqueous solution will have the lowest vapour pressure?

(1) 0.1 m urea

(2) 0.1 m sucrose
(3) 0.1 m CH3COOH
(4) 0.1 m NaCl

28) The vapour pressure curves of the same non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in the same solvent
are shown. The curves are parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations of

solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

29) A 6% w/v urea solution is isotonic with :

(1) 0.05% M glucose solution

(2) 6% w/v glucose solution
(3) 25% w/v glucose solution
(4) 1 M glucose solution
30) The plot of ℓn k versus 1/T is linear with slope of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 10–3 at 25°C and 2.1 × 10–2 at 60°C. The activation
energy is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Match the column :-

Column - I Column-II
(Solute) (van't Hoff factor, i)

(A) AlCl3 if α = 0.8 (P) i = 3.4

(B) BaCl2 if α = 0.9 (Q) i = 2.8

(C) CH3COOH dissolved in benzene (R) i = 3.8

(D) K4[Fe(CN)6], if α = 0.7 (S) i = 0.5

(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(2) A→Q, B→P, C→S, D→R
(3) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→R
(4) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q

33) A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 mL chloroform and 50 mL acetone. The volume
of mixture will be :-

(1) > 80 mL
(2) < 80 mL
(3) = 80 mL
(4) ≥ 80 mL

34) Assertion (A) :- Osmosis involves movement of solvent molecules from it's lower concentration
to it's higher concentration.
Reason (R) :- At same temperature solutions having the same osmotic pressure are called isotonic
solutions.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

35) Which of the following is not correct about homogeneous mixture.

(1) These have same chemical properties throughout the mixture

(2) These have same physical properties throughout the mixture
(3) These always contain only one solute and only one solvent
(4) These have uniform composition throughout the mixture

36) The amount of water required to make 10% v/v ethanol in water solution using 10mL of pure
ethanol

(1) 90 mL
(2) 60 mL
(3) 30 mL
(4) 10 mL

37) The molality of 20% by mass aqueous solution of KI will be (Molar mass of KI = 166)

(1) 1.08
(2) 1.35
(3) 1.48
(4) 1.51

38) The molality of 1L solution of 80% H2SO4 (w/v) is (density of solution = 1.8 g mL–1)

(1) 8.16
(2) 8.60
(3) 1.02
(4) 10.80

39) When a binary solution of two volatile compounds is taken in a closed vessel then,

both compounds evaporates and an equilibrium would be established between vapour phase and
(1)
liquid phase
both compounds evaporates but equilibrium would not be established between vapour phase
(2)
and liquid phase
None of the components would evaporate and no equilibrium would be estarblished between
(3)
vapour phase and liquid phase
None of the components would evaporate and an equilibrium would be established between
(4)
vapour and liquid phase
40) The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 0.6 g of urea in 100 g of solvent is 0.1°C the
molal elevation constant of liquid is :

(1) 10
(2) 1

(3)

(4) 10–2

41) Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 119 torr and that of toluene is 37 torr at the same
temperature if mole fraction of toluene is 0.5 then find mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase :

(1) 0.435
(2) 0.237
(3) 0.205
(4) 0.137

42) Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the boiling point less than the boiling point of its
constituents molecules ?

(1) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3

(2) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3
(3) CHCl3 and HNO3
(4) H2O and HCl

43) At 17°C osmotic pressure of glucose solution is 588 torr. The solution diluted and temperature
raised by 40°C then osmotic pressure found to be 165 torr, then dilution is :

(1) 2 times
(2) 2.5 times

(3)
times
(4) 4 times

44) Find the mass of glycol added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at –6°C. (Molar mass
of glycol = 62)

(1) 204.3 g
(2) 304.6 g
(3) 800.0 g
(4) 400.0 g

45) The freezing point of a 4% by mass aqueous solution of A is equal to the freezing point of 10% by
mass aqueous solution of B. Molecular weight of A = 60 find molecular weight of B (both A and B are
non electrolyte)

(1) 45
(2) 90
(3) 180
(4) 160

BIOLOGY

1) Given below are some steps of transcription -

A. RNA Polymerase uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate during elongation.
B. RNA Polymerase associates transiently with termination-factor (ρ) to terminate the transcription.
C. RNA Polymerase facilitates opening of the DNA helix.
D. Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme.
E. RNA polymerase binds to promoter by the help of sigma factor.
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below :-

(1) C-E-D-A-B
(2) E-B-D-A-C
(3) B-D-E-A-C
(4) E-C-A-D-B

2) Match the column-I, II & III :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

200 bp of DNA
(A) Histone (P) Tightly packed (I)
helix

Positively Transcriptionally
(B) Nucleosome (Q) (II)
charged inactive

Lysine and
(C) Euchromatin (R) Beads-on-string (III)
Arginine

Transcriptionally
(D) Heterochromatin (S) Loosely packed (IV)
active
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-S-I, B-Q-III, C-P-II, D-S-IV
(2) A-Q-III, B-R-I, C-S-IV, D-P-II
(3) A-R-II, B-S-IV, C-P-III, D-Q-I
(4) A-P-I, B-S-IV, C-Q-III, D-R-II

3) Which of the following statements are not incorrect regarding genetic code.
(a) Out of the 64 codons only 60 codons, are sense codons.
(b) Genetic codes are universal without any exception.
(c) Genetic codon are non-overlapping.
(d) Genetic code is unambiguous.
(e) GUG (Ambiguous) codon may code valin and trypotophane amino acid.

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (c), (d)
(3) (c), (d), (e)
(4) (a), (b), (e)

4) Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the option that correctly identifies the parts A, B

and C.

(1) A-DNA, B-Histone octamer, C-H1 histone

(2) A-Histone octamer, B-H1 histone, C-DNA
(3) A-Histone octamer, B-DNA, C-H1 histone
(4) A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Histone octamer

5) Double helix model of DNA which was proposed by Watson and Crick was of.

(1) C-DNA
(2) B-DNA
(3) D-DNA
(4) Z-DNA

6) The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to
what in the DNA double helix.

(1) The antiparallel nature

(2) The semiconservative nature
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA
(4) Uniform length in all DNA

7) Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called.

(1) Trioses
(2) Hexoses
(3) Pentoses
(4) Polysaccharides

8) Complete the following statement by filling gaps (a) and (b) : Euchromatin is said to be
transcriptionally ___a___ chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is ___b___.

(1) a = active, b = active

(2) a = active, b = inactive
(3) a = inactive, b = inactive
(4) a = active, b = highly active

9) Which histone protein is not a part of histone octamer?

(1) H2A
(2) H3
(3) H1
(4) H4

10)

Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a Bacteriophage Lambda i 5386 nucleotides

b Bacterophage ϕ × 174 ii 48502 bp

c E. Coli iii 4.6 × 106 bp

d Human iv 6.6 × 109 bp

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

11) The structure of one nucleotide is shown below: Which of the

following diagrams shows two nucleotides correctly joined together?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) Which linkage (bond) is not found in DNA?

(1) N-glycosidic linkage

(2) Phosphodiester linkage
(3) Peptide linkage
(4) Phosphoester linkage

13) Meselson and Stahl experiment proved:

(1) DNA is a genetic material

(2) Central dogma
(3) Transformation
(4) Semi-conservative DNA replication

14) During replication of DNA, Okazaki fragments are fromed in the direction of :

(1) 3' → 5'

(2) 5' → 3'
(3) 5' → 5'
(4) 3' → 3'

15) When DNA replication starts :

(1) The leading strand produces Okazaki fragments.

(2) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break.
(3) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break.
(4) The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break.

16) A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the traits given below, except.

(1) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'

(2) It should be able to generate its replica
(3) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
(4) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

17) Which one of the following correctly represents the manner of replication of DNA.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from.

(1) Transformation experiment by Griffith

(2) Experiment by Avery, Macleod and Mc carty
(3) Experiment by Hershy & Chase
(4) Experiment by Watson and Crick

19) Light DNA molecule is replicated in a heavy medium. After the four successive replication of
DNA, 16 DNA molecules are formed. Which one the following is true for these DNA.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

20) Primase enzyme is called as :

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

21) Consider the following replication fork formed by un-winding of DNA molecule

Choose the option that indicates the direction in which replication is

continuous.

(1) A → B
(2) B → A
(3) C → D
(4) D → C

22) The following symbols represent enzymes involved in DNA replication

Topoisomerase , Helicase

DNA polymerase , Ligase

Given the symbols above which of the following diagrams most accurately depicts the process of
DNA replication
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) RNA acts as genetic material in–

(1) Prokaryotes only

(2) All prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(3) Some viruses
(4) All prokaryotes and viruses

24) In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase II transcribes :

(1) Precursor of mRNA

(2) tRNA and SnRNAs
(3) SiRNA
(4) 28S, 5.8S and 18S rRNA

25) A segment of RNA molecule contains 20,000 base. What is the number of phosphate molecule in
this RNA molecule?

(1) 20,000
(2) 40,000
(3) 10,000
(4) 5,000

26) In actual structure, the tRNA is compact molecule which looks like:-

(1) Inverted 'J'

(2) Inverted 'M'
(3) Inverted K
(4) Inverted 'L'

27) RNA can act as -

(a) Catalyst during replication.
(b) Genetic material in some bacteriophages.
(c) Enzyme during translation.
(d) Structural component in a cell organelles.

(1) a, c only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and d

28) What will be the sequence of m-RNA produced from the following coding strand :-
5'ATTGCCAATTGCTAT3'

(1) 5' AUUGCCAAUUGCUAU3'

(2) 5'UAACGGUUAACGUAU3'
(3) 5'TAACGTTAACGATA3'
(4) 5' TATCGTTAACCGTTA3'

29) A bacterium with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-radioactive
medium for two generation. What percent of the bacteria should radioactive DNA?

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 12.5%

30) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Gene is the functional unit of inheritance.

(2) Terminator is located towards 3' end of coding stand.
(3) Presence of promoter in transcriptional unit define template and coding strand.
(4) Sigma factor recognise terminator site of DNA.

31) .............. is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.

(1) Promotor
(2) UTR's
(3) Terminator
(4) Cistron

32) By switching the position of promotor with terminator, the definition of coding and template
strands could ?

(1) Lead to Mutation

(2) Remain same
(3) Get degenerated
(4) Be reversed
33) The given diagram represent-

(1) Termination of transcription

(2) Elongation of transcription
(3) Elongation of translation
(4) Initiation of transcription

34) Which of the following tRNA doesn't exist:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The essential life processes such as metabolism, translations and splicing evolved around :-

(1) DNA
(2) Protein
(3) RNA
(4) Lipid

36) The _(I)_ provides the template, during translation and _(II)_ brings amino acids and read the
genetic code, and _(III)_ play structural and catalytic role.
Choose the correct word for I, II and III blanks?

I II III

(1) r-RNA t-RNA m-RNA

(2) hn-RNA Sn-RNA t-RNA

(3) m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA

 (4) m-RNA r-RNA t-RNA
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) In transcription process a strand which does not code for anything is known as :-

(1) Coding strand

(2) Template strand
(3) Antisense strand
(4) Non coding strand

38) The given figure refers to the process of transcription in Eukaryotes. A, B, C and D are

respectively

(1) A–RNA polymerase II, B–Intron, C–Exon, D–Poly G–tail

(2) A – RNA polymerase II, B – Intron, C – Exon, D – Poly A–tail
(3) A – DNA polymerase II, B – Intron, C – Exon, D – Poly A–tail
(4) A – RNA polymerase II, B – Exon, C – Intron, D – Poly A–tail

39) If both strands of DNA in a given segment of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA molecules
formed must be :-

(1) Parallel and identical.

(2) Anti parallel and complementary.
(3) Parallel and complementary.
(4) Anti-parallel and identical.

40)

The figure below show three steps (A, B, C) of central dogma

 Select the A, B and C step with their respective statement :
(1) A → Replication → In this process RNA depandant RNA polymerase enzyme is used
(2) C → Translation → In this process reverse transcriptase enzyme is used
(3) B → Transcription → In this process RNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme is used
(4) A → Replication → In this process DNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme is used

41)

Which of the following is related to degeneracy of genetic code ?

(1) Some amino acids coded by only one codon.

(2) One codon coding for only one amino acid.
(3) One amino acid coded by more than one codon.
(4) One codon coding for many amino acids.

42) During protein synthesis when complete polypeptide chain is synthesised and translation is
terminated, this polypeptide chain is separated from last tRNA molecule by the activity of ?

(1) Rho factor

(2) Elongation factor
(3) Release factor
(4) rRNA

43) In how many cases mice die due to transformation ?

A. S-III → Injected into mice.
B. R-II → Injected into mice
C. Heat killed S-III + R-II → Injected into mice.
D. Heat killed R-II + S-III → Injected into mice.
E. Heat killed S-III + R-II + RNase → Injected into mice
F. Heat killed S-III + R-II + DNase → Injected into mice

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

44) The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes ?
A. DNase B. RNase
C. Peptidase D. Lipase

(1) A, B
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

45) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription. This process is governed by principle of complementarity. Statement-I : In
replication, total DNA of organism gets duplicated.
Statement-II : In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands copied into
RNA.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

46) Which event is not associated with Prophase I ?

(1) Formation of chiasmata

(2) Synapsis
(3) Centromere division
(4) Terminalization

47) Diagram given below showing the phases of cell division. Identify the diagrams and choose

correct option regarding them :

(1) A=Metaphase-I, B=Anaphase-I

(2) A=Anaphase-I, B=Anaphase-II
(3) A=Anaphase-II, B=Metaphase-II
(4) A=Anaphase-I, B=Metaphase-I

48) Fill in the blanks :

a. Dyad of cells develop after__A__
b. Tetrad of cell develop after__B__
c. Crossing over occur during__C__
d. Homologous chromosome becomes separate during __D__

(1) A–Telophase-II; B–Anaphase-I; C–Prophase-I; D–Metaphase-II

(2) A–Telophase-I; B–Telophase-II; C–Pachytene; D–Anaphase-I
(3) A–Telophase-I; B–Telophase-II; C–Zygotene; D–Metaphase-I
(4) A–Telophase-II; B–Telophase-I; C–Pachytene; D–Anaphase-I

49) Which events is not related with meiosis I:

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3) Separation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin

50) (i) Chromosomes start pairing together

(ii) Chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the formation of synaptonemal complex.
(iii) Bivalents are very clearly visible as tetrads.
(iv) Bivalents are formed
From the above statements, which statement/(s) characterize the second phase of prophase-I :

(1) All except iii

(2) Only i & iv
(3) Only i & ii
(4) All

51) Which stage of meiosis is marked by terminalisation of Chiasmata ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

52) Identify the given diagram and give correct answer ?

Phase Event

1 Metaphase-I homologous chromosomes arrange at equator

2 Anaphase-II centromere divide,chromosome number double

3 Prophase-I Synapsis, crossing over

4 Anaphase-I homologous chromosome separate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) If in a cell 12 bivalents are present in prophase-I, then what will be the number of chromosomes
in anaphase-II ?

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 48
(4) 96

54) Which one of the following are not directly light driven but are dependent on the products of
light reactions.

(1) C3 cycle
(2) C4 cycle
(3) Photochemical phase
(4) Both 1 and 2

55) In the chloroplast, the site of carbon reaction and photochemical reaction is-

(1) Grana and stroma respectively

(2) Grana and matrix respectively
(3) Matrix and stroma respectively
(4) Stroma and grana respectively

56) Assertion : Immediately after light becomes unavailable, the biosynthesis process continues for
some time, and then stops.
Reason : Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis does not directly depend on light but is dependent on
the products of light reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

57) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Variegated Role of air in the

A. I.
leaf experiment growth of plants

O2 releases from
B. Joseph Priestley II.
water

Chlorophyll is
C. Julius Von Sachs III. essential for
photosynthesis

Radio isotope Production of

D. IV.
technique glucose in plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-
(1) (A–II), (B–III), (C–IV), (D–I)
(2) (A–III), (B–I), (C–IV), (D–II)
(3) (A–II), (B–IV), (C–I), (D–III)
(4) (A–III), (B–II), (C–I), (D–IV)
58) Action spectrum for photosynthesis was first given by Engelmann by using :-

(1) Cladophora and anaerobic bacteria

(2) Chlorella an aerobic bacteria
(3) Cladophora and aerobic bacteria
(4) BGA and aerobic bacteria

59)

Given graph showing overlapping of action spectrum of photosynthesis with absorption spectrum of
chlorophyll 'a' :

Which of the following is not a correct conclusion regarding

this overlapping ?
(1) Chlorophyll 'a' shows absorption peaks in the blue and red regions of visible spectrum
This is complete one to one overlap because both the graphs (absorption & action) have same
(2)
peaks i.e. in the blue and red regions of visible spectrum
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis
This is not a complete one to one overlap because there are many wavelength in visible
(4)
spectrum at which there is difference between absorption & action

60) Study the given flow chart of cyclic photophosphorylation and select correct answer for A, B and

C :-

A B C

(1) PS I e– acceptor P680

(2) PS I e– acceptor P700

(3) PS II Cytochrome P700

(4) PS II Cytochrome P680

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Which of the following is not required for continued oxidation of acetyl-CoA Via the TCA cycle ?

(1) ATP
(2) NAD+
(3) FAD+
(4) Oxaloacetic acid

62) Choose the property which directly provide enough energy to cause a conformational change in
F1 particle of the ATP synthase enzyme. Which make the enzyme synthesis several molecules of ATP
:-

(1) Creation of the proton gradient

(2) Breakdown of the proton gradient
(3) Activity of the plasto-quinone
(4) Activity of NADP reductase enzyme

63) If a plant growing in the condition where only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available
then find correct option :-
(i) No NADPH2 formation
(ii) e– back to same reaction center
(iii) Only PSII is active
(iv) ATP formed
(v) O2 evolution takes-place

(1) iii & iv are correct

(2) ii, iii & iv are correct
(3) i, ii & iv are correct
(4) iv & v are correct

64) Consider the below equation of light reaction

NADP+ + 2H+ + 2e– —→ NADPH + H+
Protons for this equation are taken from :-

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Lumen of thylakoid
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Cytoplasm

65) The fist step of Z–scheme is :

(1) Splitting of water

(2) Excitation of electrons from chlorophyll
(3) Release of oxygen
(4) Synthesis of ATP

66) The biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis includes ?

(A) use of ATP
(B) Synthesis of NADPH + H+
(C) Formation of sugar
(D) Release of oxygen
(E) Reduction

(1) A, C and E only

(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, C and D only

67) How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required respectively for fixation of each
CO2 molecule in sorghum plant ?

(1) 3, 2
(2) 5, 2
(3) 18, 12
(4) 30, 12

68) Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is/are correct ?

(a) PEP is the primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants
(b) Five carbons are present in the CO2 acceptor in calvin cycle in C4 plants.
(c) CO2 is pumped from mesophyl cell to bundle sheeth cell in C4 plant.

(1) a and b
(2) c only
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

69) For the synthesis of one molecule of sucrose, how many ATP molecules are required in
regeneration step of Calvin cycle ?

(1) 12 ATP
(2) 18 ATP
(3) 65 ATP
(4) 24 ATP

70)

How many plants in given box require

CO2 conc > 450 μℓL–1 for optimum photosynthesis:-

 Sugarcane, Maize, Sorghum, Rice, Tomato, Bell pepper, Wheat
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 5

71) Select the correct option:

(1) Temperature → C3 plants respond to high temperature

(2) CO2 → Increase in concentration upto 0.05% for shorter periods can become damaging.
(3) Water → The effect of water as a factor is more on plant rather than directly on photosynthesis.
Light → Show linear relationship between incident light & CO2 fixation rates at hight light
(4)
intensity.

72) Dark reaction are more affected by temperature as compare to light reaction because :-

(1) Glucose formation in dark reaction

(2) It is enzymatic reaction.
(3) It occur in night
(4) It occur in stroma

73) Which statements are correct.

Statement-I : In cellular respiration energy are released in a series of slow step wise reactions
controlled by enzymes.
Statement-II : Energy released by oxidation in respiration is not used directly but is used to
synthesis ATP.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

74) Carbon skeletons produced during respiration is :

(1) Used as energy source

(2) Used as precursors for biosynthesis of other molecules in the cell
(3) Used for synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase
(4) Used as remanant of biosynthesis of proteins

75) In which of the following step ATP is utilised ?

(1) Triose bisphosphate → Triose phosphate

(2) Phosphenol pyruvate → Pyruvic acid
(3) Fructose-6-Phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(4) Both (1) & (2)
76) The number of substrate level of phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

77) Which statement is wrong for Kreb's cycle?

(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+

78) Which of the following complex of mitochondria ETS having two copper centres ?

(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex

(2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex
(4) Cytochrome C-oxidase complex

79) In plant cells, conversion of NADH+H+ to NAD+ during aerobic respiration occurs at-

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Stroma of chloroplast
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Inner mitochondrial membrane

80) Redox equivalent generated during oxidation of succinate in the TCA cycle is received by :

(1) Complex I
(2) Complex II
(3) Complex III
(4) Complex IV

81) How many ATP & NADH formed by one pyruvic acid during aerobic respiration ?

(1) 4 NADH & 1 ATP

(2) 1 NADH & 1 ATP
(3) 8 NADH & 2 ATP
(4) 5 NADH & 1 ATP

82) Glycerol would enter the respiratory pathway after being converted to

(1) PGAL
(2) 3-PGA
(3) 1, 3 bis PGA
(4) Pyruvic acid

83) Respiration can occur in the absence of oxygen then which one is final e– acceptor in yeast cell
during anaerobic respiration :-

(1) Pyruvic acid

(2) Lactic acid
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Ethanol

84) In the Absence of oxygen, the primary purpose of fermentation is to :

(1) Generate proton gradient for ATP synthesis

(2) Regenerate NAD+ from NADH+H+ allowing glycolysis to continue.
(3) The complete oxidation of pyruvate
(4) Transfer electrons to electron carriers of ETS.

85) After Meiosis-II, the resultant daughter cells have-

(1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase.

(2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
(3) Half the amount of DNA is comparison to parent cell.
(4) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell.

86) Which acts as a mobile carrier for the transfer of electrons between complex-II and complex-III ?

(1) Cytochrome-C
(2) Ubi-quinone
(3) Plastocyanin
(4) FAD

87) The productivity is better in C4 plants becomes-

(1) The site of O2 evolution and site of RuBisco activity are same in C4 plants.
(2) They increase the intracellular concentration of CO2 in bundle sheath cells.
(3) The have Bundle sheath
(4) presence of less number of chloroplast in Bundle sheath cells.

88) Photorespiration is a wasteful process in C3 plants, because.

(1) Synthesis of ATP and release of CO2

(2) Utilization of ATP and NADPH2
(3) no synthesis of sugars and Release of CO2
(4) no synthesis of sugars and synthesis of NADPH2
89) Statement-I : At low light conditions neither C3 nor C4 plants responds to high CO2
concentration.
Statement-II : C4 acids like malic acid and pyruvic acid are transported to bundle sheath cells and
broken down to release CO2.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

90) Proteins are broken down into amino acids, which after deamination enter the respiratory
pathway as :

(1) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate

(2) Glucose
(3) Intermediates like pyruvate, acetyl-CoA or Krebs Cycle intermediates
(4) Glycealdehyde-3-phosphate
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 2 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 1 1 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Applying conservation of energy

So Vmax is independent of R.

2) For force on q to be zero, charges q and Q must be of opposite of nature. Net attraction
force on q due to charges Q = Repulsion force on q due to q
so FA = FR

⇒ = ⇒ |q| = 2Q
Hence q = –2Q

Q=

3) Vcentre =

=
Vcentre ≃ 25 Volt

4) Electric field due to arc at its centre = sin

Applying principle of superposition

⇒ Eremaining =

= sin

5)
 = =
E2 > E1 > E3

6)

Ein = 0 & Eout =

So,

7)

Vin = =

So, Vcentre = V1 + V2

= =

8)

V0 = 0

9) Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks for the electric field at a distance r from the centre of
a uniformly charged hollow sphere of radius R, given that the potential at the centre of the
sphere is V. This distance r is outside the sphere (r > R).
Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concepts of electrostatics, specifically the
electric potential and electric field due to a uniformly charged hollow sphere. Outside the
sphere, the electric field behaves as if all the charge were concentrated at the centre, and the
potential and field are related by Coulomb's law.

Relevant Formulas: Potential at centre (and surface) of hollow sphere: , where

 . Electric field outside the sphere: . Here, is the total charge, is the
distance from the centre, and is the radius of the sphere.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Given , solve for : . 2. Substitute into the

electric field formula : . Thus, the electric field at distance outside

the sphere is .
Tips and Tricks: Use the given potential at the centre to express the total charge in terms
of and before calculating the electric field.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the potential inside the hollow sphere (which is constant) with
the electric field inside (which is zero). Also, mixing up the variables and using the wrong
radius in formulas can lead to errors.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices like or do not follow the inverse square
dependence of the electric field outside a point charge. Also, adding in the
denominator is incorrect because the field depends solely on when outside the sphere.

10)

11) flux emitted from the surface S2

12)
 = 10 cm

13)

14)

⇒
⇒ 2Q > 3q

15) By theory

16)

Wext = qΔV
= q (V0 – VA)

17)

Conductor is an equipotential surface.

18)
Enet = 2E

Ein = =
Eout = 0

19)

Correct answer is 2 because if follows all properties.

20)

Both are opposite in nature so neutral point is at out side near to smaller so answer is (2).

21)

F= use charges without sign

use charges with sign

22) All combinations are based on following properties of electric field lines.
Tangent to electric field line represent the direction of resultant electric field at a point.
Field lines originate from a positive charge and terminate on negative charge.
Number of field lines associated with a charge is directly proportional to the magnitude of
charge.
Density of field lines is directly proportional to the strength of electric field.

23)

R is not true

24)
µB > µG > µY > µR
∴ fB < fG < fY < fR

25) A QUESTION EXPLANATION:

A man wants to see his full image in a plane mirror. We need to determine the minimum height
the mirror needs to be and how high it should be placed from the ground.
B CONCEPT:
● Minimum Mirror Size: To see one's full image in a plane mirror, the mirror needs to be
at least half the person's height.
C FORMULA:
● Minimum mirror height = (Height of object) / 2
D CALCULATION:
1. Man's height: 180 cm
2. Distance of eyes from top of head: 10 cm
3. Effective height to be seen in the mirror: 180 cm (The mirror needs to show his full
height)
4. Minimum height of the mirror: 180 cm / 2 = 90 cm
5. Placement of the mirror: The top edge of the mirror should be at the level halfway
between the person's eyes and the top of their head. Since his eyes are 10 cm below the top of
his head, the top of the mirror should
be 10 cm / 2 = 5 cm below the top of his head.
6. Height of the top edge of the mirror from the ground:
○ Height of the top of the head from the ground: 180 cm
○ Distance of top edge of mirror below the top of head: 5 cm
○ Height of the top edge of the mirror from the ground: 180 cm - 5 cm = 175 cm
7. The bottom edge of the mirror is then 90 cm below this, so the bottom of the mirror is
175 cm - 90 cm= 85 cm from the ground.
E ANSWER:
3. 85 cm. The mirror needs to be 90 cm tall, with its bottom edge 85 cm from the ground.

26)

sinθc =
∴ as λ↓, θc↓
λmin for violet
∴ θc min for violet

27) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which physical quantity of light remains unchanged
during both reflection (when light bounces off a surface) and refraction (when light passes
through one medium to another and bends). The options given are wavelength, intensity,
frequency, and velocity.
Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding how light behaves when it
interacts with different media. In reflection, light stays in the same medium, so its properties
generally remain constant. In refraction, light enters a different medium, which changes its
speed and wavelength, but its frequency remains constant because it is determined by the
light source.
Relevant Formulas: The relation connecting speed (v), frequency (f), and wavelength (λ) of a
wave is:
\[ v = f \lambda \]
where: - is the velocity of light in the medium, - is the frequency, - is the wavelength.
Tips and Tricks: Remember: Frequency is constant across reflection and refraction because
it depends on the source; velocity and wavelength can change depending on the medium.
Common Mistakes: Assuming wavelength or speed remains constant in refraction; confusing
intensity changes with fundamental wave properties; forgetting that frequency never changes
because it is source-driven.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Wavelength changes in refraction because speed
changes; intensity can change due to absorption or reflection losses; velocity changes
depending on the medium's refractive index. Only frequency remains the same in both
reflection and refraction.

28)

sinθc =

⇒ = 1.25

29)

... (i)

.... (ii)
f = 15 cm

30)

⇒ Feq =

P= = –1.5 D

31)

m= ⇒

⇒ =
120 = – 30 – u
⇒ u = – 150 cm

32) ⇒ v = 10 cm

33) µ = 1.75

34) 'O' act as focal point

35) f1 = f2 and f3 →∞ or P3 = 0

36) r = =

r=

37) Apparat depth = =

38)

0
AI = m2A =

39)
1 × sin 45° = µ × sin (90 – θ)

= µ cos θ ⇒ cos θ =

sin θ ≥ ⇒

⇒ ⇒µ≥
40) Concept
For a ray to retrace its path after reflection, the emergent angle inside the prism is normal to
the reflecting surface. Use Snell's law and geometry.
Formula

Given i = 45°, prism angle A = 30°, and r = 30° from geometry.

Calculation

Using values:
Correct answer: (3)

41) Given µg = 1.5

From Lens Maker's formula for the plano convex lens

Here, R1 = R
and for plane surface, R2 = ∞

∴ ⇒
When the intervening medium is filled with oil, then focal length of the concave lens formed by
the oil

Here, we have two plane convex lense.

So,

∴ feq = .

42) |dv| = |m2Tdu| ⇒

43)

m2 =
 44)

Using lens makers formula

45) A QUESTION EXPLANATION:

A light ray is incident on a glass slab. The reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular. We
need to find the angle of incidence.
B CONCEPT: Snell's Law: Relates the angles of incidence and refraction to the refractive
indices of the two media.
SOLUTION C FORMULA: Snell's Law: n1sin(i) = n2sin(r)
D CALCULATION: Perpendicular Rays: The reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other. This means the angle between them is 90 degrees.
i + r = 90° r = 90° - i Snell's Law: Let the refractive index of air be 1 and the glass slab √3. 1
× sin(i) = √3 × sin(r) Substitute r = 90° - i:
sin(i) = √3 × sin(90° - i). sin(i) = (√3) × cos(i) Solve for i:
tan(i) = √3
i = tan-1(√3) i = 60°
E ANSWER: Option (4) 60°

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

XeO2F2 → σ bond (IIIrd E.S.)

48)

Hypervalent e– > 8

(14e–)
49)

Bond strength

∝
∝ direction character

50)

XeF2 ∝ sp3d

51)

NCERT, Pg. # 119

52) → tetrahedral
+
H2O → pyramidal
OF2 → bent

53)

54) Asking about : The incorrect statement about hybridization.

Concept : Hybridization of atomic orbitals.
Formula : N/A
Solution/Explanation :
1. The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the atomic orbitals that get hybridized:
This statement is correct.
For example, in sp3 hybridization, one s and three p orbitals combine to form four sp3 hybrid
orbitals.
2. The hybridized orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape: This statement in
correct.
Hybridization leads to the formation of new orbitals with identical energy levels and shapes.
3. The hybrid orbitals are less effective in forming stable bonds than the pure atomic
orbitals: This statement is incorrect.
Hybrid orbitals are more directional and therefore form stronger, more stable bonds than
unhybridized atomic orbitals due to greater overlap.

55)

% s (sp2 > sp3d > sp3d2)

56) NCERT-XI, Part-I Pg.-94

57)

58)

Isoelectronic species have equal no of e–, so equal σ but size, z, IE are different

59)

F > Cl (I.P. ∝ )
Fϴ < Clϴ (IP = EA of neutral atom)

60)

Concept

61)

O.N. ↑, acidic ↑
downside basic ↑ in oxide/hydroxide
In period acidic ↑ left to right

62) Bigger size, electropositive higher

63) ΔHeg of N and IInd ΔHeg is positive

64) Non metallic char EN

NCERT Page No. # 99

65) NCERT Page No. # 941

66) Correct formula is SiO2 (Si+4O2–)

67) OF4, BF63–, SiCl62–, PH5, HFO3, ClF7 not exist

68)

NaCl is electrolyte solid solute

∴

69) π = icRT

i=

70) ΔTb =
∴ Tb = 373 + 1.04 = 374.04

71)

Kb depend on solvent ∴ Kb is different for both solutions.

72)

73)

74)

6% glucose solution =
∴ (ic) urea solution = (ic)1M glucose solution

75)

According to Arrhenius equation

∴ Slope = coefficient of

76)

77) (A) i = 1 + (n – 1) α = 1 + (4 – 1) × 0.8 = 3.4

(B) i = 1 +(n – 1) α = 1 + (3 – 1) × 0.9 = 2.8
(C) 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2
⇒
(D) i = 1 + (5 – 1) × 0.7 = 3.8

78)

Chloroforms and acetone form non ideal solution with –ve deviation from Raoult's law.

79)

80)

Solute can be more than one in homogeneous mixture.

81)

10% u/v = 100 mL solution contain

10 mL ethanol
∴

82)

83)
= 8.16

84)

Vapour pressure is measured for solution having volatile liquid (s) when liquid (s) in equation
with their vapour.

85) ΔTb = mkb

kb = 1

86)

=
 87)

Azeotropes which show the deviation from Raoult's law. See examples of non ideal solution
with the deviation in class copy or in NCERT (new) Page : 14.

88)

⇒
∴ vfinal = 4vinitial

89) ΔTf = mkf

w = 800 g

90)

FPA = FPB
(eq. sol. ∴ kf same)
mA = mB

x = 160

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93, 94

NCERT(H)-XII, Pg. # 103

92) NCERT, Pg # 83,84(B)/92,93(H)

93) Module
NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 105, 106

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 83

95)

Module, Pg. No. # 93

96)
NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 81

97)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 80

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 84

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 83

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 80

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 80

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 81, 82

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 89

104) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 90

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 90

106)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 87

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 91

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 85

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 89

110)

Module, Pg. No. # 102

111) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 91

112)

Module

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 87

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 95

115)

One nucleotide has one base and one phosphate so 20,000 bases means 20, 000 nucleotides so
20, 000 nucleotide have 20, 000 phosphate.

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 98

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 87

118) NCERT Pg. # 92

NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 101
119)

So, Radioactive

120) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92,94

NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 102

121) NCERT, Pg # 93
NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 102

122) NCERT, Pg # 92
NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 102

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 93

124)

Stop codons UAA, UAG, AGA don't have t-RNA and anticodons. So AUU, AUC, UCU anticodon
don't exists.

125) NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 105, 97

The correct answer is: 3. RNA
The essential life processes such as metabolism, translation, and splicing are believed to have
evolved around RNA. This idea is supported by the RNA world hypothesis, which suggests that
early life forms may have relied on RNA both to store genetic information and to catalyze
chemical reactions before the evolution of DNA and proteins.

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 93

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 92

128)
NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 94

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 91

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98
NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 92

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 96
NCERT(H)-XII Pg. # 106

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 99

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 84

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 85

135) NCERT Pg. No. # 91 (E), 101 (H)

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 126

137) NCERT-XI, Pg # 169,170, Fig. 10.3 & 10.4

138) NCERT Pg # 168-170

139) NCERT Pg # 168

140) NCERT PG. 168

141) NCERT-XI Pg.#168

142)

NCERT-XI Pg#127

143)

12 Bivalents
2n = 24
After Meiosis-I = n = 12
in Anaphase-II = 2n = 24
[Chromosome No, double]

144)

NCERT XI Pg. # 142 & 143

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

146) NCERT XI Pg. # 215

147) NCERT (XI) Eng. Pg # 206-208

NCERT (XI) िहदी पे ज # 206-209

148) NCERT Pg. # 137

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 137

150) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 213, Fig. 13.6

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 142

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 140

154) NCERT Pg. # 214

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 140

156) NCERT Pg.#143-144

157) NCERT Pg.#145

158) NCERT Pg # 145

159) For one molecule of sucrose (12C)

⇒ 12 turn ⇒ Calvin cycle
12 regeneration steps
12 ATP

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 150

161)

Water → The effect of water as a factor is more on plant rather than directly on
photosynthesis.

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 150

163)

NCERT XI Pg. # 154

164)

NCERT Pg # 227

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

166)

NCERT Pg # 232
167)

NCERT Pg # 232

168) NCERT Pg. # 160

169)

NCERT, Page 233

170)

Complex II

171)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 159 (diagram 12.3)

172)

NCERT Page No. # 163

173) NCERT XI Page # 231

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 157

175)

After meiosis - II ⇒

Parent cell =

176) NCERT (XI) Pg. No. # 160

177)

NCERT XI ; Page No. # 147

178) NCERT XI Pg. 147

179) NCERT XI Pg. No. 146/148

180) NCERT XI ; Page No. # 162