05-07-2026

4015CMD30302126E005 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find common potential for two capacitor shown in figure when switch S is closed.

(1) 20V
(2) 15V
(3) 10V
(4) 5V

2) A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed with a voltage rating 1 kV using a material of dielectric
constant 10 and dielectric strength 106 Vm–1. What minimum area of the plates is required to have a
capacitance of 88.5 pF ?

(1) 10–3 m2
(2) 10–2 m2
(3) 2 × 10–3 m2
(4) 3 × 10–2 m2

3) An air capacitor having capacity C0 is filled with dielectric as shown in figure. Then the new

capacitance of system will be :

(1) C0
(2) 2C0
(3) 3C0
(4) 4C0

4) A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The percentage change in its electrical
resistance if its volume remains unchanged is:
(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 2.0%

5) In the circuit shown in figure potential difference between A and B is :

(1) 30 V
(2) 60 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 90 V

6) Four metallic plates each with a surface area A of each side are placed at a distance d from each
other. When the plates are connected as shown in Figure, the capacitance of the whole system

between a and b is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Consider the figure below, initially distance between plates of capacitor is ‘d’ and ‘A’ is area of
plates. In this state spring (non condcuting) is at its natural length.
Now, charges +Q & –Q are given to plates and system is allowed to reach mechanical equillibrium.
Find potential difference between plates in this state of equillibrium.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportional to (not ), where 'R' is the
distance between the bodies. Then the orbital speed for this force in circular orbit is proportional to
:–

(1)

(2) R°
(3) R

(4)

9) A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The

gravitational potential at a point situated at distance from the center will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. the escape velocity at an
altitude 3R, where R is the ratius of the earth is (in km/s):
(1) 5.6
11.2
(2)

11.2×
(3)

(4) 22.4

11) In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The electric field at
the point (1,1,1) has magnitude :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the

Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

(1) KA < KB < KC

(2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB < KA < KC
(4) KB > KA > KC

13) A planet moving around sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then the

relation between A1, A2 and A3 is :-

(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

(2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
(3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3
(4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3

14) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit

of radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A satellite is orbiting earth at a distance r. Variations of its kinetic energy, potential energy and
total energy, is shown in the figure. Of the three curves shown in figure, identify the type of

mechanical energy they represent.

(1) 1 Potential, 2 Kinetic, 3 Total

(2) 1 Total, 2 Kinetic, 3 Potential
(3) 1 Kinetic, 2 Total, 3 Potential
(4) 1 Potential, 2 Total, 3 Kinetic

16) A stone, dropped from height 'h', reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–

(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

17) A dipole of dipole moment p is rotated by angle π in a uniform electric field of strength E . The
work required:

(1) must be pE
(2) must be 2pE
(3) must be zero
(4) may be zero

18) A wooden block performs SHM on a frictionless surface with frequency ν0. The block carries a
charge +Q on its surface. If now a uniform electric field is switched-on as shown, then the SHM of
the block will be :-

(1) of the same frequency and with shifted mean position

(2) of the same frequency and with the same mean position
(3) of changed frequency and with shifted mean position
(4) of changed frequency and with the same mean position

19) For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure, the potentials at points A, B, C and D are

VA, VB, VC and VD respectively. Then :

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

20) If two like charges of magnitude 1 × 10–9 coulomb and 9 × 10–9 coulomb are separated by a
distance of 1 metre, then the point on the line joining the charges, where the force experienced by a
charge placed at that point is zero, is :

(1) 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coulomb

(2) 0.75 m from the charge 9 × 10–9 coulomb
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) at all points on the line joining the charges

21) A current of 3.2 mA is flowing through a conductor, then number of free electrons moving per
sec is :-

(1) 2 × 1019
(2) 2 × 1016
(3) 2 × 1018
(4) 2 × 1017
22) Find total charge flow through it from 2 sec to 8 sec.

(1) 35 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 45 μC
(4) None of these

23) Electric field (E) and current density (J) have relation :-

(1) E ∝ J-1
(2) E ∝ J

(3)

(4)

24) If n,e,τ and m respectively represent the density, charge, relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length ℓ and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The resistance of a wire is R. If the length of the wire is doubled by stretching, then the new
resistance will be:-

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) R

(4)

26) A car of mass m is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The
power delivered to the car is constant and equal to P. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then
after travelling how much distance it becomes double ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A body of mass m kg initially at rest attains a velocity of v m/sec in time t under the action of a
constant force F. The average power supplied to the mass is-

(1) mv/t
(2) mv²/t
(3) Fv
(4) Fv/2

28) Power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g = 10m/ sec2, the amount of water it can raise in one minute
to a height of 10 m is.

(1) 2000 litre

(2) 1000 litre
(3) 100 litre
(4) 1200 litre

29) A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward

acceleration . Work done by the cord on the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Mgd

30) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

31) Fig. shows a smooth curved track terminating at smooth horizontal part. A spring of spring
constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to the wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A 40 gm.
mass is released from rest at a height of 4.9 m. on the curved track. Find the maximum compression

of the spring-

(1) 17.60 cm
(2) 11.2 cm
(3) 4.9 cm
(4) 9.8 cm

32) A spring of spring constant k placed horizontally on a rough horizontal surface is compressed
against a block of mass m placed on the surface so as to store maximum energy in the spring. After
removing the external force spring and block system is at rest. If the coefficient of friction between
the block and the surface is µ, the potential energy stored in the spring is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If F = 2x2 – 3x – 2, then choose correct option :-

(1) x = – 1/2 is position of stable equilibrium

(2) x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium
(3) x = – 1/2 is position of unstable equilibrium
(4) x = 2 is position of neutral equilibrium

34) The variation of force acting on a particle along the x-axis is shown in the figure. Find the work

done by force during displacement x = 0 to x = 25 m.

(1) 100 J
(2) 115 J
(3) 95 J
(4) 80 J

35) A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it is given by S = (in
metres). Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds.

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 24 J

36) For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4µF capacitor is :-

(1) 30µC
(2) 40µC
(3) 24µC
(4) 54µC

37) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a
closed surface enclosing the capacitor is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

38) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is and the height is d, the capacitance of the arrangement

is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform electric field E as shown in the fig. VA, VB, VC and VD are

respectively the potentials of points A, B, C and D on the circle then :-

(1) VA > VC, VB = VD

(2) VA < VC, VB = VD
(3) VA = VC, VB < VD
(4) VA = VC, VB > VD

40) A point electric dipole of moment C-m is kept in an electric field then :-

(1)
Force on the dipole =

(2)
Torque on the dipole = 8 N-m
(3) Their interactional potential energy = +6 J
(4) All of the above are correct

41) An electric dipole of length 4 cm, when placed with its axis making an angle of 60° with a
uniform electric field, experience a torque of Nm. Calculate the magnitude of the electric field.
(Dipole has charges ± 8nC)

(1) 2.5 × 1010 N/C

(2) 3 × 109 N/C
(3) 8.5 × 1010 N/C
(4) 5 × 108 N/C

42) The potential energy of a body is given by, U = A– Bx2 (Where x is the displacement). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle is :

(1) Constant
(2) Proportional to x
(3) Proportional to x2
(4) Inversely proportional to x

43) The drawing shows four points surrounding an electric dipole. Which one of the following
expressions best ranks the electric potential at these four locations?

(1) 1 > 2 = 4 > 3

(2) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1
(3) 3 > 2 = 4 > 1
(4) 2 = 4 > 1 = 3

44) Electric potential at an equatorial point of a small dipole with dipole moment P (r, distance from
the dipole) is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A metallic conductor with a cavity is shown in figure. A point charge +q inserted into cavity,
keeping insulated from conductor. The total charge on outer surface of conductor :-

(1) Q
(2) (Q – q)
(3) (Q + q)
(4) q

CHEMISTRY
1)
X, Y, Z reaction are respectively –

(1) Simple hydration reaction

(2) Hydroboration oxidation, hydration and oxymercuration demercuration
(3) Hydroboration oxidation, oxymercuration demercuration and hydration
(4) Oxymercuration demercuration, hydroboration oxidation and hydration

2) Product is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
Y is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) cis-2-Butene on reaction with Br2 in CCl4 produces mainly.

(1) 1-bromo-2-butene
(2) 2,3-dibromobutane
(3) meso-2, 3-dibromobutane
(4) (±) 2,3-dibromobutane

5) The mechanism of the formation of A and B are respectively.

(1) Electrophilic addition, Electrophilic addition

(2) Nucleophilic addition, free radical addition
(3) Electrophilic addition, free radical substitution
(4) Free radical substitution, electrophilic addition

6) Assertion : Addition of HBr on in presence of peroxide give as major product.

Reason : Addition of HBr on alkene proceed by carbocation intermediate.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

7) Major product :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Find the product "X" :-

+ Br–Cl "X"

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Most reactive halide in SN1 reaction

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which is most reactive chlorine :-

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) All equal reactive

11) Which one is correct for rate of hydrolysis :-

CH3 – CH2 – Cl >

(1)

(2) >

(3)

>
(4)

>

12) Compare the rate of SN1 reaction

(1) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

(2) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(3) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
(4) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3

13) Match the reactions in column-I and name of their mechanism in column-II and select the
correct answer :

Column-II
Name of
Column-I
mechanism
Reactions
of the
reaction

(a) (p) E1

(b) (q) SN1

(c) (r) SN2

 (d) (s) E2

(1) a-s , b-r , c-p , d-q

(2) a-r , b-s , c-q , d-p
(3) a-p, b-r , c-q , d-s
(4) a-q , b-p, c-r , d-s

14) The correct order of nucleophilicity among the following is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
(4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

15) Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by :-

(1) Swart reaction

(2) Finkelestin reaction
(3) Sandmeyer's reaction
(4) 1 & 3 both

16) (major product)

(major product)
Which statement is correct ?

(1) Both x and y are 2-Butene

(2) Both x and y are 1-Butene
(3) x is 1-Butene and y is 2-Butene
(4) x is 2-Butene and y is 1-Butene
17) The final product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) What is value of X, when X will be the number of moles of NaNH2 :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which of the following will not give ether as product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

20)
X & Y are :

(1) CH3 – OH & (CH3)2CH – I

(2) CH3 – I & (CH3)2CH – OH
(3) CH3 – I & (CH3)2CH – I
(4) CH3 – OH & (CH3)2CH – OH

21) Which alcohol react readily with lucas reagent :-

(1) Benzyl alcohol

(2) p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
(3) Allyl alcohol
(4) Vinyl alcohol

22) Identify the end product (Y) of the following sequence of reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

(1) Product (P) is salicyaldehyde

(2) Product (P) contains CHCl2 group
(3) Product (P) is salicylic acid
(4) None of these

24)
Which of the following reagent can not convert Propanal to Propanol :

(1) LiAlH4
(2) CH3MgBr
(3) NaBH4
(4) All of these

25) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Find the reaction in which aldehyde is obtained as one of the product

(i)

(ii) CH3–CN

(iii)

(iv) CH3–CN

(1) ii,iii,iv
(2) i,ii,iii
(3) i, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

27)
Product (B) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following reaction can not be used to prepare benzaldehyde ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) "A", "B" & "C" are respectively.

(1) Isobutene, Acetyldehyde and acetone

(2) Isopropene, Formaldehyde and Acetone
(3) Isobutene, Formaldehyde and Acetone
(4) Isopropene, Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde

30)

The heat of combustion of graphite and diamond are –391.25 kJ and –393.12 kJ respectively what
will be the enthalpy change of conversion of graphite into diamond?

(1) –1.87 kJ
(2) 1.87 kJ
(3) –393.12
(4) zero
31) If H+ + OH– → H2O + 13.7 kCal, then heat of complete neutralisation of 1 gm molecules of
H2SO4 with strong base in excess will be :

(1) –13.7 kCal

(2) – 27.4 kCal
(3) – 6.85 k Cal
(4) – 3.425 kCal

32) ΔH for the reaction is–

(1) Zero
(2) Negative
(3) Positive
(4) infinite

33) The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is – 46.0KJ mol–1. The internal energy change for the
reaction :-
2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) at 300 K is

(1) 46.0 KJmol–1

(2) 92.0 KJmol–1
(3) –87.0 KJmol–1
(4) 87.0 KJmol–1

34) Assertion (A) : Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic reaction.

Reason (R) : The enthalpy of formation of all elements in their standard state are zero.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

35) Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is :

(1) Infinity
(2) 40.45 kJ K–1 mol–1
(3) 75.48 J K–1 mol–1
(4) Zero

36) The correct thermodynamic conditions for the reaction to be spontaneous at all temperature is:-

(1) ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0

(2) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
(3) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
(4) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
37) Enthalpy of a reaction at 27°C is 15 kJ mol–1. The reaction will be feasible if entropy is:

(1) 15 J mol–1 K–1

(2) –50 J mol–1 K–1
(3) Greater than 50 J mol–1 K–1
(4) Less than 50 J mol–1 K–1

38) Entropy decreases during -

(1) Crystallization of sucrose from solution

(2) Dissolution of salt
(3) Melting of ice
(4) Vaporisation of camphor

39) Assertion :- The sum of q + w is a state function.

Reason :- Work and heat are state functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

40) The compounds A, B and C in the reaction sequence are given by the set :-

CH3CH2OH A B C

(1) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, (CH3)3C—OH

(2) CH3CH2Br, (CH3CH2)2Mg,(CH3)2CHCH2OH
(3) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
(4) CH3CHBr2, CH3CH(MgBr)2, CH3CH(OH)CH3

41) IUPAC name of m-cresol is ______.

(1) 3-methylphenol
(2) 3-chlorophenol
(3) 3-methoxyphenol
(4) benzene-1,3-diol

42) Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reactions with

(i) Br2/water
(ii) Na
(iii) Neutral FeCl3

(1) (i) & (ii) only

(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) (i) & (iii) only
(4) None of these

43) Choose the correct option ?

(A) R–OH + SOCl2 → (P) Finkelstein reaction

(B) R–X(Cl,Br) + NaI → (Q) Wurtz fittig reaction

(C) R–X(Cl,Br) + AgF → (R) Darzen process

(D) (S) Swarts reaction

(1) A → P
(2) B → R
(3) C → S
(4) D → Q

44) Which of the following compound will give Reimer Tiemann reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Which of the compound give a positive haloform test.

(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanal
(c) 2-Butanol
(d) 2-Butanone

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

BIOLOGY

1) Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel were:

(1) Round seed shape, constricted pod shape and axial flower position
(2) Yellow seed colour, inflated pod shape and axial flower position
(3) Yellow seed colour, violet flower colour and yellow pod colour
(4) Axial flower position, green pod colour and green seed colour

2)

Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?

(1) 1840 - 1850

(2) 1857 - 1869
(3) 1870 - 1877
(4) 1856 - 1863

3) Hybrid seeds tremendously increases productivity yet has created problems for farmer like loss of
hybrid vigour from generation to generation. This is because of :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Segregation of characters
(3) Poor adaptability
(4) Recombination of characters

4) Which is not always true for genes in diploid organisms ?

(1) They occur in pairs

(2) They segregate at the time of gamete formation
(3) Only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete
(4) One pair segregates independently of another pair

5) Epipetalous condition is represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Following type of phenotype ratio represent which type of inheritance 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15: 6 : 1

(1) Polygenic inheritance

(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Dominance
(4) Co-dominance

7) Which of the following figures represents a typical placentation of china rose?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in

(1) Proteins
(2) Starch
(3) Lipids
(4) Auxins

9) Which of the following statement is incorrect for law of segregation.

(1) Alleles do not show any blending

(2) The trait of a character which is not seen in F1 generation but it recovers in F2 generation
(3) The segregation of allele is random process.
(4) F1 generation did not resemble either of the two parents

10) According to given diagram, find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous - ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous - ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous - ovary superior
(4) Epigynous - ovary inferior
11) In which of the following condition phenotype may not be affected ?

(1) When modified allele produce a normal enzyme.

(2) When modified allele produces a non-functional enzyme.
(3) When the unmodified allele produces no enzyme.
(4) All the above

12) Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants.

(1) Resembles one of the parents

(2) Resembles neither of the parents
(3) Resembles both the parents
(4) Shows 3 : 1 ratio

13) When a pea plant with round seed (Bb) is crossed with other plant having small sized starch gain
in seed, the total number of seeds obtained in progeny is 630. What is correct for this progeny ?

(1) 330 (large size), 330 (small size)

(2) 330 (small size), 330 (medium size)
(3) 315 (intermediate size), 315 (small size)
(4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size), 314 (intermediate size)

14) Henking observed that in few male insects , 50% of the sperm received a specific nuclear
structure known as X - body, whereas other 50% sperms did not receive it. This method of sex
determination was :-

(1) Environmental sex determination

(2) XX - XO method
(3) ZZ - ZW method
(4) Haplodiploidy

15) In a plant height is controlled by two polygenes A and B. Tallest plant is 56 cm tall and height of
shortest plant is 30 cm. What will be the height of plant having genotype AAbb ?

(1) 43 cm
(2) 48.5 cm
(3) 37.5 cm
(4) 51 cm

16) What results Mendel would have got when he self-pollinated a tall F2 plant?

(1) All tall plants

(2) Tall & dwarf plants in 3 : 1 ratio
(3) Tall & dwarf plants in 1 : 1 ratio
(4) Both (1) & (2)
17) A test cross enables us to -

(1) determine the viability of cross

(2) distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant
(3) determine whether two species can interbreed
(4) determine the similarities in the DNA of two species

18) Ovary is one chambered but it may be two or more chambered due to formation of the false
septa and ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part. In this case,
placentation is

(1) Parietal
(2) Marginal
(3) Axile
(4) Basal

19) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 123
(4) 576

20) Other than pea plants it was found that sometimes the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble
either of the two parents and was in between the two. It is due to

(1) Complete Dominance

(2) Incomplete Dominance
(3) Co-Dominance
(4) Complementary gene interaction

21) Tetradynamous condition is found in :-

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Brassicaceae

22) Sum total of phenotypes and genotypes in f2 generation if a character is controlled by 2 pair of
polygenes :

(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 14
(4) 13
23) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ femals, XX males

24) I. When carpels are free, they are called ....A....as in lotus and rose.
II. What carpels are fused, they are called ...B....as in mustard and tomato.
Here, A and B refer to

(1) A–syncarpous; B–apocarpous

(2) A–apocarpous; B–syncarpous
(3) A–monocarpous; B–multicarpous
(4) A–multicarpous; B–monocarpous

25) Find the incorrect statement regarding Mendel's experiment on garden pea :-

(1) He performed emasculation and bagging

(2) He made qualitative analysis of quantitative characters
(3) He repeated his experiments on test plants for several generation
(4) He also performed test cross

26) Select false statement for independent assortment:-

(1) Segregation of one pair of unit factor is independent of the other pair of unit factor
 During telophase of meiosis-I the two chromosome pairs can align at the metaphase plate
(2)
independently of each other
Due to independent assortment a dihybrid produces 4 types of phenotype in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3
(3)
:1
(4) Genes for different characters should be located on different pair of chromosome

27) Number of double homozygous found in F2 generation of dihybrid cross is

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 4

28) Which of the floral formula is correct for given floral diagram ?

(1)
⊕ K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9+1) G(2)

(2)
% K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9+1) G(2)

(3)
% K2+2C4A2+4 G(2)

(4)
⊕ K2+2C4A2+4 G(2)

29) In an experiment, a plant homozygous for ‘ab’ gene were crossed with wild type (++). The F1
hybrid was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :
++ / ab → 896 ab / ab → 880
+b / ab → 116 a + / ab → 108
The distance between ‘a’ and ‘b’ gene is :-

(1) 22.4 cM
(2) 44 cM
(3) 11.2 cM
(4) 45 cM

30) The experiment shown in the figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of
linkage and recombination. If in cross-I genes are tightly linked and in cross-II, genes are loosely
linked then what will be the percentage of recombinants produced in cross-I & cross-II respectively ?
(1) 98.7% and 62.8%
(2) 1.3% and 37.2%
(3) 37.2% and 1.3%
(4) 62.8% and 98.7%

31) Whorled phyllotaxy is present in:-

(1) Alstonia
(2) Guava
(3) Mustard
(4) Calotropis

32) How many different types of gametes can be formed by F1 progeny, resulting from the following
cross : AA BB CC x aa bb cc ?

(1) 3
(2) 8
(3) 27
(4) 64

33) If the genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB and IAIO : Among the blood types of their children,
how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(1) 2 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

(2) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(4) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

34) In a family of five children what is the probability of finding all five girls.

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/32
(4) 20/64
35) In Drosophila crossing over occurs in female but not in male. Gene A and B are 10 map unit

apart on chromosome. A female Drosophila with genotype . and male Drosophila with genotype

. How many type of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila respectively

(1) 4 types : 2 types

(2) 2 types : 2 types
(3) 4 types : 4 types
(4) 4 types : one types

36) Assertion :- Dominance is not an autonomas feature of a gene or gene product if gene control
more than one phenotype.
Reason :- Mendel received recessive progeny in F1 in many crosses.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

37) A person having codominant alleles for blood group marries a homozygous recessive woman,
what will be the possible blood group of their offspring ?

(1) AB or O
(2) A or B
(3) only AB
(4) A, B or AB

38) The figure below (A,B,C,D) shows aestivation of petals. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents ?

(1) C-Represents twisted aestivation

(2) A-Represents imbribate aestivation
(3) B-Represents twisted aestivation
(4) D-Represents valvate aestivation

39) Which of the following is responsible for rapid growth of root :-

(1) Root cap region

(2) Elongation region
(3) Maturation region
(4) Differentiation region

40) Assertion : In some leguminous plants, the leaf base is swollen.

Reason : The swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

41) Identify the figure. This figure represent the :-

(1) Solanaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Leguminaceae
(4) Malvaceae

42) Sheathing leaf base is found in :-

(1) Dicot
(2) Leguminus plant
(3) Monocot
(4) Pea

43) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be :-
(A) 75% plants are Tall.
(B) 25% plants are Dwarf.
(C) 50% plants are homozygous.
(D) 50% plants are heterozygous.
Select the correct option.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

44) A flower is :-

(1) A modified shoot, meant for sexual reproduction

(2) The reproductive unit in angiosperms
(3) The reproductive unit of gymnosperms
(4) Both (1) and (2)

45) A wealthy couple died in an accident, soon a man comes up to claim for their fortune, saying that
he is their son who run away from home in childhood. The claimant has blood group O. Dead couple
were of O and AB. Could he be the son of that couple ?

(1) Absolutely not

(2) Yes, he can be
(3) Absolutely yes
(4) Can not be predicted correctly

46) Homology show which type of evolution :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Mutation

47) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t enzymes

(1) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

(2) Enzymes are denatured at low temperature
Bell-shaped graph is formed when enzyme activity at y-axis is plotted against temperature at x-
(3)
axis
(4) Enzymes catalyse many irreversible reactions

48)

Match the column I with column II :

Column-I Column-II

A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Insect

D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods

A B C D

(1) III IV II I

(2) III I IV II

(3) IV III II I

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Which of the following amino acids were formed in Stanley-Miller's experiment ?

(1) Alanine, Arginine, Glutamic acid

(2) Arginine, Aspartic acid, Glutamine
(3) Aspartic acid, Alanine, Glycine
(4) Aspartic acid, Glutamic acid, Arginine

50) Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means :

(1) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter

(2) Creation of life from chemicals
(3) Origin of sperm in human testes
(4) Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets of Earth

51) According to Oparin and Haldane first form of life is originated from -

(1) Pre–existing non living simple inorganic compound

(2) Pre–existing non living complex inorganic compound
(3) Pre–existing non living organic molecule like R.N.A and protein
(4) Pre–existing non living simple organic molecule like D.N.A

52) Which example was given by Lamarck to explain his theory :

(1) Elongation of necks of Giraffes

(2) Elongation of hind limb of Giraffes
(3) Darwin finches
(4) Convergent evolution

53) Trachea divides at the level of which vertebra:

(1) 6th thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th lumbar vertebra
(4) 6th lumbar vertebra

54) Which fossil is of flying dinosaurs?

(1) Triceratops
(2) Pteranodon
(3) Tyranosaurus
(4) Brachiosaurus

55) Read carefully and arrange the given steps of expiration in the human body :
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm
(II) Reduction of the pulmonary volume
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(IV) Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure
Choose the correct option :-
(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV → II → III → I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

57) Pneumotaxic centre is present in :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Medulla oblongata

58) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?

(1) Periodic abstinence ⇒ Natural method

(2) Cervical caps ⇒ Prevents S.T.I
(3) Copper releasing IUD ⇒ Multiload-375
(4) Non-steroidal pill ⇒ saheli

59) Which of the following method of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleedings pain and
inflammation of uterine wall ?

(1) Condom
(2) Cervical cap
(3) Oral contraceptive
(4) Intra uterine device (IUDs)

60) Vital capacity of Lungs is ?

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV + RV
(3) TLC – RV
(4) IRV + ERV

61) First living beings evolved on earth...........:-

(1) Chemoautotrophs, Anaerobes

(2) Chemoheterotrophs, Anaerobes
(3) Photoheterotrophs, Aerobes
(4) Photoautotrophs, Aerobes

62) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63)

The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature
and substrate concentration).
What do the two axis (X and Y) represent ?
 X -axis Y-axis

(1) Temperature Enzyme activity

(2) Substrate concentration Rate of reaction

(3) Enzymatic activity Temperature

(4) Enzymatic activity pH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Assertion : Evolutionary Biology is the study of history of life forms on earth.
Reason : About 2000 million years ago the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is a true statement, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

65) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

66) Weekly oral pills for females are :-

(1) Mala-D
(2) Mala-N
(3) Saheli
(4) Gossypol

67) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

(1) Natural selection

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Industrial melanism

68) Which theory explains origin of universe :

(1) Special creation theory

(2) Big-Bang theory
(3) Oparin-Haldane theory
(4) Abiogenesis

69) What will be the pO2 at point A and point B in the given diagram :-

(1) A-40mmHg, B-45mmHg

(2) A-40mmHg, B-75mmHg
(3) A-40mmHg, B-95mmHg
(4) A-45mmHg, B-40mmHg

70) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Famous swan neck experiment was done by Louis Pasteur. Which theory was proved by this
experiment :-

(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Special creation theory
(3) Biogenesis
(4) Cosmic panspermia theory

72)

In lungs there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and plasma. Removal of CO2 from blood
involves :-

(1) Influx of Cl– into RBC

(2) Efflux of Na+ from RBC
–
(3) Influx of HCO3 ions in RBC
–
(4) Effllux of HCO3 ions from RBC

73) The thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita in the given figure does not show :

(1) Homology
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Common ancestory
(4) Vestigial structures

74) Which disorder of lungs occurs due to cigarette smoking?

(1) Asthma
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Emphysema

75) Primitive atmosphere was made up of the mixture of:

(1) oxygen, ammonia, methane and water

(2) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and oxygen
(3) hydrogen, water vapour, methane and ammonia
(4) oxygen, methane, water and nickel

76) S.L. Miller an American scientist, in his experiment, created electric discharge at 800°C in a
closed flask containing some gases with water vapour. These gases were:

(1) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

(2) Methane, Ammonia, Nitrogen
(3) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen
(4) Oxygen, Methane, Ammonia

77) Palaentological evidences are the evidences in favour of organic evolution which are related to:

(1) The organs which do not perform any functions in the body
(2) The distribution of plants and animals in different climatic zones
(3) The impression or dead remains of past organisms found in earth's crust
(4) The organs which suddenly appear in a population

78) Match the column-A with column-B, and choose the correct option :-

Column-A Column-B

(A) Barrier method (i) Tubectomy

(B) Oral pills (ii) Condoms

(C) IUDs (iii) Prevents ovulation

(D) Sterilization (iv) Cu-T

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

79) What is not true about the organisms given below in the diagram ?

(1) They all are example of convergent evolution

(2) They all are example of adaptive radiation
(3) They have evolved from a common ancestor
(4) They all are Australian marsupials

80) What is the correct arrangement of periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological
time scale ?

(1) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

81) Which of the following natural method of contraception is effective only upto a maximum period
of six months following parturition ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational Amenorrhoea
(3) Cu T
(4) Condoms

82) Identify the incorrect match:

(1) Saheli – Non steroidal pill

(2) Female condom – Barrier method of contraception
(3) Multiload 375 – Non-medicated IUD
(4) Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUD

83) Abiogenesis theory of origin supports:

(1) spontaneous generation

(2) origin of life from blue-green algae
(3) origin of life is due to pre-existing organisms
(4) organic evolution is due to chemical reactions

84) Match the column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-(I) Column-(II)
(Class of Enzyme) (Type of reaction Catalysed)

Transfer of H/electrons
(a) Transferases (i)
between substrates

Removal of groups from

(b) Ligases (ii) substrate by mechanisms
other than hydrolysis

(c) Lyases (iii) Joining of compounds

Transfer of group other

(d) Oxidoreductases (iv) than H/electrons between
substrates

Options :-
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

85)

Match the following :

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (a) CuT

 (B) Copper releasing IUDs (b) Saheli

(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Lippes loop

(D) Non-steroidal pill (d) LNG-20

(1) A – b, B – c, C – d, D – a
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(4) A – a, B – c, C – d, D – b

86) Assertion (A) : During inspiration atmospheric air is drawn inside the lungs.
Reason (R) : There is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

87) Statement-I : Wing of bat and flipper of whale are analogous organs.
Statement-II : Analogy is based on divergent evolution.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

88) According to Lamarck, evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by ______. Fill in the blank
with correct option.

(1) Natural selection

(2) Adaptive convergence
(3) Use and disuse of organs
(4) Both (1) and (3)

89) Assertion (A) : Role of oxygen in regulation of breathing is quite insignificant.

Reason (R) : Chemosensitive receptors are more sensitive to pCO2 and H+ ions than pO2.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

90) Match the following and give the answer for correct match:

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i
stage transfer into the uterus
 Sperm is directly injected
B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote upto 8 blastomere

C GIFT iii
could be tranfer into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected

D ICSI iv
from ovary into the fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 1 4 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation : Asking about the common potential for two capacitors, After closing
the switch.

Concept : Switching and sharing of charges between the capacitors.

Solution : Common potential

= =

Final Answer : Option (3)

2) E =

d=

c=

A= = = 10–3 m2

3)

4) and volume (V) = Al.

5) Explain Question :
We have to calculate the potential difference between A and B for the given circuit.
Concept :
Capacitor circuit

Solution :

C1 =
Now charge will be same for both capacitor potential difference

190 =
∴ Vyz = 40 Volt
The potential Vyz again divided into the inverse ratio in capacitors
40 = Vya + VAB

∴ 40 = 3VAB + VAB
VAB = 10Volt

Final Answer: Option (3)

6) The equivalent of the given arrangement is shown below

Effective capacitance of the series combination

 7)
Let ‘x’ be equilibrium extension, F = kx

V = E(d – x)

8)

Explain question:
The gravitational force between two bodies varies as 1/R (instead of 1/R2). For a body moving
in a circular orbit of radius R under this force, the dependence of orbital speed on R is to be
found.

Concept:
Circular motion under central force.

Formula :

Centripetal force = mv2/R

Solution:

Given force, F ∝ 1/R

For circular orbit :
mv2/R ∝ 1/R
Cancelling 1/R from both sides,
v2 = constant
Hence,
0
v∝R

Final Answer: Option (2)

9)

Question Explanation : A particle of mass M is placed at the center of a spherical shell of the
same mass and radius a. The question asks for the gravitational potential at a point located at
a distance a/2 from the center, i.e., inside the shell.

Concept : Gravitational potential

Solution :
Gravitational potential due to shell at point P V1

Gravitational potential due to point mass at point P

Vnet = V1 + V2

Final answer: Option (2)

10) Explain Question:

The question asks to find escape velocity at an altitude of 3R.

Concept:
Escape Velocity and Escape Energy

Solution:

[∵ ]

= 5.6 km/s

Final Answer: Option (1).

11) Question Explanation : We have to find electric field at (1, 1, 1).

Concept : This question is based on relation between field and potential.

Solution :
Electric field at (1, 1, 1)

Final answer : Option (2)

12) Explain Question:

The problem asks about the kinetic energies of a planet at different points is its elliptical orbit
around the Sun.

Concept:
Conservation of angular momentum.

Solution:

By using of conservation of angular momentum

L = mvr = contant

and rC > rB > rA

so vA > vB > vC ⇒ KA > KB > KC

Final answer: option (2)

13)

Explanation :- to find the relation between A1, A2 and A3.

Concept :- This question is based on Kepler's second law

Solution :- Acerdins to Kepler's second law 'a planet suelps put equalareas in equal intervals
of time as it orbits the sum it mean

= constant
 accordins to Kepler's law

3A1 = 2A2 = A3
Answer :- 1

14) Question Explanation : A satellite shift from orbit r to r. Find amount of energy
increase in this process.

Concept : This question is based on total energies of satellite.

Solution :

Energy of satellite at orbit r =

Energy of satellite at orbit

Increased in energy =

Final answer : Option (4)

15)

Question Explanation : From the given graphs , we need to comment which one is for kinetic
energy which one for potential energy and which one for total energy.

Concept : Energies of satellite.

Solution :

Kinetic energy of a satellite K =

where G = Universal gravitational constant
M = Mass of a earth
m = Mass of a satellite
 Potential energy of a satellite U = –

Total energy of a satellite E = –

In a graph 1 represents kinetic energy, 2 total energy and 3 represent potential energy.

Final answer : Option (3)

16)

Explain Question : Find time to reach stone on moon surface if (g of moon is 1/6 of earth).

Concept : This question is based on Acceleration due to gravity.

Solution :

TM = TE

Final Answer : option (1)

17) Work required = change in potential energy

=– =
If θ is 90°
It may be zero.

18) The mean position shifted from its original position.

19)

VD = VC = VB = VA

20) q1 : q2 = 1 : 9, L = 1 metre

So the required point is at a distance of 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coul or 0.75 m from
the charge 9 × 10–9 coul.

21)
Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find the number of free electrons moving
per sec in a conductor having a current of 3.2 mA flowing through a conductor.
Concept : This question is based on electric current.

Solution : Current,
n → no. of free electrons
e = charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
t = time = 1 sec
I = 3.2 mA = 3.2 × 10–3A

⇒ 3.2 × 10–3 =

⇒
⇒ n = 2 × 1016

Final answer: Option (2).

22)

Explain Question:
Asking about the charge flow though the conductor from t1 = 2sec to t2 = 8sec.

Concept:
Electric current definition

Solution : Area under the curve represent charge.

= A1 + A2
Area of rectangle + Angle of trapezium.

Final answer: option (2)

23)

Explain the Question : In this question, we have to find how electric field (E) and current
density (J) are related in a conductor.
Concept : This question is based on relation between electric field and current density
Solution :
E = ρJ, where = resistivity.
Hence, E ∝ J (for same material)
Final answer : 2

24)

Explain Question:
Finding the resistance of a wire based on electron drift parameters.
Concept: This question is based on resistance of conductor.

Solution:
Resistance R depends on the dimensions of the wire and its resistivity.
Resistivity ρ is determined by the internal properties of the conductor, specifically the density
of free electrons, their charge, mass and the average time between collision (relaxation time).

Relationship between resistance and resistivity:

Expression for resistivity in terms of microscopic parameters:

Substituting into the resistance formula:

Final answer: Option (1)

25)

Option (2)

26)

or

27)

Option (4)

28)

1200 litre

29) Question Explanation: Find work done by cord on block lowered with constant
acceleration.
Concept: Newton's second law and work done.
Solution:

by Newtons second law

Fnet = ma

Mg – T = (T = tension in cord)

W = Fs Cos θ

Final answer : option (3)

30)

Explain Question : For a body -

The percentage increment in linear momentum ⇒

The percentage increment in kinetic energy ⇒

Concept : This question is based on relation between kinetic energy & linear momentum.

Formula :
Solution : Mass = m
Initial linear momentum ⇒ pi = p
Final linear momentum ⇒ pf = pi + 200% of pi

=p+
= p + 2p = 3p

Initial kinetic energy ⇒ Eki =

Final kinetic energy ⇒ Eki =

Absolute change in kinetic energy ⇒ ΔEK = (EKf – EKf) = (9EK – EK) = 8 EK

Percentage change in kinetic energy ⇒

Final answer : 3

31) Explanation Question:

Find the maximum compression of a spring when a mass slides down a curved track.

Concept:
Conservation of energy mgh = ½ kx2

Solution: (step-by-step)

m×g×h=
X = 0.098 m = 9.8 cm

Final Answer: Option (4)

32)
Block becomes to rest FNet = 0
fmax – Kxmax = 0
μmg = kxmax

Xmax =

33) Question Explanation: Identify stable equilibrium position from force function.

Concept: This question is based on equilibrium states and stability.

Solution: Equilibrium is where the force F is zero.

Stability is determined by the sign of : Stable if < 0.

F = 2x2 – 3x – 2
For equilibrium, F = 0: 2x2 − 3x − 2 = 0 ⇒ (2x + 1)(x − 2) = 0.

x= or x = 2.

At x = 2: = 4(2) − 3 = 5 > 0 (Unstable).

At = −2 − 3 = −5 < 0 (Stable).

Final answer: The correct option is (1).

34) The area of force-displacement graph gives work.

Work from x = 0 to x = 25 m
W = area (1) + area (2) + area (3) + area (4)

= 10 + 20 + 35 + 50 = 115 J

35)
Option (4)

36) q = CeqV

= 24µC

37) Acc. to gauss law, the net flux through any closed surface is equal to the net charge, then
acc. to the given situation the capacitor is closed inside a sphere. Aswe know that the
capacitor is madeup of two parallel plates of equal and oppositecharges the net charge on a
capacitor is zero. Hence net flux through a closed surface is zero.

38) All capacitor are in parallel combination.

Also effective area is common area only
⇒ Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3

⇒ Ceq =

39)

Perpendicular to EF, V → same

Along EF, V ↓

40)

Question Explanation:
The problem examines the physical quantities associated with a point electric dipole of
moment placed in a uniform electric field . We need to evaluate
the force, torque, and potential energy.

Concept:
.

Solution:
Using the cross product
Using the dot product

Since

Since the field is uniform, the force on + q and – q cancel each other (F = 0) hence option 1 is
incorrect.

Final Answer: Torque on the dipole = 8 N-m

41) Explain Question:

Given
q = 8 × 10–9 c, d = 4 × 10–2 m
Torque N-m

Concept:
Torque on dipole placed in uniform electric field.

Solution:

Final answer: option (1)

42)

Proportional to x

43) V =

44)

Option (1)
 45)
by induction
Total charge on outer surface = Q + q

CHEMISTRY

46)

Hydroboration oxidation, oxymercuration demercuration and hydration

47)

Option (4)

48)

Option (2)

49)

(±) 2,3-dibromobutane

50)

Electrophilic addition, free radical substitution

51)

Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

52)

Option (1)

53)

Question Explanation :

Identify the product 'X' of given reaction.

Concept :
ESR of Benzene: Halogenation.

Solution :

Final answer : Option (3)

54)

Option (4)

55)

Explain Question : Identify the most reactive chlorine in the given compound.
Concept : This question is based on SN1/SN2 reaction
Solution :

⇒ (a) & (b) chlorine are in Resonance so can't be removed easily whereas (c) chlorine is removed
easily and carbocation formed is highly stable due to resonance.
⇒ ∴ (c) chlorine is most reactive.
Final answer : 3

56)

Option (4)

57)

1>2>4>3

58) Question Explanation: Match the given chemical reactions ( a, b, c, d ) with their correct

reaction mechanisms .

Concept Used: Reaction Mechanisms, Nucleophilic Substitution Elimination

(E1 / E2), Solvent Effects.
Solution :
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Correct Match: (a)-r, (b)-s, (c)-q, (d)-p

Final Answer: Option (2)

59)

Nucleophilicity order

60) Question Explanation: Identify the name of reaction used to prepare Alkyl Iodide.
Concept: Halogen exchange reaction.
Solution:

X = Cl, Br
This reaction is known as Finkelstein reaction.
Final answer: option (2)

61)

x is 1-Butene and y is 2-Butene

62)

Option (1)
 63)

Option (3)

64) Explain Question: Identify which reaction does not produce an ether as the product.

Concept: Williamson Ether Synthesis, SN2 Mechanism, Steric Hindrance

Solution:

3o alkyl halide gives elimination reaction, not substitution.

Final answer: Option (3)

65)

CH3 – I & (CH3)2CH – OH

66)

Explain Question: Alcohol is most reactive towards Lucas reagent.

Concept: Reactive of SN1 Mechanism α Stability of carbocation.

Solution:

Given compound Remark

1 Benzyl alcohol

(i) Phenyl group resonance

2 p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol

(i) Phenyl group resonance.

(ii) –OCH3 +M effect.
3 Allyl alcohol
(i) Allyllic group resonance.
4 Propan-1-ol
(i) a-C-H (Hyperconjugation) = 2
 Reactivity of alcohol = 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

Final answer: Option (2)

67)

Explain Question: Identify the end product (Y) of the given sequence of reaction.

Concept: Electrophilic substitution reaction of phenol.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

68) Explain the Question : Identify the product 'P' in given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on Reimer Tiemann carboxylation reaction.
Solution :
→ When phenol is reacted with carbon tetrachloride [CCl4] and NaOH or кон then salicylic
acid is formed.
→ Reaction is called as Reimer tieman Carboxylation.

Final Answer : (3)

69) Explain the question : Ask which reagent does not convert CH3–CH2–CHO into
CH3CH2CH2OH
Concept : This question is based on reduction, addition of GR (NAR)
Solution : Analyze the transformation
CH3–CH2–CHO ——→ CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
This is the reduction of aldehyde to primary alcohol.
LiAlH4 ⇒ convert aldehyde → 1° alcohol
NaBH4 ⇒ convert aldehyde → 1° alcohol
CH3MgBr ⇒ Add –CH3 to carbonyl → 2° alchol.

CH3CH2CHO + CH3MgBr (2° alcohol)

So CH3MgBr does not give CH3CH2CH2OH
Final answer : 2

70) Explain the question : Product B of given reaction.

Concept : This question is based on OMDM reaction.

Solution :

Final answer : Option (1)

71) (i)
Rosenmund Reaction

(ii) CH3–CN
Stephen's Reduction

(iii)
Etard Reaction

(iv)

72)

Ozonolysis & dry distillation of calcium salt of carboxylic acid.

Dicarboxylic acid is formed by oxidation ozonolysis of cyclohexene.

73)

74) Explain the question : Product A, B, C

Concept : This question is based on oxidation followed by ozonolysis.

Solution :

Final answer : Option (3)

75)

Option (2)

76) Moles of H2SO4 = 1 mol

g eq. of H2SO4 = moles × V.F. = 1 × 2 = 2 g eq.
Heat evolve due to 2 g eq. = –13.7 × 2 = –27.4 kCal

77)

Option (2)

78) Question Explanation:

To find out ΔV for given reaction.
Concept:
Enthalpy of formation
Solution:

ΔH = ΔHf NH3 (g) = – 46 KJ/Mol

2NH3 (g) → N2 (g) +3H2 (g)
ΔrH = +46 × 2 = 92KJ/Mol
ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

ΔU = 92 – = 87.01 KJ/Mol
Final answer: Option (4)
79)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

80)

Infinity

81)

82)

Greater than 50 J mol–1 K–1

83)

Ssolid < Sliquid

84)

Question Explanation :
Check whether q + w is a state Function and whether q and w themselves are state Functions.

Concept : Based on state and path function.

Solution :
q and w are path Functions; their sum (ΔE) is a state Function.
Assertion: q + w is a state Function → True (q + w = ΔE).
Reason: Work and heat are state Functions → False (they are path Functions).

So Assertion is true but Reason is False.

Final Answer : Option (3)

85) Explain question:

Identify the compounds A, B and C in the given reaction sequence.

Concept:
Nucleophilic substitution, GR formation Nucleophilic addition reaction.

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (3)

86)

3-methylphenol

87)

(i) & (iii) only

88) (c)
It is halogen exchange reaction. It is Swart's reaction in which R-f is formed.

Explanation

Question Explanation: Matching organic reactions with their common name.

Concept: Named reactions in the preparation of haloalkanes and haloarenes.
Solution: Matching the reactions on the left (A-D) with the named processes on the right (P-
S):

A. (A) : This is the reaction of an alcohol with

thionyl chloride, known as the Darzen process because the gaseous byproducts (
) drive the reaction to completion, giving high yield and purity.

B. (B) : This is a halide exchange reaction to prepare

iodoalkanes from chloro/bromoalkanes using NaI in acetone. This is the Finkelstein
reaction.
B→P

(C) : This is a halide exchange reaction to prepare

fluoroalkanes using a metallic fluoride like , or . This is the Swarts
reaction.
C→S

C. (D) : The image shows an aryl halide (C6H5X)

reacting with Sodium (Na), likely in the presence of an alkyl halide (not shown but
implied by the context of the options) to form an alkyl-substituted aromatic compound.
This is the Wurtz-Fittig reaction (coupling of an alkyl halide and an aryl halide using Na).
 If it was just an aryl halide with Na, it would be the Fittig reaction.
D→Q

The correct matching pair in the options is C → S.

Final Answer: C → S

89)

Benzene having high electron density undergoes ESR reaction at fastest rate.

90)

Option (4)

BIOLOGY

91)

Yellow seed colour, inflated pod shape and axial flower position
NCERT Page No 54

92)

Question Explanation :
The question asks the time period during which Gregor Mendel conducted his hybridization
experiments.

Concept ( Principles of Inheritance and Variation):

Mendel performed his experiments on pea plants in the monastery garden between 1856 and
1863.
His findings were later published in 1866.

Explanation :
Among the given options, the correct period mentioned is 1856 – 1863.

Final answer : Option 4

93) NCERT XII Pg # 39

94)

Explain Question : The question asks which statement is not always true for genes in diploid
organisms.
Concept : This question is based on Linkage
Explanation :Option 1 → Always true
Option 2 → Always true
Option 3 → Always true
Option 4 → Not always true (linked genes do not assort independently)
Final answer :4

95)

Explain Question -
The question asks which symbol represents the epipetalous condition, where stamens are
attached to petals.

Concept - Morphology of Flowering Plants –Family Solanaceae

Solution -
epipetalous means stamens are attached to petals (e.g., brinjal, datura).

In floral formula representation, this condition is shown by

Final answer - Option 1

96)

Explain Question: The question is asking to identify the pattern of heredity based on a
specific numerical ratio of physical traits (phenotypes).

Concept: Polygenic inheritance

Solution:

The phenotypic ratio 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1 represents Polygenic inheritance. In a polygenic

trait the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele, i.e., the effect of each allele is
additive.

-Inheritance of characters in which one character is controlled by many genes and intensity of
character depends upon the number of dominant alleles such as human skin color.

Final answer: Option 1

97) NCERT # XIth pg. no. 75

98) NCERT Pg # 77

99) NCERT XII Page no 75

100) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 62, 63

101) Explain Question – In which scemario will the phenotype remain unaffected.
Concept - This question Based on the relationship between genotype and phenotype.
 Solution -
When modified allele produces a normal enzyme:If the enzyme is functional the biochemical
pathway works fine → No effect on phenotype
Correct option: (1) when modified allele produces normal gene.

102)

NCERT Page No. 06

103) NCERT XII Pg. # 78

104) NCERT Pg. # 85

105)

Explaining the Question:

The question asks to calculate the height of a plant showing polygenic inheritance.

Concept:
Principles of Inheritance and Variation – Polygenic Inheritance

Solution:
In polygenic inheritance, each dominant allele contributes equally to the trait.
Contribution per dominant allele = Maximum height−Minimum height​ / n

where n = number of dominant alleles

Contribution per allele = 56−30 / 4 = 6.5

Genotype AAbb has 2 dominant alleles.

Height = Minimum height + (Number of dominant alleles × Contribution per allele )

Height= 30 + (2×6.5) = 43 cm

Final Answer: Option 1

106)

Question explanation: This question asks about the expected result when Mendel self-
pollinated a tall plan from the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross (tall × dwarf).

Concept : Mendel's Laws– Monohybrid Cross (Tall vs Dwarf)

Solution
In the F2 generation, tall plants are of two genotypes:

A. TT (homozygous tall) – produces all tall offspring when self-pollinated.

B. Tt (heterozygous tall) – produces tall and dwarf in a 3 : 12 ratio when self-pollinated.

Since the question says ″a tall F2 plant″ without specifying genotype, it can be either TT or Tt,
so both results are possible.

Final answer :- Both (1) & (2)

107)

Question Explanation: The question asks what information a test cross helps us determine in
genetics.

Concept: Test cross

Solution: A test cross (cross with homozygous recessive) helps determine whether an
individual with dominant phenotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous.

Final Answer: Option 2 (distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous

dominant)

108) NCERT Pg # 75

109)

Module Pg # 12

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 76

111) NCERT Pg. # 78

112) Explain Question – We need the sum of phenotypes and genotypes in F₂ when a
character is controlled by 2 pairs of polygenes.

Concept –Polygenic Inheritance

Solution –
n=2 → Phenotypes = 2(2)+1=5
Genotypes = (2+1)2=9
Sum total = 5+9=14

Final Answer – Option 3

113) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 85

114) NCERT Pg # 75

115)

Explain Question – The question asks to find the incorrect statement about Mendel’s pea
experiment.

Concept – Based on Mendel’s study of qualitative traits.

Solution – Mendel studied qualitative characters like seed shape and flower color, not
quantitative ones.

Final answer – Option 2

116)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the false statement regarding Mendel’s law
of independent assortment.
Concept : This question is based on Independent assortment
Explanation : Statement 1 → Correct (definition of independent assortment)
Statement 2 → Incorrect stage mentioned — independent assortment occurs at metaphase I,
not telophase I
Statement 3 → Correct (classic dihybrid ratio)
Statement 4 → Correct (condition for independent assortment)
Final answer : 2

117)

Solution : 4

118) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 78

119)

NCERT-XII Page No. # 83

120) Linkage referts to genes that are inherited together because they are located close to
each other on the same chromosome. In cross I, the genes are tightly linked, meaning there is
little chance of recombination. This results in a low percentage of recombinants, around 1.3%.
In cross II, the genes are loosely linked, meaning there is a greater chance of recombination,
leading to a higher percentage of recombinants, around 37.2%.
Ncert Pg No: 68

121) NCERT XI Pg. # 61

122)
 Explain Question: The question asks that how many types of gametes will be produced by the
offsprings resulting from the cross: AABCC x aabbcc

Concept: Gamete Formation

Solution: The off spring produced will be: AaBbCc

So, the type of gametes formed will be: 23 = 8

So, the correct answer is: 2. 8

Final answer: Option 2

123)

Explain Question : The question asks for the number of possible genotypes and phenotypes
for the children of a couple with the blood types AB (IAIB) and A (IAIO).

Concept : This question is based on Multiple Alleles.

Solution :
IAIA: Blood type A
IAIO: Blood type A
IAIB: Blood type AB
IBIO: Blood type B
The possible phenotypes are A, B, and AB. and 4 different genotypes possible for the children.

Final answer : Option (4)

124)

Explanation: The probability of having a girl or a boy is 1/2 for each child. For five children,
the probability of all being girls is (1/2)5 = 1/32.

The correct answer is 3 : 1/32

125)

The correct answer is 1. 4 types : 2 types.

Explanation: In Drosophila, crossing over occurs in females but not in males.

A. Female (AB/ab): Crossing over produces 4 types of gametes: AB, Ab, aB, ab.

B. Male (AB/ab): No crossing over, so only 2 types of gametes: AB, ab.

Thus, females produce 4 types and male produce 2 types of gametes.

126) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73,78

127) NCERT XII Pg. # 61

128) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 74 (E & H) Fig. 5.15

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67

130) NCERT Pg # 70

131)

Explain Question – The question asks to identify the family represented by the given floral
diagram based on its structural features.

Concept –Morphology of Flowering Plants-Floral diagram and characteristics of Solanaceae

family

Solution – The given floral diagram shows the following features:

A. Actinomorphic and bisexual flower

B. Pentamerous arrangement Gamosepalous calyx

C. Gamopetalous corolla

D. Five epipetalous stamens

E. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary with axile placentation ,placenta swellon

These characteristics are typical of the family Solanaceae (e.g., Datura, Brinjal, Chilli).

Final answer – Option 1

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 70

133)

Explain question : The question asks which statements are correct for the cross Tt × Tt in
pea plants
Concept : This question is based on Monohybrid cross
Explanation : In Tt × Tt
Genotypic ratio = 1TT : 2Tt : 1 tt → 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt
Phenotypic ratio = 3 tall : 1 dwarf ® 75% tall 25% dwarf
Homozygous = TT + tt = 25% + 25% = 50%
Heterozygous = 50% (Tt)
Final answer :- 2

134) NCERT Pg # 72

135)

Absolutely not

136)

Question Explanation: Homologous structures indicate a common ancestry adapted for

different functions.
Concept: Evolution
Solution: Homology refers to structural similarities in different species that are inherited
from a common ancestor. When an ancestral species gives rise to new species that are adapted
to different environments, their homologous structures may perform different functions. This
pattern is known as divergent evolution.
Final Answer: 2

137) NCERT Pg. No.116

138) NCERT XI, Page # 286, para-2

139) Explain Question : Which of the following amino acids were formed in Stanley-Miller's
experiment
Concept : This question is based on miller and Urey’s experiment
Solution : Stanley Miller’s experiment simulated early Earth conditions and produced amino
acids such as glycine, alanine, and aspartic acid from simple gases and electric sparks.
Final answer : 3 – Aspartic acid, Alanine, Glycine

140)

Question Explanation: The definition of the panspermia hypothesis.

Concept: Panspermia.

Solution: Panspermia is the hypothesis that units of life, such as spores or microorganisms,
were transferred to Earth from other planets or from outer space. It suggests that life may not
have originated on Earth but was seeded from elsewhere.

Final Answer: Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets of Earth.

141)
Ques Explanation – The question asks about the source from which, according to Oparin and
Haldane, the first form of life originated.
Concept – origin of life
Solution – Oparin and Haldane proposed that life originated from pre-existing non-living
organic molecules like RNA and proteins, which formed gradually in the primitive Earth's
environment through chemical evolution.
Final Answer – Option 3

142) NCERT Pg.#147

143)

Question Explanation – The question asks the vertebral level where the trachea divides into
two primary bronchi.

Concept – Division of trachea

Solution –

A. In humans, the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of the 5th
thoracic vertebra.

Final Answer – Option 2

144)

Question Explanation : Identify the fossil of a flying dinosaur.

Concept : Reptilian fossils.

Solution :

Triceratops, Tyrannosaurus, and Brachiosaurus were terrestrial dinosaurs.

Pteranodon was a flying reptile (pterosaur).

Final Answer : Option (2)

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

146)

Question Explanation: The question tests knowledge about transport of carbon dioxide in
blood and the role of carbonic anhydrase.

Concept: CO₂ transport.

Solution:
 A. A: High concentration of carbonic anhydrase in RBC → Correct(Carbonic anhydrase is an
enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of CO₂ and water into carbonic acid and present in
higher concentration in RBCs as compare to plasma)

B. B: Minute quantity of carbonic anhydrase in plasma → Correct

C. C: 4 ml CO₂ delivered to tissues → Incorrect (Approximately 4 ml of CO₂ per 100 ml

blood is delivered to the lungs, not to tissues)

D. D: 20–25% CO₂ carried as carbaminohaemoglobin → Correct (CO₂ is transported in blood

in three main forms: dissolved in plasma, as bicarbonate ions, and bound to hemoglobin
(carbaminohaemoglobin), about 20–25% of CO₂ is carried by hemoglobin)

E. So, Correct statements are A, B, and D.

Final answer: Option 1

147)

Explain Question : To identify the location of pneumotaxic center

Concept : This question is based on regulation of respiration

Explanation : The pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons region of the brain.

Final answer : 3

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44, 45

149)

NCERT Pg No # 60

150)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct formula for Vital Capacity (VC).
Concept: Lung volumes and capacities.

Solution:
Vital Capacity (VC) = TV + IRV + ERV
Or
VC = TLC – RV

Among the given options, TLC – RV matches this definition correctly.

Final answer: Option 3

151)

Ques Explanation – The question asks about the nutritional mode and oxygen requirement of
the first living beings that appeared on Earth.
Concept – Origin of life
Solution – The first living organisms were chemoheterotrophs, meaning they obtained energy
and carbon from pre-existing organic molecules. They were also anaerobes, as Earth’s
primitive atmosphere lacked free oxygen.
Final Answer – Option 2

152) NCERT XII Pg. # 60 (E) 67 (H) Fig. 4.2

153) Question Explanation :

Axis-X-Y representation.
Concept :
This question is based on Enzyme.
Solution :
X-axis → temperature
Y-axis → Enzyme activity
Hence, Option (1) is correct

154)

Question Explanation: The question tests understanding of evolutionary biology and the
timing of life’s origin.

Concept : Evolution / Origin of Life

Solution : The correct answer is option : 2

A. Assertion True: Evolutionary biology studies the history of life forms on Earth.

B. Reason True: First cellular life appeared ~2000 million years ago.

C. However, the reason does not directly explain the definition of evolutionary biology; it
is a supporting fact, not the explanation.

Final answer : 2

155)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which of the listed methods are natural contraceptive methods.

Concept:
Natural contraceptive methods.
Solution:

Periodic abstinence (A) involves avoiding intercourse during the fertile period,which
is a natural method
Coitus interruptus (B) is withdrawal before ejaculation, which is a natural method but
less reliable.
Lactational amenorrhoea (C) is a natural method where breastfeeding prevents
ovulation and menstruation postpartum.

Final Answer:3

156)

Explain Question : to identify the Weekly oral pills for females

Concept : Hormonal contraceptive pills

Explanation : Saheli is a non-steroidal weekly oral contraceptive pill

Final answer : 3

157) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of convergent evolution, where
organisms that are not closely related independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar
environments. Both penguins (birds) and dolphins (mammals) have flippers for swimming, but
their evolutionary origins are different. The similarity in their flippers is due to their
adaptation to aquatic environments, not because of a common ancestor.

158)

Question Explanation: Identifying the theory that explains the origin of the universe.

Concept: Big-Bang theory

Solution: The Big-Bang theory is the most widely accepted scientific theory that attempts to
explain the origin of the universe.

Final Answer: Big-Bang theory

159)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 188, Fig. 14.4

160)

Question Explanation: Identify a contraceptive device and its correct site of implantation in
a woman.

Concept: Birth control methods

Solution:
A. Implants are small rods or capsules that release hormones (usually progestin) to prevent
pregnancy.
B. They are implanted subcutaneously, typically in the inner side of the upper arm, where they
continuously release the hormone over months or years.

Final Answer: Implants / Subcutaneous

161)

Question explanation: Identify which theory was proved by the swan neck flask experiment.

Concept: Origin of Life

Solution:

A. Louis Pasteur’s famous swan-neck flask experiment was a landmark study in microbiology that
successfully proved the theory of biogenesis.
B. This theory states that living organisms can only arise from pre-existing living matter, rather
than spontaneously.

Final answer: Option 3

162)

Question Explanation – The question asks which ion movement occurs in RBCs during CO₂
removal in the lungs.

Concept – CO₂ transport

Solution –
In lungs: during CO₂ removal: HCO₃⁻ enters RBC from plasma to reform CO₂ for exhalation.

Final Answer – Option 3

163)

Question Explanation: Identifying features not shown by plant structures.

Concept: Divergent Evolution

Solution: The figure shows the thorn of a Bougainvillea and the tendril of a Cucurbita. Both
structures originate from the same ancestral organ, the axillary bud, which indicates homology
and a common ancestry. Their evolution into different forms for different functions (protection
vs. support) is a classic example of divergent evolution. Vestigial structures are organs that
have lost their original function, which is not the case for these two structures.

Final Answer: Vestigial structures

164) NCERT Pg.#276

165)

NCERT XI, Pg # 127

166) Explanation Question : S.L. Miller, an American scientist, in his experiment, created
electric discharge at 800°C in a closed flask containing some gases with water vapour. These
gases were:

Concept : This question is based on Miller experiment

Solution : The gases used were methane, ammonia, and hydrogen — to test the chemical
origin of life.

Final answer : (3) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen

167)

NCERT (XII) Pg# 129/ 140(H) Para:7.3

168)

Explain Question : Match column-A with column-B.

Concept : This question is based on birth control temporary and permanent methods
Explanation :
Barrier method → Condoms (prevent sperm entry) → (ii)
Oral pills → Prevent ovulation (by hormones) → (iii)
IUDs → Cu-T (intrauterine device) → (iv)
Sterilization → Tubectomy (permanent contraception) → (i)
Final answer : 3

169)

NCERT (XII) Page # 117 Fig:7.6

170)

Question Explanation: Arranging Palaeozoic periods in order

Concept: Geological time scale

Solution: The correct ascending order is Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian →

Carboniferous → Permian.

Final Answer: Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian

171) NCERT Pg. # 60

 172)

Explain Question : Identify the incorrect match.

Concept : This question is based on temporary birth control methods.
Explanation : "Multiload 375 – Non-medicated IUD" is wrong because it is a copper-
containing medicated IUD.
Final answer : 3

173)

Question Explanation: Identifying what the theory of abiogenesis supports.

Concept: Abiogenesis

Solution: The theory of abiogenesis, or spontaneous generation, supports the idea that life
could arise from non-living matter, a concept that was later disproven by experiments.

Final Answer: Spontaneous generation

174) NCERT-XIth, Eng. Pg. 158 (Topic-9.12.5)

[Transfer of H/electrons results in oxidation & reduction]
NCERT-XIth, िहदी पे ज Pg. 158 (टाॅ िपक-9.12.5)
[H/इले ट ाॅस के पिरणामवप ऑसीकरण एवं अपचयन होता है ।]

175)

Question Explanation: correctly match different types of contraceptives with their examples.

Concept: Birth control methods

Solution:

A. A – Non-medicated IUDs → Lippes loop (c): These are inert IUDs without any drugs or copper.
B. B – Copper releasing IUDs → CuT (a): IUDs that release copper ions to inhibit sperm motility
and fertilization.
C. C – Hormone releasing IUDs → LNG-20 (d): IUDs that release levonorgestrel, a synthetic
hormone, to prevent pregnancy.
D. D – Non-steroidal pill → Saheli (b): A non-hormonal oral contraceptive used in females.

Final Answer: A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b

176) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 185

177) NCERT Page No. 131/143

178) NCERT Pg.#147

179)
Explain Question : This question asking about regulation of breathing and the relative roles
of pO2 vs pCO2/H+.
Concept : This question is based on regulation of respiration.
Explanation : Peripheral/central chemoreceptors primarily respond to increased pCO2 and H+;
hence O2 has no role in routine regulation, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Final answer : 1

180)

Explain Question :

Match the following and give the answer for the correct match.

Concept :

Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

Explanation :

ZIFT → Zygote up to 8 blastomere stage transferred into fallopian tube → iii

IUT → More than 8 blastomere stage transferred into uterus → i

GIFT → Transfer of ovum collected from ovary into fallopian tube → iv

ICSI → Sperm directly injected into ovum cytoplasm → ii

Final answer : 4. A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii