21-06-2026

2321CJA101003260001 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Particle moves in straight line with constant velocity of 10 m/s for 5 sec. then with
constant retardation of 10 m/s2. Find its total displacement before coming to rest :-

(A) 50m
(B) 55m
(C) 45m
(D) 60m

2) Two projectile thrown at 30° and 45° with the horizontal respectively, reach the maximum height
in same time. The ratio of their initial velocities is:

(A)
(B) 2 : 1
(C)
(D) 1 : 2

3) For the velocity-time (v-t) graph shown in figure total time of journey is 10s. If maximum velocity

during the motion is 3 m/s, the time for which motion is uniform is:

(A) 2s
(B) 4s
(C) 6s
(D) 8s

4) If the equation of path of a projectile is given by

y = 12x – x2
then find horizontal range :-

(A) 12.4 m
(B) 21 m
(C) 16 m
(D) 36 m

5) A train goes from Kota to Delhi at speed of 100 km/hr and returns from Delhi to Kota at speed of
60 km/hr the average speed of train during complete journey will be :

(A) 80 km/hr
(B) 75 km/hr
(C) 90 km/hr
(D) 85 km/hr

6) A stone is thrown upward with a speed 'u' from the top of the tower & it reaches the ground with
speed '3u'. The height of the tower is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Three balls are projected with equal speed at angle 15º, 45º, 75º and their ranges are
respectively R1, R2 and R3 then :-

(A) R2 > R1 > R3

(B) R1 > R2 > R3
(C) R1 = R2 = R3
(D) R1 = R3 < R2

8) A body is projected with initial velocity of . The horizontal range is (take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(A) 9.6 m
(B) 14 m
(C) 50 m
(D) None of these

9) A particle is moving along a straight line. Select the correct statement :-

(A) The sign of acceleration does not indicate that the particle speed is increasing or decreasing
(B) The zero velocity of the particle at any instant imply zero acceleration at that instant
(C) The sign of acceleration clearly indicates that the particle speed is increasing or decreasing
(D) All of these

10) Find ratio of average speed and magnitude of average velocity of tip of minute hand in 20
minutes:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None

11) In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m (see

figure). The magnitude of the average velocity is :

(A) 3.14 m/s

(B) 2.0 m/s
(C) 1.0 m/s
(D) Zero

12) The position-time graphs of two cars A and B are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with
the time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of A and B is :-

(A)
(B) 1 : 3
(C)
(D) 3 : 1

13) The position (x)-time (t) graph for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The

average speed of particle in time interval t = 0 to t = 8 s is :-

(A) Zero
(B) 5 m/s
(C) 7.5 m/s
(D) 9.7 m/s

14) A man walks 30 m towards north, then 20 m towards east and the last 30 m towards south -
west. The displacement from origin is :

(A) 10 m towards west

(B) 10 m towards east
(C) 60 m towards north south
(D) 60 m towards east north

15) Position of an ant (S in metres) moving in Y-Z plane is given by (where t is in

second). The magnitude and direction of velocity of the ant at t = 1 s will be :

(A) 16 m/s in y-direction

(B) 4 m/s in x-direction
(C) 9 m/s in z-direction
(D) 4 m/s in y-direction

16) The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration a is given by αt3/2. Which of
the following relations is valid ?

(A) v = u + αt3/2
v=u+
(B)

(C)
v=u+ αt5/2
(D) v = u + αt5/2

17) The velocity v of a body moving along a straight line varies with time t as v = 2t2 e–t, where v is in
m/s and t is in second. The acceleration of body is zero at t =

(A) 0
(B) 2 s
(C) 3
(D) Both (A) & (B)

18) A particle starting from rest undergoes a rectilinear motion with acceleration a. The variation of
a with time t is shown below. The maximum velocity attained by the particle during its motion is :-

(A) 120 m/s

(B) 60 m/s
(C) 22 m/s
(D) 80 m/s

19) A body covers first half distance with speed v0 and remaining half distance covers in two equal
time intervals with speed v1 & v2 respectively then find average speed ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20)

Check up the only correct statement in the following :

(A) A body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed.
(B) A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity.
(C) A body having constant speed cannot have any acceleration.
(D) A body in motion under a force acting upon it must always have work done upon it.

SECTION-II

1) A body is dropped from a height h from the state of rest. It covers a distance of 9h/25 in the last
second. What is the height (in meter) from which the body falls ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

2) The time of flight of projectile is 10 second and its range is 500 m. The maximum height (in
meter) reached by it will be (g = 10 m/s2)

3) A fighter jet is flying horizontally at a certain altitude with a speed of 200 ms–1. When it passes
directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun, bullet is fired from the gun, at an angle θ with the horizontal,
to hit the jet. If the bullet speed is 400 m/s, the value of θ will be ............ °.

4) A particle is projected with initial velocity 30 m/s as shown in the figure. Point of projection is the
origin of coordinate system as shown. If x2 – x1 = 60m. Then the time interval to travel from A to B (in

seconds) is :

5) Starting from rest, a particle moving along a straight line is accelerated by the acceleration
a= 4 – t2 for 0 ≤ t ≤ 2 sec

a= for t > 2 sec

What is the velocity (in m/s) after 4 sec?
 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Which of the following match is incorrect :

(A) Na > Mg ⇒ 3rd ionisation energy

(B) Pd > Ag ⇒ 1st ionisation energy
(C) H < He ⇒ 1st ionisation energy
(D) Ne < Li ⇒ 2nd ionisation energy

2) In which orbital does an electron in a phosphorous atom experience the greatest effective nuclear
charge

(A) 1s
(B) 2s
(C) 2p
(D) 3s

3)

In the formation of X+2(g) from X+(g) , 4 eV energy is absorbed, which would be equal to :

+
(A) |ΔHe.g| of X (g)
+2
(B) IE of X (g)
(C) IE of X(g)
+2
(D) |ΔHe.g| of X (g)

4) Which of the following element having electron affinity greater than S

(A) O
(B) Se
(C) Te
(D) None of these

5) Process I X(g) X–3(g)

Process II X(g) X+3(g)
Which of the following is NOT changed during both processes :

(A) Total number of protons

(B) Number of neutron
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Total number of electrons
6) The type of block of the element having atomic number Z = 21 is :-

(A) p-block
(B) s-block
(C) ƒ-block
(D) d-block

7) Three different elements along with their respective ionisation energies are given below

Element IE1(eV/atom) IE2(ev/atom)

X 302 2590

Y 542 989

Z 1246 2140
Based on the above information , element which may be alkali metal and non-metal respectively are :
(A) Y, Z
(B) X, Y
(C) X, Z
(D) Can not be predicted

8) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT ?

(A) ΔHe.g value of noble gases are negative

(B) Si is diagonally related to B.
(C) The element which have higher -ΔHeg. act as strong oxidising agent
(D) H+ and Cs+ are the smallest and largest cation in periodic table respectively

9) Which pair of atomic numbers represent s-block elements ?

(A) 3, 12
(B) 6, 12
(C) 9, 17
(D) 7, 15

10) Which of the following processes is exothermic ?

(A) O → O¯
(B) O¯ → O2–
(C) S¯ → S2–
(D) Li → Li+

11) Lanthanide contraction means:

(A) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to poor shielding d-subshell electron.
(B) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to high shielding of d-subshell electron.
(C) Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.
(D) Contraction of atom of element before lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.

12) According to Moseley, a straight line graph is obtained on plotting :

Where, ν is frequency and Z is atomic number

(A) ν Vs Z
(B) ν2 Vs Z
(C) Vs Z

(D)
Vs Z

13) Which of the following statement is correct about Zeff for an element (n > 1)

(A) Zeff is same for (ns, np) electron

(B) σ is not same for (ns, np) electron
(C) Zeff is same for (nd), (nf) electron
(D) σ is same for (nd), (nf) electron

14) For a ball of mass 198.6 gm to be located within 0.1 Å, what will be the minimum uncertainty in
velocity :

(A) 2.6 × 10–17 cm/s

(B) 2.6 × 10–18 m/s
(C) 2.6 × 10–21 cm/s
(D) 2.6 × 10–21 m/s

15)

The maximum number of electron in a subshell is given by the expression :

(A) 4ℓ + 2
(B) 4ℓ – 2
(C) 2ℓ + 1
(D) 2ℓ – 1

16) The percentage of orbitals occupied by electron out of total orbitals present upto the outer most
filled shell of Fe atom

(A) 50%
(B) 70%
(C) 25%
(D) 35%

17)

Which of the following is CORRECT set up quantum number for the last electron enters in 'Fe'.
 n ℓ m s

(A) 4 0 0

(B) 3 1 0

(C) 3 2 –1

(D) 3 2 –3

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

18) Find the radius ratio of 2nd orbit of H atom to 2nd orbit of He+

(A) 1 : 4
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 2

19) The correct value for 3p orbital is -

(A)
(B) Ψ321
(C)
(D)

20) Rydberg given the equation for all visible radiation in the hydrogen spectrum as . The
value of k in terms of Rydberg constant is

(A) 4R

(B)

(C)

(D) R

SECTION-II

1) Calculate change in potential energy (in eV) when an electron move from ground state to third
excited state in He+.

2) Two electromagnetic radiations have wave numbers in the ratio 2 : 3. Their energies for quanta
will be in the ratio x : y, then x + y is
3) Find total number of p-orbital electrons in phosphorous (15P) which have orbital angular

momentum equal to is ___.

4) Calculate the ionisation energy (in eV / atom) of fluorine if its electronegativity on Pauling's scale
is '4' and its electron gain enthalpy is –3.4 eV / atom.

5) Group number of an element having atomic number 100.

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) If α, β are the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the roots of equation ax2 – bx(x – 1) + c(x – 1)2 = 0
are :-

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D) α, β

2) The number of real solution of equation = –x2 + 5x–10 :-

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) No solution

3) If 2 lies between the roots of quadratic equation x2 – ax + a = 0, then :-

(A) 0 < a < 4

(B) a < 4
(C) a > 4
(D) None

4) If α, β, γ are the roots of the equation, x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0, then (1 – α2) (1 – β2) (1 – γ2) is equal
to :-

(A) (1 + b)2 – (a + c)2

(B) (1 + b)2 + (a + c)2
(C) (1 – b)2 + (a + c)2
(D) None of these

5) If the graph of the curve y = 16x2 + 8(a + 5)x – 7a – 5 is strictly above the x-axis, then :-

(A) a > –2
(B) a > –15
(C) – 2 > a > –15
(D) 2 < a < 15

6) Total number of integral values of 'a' so that x2 – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0 has integral roots, is equal to
:-

(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) None

7) The value of p for which one root of the equation x2 – 30x + p = 0 is the square of the other, are :-

(A) 125 only

(B) 125 and –216
(C) 125 and 215
(D) 216 only

8) The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2 + 2x + p(p – 1) = 0 are of opposite
sign is :-

(A) (–∞, 0)
(B) (0, 1)
(C) (1, ∞)
(D) (0, ∞)

9) If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the

squares of their reciprocals then

(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 1
(D) –1

10) If the graph of f(x) = ax2 + bx + c is following then which is correct?

(A) a < 0
(B) b2 – 4ac < 0
(C) c > 0
(D) b > 0

11) If f(x) = ax2 + bx + c has no real roots and a + b + c < 0 then :-

(A) a < 0
(B) Data insufficient
(C) b2 – 4ac > 0
(D) c > 0

12) If x ∈ R then maximum and minimum value of are :-

5, –
(A)

1, –
(B)

(C)
7,
(D) 4, 1

13) If (x2 + x + 1) + (x2 + 2x + 3) + (x2 + 3x + 5) + ...... + (x2 + 20x + 39) = 4500 then x equals to :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) If the difference of roots of equation x2 + kx + 7 = 0 is 6 then possible value of k is :-

(A) ± 2
(B) 0
(C) ± 4
(D) ± 8

15) If α, β, γ are the roots of x3 + x + 1 = 0 then the value of α3 + β3 + γ3 is :-

(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) –3
(D) None

16) If the roots of equation x2 + a2 = 8x + 6a are real then :-

(A) a ∈ [–2, 8]
(B) a ∈ [2, 8]
(C) a ∈ (–8, –2)
(D) None

17)

If α ≠ β and α2 = 3α – 2 and β2 = 3β – 2 then the value of is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None

18) If the roots of equation x2 + ax + d = 0 are 8 and 2, and the roots of equation x2 + cx + b = 0 are
3 and 3 then the roots of equation x2 + ax + b = 0 are –

(A) 8, –1
(B) 2, –9
(C) –8, –2
(D) 9, 1

19) If α,β,γ, δ are the roots of x4–100x3+2x2+4x+10 = 0 then is equal to :-

(A)

(B)

(C) 4

(D)

20) The quadratic equation whose one root is will be :-

(A) x2 – 6x + 1 = 0
(B) x2 + 6x + 1 = 0
(C) x2 – 6x – 1 = 0
(D) x2 + 6x – 1 = 0

SECTION-II

1) If also then p + q equals :

2) If equations ax2 + bx + a = 0 , a, b ∈ N and x3 + 2x2 – 2x – 1 = 0 have two roots common, then

minimum value of (2a + 3b) is :-

3) If α, β & γ are the root of the equation 6x3 + 100x + 2018 = 0, the value of

is

4) The number of real solutions of the equation, x2 – |x| – 12 = 0 is :

5) Find integral values of k for which the quadratic equation (k – 12)x2 + 2(k – 12)x + 2 = 0 possess
no real roots ?
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B C B C B B D A A A B B B A D C D B A B

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 125 125 60 4 6

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. A A D D C D C A A A C C A C A A C B D C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 102 5 9 19 3

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. B D C A C B B B A D A A A D C A B D D D

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 22 11 1 2 13
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

S1 = 10 × 5 = 50
2 2
0 = (10) – 2 × 10 × S2
S2 = 5
S1 + S2 = 50 + 5 = 55

2) Time taken to reach maximum height

3) Explain Question:
Analyzing a v-t graph to find the duration of constant velocity.

Concept:
Slope of v-t graph (Acceleration) and Geometry of Motion.

Solution:
The graph consists of three parts: acceleration (O to A), uniform motion (A to B), and
deceleration (B to C).
By using the slopes given by the 45° angles, we find the time spent in the accelerating and
decelerating phases.
Subtracting these from the total journey time reveals the duration of uniform motion.

Calculation:

A. Phase 1 (O to A): The slope (tan 45°) represents acceleration.

A. Phase 3 (B to C): The slope again involves a 45° angle (deceleration).

Similar to Phase 1, t3 = 3 s

A. Phase 2 (A to B - Uniform Motion): Let this time be t2.

Total Time = t1 + t2 + t3
 10 = 3 + t2 + 3
10 = 6 + t2 ⇒ t2 = 4s

Final Answer: Option (2)

4)

Explain Question :
Given the equation for the path of a projectile, find its horizontal range.

Concept:
The horizontal range (R) of a projectile is the value of x when the vertical displacement (y)
returns to zero (y = 0).

Solution:

Equation:

Set y = 0:

Factor out x:

Solve for non-zero x:

Final Answer: Option 3

5)

Explanation Question: A train is moving and we have to find average speed of train.
Concept: This question is based on speed and velocity.
Solution:

= 75 km/hr
Final Answer option : (2)

6) v2 = u2 + 2as
(–3u)2 = u2 + 2 (–g) (-h)

h=
7) R1 = R3 < R2

8) ux = 8
uy = 6

R=

9) The sign of acceleration does not indicate that the particle speed is increasing or decreasing

10) Question Explanation: We must find of the tip of the

minute hand in 20 minutes.

Concept:
Minute hand moves in a circle.
Average speed = total distance / time.
Average velocity = straight-line displacement / time.

Solution: Let the length of the minute hand = R.

1. Average speed

In 20 minutes, minute hand rotates: of a revolution.

Distance travelled:

2. Magnitude of average velocity

The tip moves through 120°:

Chord length:

3. Ratio

Time cancels:

Final Answer:
 11) Average velocity = = = 2 m/s .

12)

13) vavg = = 5 m/s

14)

10 m towards west

15)

16) a = = αt3/2

17)

v = 2t2 e–t

a= = 4t e–t + 2t2 e–t × – 1

a = 4t e–t – 2t2 e–t

18) Area = charge in velocity

19) vavg =

20) When a body possesses constant velocity, then both its magnitude (i.e., speed) and
direction must remain constant.
On the other hand, if the speed of a body is constant, then its velocity may or may not remain
constant. For example, in circular motion, though the speed of body remains constant but
velocity changes from point to point due to change in direction.
A body moving with a constant speed along a circular path constantly experiences a
 centripetal acceleration.

21)

22)

23) Both should have same horizontal component of velocity

200 = 400 cos θ
θ = 60°

24)

25)

= 8 – 2 = 6 m/s

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)
Explain the question: Identify incorrect ionization trend.

Concept: Configuration and IE trends.

Solution:
The third ionization energy (IE3) is the energy required to remove an electron from a dipositive
cation (M2+).
Comparing the electronic configurations: Na2+ is [1s22s22p5] (isoelectronic with Fluorine),
while Mg2+ is [1s22s22p6] (stable noble gas configuration isoelectronic with Neon).
Removing an electron from a completely filled, highly stable noble gas subshell in
Mg2+ requires significantly more energy than from the partially filled subshell in Na2+; thus,
the correct order is Mg > Na.
This makes Statement 1 the incorrect match.
Regarding the other options: Pd(4d10) has a higher IE1 than Ag(4d105s1) because removing a
4d electron is harder than a 5s electron; He is higher than H due to noble gas stability and
higher Z; and IE2(Li)(1s2 → 1s1) is much higher than IE2(Ne)(2p5 → 2p4) because the 1s electrons
are much closer to the nucleus.

Final Answer: Option (1)

27)

Explain Question : The e– in P–atom experience highest Zeff.

Concept : This question is based on e– s near nucleus experience most Zeff.
Solution : 1s nearest to nucleus.
Final answer : Option (1)

29)

Explanation Question :
The element with E.A high than S in group-16.

Concept :
This question is based on S have most E.A in their group.
Solution :

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4)

30) Question Explanation :

Question is asking to find the change which occurs during given process.

Concept :
This question is based on the formation of cation and anion.
Solution :
Let p = z
n=n
then e = z
in 'x'
Process I X(g) X–3(g)
p=z p=z
n=n n=n
e=z e=z+3

Process II X(g) X+3(g)

p=z p=z
n=n n=n
e=z e=z–3
∴ Numbers of proton and neutron remain same.

Final answer : Option (3)

31) Question Explanation : Predication of block for Z = 21

Concept : This question is based on the definition of block of element

Solution :
Z = 21 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1
Last subshell is 3d
∴ Element belong to d-block

Final answer : The correct option is (4)

32) Question Explanation : Predication of type of element from I.E. data.

Concept : This question is based on periodicity in ionisation energy.

Solution :
Alkali metal exhibit minimum I.E. in their period while non-metals have higher I.E
X in alkali while Z is nonmetal.

Final answer : The correct option is (3)

33) Explain the question : Among different statements choose correct one.
Concept : This question is based on periodicity.
Solution :
(1) ΔHeg for noble gas is always true

(2)
(3) X(g) X–(g) ΔHeg = -ve
easily accept e–(s) therefore oxidising agent.
(4) H+ smallest
Cs+ longest
Final answer : The correct option is (1)

34) Explain Question: The question asks which pair of atomic numbers represent s-block
elements.
Concept: s-block elements are found in Group 1 (alkali metals) and Group 2 (alkaline earth
metals). Their valence electrons are in the s-orbital.
Solution:
Check each pair of atomic numbers:
3 → Li → Group 1 → s-block
12 → Mg → Group 2 → s-block
Both are s-block elements.
6 → C → p-block → Not s-block
9 → F → p-block → Not s-block
17 → Cl → p-block → Not s-block
7 → N → p-block → Not s-block
15 → P → p-block → Not s-blockOnly the pair 3 and 12 contains both elements as s-block.

Final Answer: (1) 3, 12

35)

Explanation of question:
The exothermic process from the following.

Concept:
Electron gain enthalpy, Electron affinity, Ionization energy.

Solution:
– –
(1) O'g' + e → O'g' ΔHeq = exothermic
(2) O'g'– + e– → O–2'g' ΔHeq = exothermic
(3) S–'g' + e– → S–2'g' ΔHeq = exothermic
(4) Li(g) → Li+(g) + e– IE (the) exothermic.

Final answer: Option (1)

36)

Question Explanation: Gradual decrease in atomic size across the lanthanide series.
Concept: Lanthanide Contraction.
Solution: Lanthanide contraction is the steady and gradual decrease in the atomic and ionic
radii of the elements following lanthanum (from Cerium to Lutetium). This occurs because, as
the atomic number increases, the new electrons enter the 4f-subshell. These f-electrons
have a very poor shielding effect due to their diffused shape. Consequently, they cannot
effectively shield the outer electrons from the increasing nuclear charge, causing the entire
electron cloud to contract toward the nucleus.
For isoelectronic or similar series:
 In lanthanides, as atomic number (Z) increases, the screening constant σ for 4f electrons is
very low, making . This leads to:

Final Answer: 3. Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of f-
subshell electron.

37) Question Explanation: Identifying variables that yield a straight line in Moseley’s plot.
Concept: Moseley's Law and Atomic Number.
Solution: Henry Moseley discovered that the square root of the frequency of
characteristic X-rays emitted by elements is directly proportional to their atomic number ( Z ).
This relationship proved that atomic number, not atomic mass, is the fundamental property of
elements.
Calculation: Linear Equation: , where a and b are constants.
Final Answer: Option (3) Vs Z

38) Question Explanation : Find the correct statement for Zeff when n > 1.
Concept : Slater's Rules for shielding constant (σ).
Solution :
• Grouping: According to Slater's rules, (ns, np) electrons are placed in the same group.
• Shielding Value: Every other electron in the same (ns, np) group provides an equal shielding
of 0.35 .
• Calculation: Since Zeff = Z – σ, and σ is identical for both ns and np electrons in the same
shell, their effective nuclear charge is the same.
• Comparison: Electrons in nd or nf orbitals are grouped separately, leading to different σ and
Zeff
values.
Final Answer : Option (1)

39) ΔV =
= 2.6 × 10–21 cm/sec.

40)

Question Explanation: Determining the electron capacity of a subshell using quantum

numbers.
Concept: Quantum Numbers and Subshell Occupancy.
Solution: Each subshell is defined by the azimuthal quantum number (l). The number of
orbitals in a subshell is given by (2l + 1). Since each orbital can hold a maximum of two
electrons (with opposite spins), the total capacity is double the number of orbitals.

Calculation:

A. Number of orbitals = (2l + 1)

B. Max electrons
C. Max electrons = 2(2l + 1) = 4l + 2

Final Answer: 1 (4l + 2)

41) Question Explanation: Calculate % of orbitals occupied by electron for Fe atom.

Concept: Electronic configuration.

Solution:
Fe = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
outer most orbit n = 4
Total orbital 1s = 1
2s + 2p = 4
3s + 3p + 3d = 9
4s + 4p + 4d + 4f = 16
_________
30
Occupied orbital
1s = 1
2s = 1
2p = 3
3s = 1
3p = 3
3d = 5
4s = 1
________
15

Final Answer: The correct option is (1)

42)

Explain the question: Find Fe 's last entering electron QNs.

Concept: Aufbau principle & quantum rules.

Solution:
Iron (Z = 26) has a ground-state electronic configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d6. According
to the Aufbau principle, the 4s subshell fills completely before electrons begin to occupy the
3d subshell.
Therefore, the differentiating (last) electron enters the 3d subshell. For a 3d electron, the
principal quantum number n is 3 and the azimuthal quantum number ℓ is 2. The magnetic
quantum number m must satisfy the condition –ℓ ≤ m ≤ + ℓ, which allows values {–2, –1, 0,
+1, +2}.
Option (C) provides a valid set with n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –1, while Option (D) is physically
impossible because m = –3 exceeds the allowed range for ℓ = 2.
Final Answer: Option (3)

43)

Explanation Question : Find radius ratio of 2nd orbit of H to 2nd orbit of He+
Concept : This question is based on bohr atomic model.
Solution :

(Radius of Bohr's orbit)

Final answer : option (2)

44)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which wave function corresponds to a 3p orbital using quantum numbers.

Concept:
Quantum Numbers, Atomic Orbitals, Wave Function Notation

Solution:
For any orbital, the wave function is written as:

where:
n = principal quantum number
I = azimuthal quantum number
m = magnetic quantum number

For a 3p orbital:

n=3

For p-orbital:
I=1

For I = 1, possible m values are:

So valid wave functions for 3p orbital are:

Final Answer: Option(4)

45)
 =

46) Question Explanation: Find the change in potential energy

Concept: Bohr model
Solution: n1 = 1
n2 = 4

Change is potential energy = ΔPE = 27.2 (2)2

= 27.2 × 4 × = 102 eV
Final Answer: 102

47)

48) Angular momentum for p-orbital e– s

So we have to find out total no. of electrons in porbitals of phosphorous.

Total p-orbital e– = 9

49) χM = χp × 2.8
= 4 × 2.8 = 11.2

χM = = 11.2
I.E. = 2 × 11.2 – EA
I.E. = 22.4 – 3.4 = 19 eV / atom

50)

Atomic Number = 100 → 'f-block elements'

Lanthanoid : 58 — 73
Actinides 90 — 103.
Both lies in group no.3.
Ans. 3

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) =α
x = α – αx
x = (1 + α) = α

x=

52)
RHS –x2 + 5x – 10

Max. Value =

53) Let roots be α,β, α < 2 < β.

⇒ a2 – 4a > 0, 4 – 2a + a < 0
⇒ (a < 0 or a > 4) and a > 4.
Hence a > 4.

54) are roots of x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0

3 2
⇒ x + ax + bx + c = (x – ) (x – ) (x – )
put x = 1
1 + a + b + c = (1 – ) (1 – ) (1 – ).......(i)
put x = –1
–1 + a – b + c = (–1 – ) (–1 – ) (–1 – )
⇒ (a + c) –(1 + b) = –(1 + ) (1 + ) (1 + )
⇒ (1 + b) – (a + c) = (1 + ) (1 + ) (1 + )......(ii)
On multiplying (i) and (ii), we get, (1 + b)² – (a+c)² = (1 – ²) (1 – ²) (1 – ²)

55) D < 0
64(a + 5)2 + 4.16×(7a + 5) < 0
a2 + 10a + 25 + 7a + 5 < 0
(a2 + 17a + 30) < 0
(a + 15) (a + 2) < 0
a ∈ (–15, –2)

56) f(x) = x2 – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0

⇒ (x – a) (x – 1) = 1.
a ∈ Z, x ∈ Z ⇒ x – a = 1, x – 1 = 1 or x – a = – 1, x – 1 = – 1
⇒ x = 2, a = 1 or x = 0, a = 1
⇒ a = 1 is the only integral value of a.

57) Let α and α2 are roots

α + α2 = 30 ; α⋅α2 = p
α2 + α – 30 = 0
(α + 6) (α – 5) = 0
α = –6, α = 5
Now p = (–6)3 or (5)3
p = –216 or 125

58) P(P – 1) < 0

P ∈ (0, 1)

59) α + β = , α+β=

⇒ –bc2 = ab2 – 2a2c ⇒ ab2 + bc2 = 2a2c

⇒ ⇒

60) Parabola is upward a > 0

intersecting x-axis at two points ⇒ D > 0
f(0) < 0 ⇒ c < 0
vertex lies in IIIrd quadratic

⇒ ⇒
b and a are of same sign
⇒b>0

61) f(x) = 0 has no real roots so there are two possibilities

or
(I) (II)
Also given a + b + c < 0
⇒ f(1) < 0
which is not possible in (I) case
⇒ case-II is correct
i.e. ax2 + bx + c < 0 ∀ x ∈ R
⇒ a<0 & D<0

62)
x2y + 2xy + 4y = x2 – 6x + 4
x2(y – 1) + 2x (y + 3) + 4 (y – 1) = 0
D≥0
4(y + 3)2 – 4.4(y – 1)2 ≥ 0
y2 + 6y + 9 – 4y2 + 8y – 4 ≥ 0
–3y2 + 14y + 5 ≥ 0
3y2 – 14y – 5 ≤ 0
(3y + 1) (y – 5) ≤ 0
ymin = ymax = 5

63) 20x2 + 210x + 400 = 4500

2x2 + 21x – 410 = 0
2x2 + 41x – 20x – 410 = 0
x(2x + 41) – 10 (2x + 41) = 0
(2x + 41) (x – 10) = 0

x= , 10

64) Here |α – β| =
⇒ k2 – 28 = 36 ⇒ k2 = 64
⇒ k=±8

65) Here α + β + γ = 0
⇒ α3 + β3 + γ3 = 3αβγ = 3 × –1 = – 3

66) x2 – 8x + a2 – 6a = 0
∵ roots are real ⇒ D ≥ 0
⇒ 64 – 4(a2 – 6a) ≥ 0
⇒ a2 – 6a – 16 ≤ 0
⇒ (a – 8) (a + 2) ≤ 0 ⇒ a ∈ [–2, 8]

67) Here α, β are roots of x2 – 3x + 2 = 0

⇒ α + β = 3 and αβ = 2

⇒ = =

68) Here a = – (8 + 2) = – 10 and b = 3 × 3 = 9

⇒ equation is x2 – 10x + 9 = 0
⇒ roots are 9, 1

69) x → yx
10x4 + 4x3 + 2x2 – 100x + 1 = 0

70) × = =
sum = =–6
Product =
= – [10 – 9] = – 1
∴ x2 + 6x – 1 = 0

71)

Clearly have Roots

72) x3 + 2x2 – 2x – 1 = (x – 1)(x2 + 3x + 1)

x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
ax2 + bx + a = 0
a = 1, b = 3.

73) α + β + γ = 0
α + β = –γ, β + γ = –α, γ + α = –β
So,

= –3αβγ

= 1009

74) |x|2 – |x| – 12 = 0

(|x| + 3) (|x| – 4) = 0
|x| = 4 ⇒ x = ±2

75) k = 13