02-06-2026
4502CPF404016250104 PF
PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS
1) A body starts from rest with constant acceleration a, its velocity after n second is v. The
displacement of body in last two seconds is -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2) The distance of a particle as a function of time is shown below. The graph indicates that -
(1) The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops
(2) The velocity of the particle is constant throughout
(3) The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout in the direction of motion
The particle starts with some constant velocity, the motion is accelerated, and finally the
(4)
particle moves with some constant velocity.
3) A particle starts from rest and its acceleration plotted against time (t) is shown below.
Which of the following represents displacement (s) plotted against
time (t)?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4) The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid
surface is represented by which of the following graphs?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
5) The acceleration-time graph for a body is shown in the figure. The most probable velocity-time
graph for the body is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6) A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point A on the ground. It takes t1 time to reach a
point B but it still continues to move up. If it takes further t2 time to reach the ground from point B
then height of point B from the ground is
(1)
(2) g t1t2
(3)
(4)
7) A stone is dropped in a well where water level is at a depth of 125.0 m. Find the time after which
the sound of the splash is heard by the person who dropped the stone. (take g = 10 m/s2, speed of
sound in air = 350 m/s)
(1) 10 s
(2) 5.36 s
(3) 0.72 s
(4) 5 s
8)
A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity u.
Select the incorrect statements from the following.
I. Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest point.
II. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the highest point.
III. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is g downwards at its highest point.
(1) I, II and III
(2) II and III
(3) I and II
(4) I and III
9) A car is moving with speed 30 m/sec on a circular path of radius 500 m. Its speed is increasing at
the rate of 2m/sec2, What is the centipetal acceleration of the car at this instant
(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 2.7 m/sec2
(3) 1.8 m/sec2
(4) 9.8 m/sec2
10) A flywheel rotating with an angular velocity of 200 rad/s is uniformly accelerated at a rate of 5
rad/s2 for 15 s. Find the final angular velocity of the flywheel both in rad/sec and revolution per
minute.
(1) 275 rad/sec, 28.80 rev/min
(2) 275 rad/sec, 2625 rev/min
(3) 200 rad/sec, 1909.1 rev/min
(4) None of these
11) A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up
vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity v varies with
the height h above the ground as;
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
12) If the radii of circular track of two particles are in the ratio of 4:9 then, in order to have same
centripetal acceleration, their speeds should be in the ratio of
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 9 : 4
13) If the velocity time graph has the shape AMB, what would be the shape of the corresponding
acceleration time graph
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
14) Inside a washing machine, the radius of the cylinder where the clothes sit is 0.50 m. In one of its
settings the machine spins the cylinder at 2.0 revolutions per second. What is the acceleration of an
item of clothing?
(1) 0.080 m/s2
(2) 1.6 m/s2
(3) 8.0 m/s2
(4) 79 m/s2
15) If sin θ = , then the value of sin 2θ will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16) Find the value of sin230° + cos245° + cos230° is :
(1) 1/2
(2)
(3) 3/2
(4) 2/3
17) Given that cosθ = 1/2, find value of is:
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1/2
(4) 0
18) Two equal forces (P each) act at a point inclined to each other at an angle of 120°. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(1) P/2
(2) P/4
(3) P
(4) 2P
19) A ball is dropped off of a cliff of height h. Its velocity upon hitting the ground is v. At what height
above the ground is the ball's velocity equal to v/2?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20) The objects K and L are thrown vertically upwards with initial speeds of vK and vL, as shown in
the figure. What is the ratio if the maximum heights of objects K and L are 2h
and h, respectively? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Section – II : CHEMISTRY
1) Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare 20% (mass percent) solution in 100 gm
of water
(1) 20 gm
(2) 25 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 120 gm
2) Super saturated solution contains
(1) Amount of solute more than saturation level
(2) Amount of solute less than saturation level
(3) Amount of solute equal to saturation level
(4) No solute at all.
3) Find out the concentration of 10% (by weight) solution in terms of , density of the solution is
1.12 gm/ml.
(1) 10%
(2) 12%
(3) 11.2%
(4) 25%
4)
A mixture of non-reacting gases are always
(1) Homogenous
(2) Heterogenous
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above
5)
An emulsion is a colloidal solution formed by mixing
(1) Two miscible liquid
(2) Any two liquids
(3) Any two gases
(4) Two immiscible liquid
6) Which of the following sets of substances would all show the Tyndall effect?
(1) Salt solution, Copper sulphate solution
(2) Sugar solution, Milk
(3) Starch solution, Milk, Mist
(4) Vinegar, Air, Alcohol
7) Brass is considered a homogeneous mixture (alloy) because:
(1) It can be separated into its components by filtration
(2) It has a definite melting point
(3) It shows properties of its constituents (copper and zinc) and has variable composition
(4) It is a compound formed by chemical reaction
8) Calculate the volume of solvent required to prepare 20% volume by volume (v/v) solution by using
70 mL of concentrated H2SO4.
(1) 280 mL
(2) 560 mL
(3) 1120 mL
(4) 2240 mL
9) If 20g of solute can dissolve in 1000g of water at 25°C, then what is the solubility of solute?
(1) 20g
(2) 2g
(3) 0.2g
(4) 200g
10) Which of the following statement is incorrect about solution?
(1) Homogeneous mixture of reacting components
(2) Particle are in size of less than 10–9 m in diameter
(3) Solution is always transparent in nature
(4) None of these
11) A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is
(1) Heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(2) Homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(3) Heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(4) Homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
12) Which of the following properties does not describe a compound ?
(1) It is composed of two or more elements in a fixed ratio
(2) It is a pure substance
(3) It cannot be separated into constituents by physical means
(4) It is mixed in any proportion by mass
13) Select the factor from the options below that has a major effect on the solubility of gases in
liquids but a minimal effect on the solubility of solids in liquids.
(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Pressure
(4) Nature of solute
14)
On heating the mixture of iron and sulphur, it is observed that:
(1) formation of mixture
(2) formation of compound
(3) formation of element
(4) no changes occur
15) Assertion(A): Colloids show Tyndall effect.
Reason(R): The particle size in colloids is large enough to scatter light.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
16) Which of the fallowing is not a chemical change?
(1) Electrolysis of water
(2) Boiling of water
(3) Digestion of food
(4) Burning of magnesium ribbon in oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
17) Select the one that has definite boiling point.
(1) True solution
(2) Compound
(3) Colloid
(4) All of these
18) How many grams of Solute B can be dissolved in 50g of water at 50 degrees celsius to make a
saturated solution?
(1) 50 g
(2) 40 g
(3) 15 g
(4) 60 g
19) Match the column
Column-I Column-II
Tincture of
(A) (p) Water as a solvent
iodine
(B) Soda water (q) Iodine as a solute
Dil. Hydrochloric
(C) (r) CO2 as a solute
acid
(D) Steel (s) Alloy
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(3) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(4) A-q, B-p, C-s, D-r
20) Coca-Cola is carbonated by injecting the liquid with carbon dioxide gas. Under what conditions
is the solubility of carbon dioxide the greatest ?
(1) low temperature, low pressure
(2) low temperature, high pressure
(3) low temperature, pressure is not a factor
(4) high pressure, temperature is not a factor
Section – III : BIOLOGY
1) Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis ?
Condensation → Nuclear membrane assembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division
(1)
→ Segregation
(2) Condensation → Crossing over → Nuclear membrane disassembly → Segregation → Telophase
(3) Condensation → Arrangement at equator → centromere division → Segregation → Telophase
(4) Condensation → Nuclear membrane disassembly → Crossing over → Segregation → Telophase
2) Correct the given statements by replacing the underlined words and select the correct option.
(i) The viscous fluid present in the nucleus is called Cytoplasm.
(ii) Vacuoles are rod shaped structures which oxidize food to provide energy.
(iii) Mitochondria contain green pigment chlorophyll and take part in photosynthesis.
(iv) Lysosomes take part in synthesis of protein.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Nucleoplasm Lysosomes Plastids Centrosome
(2) Protoplasm Ribosomes Centrosome Golgi bodies
(3) Nucleoplasm Mitochondria Chloroplasts Ribosomes
Endoplasmic
(4) Protoplasm Plastids Ribosomes
reticulum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
3) Lysosome arises from
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Nucleus
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Mitochondria
4) Which of the following is known as “Storehouse of RNA”:
(1) Perinuclear space
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Cytoplasm
5) When comparing mitosis in a plant cell to an animal cell, which one of the following summarises
the major differences?
(1) Plant cells do not normally undergo anaphase.
(2) Plant cells spend a longer time in metaphase and anaphase than animal cells.
Animal cells spend longer time in metaphase and lack spindle fibres that are present in plant
(3)
cells.
(4) Plant cells differ in cytokinesis and do not use centrioles to form the spindle system.
6) Which of these structures is the site of attachment of spindle fibre?
(1) Centroid
(2) Aster
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centrosome
7) The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes is also known as :
(1) Nucleus
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Nucleoid
8) According to Chargaff's rule in double stranded DNA
(1) A = C and G = T
(2) A = T and G = C
(3) A = G and T = C
(4) A + T = G + C Always
9) Which of the following is an incorrectly matched pair ?
(1) Autolysis of cell - Peroxisomes
(2) Control centre of the cell - Nucleus
(3) Units of hereditary characteristics - Genes
(4) Formation of spindle fibres - Centrioles
10) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : In a mature plant cell, the nucleus and cell organelles are pushed towards the cell
wall.
Statement 2 : The plant cell have single and large central vacuole which occupies 50-90% of the
cell volume.
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
11) Ribosomes are made up of
(1) Proteins
(2) Lipids
(3) RNA
(4) Both (1) & (3)
12) Enzymes for converting fats to carbohydrates occurs in
(1) Golgi apparatus
(2) Glyoxysomes
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Sphaerosomes
13) Cytoskeleton is made up of
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils
14) Ribosomes of the cytoplasm, chloroplast and mitochondrion are respectively
(1) 80S, 80S and 70S
(2) 80S, 70S and 70S
(3) 70S in all
(4) 80S in all
15) In which one of the following, would you expect to find glyoxysomes?
(1) Palisade cells in leaf
(2) Root hairs
(3) Endosperm of wheat
(4) Endosperm of castor
16) Which of the following enzymes are found in matrix of peroxisomes in animal cells ?
(1) Oxidases
(2) Peroxidases
(3) Catalases
(4) All of the above
17) The part of the cell responsible for maintaining cell shape, internal organization and cell
movement is the -
(1) Vesicle
(2) Nucleus
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Cytoskeleton
18) What does A, B and C represent in the given figure of a chromosome?
A B C
(1) Centriole Satellite Primary constriction
(2) Centriole Satellite Secondary constriction
(3) Centromere Satellite Secondary constriction
(4) Centromere Satellite Primary constriction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
19) Identify the incorrect statement related to figure given below.
(1) It is double helical structure consist of two polynucleotide chains.
(2) Nitrogen bases are joined together by weak hydrogen bonds.
(3) Two nitrogen bases are purine and pyrimidine.
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine with three hydrogen bonds.
20) According to the position of centromere, chromosomes are classified into various types shown in
the figure given below. Identify them.
A B C D
A=Metacentric, B=Acrocentric,
(1)
C=Submetacentric, D=Telocentric
A=Submetacentric, B=Metacentric,
(2)
C=Acrocentric, D=Telocentric
A=Metacentric, B=Submetacentric,
(3)
C=Acrocentric, D=Telocentric
A=Telocentric, B=Submetacentric,
(4)
C=Metacentric, D=Acrocentric
Section – IV : MATHEMATICS
1) If x2 – x – 42 = (x + k) (x + 6); then the value of is
(1) –7
(2) –4
(3) 7
(4) 4
2) The zeroes of polynomial
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3) If x and y are integers, x > 0; y < 0, then the point (–x, y) lies in which quadrant.
(1) II
(2) I
(3) III
(4) IV
4) The Co-ordinate of centroid of with vertices A(–1, 0), B(5, –2) and C(8, 2) is
(1) (12, 0)
(2) (6, 0)
(3) (0, 6)
(4) (4, 0)
5) The end point of diameter of a circle are (2, 4) and (–3, –1). The radius of the circle is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6) For what value x are the points A(–3, 12), B(7, 6) and C(x, 9) are collinear.
(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2
7) If points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are collinear then is equal to
(1) 0
(2) –1
(3) 1
(4) 2
8) Area of a triangle is taken
(1) always positive
(2) always negative
(3) sometimes positive, sometimes negative
(4) None of these
9) The point/s on the y-axis which is at a distance of 13 units from the point (–5, 7).
(1) (0, –5)
(2) (0, 19)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of these
10) If P(x) = 2x – 5, find the value of
(1) –1
(2) –2
(3) 1
(4) 2
11) The graph of linear polynomial is
(1) Straight line
(2) Parabolic
(3) Sometime straight line, some time parabolic
(4) None of these
12) If (1, 3) is a solution of equation 3x + 5y = b , then the value of b is
(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18
13) A plant is 15 cm tall when it is first measured. It grows at a constant rate of 2.5 cm per week. In
how many weeks will it take for the plant to reach a height of 50 cm?
(1) 14 weeks
(2) 13 weeks
(3) 15 weeks
(4) 12 weeks
14) The slope of the line with equation y = 2x + 1 is
(1) 2
(2) –2
(3)
(4)
15) The equation of the line with slope and intercept –4 on the Y axis is
(1)
(2) 3y = x – 12
(3)
(4) 3y = x + 12
16) The intercept of line 3y – 12 = x on the y-axis is
(1) 12
(2) –12
(3) 4
(4) –4
17) A line has slope –3 and passes through the y-axis at the point is given by
(1) 2y = 6x + 1
(2) 2y = – 6x + 1
(3)
(4)
18) The value of polynomial P(x) = 2xm + x3 – 3x2 – 26 at x = 2 is 226, then the value of ‘m’ is
(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
19) The value of polynomial P(x) = –x3 + ax2 + 2a2x at x = –a is
(1) a3
(2) 2a3
(3) 0
(4) 3a3
20) The area of triangle formed by points A(5, 2), B(4, 7) and C(7, –4) is
(1) –2 sq. units
(2) 2 sq. units
(3) –4 sq. units
(4) 4 sq. units
21) If the line segment joining the points (3, –4) and (1, 2) is trisected at points P(a, –2) and
. Then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
22) The slope of a line equally inclined with both the axis and passing through the point (1, 1) is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) –2
23) The points (k – 1, k + 2), (k, k + 1), (k + 1, k) are collinear for
(1) Any value of k
(2)
(3) No value of k
(4) Integral value of k only
24) If 1 is a zero of the polynomial P(x) = ax2 – 3(a – 1) x – 1, then the value of a is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) –1
25) The zeroes of the polynomial P(x) = a(x2 + 1) – x(a2 + 1) are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26) If x = a, y = b is the solution of equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the value of is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
27) The area of the triangle formed by the points (k, 2 – 2k), (–k + 1, 2k) and (–4 – k, 6 – 2k) is 70 sq.
units for
(1) Four real values of k
(2) No integral value of k
(3) Two integral values of k
(4) Only one integral value of k
28) The value of polynomial P(x) = a3x2 + a2x + a ; at is
(1) 7a2
(2) 7a + 3
(3) 7a + 2
(4) 7a
29) The degree of zero polynomial is
(1) zero
(2) one
(3) Not defined
(4) two
30) If x = 2 and y = –3 is a solution of equation 2x – 3y = λ, find λ
(1) –5
(2) 13
(3) –6
(4) –1
Section-III Mental Ability
1) Directions : - In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the
question mark
Flow : River : stagnant : ?
(1) Rain
(2) Stream
(3) Pool
(4) Canal
2) Carbon : Diamond : Corundum : ?
(1) Garnet
(2) Ruby
(3) Pankaj
(4) Pearl
3) Eye : Myopia : : Teeth : ?
(1) Pyorrhea
(2) Cataract
(3) Trachoma
(4) Eczema
4) 12 : 150 : : 18 : ?
(1) 324
(2) 331
(3) 333
(4) 350
5) ‘Indolence’ is related to ‘work’ in the same way as ‘Taciturn’ is related to :
(1) Cheat
(2) Act
(3) Speak
(4) Observe
6) Choose the word which in different from the rest
(1) Potassium
(2) Silicon
(3) Zirconium
(4) Gallium
7) Choose the word which is different from the rest
(1) Hangar
(2) Platform
(3) Dock
(4) Park
8) Choose the word which is different from the rest
(1) Kanpur
(2) Allahabad
(3) Varanasi
(4) Mathura
9) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water image of the given combination.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water image of the given combination.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
ANSWER KEYS
PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 3
Section – II : CHEMISTRY
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 2
Section – III : BIOLOGY
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 4 3
Section – IV : MATHEMATICS
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 2 3 2 3 3 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 2
Section-III Mental Ability
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 4 3
SOLUTIONS
PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS
1)
2)
The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the particle
stops
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
5.36 s
8)
I, II and III
9)
1.8 m/sec2
10)
275 rad/sec, 2625 rev/min
11)
12)
2:3
13)
14)
79 m/s2
15)
16)
3/2
17)
Option (1) correct
18)
Option (3) correct
19)
20)
Section – II : CHEMISTRY
21)
Explain Question: Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate (solute) needed to make a 20%
solution using 100g of water (solvent).
Concept: Concentration of solutions
Solution :- Let the mass of sodium sulphate required be = xg
The mass of solution = (x + 100)g
x g of solute in (x + 100) g of solution
20% =
20x + 2000 = 100
80x = 2000
x=
Final answer: Option (2) is correct
22) Explain Question: Super saturated solution contains ___
Concept: This question is based on types of solutions
Solution: A supersaturated solution holds more solute than its saturation limit at a given
temperature Final answer: 1
23) Question Explanation : Conversion of weight/weight percentage to weight/volume
percentage.
Concept : Concentration Unit Conversion
Solution :
The relationship between weight/weight percentage ( ), weight/volume percentage
(), and density (d) is:
Given:
A.
B. Density (d) =
Calculation:
Detailed Derivation:
Let mass of solution = .
A. Since is , Mass of Solute = .
B. Volume of Solution = .
C.
Final Answer : Option 3
24) Question Explanation: Nature of a gaseous mixture.
Concept: Homogeneous Mixtures.
Solution: When non-reacting gases are mixed, their particles diffuse and intermingle
completely, resulting in a mixture with a perfectly uniform composition. Therefore, a mixture
of gases is always homogeneous.
Final Answer: Option 1
25)
In emulsion liquid will dispersed in liquid.
26) All these are colloids (or contain colloidal-sized particles) which have the ability to scatter
light. True solutions like salt or sugar solutions do not scatter light.
27) Alloys are solid solutions. They are classified as mixtures because they retain the
characteristics of their constituent metals and their proportion can be varied, unlike a
chemical compound.
28)
x = 280
29)
The maximum amount of solute in grams which can be dissolved in 100g of the solvent at a
given temperature to form a saturated solution is called solubility of the solute.
1000g of water dissolves 20g of solute
Therefore, 100g of water dissolves 2g of solute.
So, the solubility of solute is 2g.
30)
In solution components must be non-reactive.
31) Sulphur dissolves in carbon disulphide, forms homogeneous mixture i.e., true solution,
true solutions do not show tyndall effect.
32) Compound is a pure substance.
33)
Pressure significantly affects gas solubility in liquids (Henry’s Law).
34)
formation of compound
35) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
36) (2) Boiling of water
37) Question Explanation: Identifying a substance with a fixed boiling point.
Concept: Properties of Pure Substances.
Solution: Pure substances have definite physical properties like a fixed boiling point.
Compounds are pure substances. Mixtures like true solutions and colloids boil over a range of
temperatures because their composition changes as the more volatile component evaporates.
Final Answer: Option 2
38)
Question Explanation: Calculate the mass of Solute B needed to saturate 50g of water at
50°C based on the provided graph.
Concept: Solubility Curve
Solution: At 50°C, the red curve for Solute B intersects the y-axis near to 30g per 100g of
water.
To find the amount for 50g of water, we take half of the value shown on the graph (30/2 =
15g).
Final Answer: Option 3
39) Explain Question: Match each substance in Column-I with its correct description or
component from Column-II.
Concept: This involves identifying the solute (substance being dissolved), solvent (substance
doing the dissolving), and the type of mixture (like solutions and alloys).
Solution :- There is iodine as solute in tincture of iodine, CO2 as a solute in soda water, water
as a solvent in dilute hydrochloric acid and steel is an alloy.
Final answer: Option (2) is correct
40) Solubility of gases increases with decreases in temperature and increase in pressure
(Henry's law)
Section – III : BIOLOGY
41)
Condensation → Arrangement at equator → centromere division → Segregation → Telophase
42)
Explain Question:
It asks about the role of various cell organelles.
Concept:
Cell organelle
Solution:
Correct the given statements by replacing the underlined words and select the correct option.
(i) The viscous fluid present in the nucleus is called nucleoplasm.
(ii) mitochondria are rod shaped structures which oxidize food to provide energy.
(iii) chloroplast contain green pigment chlorophyll and take part in photosynthesis.
(iv) Ribosomes take part in synthesis of protein.
Final Answer: Option (3)
43) Lysosome arises from Golgi apparatus.
44)
Explain Question:
It is asking for cell organelle that is called storehouse of RNA.
Concept: This question is based on Nucleus.
Solution:
Nucleolus is known as “Storehouse of RNA” because it plays a central role in the synthesis and
assembly of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and the formation of ribosomes.
Final Answer:
option (3) is correct.
45)
Plant cells differ in cytokinesis and do not use centrioles to form the spindle system.
46) Kinetochore is the site of attachment of spindle fibre
47) Correct Answer (4)
48) A = T and G = C
49) Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrect match between an organelle and its
function.
Concept: Functions of Cell Organelles and Structures
Solution:Autolysis (self-digestion) of the cell is the function of Lysosomes , which contain
digestive enzymes. Peroxisomes are primarily involved in breaking down very long-chain fatty
acids and protecting the cell from toxic oxygen species e.g. , hydrogen peroxide). Therefore,
Autolysis of cell - Peroxisomes is the incorrectly matched pair .
Final Answer: option (1)
50)
Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
51)
Ribosomes are composed primarily of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
52) Through glyoxylate cycle, the fats are converted into carbohydrates in glyoxysomes.
53)
Proteinaceous filaments
54)
Ribosomes in cytoplasm are 80s type.
Ribosomes in chloroplast are 70s type.
Ribosomes in mitochondrion are 80s type.
55) Glyoxisomes converts the fatty acids into sugar. One can expect to find them in endosperm
of castor, as castor is the rich source of fats. They are also found in guard cells of stomata.
56) Oxidases, proxidases, catalases are enzymes present in peroxisomes.
57) It is a structure that helps cells to maintain their shape and internal organisation.
58)
Option (3) correct
59)
Adenine pairs with thymine with three hydrogen bonds.
60)
A=Metacentric, B=Submetacentric,
C=Acrocentric, D=Telocentric
Section – IV : MATHEMATICS
61) –4
62)
63) III
64) (4, 0)
65)
66) 2
67) 1
68) always positive
69) Both (a) and (b)
70) –2
71) Straight line
72) 18
73) 14 weeks
74) 2
75) 3y = x – 12
76) 4
77) 2y = – 6x + 1
78) 7
79) 0
80) 2 sq. units
81)
82) 1
83) Any value of k
84) 1
85)
86) 2
87) Only one integral value of k
88) 7a
89) Not defined
90) 13
Section-III Mental Ability
91) Pool
92) Ruby
93) Pyorrhea
94) 333
95) Speak
96) Potassium
97) Park
98) Mathura
99)
100)