13-06-2026

0000OMD303029250012 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the network shown the net resistance between points P and Q is :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 6 Ω

2) The resistance of a galvanometer is 10 Ω. It gives full–scale deflection when 1 mA current is

passed. The resistance connected in series for converting it into a voltmeter of 2.5 V will be :-

(1) 24.9 Ω
(2) 249 Ω
(3) 2490 Ω
(4) 24900 Ω

3) Three identical bulbs are connected in a circuit as shown. What will happen to the brightness of

bulbs A & B if the switch is closed ?

(1) Decreases
(2) Remains same
(3) Increases
(4) Bulbs A & B will not glow

4) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed u. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed u/2, the closest

distance of approach would be :

(1) 4r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

5) An electric dipole of dipole moment P is kept perpendicular to the plane of two large charged

conducting plates as shown. The potential energy of the dipole is given as -

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)
A capacitor of 2µF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2,
the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

(1) 0%
(2) 20%
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

7) A capacitor of 20 μF is charged to 500 volt and a capacitor of 10μF is charged to 200 volt and
connected. Then after connecting both of them, the common potential for each will be :-

(1) 500 V
(2) 400 V
(3) 350V
(4) 200 V

8) An astronomical telescope has magnifying power 5 for distant object. The separation between the
objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal length fo of
the objective and fe of the eye-piece are respectively :-
(1) 45 cm and 9 cm
(2) 50 cm and 10 cm
(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm
(4) 30 cm and 6 cm

0
9) In YDSE, intensity at central maxima is I . The ratio , at path difference on the screen from
central maxima, is closed to

(1) 0.74
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.9
(4) 0.85

10) Assertion :- In a simple microscope, image formed is virtual, erect and magnified.
Reason :- Object to be seen is held between optical centre and focus of the convex lens.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

11) A light ray is incident normally on the surface AB of a prism of refracting angle 60°. If the light

ray does not emerge from AC, then refractive index of the prism will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If the energy of electron is 10KeV then find out the value of de-broglie wavelength associated
with it :-

(1) 0.186Å
(2) 1.227Å
(3) 0.122Å
(4) 12.27Å
13) Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, the one which lies wholly in the ultraviolet
region is :-

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

14) If potential Barrier curve for unbiased diode given below than potential barrier curve for forward

biased will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted
per second by a 100 W lamp? Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 10–5 cm.

(1) 1.4 × 1019

(2) 3 × 103
(3) 1.4 × 10–19
(4) 3 × 104

16) A helium nucleus 2He4 can be produced by fusing two deuterium nuclei. If the nuclear masses of
deuterium and helium nuclei are 2.0149 a.m.u. and 4.0027 amu respectively, then the energy
liberated in this process is :-

(1) 28.3 MeV

(2) 25.24 MeV
(3) 47.6 MeV
(4) 11.9 MeV

17) Figure gives a system of logic gates. It can be found that to produce a high output (1) at R, we
must have :-

(1) X = 0, Y = 1
(2) X = 1, Y = 1
(3) X = 1, Y = 0
(4) X = 0, Y = 0

18) In an unbiased p-n Junction holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because :-

(1) Free electron in n-region attract them

(2) They move across the junction by potential difference
(3) Hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region
(4) All

19) Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part
is r and the length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O

will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Match the entries given in both the columns, For a series RLC AC circuit -

Column-I Column-II

(1) Circuit will be inductor dominant

(P) ωsource > ωresonant
(2) Circuit will be capacitor-dominant

Neither inductor, nor capacitor will

(3)
(Q) ωsource < ωresonant be dominant in circuit

(4) Current will lead voltage

(5) Current will lag voltage

(R) ωsource = ωresonant
(6) Current will be in phase with voltage
(1) P-2,5 ; Q-1,6 ; R-3,4
(2) P-1,5 ; Q-2,4 ; R-3,6
(3) P-2,6 ; Q-1,4 ; R-3,5
(4) P-1,5 ; Q-3,6 ; R-2,4

21) For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following
combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B)
respectively?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) A coil of magnetic dipole moment M and moment of inertia I is kept such that its dipole moment
is perpendicular to magnetic field B. Find out the maximum angular speed of coil, when it is
released.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) For a transformer, the turns ratio is 3 and its efficiency is 0.75. The current flowing in the
primary coil is 2A and the voltage applied to it is 100 V. Then the voltage and the current flowing in
the secondary coil are respectively :–

(1) 150 V, 1.5 A

(2) 300 V, 0.5 A
(3) 300 V, 1.5 A
(4) 150 V, 0.5 A

24) Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed close together such that the effective
flux in one coil is partially linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :-
(Given K = 0.5)

(1) 2 mH
(2) 4 mH
(3) 6 mH
(4) 8 mH

25) When a voltage Vs = sin (ωt + 15°) is applied to an AC circuit the current in the circuit is

found to be i = 2 sin (ωt + ) then average power consumed in the circuit is :-

(1) 200 watt
(2) 400 watt
(3) 100 watt
(4) 200 watt

26) A particle is projected vertically up with speed 30 ms–1 from top of a tower of height 35 m. The
time after which the particle will reach on the ground is :

(1) 7 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) sec
(4) 9 sec

27) Consider the solid sphere moving on horizontal surface. At some instant it has linear velocity v
and angular velocity about center of mass v0/2R. The translational velocity, after the sphere starts

pure rolling, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Find the value of acceleration of the blocks for the system shown in figure. [The string does not

slip on the pulley (disc)]

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 10 m/s2
29) With the help of displacement (x) – velocity (v) equation, for SHM, determine the
time period.

(1) 3.14 s
(2) 1.07 s
(3) 6.28 s
(4) 4.21 s

30) A liquid of mass m and specific heat C is at temperature 3T. Another liquid of mass 2m and
unknown specific heat is at temperature T. When both liquid are mixed, the final temperature of

mixture is . The specific heat of unknown liquid is :

(1) 2C

(2)

(3)

(4) None

31) An iron tyre is to be fitted on a wooden wheel 1.0 m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is 6
mm smaller than that of wheel. The temperature of tyre should be increased by : (γiron = 3.6 ×
10–5 °C–1)

(1) 167°C
(2) 344°C
(3) 500°C
(4) 1000°C

32) In the figure shown, pulley, strings and spring are ideal. Find the potential energy stored in the

spring (m1>m2). (consider equilibrium)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) A particle is being acted upon by one dimensional conservative force. In the F-x curve shown,
four points P, Q, R, S are marked. Match the columns correctly and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

(a) At point P (k) Neutral equilibrium

(b) At point Q (ℓ) Stable equilibrium

(c) At point R (m) Unstable equilibrium

(d) At point S (n) No equilibrium

(1) (a–k), (b–ℓ), (c–m), (d–n)
(2) (a–n), (b–m), (c–ℓ), (d–k)
(3) (a–ℓ), (b–n), (c–m), (d–k)
(4) (a–ℓ), (b–m), (c–n), (d–k)

34) If acceleration of a particle is a = 2x then find out velocity at x = 3 m if particle starts from
origin.

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) m/s

35) A 60 kg man is standing on a 40 kg platform. In given figure pulleys and strings are massless
and frictionless. Find tension applied by the man such that system remains in equilibrium :

(1)
N
(2) 300 N
(3) 250 N
(4) 200 N

36) A 2 kg particle is dropped from height 5m. After collision with surface it rebound back to height
1.8 m. Find out impulse due to collision.

(1) 8 kg - m/s
(2) 16 kg - m/s
(3) 32 kg -m/s
(4) Zero

37) A particle is suspended from a string of length R. It is given a velocity at the bottom.

Find velocity at B :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Assertion (A) : When a bomb at rest explodes. The centre of mass of fragments can move either
in straight line or parabolic path.
Reason (R) : Under the effect of gravity only the path followed by centre of mass is always
parabolic.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

39) A rocket has a mass of 100 kg. 90% of this is fuel, it ejects fuel vapours at the rate of 1 kg/sec
with a velocity of 500m/sec relative to the rocket, it is supposed that the rocket is outside the
gravitational field. The initial upthrust on the rocket when it just starts moving upwards is :

(1) Zero
(2) 500 N
(3) 1000 N
(4) 2000 N

40) On a planet (whose size is the same as that of earth and mass is 4 times of the earth) the energy
needed to lift a 2 kg mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet is (g = 10m/sec2 on
surface of earth)
(1) 16 J
(2) 32 J
(3) 160 J
(4) 320 J

41) A tank is filled with water upto height H. When a hole is made at a distance h below the level of
water, what will be the horizontal range of water jet ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) An organ pipe P1 closed at one end and vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open at
both ends vibrating in its second overtone are in resonances. The ratio of length of pipes P1 and P2 is
:-

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 3/4

43) Assertion :- The speed of sound in solids is maximum though their density is large.
Reason :- Speed is inversely proportional to density.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) A metal ball of mass 2kg moving with a velocity of 36 km/h has a head on collision with a
stationary ball of mass 3kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, the loss in kinetic
energy due to collision is :-

(1) 40 J
(2) 60 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 140 J

45) Find the centre of mass of the given rod of length L as shown in fig :-
(1) 0.75 L
(2) 0.8 L
(3) 0.67 L
(4) 0.9 L

CHEMISTRY

1) Match the column-

Column-I Column-II

(i) MgSO4.7H2O (p) White vitriol

(ii) ZnSO4.7H2O (q) Blue vitriol

(iii) CuSO4.5H2O (r) Epsom salt

(iv) FeSO4.7H2O (s) Green vitriol

(1) (i) - p, (ii) - q, (iii) - r, (iv) - s
(2) (i) - s, (ii) - q, (iii) - r, (iv) - p
(3) (i) - s, (ii) - r, (iii) - q, (iv) - p
(4) (i) - r, (ii) - p, (iii) - q, (iv) - s

2) Disproportion can not be shown by

(1) in acidic medium

(2) Cu in aquous medium
+

(3) in acidic medium

H3PO3
(4)

3) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) Raw mango placed in concentrated salt solution loses water via osmosis and shrivel into pickle
(2) Wilted flowers revive when placed in fresh water due to osmosis.
Water movement from soil into plant roots and subsequently into upper portion of the plant is
(3)
partly due to osmosis.
(4) Value of Kb, molal elevation constant depends on nature of solute and temperature.

4) Under the condition of similar temperature, which of the following solution will have minimum
vapour pressure ?

(1) 0.1M glucose

(2) 0.1M KCl
(3) 0.1M MgCl2
(4) 0.1 M FeCl3

5) Which of the following is true for mixture of benzene and toluene :

(1) ΔHmix > 0

(2) ΔVmix = 0
(3) These will form minimum boiling azeotrope
(4) These will not form ideal solution

6) Using the data given below, find out the strongest reducing agent :

(1) Cl–
(2) Cr
(3) Cr+3
(4) Mn+2

7) Statement-I : Cu+2 ion never forms complex with CN– & I– ions.
Statement-II : Cu+2 is a stronger oxidising while CN– & I– both are stronger reducing agent.

Both statement-I and statement-II are correct & statement-II is the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-I.
Both statement-I and statement-II are correct & statement-II is not the correct explanation of
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II s not correct
(4) Both statement are incorrect

8) Disodium hydrogen phosphate is used to test :

(1) Mg+2
(2) Ni+2
(3) Ca+2
(4) Pb+2

9) The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction

was 1.24 × 10–2 mol L–1 at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10–2 mol L–1.
The rate constant of reaction at 318 K is :
[ℓn 6.2 = 1.824]

(1) 1.78 × 10–2 min–1

(2) 3.04 × 10–2 min–1
(3) 4.82 × 10–2 min–1
(4) 7.00 × 10–2 min–1

10) Select the correct statement for lead storage battery.

(1) It consists of a grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode

(2) A 50% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte
(3) When battery is in use then PbO2 is converted to PbSO4 (s) at cathode
(4) On charging the battery concentration of H2SO4 decreases.

11) Select the correct statement :-

(1) Shape of crystals of potash alum is octahedral

(2) Potash Alum is yellow in colour
(3) Polash Alum gives five ions in aqueous solution
(4) All are correct

12) In the given structure of solid SO3, no. of sp3 hybridised atoms is x and no. of pπ - dπ bonds is y,

than find out the value of x/y ?

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) ∞
(4) 2

13) 'CH4' gas is obtained in :-

(a) Hydrolysis of Al4C3
(b) Hydrolysis of Be2C
(c) Hydrolysis of Mg2C3
(d) Hydrolysis of CaC2

(1) only a, b, c
(2) only a, b
(3) only a, c
(4) only b, c, d

14) Order of increasing melting point is :-

(1) Zn < Cu < Ni < Fe
(2) Fe < Ni < Cu < Zn
(3) Ni < Fe < Zn < Cu
(4) Cu < Zn < Fe < Ni

15)

The major product formed in the given reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)
Product D is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) Ammonium molybdate is used for detection of which element in organic compound ?

(1) C
(2) N
(3) P
(4) S

18)
Product is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Statement-I: The cyano group cannot be introduced by nucleophilic substitution of chlorine in
chloro benzene.
Statement-II: Cyanobenzene can be easily obtained from diazonium salt, by the action of CuCN /
KCN.

(1) Statement-I and II, Both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & II, Both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct & II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

20)
 List-I List-II

D-glucose &
(P) (I) C-2 Epimer
D-fructose (open chain)

Functional group
(Q) Glucose & Mannose (II)
isomer

D-glyceraldehyde &
(R) (III) Enantiomer
L-glyceraldehyde

1-propanol & Position

(S) (IV)
2-propanol isomer
Correctly match list-I with list-II
(1) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV
(2) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(3) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
(4) P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I

21)
Which reagent is used :-

(1) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) HNO2 (0°–5°C)

(i) DIBAL – H, H3O⊕
(2)
(ii) NaBH4
(3) Na(Hg)/C2H5OH
(4) All of these

22)
How many π bonds are present in compound (A) :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

23)
P (major product) is

(1) C6H5–OC2H5
(2) C2H5–O–C2H5
(3) C6H5–O–C6H5
(4) C6H5–I

24) Which of the following can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis :-

(1) CH3–CH2–NH2

(2)

(3)

(4) (CH3)2NH

25) Statement-I :- is more stable than

Statement-II :- +I effect of –CD3 group is more than that of –CH3 group.

(1) Both Statements I & II are True

(2) Both Statements I & II are false
(3) Statements I is False but Statements II is True.
(4) Statements I is true but Statements II is false

26) Which one is correct acidic strength order ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Find correct order of nucleophilicity :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) d > a > b > c

(2) a > d > b > c
(3) a > b > c > d
(4) b > c > a > d

28) Which of the following gets decarboxylaled rapidly on heating ?

(1) CH3–COOH
(2) CH3–CH2–COOH

(3)

(4)

29) Calculate the moles of (NH4)2SO4 that should be added to 1L solution containing 0.2M aqueous
ammonia in order to form a buffer solution of pH 8.26 (pKb = 4.74)

(1) 1 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 0.5 mol
(4) 1.5 mol

30) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) ΔHHydration

(B) (Q) ΔHneutralisation

(C) (R) ΔHformation

(D) (S) ΔHcombustion

Select correct option for matching of column I and II

(1) A → S, B → R, C → P, D → Q
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R, D → S
(3) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
(4) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P

31) Which is incorrect?

(1) ΔG = –RT ln Q
(2) ΔGº = –RT ln K
(3) ΔGº = –2.303 RT log K
(4) ΔG = ΔGº + RT ln Q
32) For equilibrium 2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)

Factor Effect

Equilibrium shift
(A) Increasing pressure (P) to backward
direction

Equilibrium shift to
(B) By adding CH3OH (Q)
forward direction

By adding inert gas Production of

(C) (R)
at constant volume CH3OH increases

(S) No effect

More amount of CO
(T)
will be produced
(1) A → Q, R; B → P, T; C → S
(2) A → Q, T; B → S; C → P, R
(3) A → S; B → P, R; C → Q, T
(4) A → Q, R; B → S; C → P, T

33)

28 gm N2 reacts with 32 gm O2 to produce N2O5. Which reactant will remain unreacted and how
much :-

(1) N2, 16.8 g

(2) O2, 24.8 g
(3) N2, 14.4 g
(4) O2, 19.6 g

34) Choose correct match

Atomic Number Symbol IUPAC Official Name

(1) 102 Unp Lawrencium

(2) 114 Unq Livermorium

(3) 107 Uns Bohrium

(4) 109 Uuh Meitnerium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) If ionic radius of Li, Be and Na are 76 pm, 31 pm and 102 pm then identify the ionic radius of Mg
in pm.
(1) 90
(2) 72
(3) 109
(4) 77

36)

In Brown ring complex sum of iron oxidation state, coordination number and number of ions will be -

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

37) Which of the following is correct for ideal gas ?

(1) For isothermal reversible & irreversible process ΔU=0, ΔStotal = 0

(2) For isothermal reversible process ΔU=0, ΔStotal > 0
(3) For isothermal irreversible process ΔU=0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
(4) For isothermal irreversible process ΔU≠0, ΔStotal ≠ 0

38)

Match the following for reaction

CH3COOH + NH3 ⇌

Column-I Column-II

Ka of CH3COOH × Kb for
(A) (P) 10–14
CH3COOϴ at 25°C

(B) Conjugate acid of NH3 (Q) 10–12

(C) Ionic product of water at 90ºC (R) CH3COOϴ

(D) Conjugate base of CH3COOH (S)

(1) A→P, B→S, C→R, D→Q
(2) A→Q, B→S, C→R, D→P
(3) A→Q, B→S, C→P, D→R
(4) A→P, B→S, C→Q, D→R

39) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(Pair of Compound) (Similar Property)

(P) CO2 , (A) At least one is polar

(Q) C6H6 , B3N3H6 (B) Same valence electrons

 (R) PCl3F2 , PCl2F3 (C) Central atom has same hybridisation

(S) BF3 , N(CH3)3 (D) Contain π-bond

(E) Planar
Choose the correct matching.
(1) P→A,B,C,D; Q→B,C,D; R→C,D; S→D,E
(2) P→A,B,C,D; Q→B,C,D; R→C,D,E; S→A,B
(3) P→B,C,D,E; Q→B,C,D,E; R→A,B,C; S→A
(4) P→B,C,D,E; Q→A,B,C; R→B,C,D,E; S→C,D,E

40) Identify wrong one in following compound as per IUPAC rules?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) What quantity of 50% pure sample of MgCO3 on heating will give 20 kg MgO

(1) 42 kg
(2) 84 kg
(3) 40 kg
(4) 168 kg

42) The potential energy of electron revolving in the second excited state of Be+3 ion is :-

(1) –1.51eV
(2) –48.35eV
(3) –24.17eV
(4) –15.3eV

43) Which of the following orientation of orbitals represents the out of phase overlap :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

44) If molecular plane of C2H4 is xy plane then which of the following overlapping is not possible ?

(1) sp2 - sp2

(2) sp2 - s
(3) pz - pz
(4) py - py

45) Statement-1 : Most of MX4 (tetrahalides of grp-14) are covalent in nature.

Statement-2 : SnF4 and PbF4 are ionic in nature.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of genetic material ?

(1) It should be chemically and structurally more stable

(2) It provides scope for slow changes i.e. mutation
(3) It should be able to generates it's replica
(4) It should not be expressed itself in the form of Mendelian character

2) Match List -I with List - II.

List -I List - II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Sucrose

(b) Nutrient medium (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

4) Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism

(b) Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism

(c) Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation

(d) Orchid-Mango (iv) Competition

Select the correct option from following :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

5) The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT:

(1) Detritus rich in sugars

(2) Warm and moist environment
(3) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(4) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin

6) The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other is :-
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

7) AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?

(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA

8) If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered?

(1) 11
(2) 33
(3) 333
(4) 1

9) Spliceosomes are not found in cells of :-

(1) Fungi
(2) Animals
(3) Bacteria
(4) Plants

10) Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to
extinction ?

(1) Over - exploitation

(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Co-extinctions

11) Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

Microbe Product Application

Trichoderma immunosup-
(1) Cyclosporin A
polysporum pressive drug
 Monascus lowering of
(2) Statins
purpureus blood cholesterol

removal of
(3) Streptococcus Streptokinase clot from
blood vessel

Clostridium removal of
(4) Lipase
butylicum oil stains
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic
model is given as dN/dt = rN(1–N/K):-

(1) when N/K is exactly one.

(2) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero.
(4) when death rate is greater than birth rate.

13) High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that :-

(1) Water is highly polluted

(2) Water is less polluted
(3) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
(4) Water is pure

14) Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts ?

(1) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate

(2) IAA and kinetin
(3) IAA and gibberellins
(4) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride

15) Geitonogamy involves :

(1) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant.
(2) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower.
(3) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population.
fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant
(4)
population.

16) What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters :-

(1) Methane and CO2 only

(2) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
(3) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2
(4) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2

17) A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and
normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

18) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

(1) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(2) Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
Humification – Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes
(3)
microbial action at a very fast rate
(4) Catabolism – Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition

19)

Megasporangium is equivalent to :

(1) Ovule
(2) Embryo sac
(3) Fruit
(4) Nucellus

20) Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination
frequency ?

If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in
(1)
every meiosis
(2) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(3) The genes are tightly linked
(4) The genes show independent assortment

21) Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique ?

(1) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
(3) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(4) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

22) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled us
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In rDNA technology non recombinants transformed bacteria grow on the medium
containing ampicillin as well as medium containing tetracycline.
Reason (R) : Recombinant plasmids contain the foreign DNA or gene of interest.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

23) Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector

Construction of first
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii)
rDNA molecule

Agrobacterium
(c) (iii) DNA polymerase
tumefaciens

Salmonella
(d) (iv) Cry proteins
typhimurium

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) The complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen
atoms :

(1) Leaving two molecules of CO2

(2) Leaving four molecules of CO2
(3) Leaving three molecules of CO2
(4) Leaving six molecules of CO2

25) According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about :-

(1) 7 million
(2) 1.5 million
(3) 1.7-1.8 million
(4) 20 million

26) Fill in the blanks :-

India has only __(A)__ percent of world's land area, its share of the global species diversity is an
impressive __(B)__ percent.
Select the correct value of (A) and (B) from given options :

(1) A-8.1, B-2.4

(2) A-2.4, B-8.1
(3) A-2.4, B-12
(4) A-2.4, B-23

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene 'I'.

(2) i gene does not produce any sugar.
(3) Six different phenotypes of the human ABO blood types are possible.
(4) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.

28) When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males
and intercrossed their F2 progeny then what results he observed ?

(1) 98.7% recombinant types

(2) 1.3% recombinant types
(3) 62.8% parental types
(4) 37.2% recombinant types

29) Which of the following inheritance is possible in given pedigree ?

(1) X-linked dominant

(2) X-linked recessive
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) Autosomal dominant

30)

About genotype Tt select out the incorrect statement -

(1) Allelic gene pair

(2) Can be present on non homologous chromosome
(3) They share common locus
(4) They share same character
31) Chrysophytes include –

(1) Dinoflagellates and Diatoms.

(2) Diatoms and Euglenoids.
(3) Diatoms and Desmids
(4) Dinoflagellates and Desmids

32) Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a Albugo (i) White spots on mustard

b Puccinia (ii) Antibiotics

c Penicillium (iii) Edible fungi

d Morels and truffles (iv) Rust fungus

(1) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(3) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)
(4) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (iv)

33) A new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease
was discovered by –

(1) W.M. Stanley

(2) M.W. Beijerinek
(3) D.J. Ivanowsky
(4) T.O. Diener

34) Rosette of leaves and tuft of roots are found in :-

(1) Mint
(2) Lily
(3) Pistia
(4) Lotus

35) Which type of aestivation is found in corolla of fabaceae family ?

(1) Imbricate
(2) Valvate
(3) Vexillary
(4) Twisted

36) Select the correct matching of the characteristics in respect of C3 and C4 plants.

Characteristics C3 plant C4 plant

 a Primary CO2 acceptor RuBP PEP

b Occurence of RuBiSCO Bundle sheath Mesophyll

c Primary CO2 fixation product PGA OAA

d Temperature optimum 20°-25°C 30°-40°C

(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) b and d

37) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Prophase → Chromosomal material condense to form compact chromosome

(2) Metaphase → Spindle fibres attach to secondary constriction of chromosome
(3) Anaphase → Chromosome are moved to equator
(4) Telophase → Nuclear mumbrane breaks

38) How many of the given statements are correct ?

(i) Most algal genera show haplontic life cycle.
(ii) Fucus, an alga shows diplontic life cycle.
(iii) Ectocarpous, Polysiphonia and kelps show haplo-diplontic life cycle.
(iv) Bryophytes and pteridophytes exhibit Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
(v) In diplontic life cycle sporophytic generation is represented only by one celled zygote.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) All

39) Which of the following occurs in grasses and regenerates parts removed by the grazing
herbivores ?

(1) Promeristem
(2) Primary meristem
(3) Secondary meristem
(4) Lateral meristem

40) If number of chromosome is 26 and DNA amount is 2c in a cell before S phase. What will
be chromosome number and DNA amount in cell after S phase ?

(1) 26, 2c
(2) 52, 2c
(3) 26, 4c
(4) 52, 4c

41) Which of the following is/are function/s of cell wall ?

(I) Provides shape to the cell.
(II) Protects the cell from mechanical damage.
(III) Protect the cell from infection.
(IV) Helps in cell growth.

(1) Only (I)

(2) Only (II) & (III)
(3) Only (I), (II) & (III)
(4) All of the above

42) ........... is used to initiate flowering and synchronising fruit-set in pineapple :-

(1) ABA
(2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin
(4) Cytokinin

43) Identify the correct taxonomic hierarchy for Solanum tuberosum and Solanum nigrum ?

(1) Solanaceae → Polymoniales → Plantae

(2) Solanaceae → Convolvulaceae → Poales
(3) Convolvulaceae → Polymoniales → Dicotyledonae
(4) Solanaceae → Sapindales → Monocotyledonae

44) Prothallus is :-

(1) A gametophyte of bryophyte

(2) Produced by fusion of gametes
(3) Small, multicellular, free living and mostly photosynthetic body
(4) A creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous body

45) In Go-stage :

(1) Cell prepares for division

(2) Cell remains metabolically inactive
(3) Cell enters in quiescent stage
(4) Cell Exits from G2-phase

46) Choose the correct option regarding bryophytes?

(1) Zygote do not undergo reduction division immediately

(2) Spores germinate to produce sporophyte
(3) The main plant body of the bryophytes is diploid and bear dependent haploid body.
(4) Main plant body differentiated into true leaves, stem and roots
47) Which of the phase is represented by given diagram :-

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Metaphase-I

48)
This is the formula of :-

(1) Steroid
(2) Lecithin
(3) Triglyceride
(4) Monoglyceride

49)

Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D select the right option for two correct
statements :-
(A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only
(B) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
(D) Stroma lamellae membrane lack PSII as well as NADP reductase enzyme

(1) C and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

50) The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part :-

(1) Dicotyledonous root

(2) Monocotyledonous stem
(3) Monocotyledonous root
(4) Dicotyledonous stem

51) Which of these statements is incorrect ?

(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

52) How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish,
gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers ?

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Three
(4) Four

53) I. Peripheral region of the secondary xylem in dicot stem is lighter in colour and is known as
heart wood.
II. Peripheral region of secondary xylem is involved in the conduction of water and minerals from
root to leaf.
Select the correct option from below :-

(1) I is correct, but II is incorrect

(2) I is incorrect, but II is correct
(3) I and II are correct
(4) I and II are incorrect

54) Which is not a homopolymer of glucose.

(1) Cellulose
(2) Starch
(3) Chitin
(4) Glycogen

55) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

(1) Axoneme
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Bivalent

56) The competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinate dehydrogenase is :-

(1) Malonate
(2) Isocitrate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) Citrate

57) Which hormone act as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

58) Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure :

(1) Inulin, insulin

(2) Chitin, Cholesterol
(3) Glycerol, trypsin
(4) Cellulose, lecithin

59) Match the following concerning the activity/function and the phytohormone involved :-
(a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid
(b) Herbicide (ii) GA3
(c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D
(d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon
Select the correct option from following :-

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

60) Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening
and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :

(1) Arthritis
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gout

61) Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?

(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(3) Release of Oxytocin
(4) Release of Prolactin

62) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is known as:

(1) Expiratory Capacity

(2) Vital Capacity
(3) Inspiratory Capacity
(4) Total lung Capacity

63) Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropiate?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct

64) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Medulla oblongata controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

consists of fibre tracts that

(2) Limbic system interconnect different regions of brain;
controls movement.

production of releasing hormones and regulation

(3) Hypothalamus
of temperature, hunger and thirst.

band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral

(4) Corpus callosum
hemispheres.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Graves' disease is caused due to :-

(1) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland

(2) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(3) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(4) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland

66) Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms ?

(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis

(2) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(3) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(4) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens

67) Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?

 Tissue Location

(1) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine

(2) Areolar tissue Tendons

Transitional
(3) Tip of nose
epithelium

Cuboidal
(4) Lining of stomach
epithelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?

Cartilaginous
(1) Chondrichthyes
endoskeleton

(2) Viviparous Mammalia

Possess a mouth with

(3) Chordata
an upper and a lower jaw

3 - chambered heart
(4) with one incompletely Reptilia
divided ventricle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana ?

(1) True coelom

(2) Closed circulation
(3) Exoskeleton composed of chitin
(4) Metamerically segmented body

70) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?

(1) Renal Vein

(2) Dorsal Aorta
(3) Hepatic Vein
(4) Hepatic Portal Vein

71) Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each
other?

(1) Parathormone - Calcitonin

(2) Insulin - Glucagon
(3) Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(4) Relaxin - Inhibin

72) Asthma may be attributed to :

(1) bacterial infection of the lungs

(2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(3) inflammation of the trachea
(4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs

73) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis

(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells

74) Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and
indirect development are the characteristics of phylum :

(1) Protozoa
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Mollusca

75) A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form
of this technique is :

(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer

(2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer

76) Which one of the following is correct ?

(1) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

(2) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(3) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
(4) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes

77) Match the columns and choose correct option :

 (a) Pneumonia (i) Polio virus

(b) Malaria (ii) Protozoan

(c) Amoebiasis (iii) Plasmodium

(d) Polio (iv) Haemophilus influenzae

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) A population will not exist in Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium if :

(1) There are no mutations

(2) There is no migration
(3) The population is large
(4) Individuals mate selectively

79) Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch

is shown below :-

(1) Hallucinogenic
(2) Depressant
(3) Stimulant
(4) Pain - killer

80) Which one of the following are analogous structures ?

(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.

(2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man.
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
(4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse

81) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

(1) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

(2) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
(3) Earthworm, Nereis, Tapeworm
(4) Prawn, Aedes, Locusta

82) The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P- wave represents the :

(1) End of systole

(2) Contraction of both the atria
(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(4) Beginning of the systole

83) Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and
its function/deficiency symptom:

Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms

Corpus luteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis
(1)
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth
(2)
Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) Over secretion stimulates abnormal growth
(3)
Thyroid gland Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
(4)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Which of the following is incorrect for SA node ?

(1) It is a specialised cardiac musculature

(2) It is present in the upper right corner of left atrium
(3) It is autoexcitable
(4) It can generate maximum number of action potentials per minute

85) Which one of the following are true statements ? (A) Oxytocin helps in uterine contractions.
(B) Each secondary spermatocyte have 23 chromosomes.
(C) Low temperature is necessary for spermatogenesis.
(D) The male accessory reproductive glands includes paired seminal vesicles; a prostate and paired
bulbourethral gland.
Options :

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) All of the above

86) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Choanocytes A Roundworm

(ii) Bioluminescence B Sycon

(iii) Proboscis gland C Pleurobrachia

Well-developed
(iv) D Balanoglaussus
muscular pharynx
(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D
(2) (i)-D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
(4) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-A

87) How many of the following diseases are caused by protozoa ? Filariasis, Common cold, Malaria,
Ascariasis, Typhoid, Gonorrhoea

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) One

88) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(p) Benign tumor (i) Metastasis

(q) Contact inhibition (ii) Non-invading

Properties of
(r) Malignant tumor (iii)
Normal cells
(1) p-i ; q-ii ; r-iii
(2) p-ii ; q-iii ; r-i
(3) p-iii ; q-i ; r-ii
(4) p-i ; q-iii ; r-ii

89) Which graph represents a population in genetic equilibrium according to Hardy-Weinberg

principle?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

90)

Saddle joint is present between.

(1) Carpal and metacarpal of little finger

(2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) Metacarpophangeal joint of thumb
(4) Interphalangeal joint of thumb
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

∵ V = Ig (Rg + Rse)
2.5 = 1mA(10 + Rse)
∴ Rse = 2490 Ω

3) Explain Question: Analyzing changes in bulb brightness when a circuit is altered.

Concept: Series circuit short-circuiting.
Solution:
In the initial state, all three identical bulbs (A, B and C) are series, sharing the total voltage V.
when switch S is closed, it creates a zero- resistance path that bypasses bulb C, effectively
short-circuiting it. This reduces the total resistance of the circuit, which increases the total
current flowing from the battery through bulbs A and B.
Calculation:
• Initial resistance Rtotal = RA + RB + RC = 3R
• Final resistance (switch closed) : Rtotal = RA + RB = 2R
• Since power P = I2R
R decreases then current increases power increases so brightness of bulb A and B increases.
Final answer: Option (3)

4)

Applying law of energy conservation,

[Link] = [Link]

...(i)

...(ii)
(i) ÷ (ii)

5) Udipole =
 = –P =

6)

Initial energy stored in capacitor 2 µF

Ui =
Final voltage after switch 2 is ON

Vf = = = 0.2 V
Final energy in both the capacitors

Uf = = = 0.2 V2
So energy dissipated

= = 80%

7)

Vcommon =

= = 400 Volt

8) M.P. = ⇒ fo = 5 fe
fo + fe = 36
5fe + fe = 6 cm
fo = 5 × 6 = 30 cm

9)

10)

Assertion → Image virtual, Erect, magnified → True

Reason → Object between O and F → True and correct explanation
11)
For TIR

60° > sin–1

sin60° >

12)

= 0.122 A°

13)

The series of the hydrogen spectrum that lies wholly in the ultraviolet region is the Lyman
series.
This occurs when electrons transition from higher energy levels (n2 = 2, 3, 4, ...) to the first
energy level (n1 = 1).
Transitions to n1 = 1 always produce Ultraviolet lines.
Remember: Lyman = Ultraviolet, Balmer = Visible, Paschen / Brackett = Infrared.
Final Answer: Option(1)

14) In case of F.B. effective barrier potential decrease

Hence barrier height also decrease
(Veff)Br = Vex – VBr
when Vext ↑ : (Veff)Br ↓

15) ÅJ
n = 1.4 × 1019

16)
Energy released

Q=
Q = [2(2.0149) –4.0027] (931.5 MeV)
Q = 25.24 MeV
Final Answer : Option (2)

17) Output,
for X = 1 and Y = 0, R = 1
Option(3)

18)

Due to concentration gradient Hole move from P to N and electron move from N to P.

19)
For the circular part ABC, the angle subtended at the centre is 3π/2.

Due to ABC, B1 =
Due to AD, A is at the end of the wire, therefore at

O, B2 =

∴ Total induction =

20) Solution:
• P: , so the circuit is inductor-dominant
and current lags voltage.
Matches: 1, 5.
• Q: Capacitive reactance , so the circuit is capacitor-
dominant and current leads voltage.
Matches: 2, 4.
• R: Circuit is at resonance, neither L nor C dominates, and current is
in phase with voltage.
Matches: 3, 6.
Final answer: Option 2

21) is parallel to ,
Option (1)
Option (2) (parallel to )

Option (3)
Option (4)

22) w = = MB [cosθ1-cosθ2]; θ1 = 0º, θ2 = 90º

= = MB
ω=

23) Pin = Vin × Iin = 100 × 2 = 200 W

Pout = ηPin = 150

0 0
⇒ V = 300 V and I = 0.5 A

24)

Solution:
Given:

M = 2 mH.

Final answer: Option (1)

25) Pav = Vrms Irms cos ϕ

= watt

26) H = –uT +

35 = –30T + × 10T2
T2 – 6 T – 7 = 0

27)
By the conservation of angular momentum about A

0
mv R + = mvCM R + mR2

28)
29)
we get, ω = 2 and A = 5

Time period = = π sec

30)

⇒ C'T =

⇒ C' =

31) α =

ΔT = 500°C

32)
kx = 2T _____ (1)
T = m1g _____ (2)
from (1) and (2)
kx = 2m1g

∴ PE stored in spring =

33) at stable equation and F = 0

at unstable equation and F = 0

at neutral equation and F = 0

34)

v2 = 2[32 – 0]
v2 = 18

35)
4T = 1000
T = 250 N

36)

=
= 2(6 + 10) = 32

37)

9gR + + 2gR
vB =

38) (NCERT Pg. no. 100)

When a bomb at rest explodes, the COM of the fragments remains at rest. because forces
acting on fragments during explosion are internal forces and internal forces can not change
the state of motion of COM.

39)

F=
= 500 × 1 = 500N
40) g=
g' = 4g g∝M
2
g' = 40 m/s
W = mg'h
= 2 × 40 × 2
= 160 J

41)
R = UT

R=
R=

42) At resonance, first overtone of closed pipe = second overtone of open pipe

43)

Speed of sound in solids

44)

= 60 J
Final answer : 2

45) xc =
CHEMISTRY

46)

Common name based

47)

In , mn is in its highest O.S. +7 hence not shows its disproportionation

48) NCERT Pg. No. 22

Kb depends on nature of solvent only..

49)

More is the no. of solute particles lower is the vapour pressure.

Compound Van't Hoff factor (i)
Glucose 1
KCl 2
MgCl2 3
FeCl3 4

50) Benzene and toluene form ideal solution so

ΔHmix = 0 and ΔVmix = 0.

51) Lesser is the value of standard reduction potential, stronger is the reducing agent.

52)

Cu+2

53)

test of mg+2 ion

54)
⇒ K = 3.04 × 10–2 min–1

55)

~Explain Question: Identify the true statement about operation of lead-acid battery.

~Concept: Lead-acid cell

~Solution:

A. Incorrect — PbO₂ is the cathode, not the anode.

B. Incorrect — Electrolyte is ~38% H₂SO₄, not 50%.

C. Correct — During discharge, PbO₂ → PbSO₄ at the cathode.

D. Incorrect — On charging, H₂SO₄ concentration increases, not decreases.

~Final Answer: Option (3)

56)

2[k(H2O)6]+, 2(Al(H2O)6]+3
Octahedral complex

57)

x = 6, y = 6, x/y = 1

58)

Al4C3 + 12H2O → 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4

Be2C + 4H2O → Be(OH)2 + CH4

59) NCERT Data Page # 218

60)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 350

61)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 343

62)

In Lassaigne's test ammonium molybdate is used to determine phosphorous in organic

compound.

63)

64)

–CN cannot be introduced by nucleophilic substitution reaction on aryl halide.

65)

D - Glucose & D - fructose → FGI

Glucose & mannose → C2 epimer
D → glyceraldehyde & L - glyceraldehyde → Enantiomers
1-propanol & 2-propanol → position isomers.

66)

67)

68)

69) Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for preparation of primary aliphatic amine
70) Solution: Carbocation stability is governed by resonance, hyperconjugation, and inductive
effects. In both molecules, the positive charge is delocalized into the ring via resonance.
Hyperconjugation (+H) : The C–H bond is longer and weaker than the C–D bond due to
lower bond energy. Thus, –CH3 shows a stronger hyperconjugation effect than –CD3.
Since +H is more dominant than +I, the substituted cation is more stable.
Inductive Effect (+I): Deuterium is more electropositive than Hydrogen. Therefore, the +I
effect of –CD3 is indeed greater than –CH3.

Final Answer: Option (3)

71) Solution: Acidic strength depends on stability of the conjugate base (phenoxide ion).
Electron-withdrawing −NO₂ group increases acidity via −I and −R effects.
However, intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol reduces ionization.
In o-nitrophenol, intramolecular H-bonding occurs → less H⁺ release. In p-nitrophenol,
intermolecular H-bonding and strong −I, −R effect → easier H⁺ release → more acidic.
Final Answer: Option (4)

72)

73)

β keto acids are easily decarboxylated.

74)

Moles of (NH4)2SO4 is a, so moles of NH4+ = 2a

pH= 8.26 so pOH = 14-8.26 = 5.74

Pkb of NH4OH =4.74

pOH = pKb + log

5.74 = 4.74 + log

1 = log

101 =

a = 1 mole

Final Answer : Option (1)

75)
Question explanation:
To identify different type of reactions.

Concept:
Heat of reactions(ΔHR)

Solution:
Option
(A) ΔHcombustion of CO(g)
(B) ΔfH of CO(g)
(C) ΔHneut
(D) ΔH hydration of CaCl2(S)

Final answer: Option (4)

76) Ref : NCERT Pg # 175

77)

(A) on increasing pressure equilibrium shift towards lesser no. of gaseous moles.
(B) on adding product equilibrium shift in backward direction.
(C) on adding inert gas at constant volume there is no. shift in equilibrium.

78)

2N2 + 5O2 → 2N2O5

n=1 n=1
O2 is L.R.

So N2 is excess reagent, remaining mole of

mass =

79) Explain the Question : Identify the correctly matched atomic number, symbol, and
IUPAC name.
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature.
Solution : Element 107 has the systematic symbol Unnilseptium (Uns) and the official IUPAC
name
Bohrium (Bh). This is the only row where all three items are correctly matched.
Final answer : 3

80) NCERT Pg. 90 - Diagonal relationship

81)

[Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 → + 1 + 6 + 2 = 9
82) Question Explanation:
We are asked about the change in internal anergy ( U) and total entropy ( S_total) for an
ideal gas undergoing isothermal reversible and irreversible processes.

Concept:
Isothermal process

Solution:
For an ideal gas U depends only on temperature.
Isothermal process: T = 0 U=0
reversible process: Stotal = 0
Irreversible process: Stotal > 0

Isothermal reversible: ΔU = 0, Stotal = 0

Isothermal irreversible: ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0 (entropy increases)

Final Answer: Option(3)

83) Explain the Question : Match acid-base concept for the given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on acid/base conjugates Ka × Kb = Kw and Kw temperature
dependence.
Solution : For conjugate acid-base at 25ºC ka × kb = 10–14, ionic product of water at 90°C is =
10–12, for given reaction conjugate acid of NH3 is NH4⊕ & for CH3COOH its conjugate base is
CH3COOϴ
Final Answer : 4

84)

Concept based

85) Wrong PCC is selected.

86) MgCO3 MgO + CO2

nMgO = = 500 mol

Moles of pure MgCO3 = = 500 mol
= 500 × 84 gm required

% purity = × 100

⇒ mimpure = = 84000 gm
= 84 kg

87) TE = – 13.6 × = – 13.6 ×

 TE = –KE =

⇒ PE = 2TE = 2 ×
= – 48.35 eV

88) NCERT Pg. 115

89)
C–H (sp2–s)
C–C(sp2–sp2)
C=C (π bond pz–pz)

90) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

BIOLOGY

91)

It should not be expressed itself in the form of Mendelian character

92)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 178

93)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 96

94)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 201

95)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 208

96) Correct Answer: (1) (a) and (d)

Explanation: In plants, certain structures contain two generations, where one generation is
enclosed within the other.
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther: The pollen grain is the male gametophyte, and it forms
inside the anther (sporophyte generation). So, this part contains two generations.
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule: The embryo sac is the female gametophyte, formed within
the ovule (sporophyte generation), so this also contains two generations.

97) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 92

98)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 97

99)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 94,95

100)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 222, 223

101)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 153

102)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 195

103)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 154

104)

NCERT-XIIth, Module 10

105)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 12

106)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 154

107)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 74
108)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 207

109)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 9

110)

Module 9

111)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 168

112)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 169

113)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 179,170

114) NCERT Pg # 231

115) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 217

116) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 219

117) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 61

118)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 68

OR

Question explanation: The question asks about the result of Morgan’s experiment involving
yellow-bodied, white-eyed females crossed with brown-bodied, red-eyed males in Drosophila
and the percentage of recombinant types produced.

Concept: Linkage and Recombination (Genetic linkage in Drosophila – Morgan’s Experiment)

Solution: Morgan found that the genes for body colour and eye colour are sex-linked and
present close together on the same X chromosome, showing linkage.
Because of this close linkage, crossing over was very rare — only 1.3% recombinants were
produced, while 98.7% were parental types.

Final Answer: 1.3% recombinant types.

119)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 73

120)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 60

121) NCERT XI Pg # 14
Explain Question: Which organisms are included in chrysophytes?
Concept: This question is based on Chrysophytes
Solution : Chrysophytes = diatoms (siliceous frustules) + desmids (unicellular greenish
forms).
Final answer : 3

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17 & 18

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

124)

Explain Question -
The question asks to identify the plant in which a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots are
present.

Concept - Morphology of Flowering Plants-Modification of stem – Offset

Solution -
Pistia is an aquatic plant that shows an offset, a type of stem modification. In Pistia, the plant
body consists of a rosette of leaves above the water surface and a tuft of roots below, arising
from a short stem.

Final answer - Option 3

125) NCERT-XI, Pg # 64

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 148

127)
NCERT XII Pg # 122, 123, 124

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26 & 27, i, ii, iii, iv are correct

129) Module

130) NCERT XII Pg # 122

131)

NCERT XI Pg # 94
Question Explanation: Functions of a plant cell wall.
Concept: Cell wall functions.
Solution: The cell wall provides structural support and protection to the cell. It gives the cell
a definite shape, prevents mechanical damage, and protects against infections. Additionally, it
accommodates cell growth by expanding. Therefore, all listed functions are correct.
Final Answer: All of the above.

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

133)

NCERT XI Pg # 8

134) NCERT XI, Page # 32

135) NCERT XI Pg # 45
Question Explanation– The question is asking about what happens to a cell when it enters
the G₀ stage of the cell cycle.
Concept – Based on cell cycle G₀ stage is a quiescent phase.
Solution – Cells exit from G1 phase and enter G₀ when they stop dividing. In this stage, cells
remain metabolically active but do not proliferate. In G₀ stage, the cell enters a quiescent
[Link] include nerve cells and heart cells.
Final answer – Cell enters in quiescent stage

136)

NCERT XI Pg # 28, 29, 30

137) NCERT XI Fig. 128, Fig. No. 10.4

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

140) NCERT XI Pg # 76

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157

142)

NCERT Pg # 64
Solving mustard, radish turnip

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110, 111

145)

NCERT Pg # 126

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 109, 111

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176, 177

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 227

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38

152)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 243

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

157)

Module

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 50

159)

Module

160)

Module

161)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 35
164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 40

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

167)

Module

168)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 115

171)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 201

173)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 241

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 197

175)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38

176)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 40

177)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 141

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 227