02-11-2025

1001CMD303052250050 MD

PHYSICS

1) Correct equation for given graph is (a,b are positive constants)

(1) y = ax – bx2
(2) y = ax + bx2
(3) y = ax

(4)

2) The volume of cube is increasing at a rate of 7 cm3/sec. How fast is the surface area increasing
when the length of an edge is 12 cm ?

(1)
cm2/sec

(2)
cm2/sec

(3)
cm2/sec
(4) None of these

3) The average value of y = 2x + 3 in the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is :-

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4

4)

Four vectors are as shown in the graph.

 List-I List-II
(P) (1)
(Q) (2)
(R) (3)
(S) (4)
(1) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(2) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
(3) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 3
(4) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 2

5) The diagonals of a parallelogram are and then area of parallelogram is -

(1)
(2)
(3) 171
(4) 72

6) If then =?

(1)
(2) zero

(3)

(4)

7) An imaginary closed spherical surface of radius R is centred at origin. A positive charge +q is

originally at origin and flux through surface is ϕ. Three additional charges are now added along the

x axis –3q at x = –R/2, +5q at x = R/2 and +4q at then flux through the surface :-

(1) 2ϕ
(2) 3ϕ
(3) 6ϕ
(4) 7ϕ

8) A proton and an α-particle are initially at a distance 'r' apart. Find the KE of α-particle at a large
separation from proton after being released.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A uniform electric field points in the positive x direction, as shown below. Along the two lines f1, f2
, we plot the electric potentials as a function of distance. Choose the correct plot.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) F1 = Force on q1 due to q2

F2 = Force on q1 due to q3
Find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Statement-I : Both the Coulomb force and the gravitational force follow the inverse-square law,
decreasing with the square of the distance between the objects.
Statement-II : Despite being a much weaker force than the Coulomb force, gravity is often the
dominating and more pervasive force in nature.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

12) Find the dipole moment of given configuration if P = QR (where R is the radius of the circle) :

(1) 3P
(2)
(3)
(4) 4P

13) Surface density of charge on a sphere of radius R in terms of electric field intensity E at a
distance r (r > R) in free space is : (ε0 = permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14)

A point charge Q is placed in uniform electric field at position (a, b). Find work done in
moving it to position (c, d) :-

(1) Zero
(2) {E1(c – a) + E2(d – b)}Q
(3) {E1 ac + E2 bd}Q
(4) {E1c + E2d}Q

15) Two negative charge, each of magnitude q are situated at 2r distance apart. A positive charge q
is lying at the centre betweeen them. The potential energy of the system is U1. If the two nearest

charges are mutually interchanged and the potential energy of system becomes U2, then will be :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1

16) A conducting charged sheet having charge density σ & its surface potential is V0. Now a neutral
conductor is placed in front of sheet then potential at point 'P' will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

17) A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere. The electric field is best
given by –
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Minimum possible electric field due to a point charge at a distance of 4 × 10–5 m will be :-

(1) 0.9 V/m

(2) 9 V/m
(3) 0.09 V/m
(4) 1.44 V/m

19) Circular ring of radius 0.5 m carries a charge of 1 C. If a gap of 0.02 m is cut in the ring then
electric field at the centre due to remaining part is :-

(1) 1.1 × 106 N/C

(2) 2.3 × 106 N/C
(3) 1.1 × 108 N/C
(4) 2.3 × 108 N/C

20) Two concentric thin shells of radii R & 2R have charges +Q & –3Q respectively. Potential
difference between surface of two shells is V. If charge on inner shell is now doubled, then potential
difference between the two shells will become :

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) 3V
(4) 4V

21) A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout its
volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' respectively and net

charge '–q' is concentric with first sphere (see the figure) Read the following
statements

(i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre of the sphere = for r < a
(ii) The electric field at distance r (a < r < b) from the centre of the sphere is zero
(iii) The electric field at distance r (b < r < c) from the centre of the sphere for is zero
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere = –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere = +q Which of the above statements are
true ?

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

22) In the given diagrams the direction of electric field at point O is given in list-II (O
is circumcenter of the given regular polygon). Charge Q is positive. Match the direction of electric
field at point 'O', for the given arrangement:-

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

(Q) (2)
 (R) (3)

(S) (4)

Code :-
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 1 4 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch is closed is :

(1) zero
(2) q / 2
(3) q
(4) 2q

24) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance 18μF. If the distance between the plates is
tripled and a dielectric medium is introduced, the capacitance becomes 72 μ[Link] dielectric
constant of the medium is :

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 2
25) For the circuit shown, which of the below options given is/are correct ?

(1) The charge on the 12µF capacitor is zero

(2) The charge on the 12µF capacitor is 30µC
(3) The charge on the 4µF capacitor is 30µC
(4) None of these

26) The inner and outer radii of a spherical condenser are 50 cm and 60 cm respectively and a
material with dielectric constant 6 is filled in it. Its capacity will be (Assume the outer surface is
grounded.) :-

(1) 2 × 10–9 farad

(2) 4 × 10–9 farad
(3) 6 × 10–10 farad
(4) 5 × 10–10 farad

27) Equivalent capacitance between X and Y points in the given figure is :-

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 3 μF
(4) 1 μF

28)

Find the additional charge that flows from battery if the space between the plate is filled with
dielectric (see figure) :

(1) 150 μC
(2) 300 μC
(3) 250 μC
(4) 100 μC

29) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distance d from one another as shown in
figure. The area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and

B-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A resistor and capacitor are connected as shown in figure. The capacitor is initially given a
charge of 5µC and discharged by closing the switch at t = 0, through a resistor R = 2 × 106 Ω. Find
the time after which charge on capacitor become 0.5µC (If capacitance of capacitor is C = 5µF) :-

(1) 2.3 sec

(2) 10 sec
(3) 23 sec
(4) 20 sec

31) If E1 = 3E2 = 2E3 = 6V and R1 = 2R4 = 6Ω, R3 = 2R2 = 4Ω, C = 5µF; then find current in R3 :-

(1) 3 A
(2) 4.5 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 1 A

32) A copper wire is drawn through a die to double its length. If the original reistance was r then the
new reistance of the wire will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4r
(4) 16 r

33) Two resistance R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is α and of the material of R2 is –β. The resistance of the series combination of R1 and
R2 will not change with temperature, if R1/R2 equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

(1) 32.5 Ω
(2) 22.5 Ω
(3) 2.5 Ω
(4) 42.5 Ω

35) In given circuit diagram potential at point a

(1) 10 V
(2) –6 V
(3) +6 V
(4) –14 V
36) Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching on. If the length of the heating
wire is decreased to 2/3 of its initial value, then the same amount of water will boil with the same
supply voltage in :-

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 12 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 8 minutes

37) Two shopkeepers A and B having their shops side by side, decided to economies by connecting
their bulb in series. They agreed that each will install a 100W bulb in their own shops and that they
would pay equal shares of the electricity bill. However both decided to try to get better lighting of
the other expense. A installed a 200 W bulb and B installed a 50W bulb which shopkeeper will be in
advantage :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both A and B because connection is in series
(4) None of these

38)
Current in 4Ω resistor will be :-

(1) 1A, B to A
(2) 1A, A to B
(3) 4A, A to B
(4) 4A, B to A

39) The diagram shows a circuit with two identical resistors. The battery has a negligible internal
resistance. What will be the effect on the ammeter & voltmeter if the switch S is closed?

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ammeter reading (p) Increases

(b) Voltmeter reading (q) decreases

Equivalent resistance does not

(c) (r)
of circuit change
 Power dissipated becomes
(d) (s)
in circuit zero
(1) (a)→(p), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(s)
(2) (a)→(p), (b)→(p), (c)→(q), (d)→(p)
(3) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(s), (d)→(r)
(4) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(q), (d)→(r)

40) The value of i in the following circuit diagram will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 A

41) A cell of e.m.f E volt with no internal resistance is connected to a wire whose cross-section
changes. The wire has three sections of equal length. The middle section has a radius a whereas the
radius of the outer two sections is 2a. The ratio of the potential difference across the section AB to

the potential difference across the section CA is :-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/4

42) Wires of nichrome and copper of equal length are connected in series in an electrical circuit,
then:-

(1) More current will flow in copper wire

(2) More current will flow in nichrome wire
(3) Copper wire will get more heated
(4) Nichrome wire will get more heated
43) Three copper wires A,B,C of length ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and mass ratio 1 : 3 : 2 are connected in series
then find ratio of potential drop across wires :-

(1) 3 : 4 : 8
(2) 4 : 3 : 8
(3) 2 : 3 : 4
(4) 1 : 1 : 5

44) n cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external
resistance R whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel. Then :-

(1) R = nr
(2) R = r
(3) r = nR
(4)

45) In a metre bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when
resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y, then where will be the new position
of the null point from the same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4X against Y ?

(1) 50 cm
(2) 80 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 70 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) Identify the incorrect statement in the following

(1) d block element show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves.
(2) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbital and no other partially filled orbital.
(3) The chemistry of various Lanthanoids are similar.
(4) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded.

2) If structure of Be(BH4)2 is :- Then total 2C – 2e– & 3C – 2e– bonds are

respectively :-

(1) 6, 4
(2) 4, 6
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4, 8
3) Which of the following element show + 7 oxidation state?

(1) Cl
(2) Mn
(3) Np
(4) All of these

4) Statement-1 : K3[Fe(CN)6] is a low spin complex.

Statement-2 : Fe+2 ion in this complex undergoes sp3d2 hybridisation.

(1) Only Statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 is incorrect.

5)

[SiF6]–2 is known where as [SiCl6]–2 not because

–2 +4
(1) In [SiCl6] interaction between lone pair of chloride ion and Si is very strong
–2
(2) In [SiCl6] back bonding is not possible
(3) Six large chloride ions cannot be accomodated around Si+4 due to limitation of its size
(4) Si has no vacant orbital for accepting lone pair

6) Statement-I : [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic

complex.
Statement-II : Complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only one kind of ligand but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than
one kind of ligand

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

7) Assertion : Ferrocene is a π-bonded organometallic compound. Reason : Ferrocene is a

sandwich compound.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct
(4) Assertion is correct Reason is incorrect

8) Cation 'X' has pseudo inert gas configuration and cation 'Y' has (18 + 2e–) gas configuration (both
are of same period) then incorrect statement is :

(1) Cation 'Y' has two more electron than the cation 'X'
(2) Positive charge on cation 'Y' must be more than cation 'X'
(3) Cation 'X' needed 8 more electron to convert into noble gas configuration
(4) Cation 'Y' needed 6 more electrons to convert into noble gas configuration

9) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeO4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

10) Which of the following is not oxidised by MnO2?

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Br–
(4) I–

11) Which is correct entry in for underline alphabet :

Orbitals Internuclear axis Bond

(i) dxy, dxy A π

(ii) px, px y B

(iii) px, C z π

(iv) dxy, py D π
(1) A - all axis
(2) B = σ bond
(3) C = px or dxz orbitals
(4) D = z axis

12) Correct match is :-

Column I Column II
(Molecule/ion) (Hybridisation)

(A) H3O+ ion (P) sp

(B) NO2+ ion (Q) sp2

(C) NO3– ion (R) sp3

(D) ClF3 (S) sp3d

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-R, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-Q, D-S
(4) A-R, B-R, C-Q, D-S

13) Which process is correct :-

(1) Cl2 HCl + HClO2

(2) XeF2 XeOF4 + H2O

(3) NO2 HNO2 only

(4) HNO2 HNO3 + NO

14) Assertion : has perfectly tetrahedral structure with bond angle of 109°.28'.
Reason : has all four equal bond angles due to resonance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true gives correct explanation.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true it doesn't give correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and Reason are false.

15) Select the correct order of stability :-

(1) [Fe(en)3]Cl3 > [Fe(en) (H2O)4]Cl3

(2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 < [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
+3 –3
(3) [Co(H2O)6] < [Co(Cl)6]
– +3
(4) [Fe(edta)] < [Fe(H2O)6]

16) Which of the following pair contains all diamagnetic ions.

(1) Yb+2 & Lu+3

(2) Ce+4 & Pr+4
(3) Dy+3 & Lu+3
(4) Lu+3 & Gd+3

17) Which of the following statements are correct for [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] :

(A) IUPAC name - diamminesilver (I) dicyanidosilver (I)
(B) Number of coordination isomer = 2
(C) Hybridisation of Ag in each ion = sp.
(D) Shape around central atom in each ion = linear.
(E) Complex is paramagnetic (attracted by magnetic field)
Choose the correct option from given below :

(1) Only A,B,C and D

(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A,C and E

18) Which of the following order is CORRECT for their indicated properties ?

(1) bond angle : CH3F < CH2F2

(2) % p-character in C – F bond : CH3F < CHF3
(3) % s-character in the orbital containing lone pair : PH3 < PF3
(4) % s-character in E – H bonds (E = central atom) : NH3 < AsH3

19) Select the correct answer :-

(1) La+3 > Nd+3 > Pm+3 > Sm+3 > Tm+3 (order of size)
(2) All actinones are radioactive.
(3) La+3 and Lu+3 colourless and diamagnetic.
(4) All are correct.

20) If complex entity [Co(NH3)6]+3, absorbed wavelength is 475 nanometer than absorbed wavelength
of [Co(CN)6]–3.

(1) 535 nm
(2) 500 nm
(3) 600 nm
(4) 310 nm

21)

Stability of the species B2, B2–, B2+ .

+ –
(1) B2 < B2 < B2
+ –
(2) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(3) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(4) B2 < B2 < B2

22) Which of the following compound consist of peroxide bond

(1) Perchloric acid

(2) Permagnic acid
(3) O2F2
(4) Caro's acid (H2SO5)

23) Correct Statement is _______.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium
(D) Ethylenediamine is a monodentate ligand.

(1) (A),(B),(C),(D) are correct options

(2) (A),(B),(C) are correct options
(3) (A),(B),(D) are correct options
(4) (A),(D) are correct options

24) Statement–1 : I2Cl6 is planar but Al2Cl6 is non planar.

Statement–2 : Both compounds are having A - X bonds of identical length. (A → I & Al, X → Cl)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation
(2)
for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

25) Which of the following compounds is not formed when lanthanides are made to react with
carbon?

(1) LnC2
(2) Ln2C3
(3) Ln3C
(4) Ln3C2

26) Which of the following options is/are correct :-

Type of over lapping

Molecules
in bridge bond

1 Be2(Me)4 sp3–s–sp3

2 Be2H4 sp2–s–sp2

3 B2H6 sp2–sp2–sp3

4 Al2(CH3)6 sp3–sp3–sp2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) In which of the following statement is correct for PO43–.

(1) Number of resonating structures are 3

(2) Bond order of P–O bond is 1.25
(3) Number of identical P–O bonds are 3
(4) Maximum number of atoms are in one plane is 4
28) A mixture, on heating with concentrated H2SO4 and MnO2, librates reddish brown vapour of

(1) Br2
(2) Cl2
(3) HBr
(4) I2

29) Correct statement about crystal field theory ?

For octahedral complex d4 to d7 coordination entities are more stable for strong field as
(1)
compared to weak field.
(2) For tetrahedral complex high spin complex are rarely observed.
(3) Splitting in tetrahedral complex more than octahedral complex.
In the octahedral complex to yield three orbitals of higher energy t2g set and two orbital of lower
(4)
energy, eg set

30) Assertion : Cu can liberate hydrogen from acids.

Reason : Copper has positive electrode potential. (E° : M+2/M)

(1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is not true but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

31) Calculate the difference of crystal water present in Alum and Mohr salt :

(1) 24
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 16

32) Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F
if it is false :
(i) Cu+ undergoes disproportionation of Cu and Cu2+ in aqueous solution.
(ii) H2S does not impart sodium Nitro Prusside Test.
(iii) Sulphide ions react with sodium nitroprusside to form a purple coloured complex. In this
reaction, oxidation state of iron changes.

(1) TFT
(2) TTF
(3) TFF
(4) FTT

33) The compound present in borax bead is

(1) B2O3
(2) NaBO2
(3) NaBO3
(4) NaBO2 + B2O3

34) Select the correct order of solubility :

(1) K2S > CuS > NiS

(2) NiS > CuS > K2S
(3) K2S > NiS > CuS
(4) NiS > K2S > CuS

35) XeF4 dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution which contains

+ –
(1) H and XeF5 ion
– +
(2) HF2 and XeF3 ions
+ –
(3) HXeF6 and F ions
(4) None of these

36) Which of following is adequately represented by a single lewis structure :-

(1) O3
(2) NOCl
(3) SO2
(4) N2O

37) Highest atomic volume element is :-

(1) Kr
(2) Ra
(3) Cs
(4) Xe

38) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(Atomic (Position of element

number) in Periodic table)

(A) Z = 37 (P) p-block

(B) Z = 42 (Q) f-block

(C) Z = 34 (R) d-block

(D) Z = 92 (S) s-block

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

39) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about transition elements ?

(1) The last electron enters in the (n-1) d-subshell

(2) Their properties are in between those of s-block elements and p-block elements
(3) The transition elements with smallest atomic number is scandium
(4) Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid

40) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

41) Assertion : Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason : Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

42) Assertion : Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent where
as MoO3 & WO3 are not.
Reason : Mo(VI) & W(VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) In which of the following statement is/are correct -

(1) C-F bond length ⇒ CH3F < CHF3

(2) In PCl3F2 , P–Fa bond length is greater than P–Cle bond length.
(3) bond angle ⇒ OCF2 < OCCl2
(4) None of these

44) Ionic potential shows :-

(1) Ionization potential

(2) Charge to radius ratio of a cation
(3) Amount of charge on cation
(4) Charge to radius ratio of anion

45) P2O5 is heated with water to give :-

(1) Hypophosphorous acid

(2) Phosphorous acid
(3) Hypophosphoric acid
(4) Orthophosphoric acid

BIOLOGY

1) Histones are enriched with -

(1) Lysine & Arginine

(2) Leucine & Lysine
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine

2) Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?

(1) Beadle and Tatum

(2) Meselson and Stahl
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Jacob and Monod

3) Experimental organism of Frederick Griffith was -

(1) Variola virus

(2) Tuberculosis bacteria
(3) Actinomycetes
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

4) In DNA 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of bases are pyrimidines?

(1) 30%
(2) 60%
(3) 50%
(4) 20%

5) In double helix model of DNA, backbone is constituted by :

(1) Nitrogen base and sugar

(2) Sugar and phosphate
(3) Nitrogen base and phosphate
(4) Nitrogen base only
6) Okazaki fragments are joined together by which enzyme ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) DNA ligase
(3) DNA gyrase
(4) DNA helicase

7) The biochemical nature of the transforming substance of bacteria in Griffith's experiment was
identified by:-

(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

(2) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
(3) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
(4) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty

8) What is position of untranslated region (UTR) in translation unit?

(1) After start codon and before stop codon

(2) Before start codon and after stop codon
(3) Before start codon and before stop codon
(4) After start codon and after stop codon

9) Hershey and chase used Radioactive _______ to label the DNA core of the bacteriophage.

(1) Sulphur
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Phosphorus and sulphur both

10) During protein translation, which molecule carries the amino acids to the ribosome for assembly
into a polypeptide chain ?

(1) t-RNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) Sn-RNA

11) DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of

(1) Only protein

(2) Only DNA
(3) Only RNA
(4) Both DNA & RNA

12) In an [Link], 4.6 × 106 bps are present, then how many nucleosome are present in [Link] ?
(1) 2.3 × 104
(2) 2.3 × 108
(3) 1.65 × 107
(4) Zero

13) The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:

(1) Beta-galactosidase
(2) Acetylase
(3) Permease
(4) Polymerase

14) Predominant site for control of gene expression in Prokaryotes is -

(1) Replication level

(2) Transcription level
(3) Translation level
(4) Processing level

15) Lac operon is responsible for :

(1) Catabolism of lactose

(2) Anabolism of lactose
(3) Catabolism of sucrose
(4) Anabolism of glucose

16) If DNA of the virus was labelled with 32p and protein of virus was labelled with [Link] of the
following radioactive isotope would be present inside the bacterial cells ?

(1) 35S
(2) 32P
(3) 3H
(4) 32P and 35S

17) Given below are the two statements- Statement-I : The movement of gene from one linkage
group to another is called translocation.
Statement-II : Translocation occurs between 2 homologous chromosomes.
Select correct option -

(1) Only statement-I is correct.

(2) Only statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

18) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5' → 3'
Statement II :During replication of DNA, on one strand the replication is continuous while on other
strand it is discontinuous.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

19) Match List - I with List - II :-

List - I List - II

(A) Lactose (I) Increase Permeability

(B) i - gene (II) Non - Constitutive gene

(C) Permease (III) Inducer

(D) a - gene (IV) Constitutive gene

(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); D - (i)
(2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); D - (ii)
(3) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); D - (iv)
(4) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); D - (ii)

20) Match the Column I with Column II :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) Taylor (a) E. Coli

Hershey and Streptococcus

(II) (b)
Chase pneumoniae

Meselson and
(III) (c) Viccia faba
Stahl

(IV) Griffth (d) Bacteriophage

(1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(2) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-a
(3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

21) Match list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 (i) 4.6 × 106 base pairs

(b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides

(c) Escherichia coli (iii) 48502 base pairs

 (d) Haploid content of human DNA (iv) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

22) Match the column-I with column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given
below -

Column-I Column-II

(a) AUG (i) Phe

(b) UUU (ii) Stop codon

(c) GGG (iii) Met

(d) UGA (iv) Gly

(1) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

23) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) RNA polymerase-I (I) hnRNA

(B) RNA polymerase-II (II) 5srRNA, tRNA, SnRNA

(C) RNA polymerase-III (III) 28srRNA, 18srRNA, 5.8srRNA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II)

24) Match the column.

Column-A Column-B

(A) Lac Z (1) Synthesis of repressor

(B) Lac a (2) Synthesis of transacetylase

(C) I gene (3) Synthesis of β-galactosidase

(D) Operator (4) Attachment of repressor

(1) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1
(2) (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-3
(3) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4
(4) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-4

25) Identify the correct statement :

(1) In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 5'-end in a template independent manner.
(2) The strand which doesn't code for anything is referred to as non-coding strand.
(3) The split-gene arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.
(4) RNA polymerase bind with the σ factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.

26) Which of the following statement correct for the m - RNA if no change in reading frame?
5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUUG'

(1) Insertion of G at the 5th position

(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of Aand G and 4th and 5th position respectively.
(4) Delection of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th position

27) Read the statements carefully :

(a) RNA polymerase is one type in prokaryote that forms mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, therefore division of
labour is absent.
(b) RNA polymerase is 3 types–I, II and III in eukaryotes and therefore division of labour to form
different type of RNA is present.
(c) In prokaryotes sigma (σ) factor for initiation of transcription.
(d) Coupled transcription and translation occurs in prokaryotes and uncoupled transcription and
translation occurs in eukaryotes.
(e) Termination in prokaryotes by Rho(ρ) factor.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) All correct

(2) Only ‘e’ is incorrect
(3) Only ‘c’ is incorrect
(4) a, b, c correct

28)

Light DNA molecule is replicated in a heavy medium. After the four successive replication of the
DNA, 16 DNA molecule are formed. Which one of the following is true for these DNA :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Assertion : In a ds DNA, the ratio between Adenine and Thymine is constant and equals one.
Reason : In a ds DNA, Adenine always pairs with Thymine.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) If DNA contained sulphur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of
sulfur, what would have been the outcome of Hershey and Chase experiment?

(1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells

(2) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in bacterial cells
(3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells

31) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotype and phenotype will be obtained :-

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

32) If F1 individual of genotype (Tt) go through sexual reproduction, then it's gamete/pollengrain
with genotype (T) have what chances to fertilise eggs of the genotype (t)

(1) 25 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 100 %

33) Recessive traits are seen due to :

(1) Formation of non functional enzyme

(2) Enzyme is not produced
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Formation of functional enzyme

34) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

35) In sex-linked inheritance females are carrier but males are not, due to :-

(1) Homozygous condition in males

(2) Hemizygous condition in males
(3) Hemizygous condition in females
(4) Homozygous condition in females

36) Which is incorrectly matched ?

(1)
- Unaffected male

(2)
- Second marriage

(3)
- Affected female

(4)
- Sex unspecified
37) Self incompatibility in tobacco is controlled by 6 alleles of a gene. The number of genotype
possible are

(1) 6
(2) 21
(3) 15
(4) 42

38) The map distance between A and C = 30 cM, B and C = 20 cM, A and B is 50 cM, B and D = 10
cM, C and D = 30 cM. What is the arrangement of ABCD gene on chromosome

(1) ABCD
(2) DBCA
(3) BACD
(4) CABD

39) Which of the following is not a Mendelian disorder :

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Turner's syndrome

40) Read the following statements :-

(a) It produces disorder more often in females than in males
(b) All female offsprings will exhibit disorder, if father possesses the same
(c) Do not transmitted to son, if mother does not exhibit disorder
Which of the following gene will have the above stated features?

(1) X-linked recessive gene

(2) X-linked dominant gene
(3) Autosomal dominant gene
(4) Autosomal recessive gene

41) A normal vision man whose father was colourblind, marries a normal woman whose mother was
colourblind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be
colour-blind ?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 0%

42) How many type of gametes will be produced by Drosophila having following arrangement of
two genes (Y+ & W+) on X-chromosomes :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 8

43) If one child of a family have AB blood group then which blood group will never present in his
parents ?

(1) A
(2) O
(3) AB
(4) B

44) In which of the following disorder a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins
involved in blood clotting is affected?

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Phenylketonuria

45) In pea plant, which character is controlled by pleiotropic gene,

(1) seed colour & pod colour

(2) flower colour & seed colour
(3) seed shape & size of starch grain
(4) plant height & seed shape

46) Which one of the following character choosen by Mendel can express in homozygous &
hererozygous condition

(1) Wrinkled seed shape

(2) yellow pod colour
(3) dwarf plant
(4) Axial flower position

47) The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to :

(1) presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
(2) a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
(3) more than two genes affecting a single character.
(4) presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.

48) In the cross : AaBb × AaBb, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABB ?

(1) 1/16
(2) 3/16
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/4

49) Mendels work was published in the year

(1) 1863
(2) 1865
(3) 1890
(4) 1902

50) A dihybrid plant on self pollination produced 600 seeds with 9 types of genotypes. How many
seeds will have genotype TtRr :-

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 150

51) A pure tall plant is crossed with pure dwarf plant, what is the ratio of tall and dwarf plant (A),
what is the percentage of pure tall plant (B), what is the ratio of homozygous and heterozygous
offspring in F2 generation (C) ?

A B C

(1) All tall 0% 1:1

(2) 1:1 0% 3:1

(3) All tall 25% 1:1

(4) 1:1 50% 2:1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52)

A plant with genotype TtRrEE produce 400 gametes. Find out number of gametes which contain tRE
genotype ?
(1) 300
(2) 200
(3) 100
(4) 0

53)

Which of the following condition is true for Codominance ?

(1) Phenotype of F1 does not resemble either of two parents.

(2) Phenotype of F1 resemble both parents.
(3) Phenotype of F1 resembled either of the two parents.
(4) Some blended phenotype appear in F1 generation.

54) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :- (A) The progeny
obtained from monohybrid test cross are in equal proportion. (B) Test cross helps to find out the
genotype of recessive individual. (C) Result of maternal inheritance do change by reciprocal cross
(D) Out cross is a cross in which F1 individuals are crossed with any of their parents. (E) Phenotypes
and genotypes ratio are same in test cross.

(1) All except B

(2) All except D
(3) All except B and D
(4) All except C and D

55) If both alleles are independently expressed in heterozygous condition then it is known as :-

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Codominance
(3) Pseudodominance
(4) Multiple alleles

56) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct
identification of A, B & C :-

A-Artificial cross pollination;

(1) B-Hybrid offsprings;
C-Emasculation.
A-Emasculation;
(2) B-Bagging & tagging;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Emasculation;
(3) B-Artificial cross pollination;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Bagging & tagging;
(4) B-Emasculation;
C-Hybrid offsprings.

57) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Multiple allele (i) Phenylketonuria in humans

(B) Polygenes (ii) Blood groups in humans

(C) Pleiotropy (iii) Skin colour in human

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

58) Study the given pedigree carefully, the trait indicated is –

(1) Autosomal recessive
(2) X-linked recessive
(3) Maternal inheritance
(4) Paternal inheritance

59) Consider the following genetic diseases.

Haemophilia, Sickle cell anaemia, Cystic fibrosis, Thalassemia, Phenyl ketonuria, Colour blindness,
Klinefelter's syndrome, Turner's syndrome.
How many of these are Mendelian diseases ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

60) A cross is done between the pea plants having Round and Yellow seed (RRYY) and Wrinkled and
Green seed (rryy). Find out the ratio of genotypes RrYY, rrYY, rrYy, RRyy in F2 generation ?

(1) 2 : 1 : 2 :1
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 :1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 :1
(4) 2 : 2 : 4 :1

61) How many of the below are correct about given diagram :-

(a) Mediator of AMI

(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help B-cell produce them
(c) H2L2 molecule
(d) Glycoprotein molecule

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four
62)

(1) b-Neural system, c-Endocrine system, a-Immune system

(2) a-Neural system, b-Endocrine system, c-Immune system
(3) a-Immune system, b-Nervous system, c-Endocrine system
(4) a-Neural system, b-Immune system, c-Endocrine system

63) Memory cells :-

(1) Produce cyclosporin

(2) Responsible for passive immunity
(3) Produce autoimmune response
(4) Produce secondary immune response

64) Cocaine is derived from :-

(1) Erythroxylum coca

(2) Coffea arabica
(3) Thea sinensis
(4) Cannabis sativa

65) AIDS virus has :

(1) single stranded DNA

(2) single stranded RNA
(3) double stranded DNA
(4) double stranded RNA

66) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :

(1) Morphine
(2) Cocain
(3) Cannabinoid
(4) LSD
67) Which of the following disease is completely curable if detected early and treated properly ?

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Gonorrhoea

68) Some times, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self cells, this results
in damage to the body this is called as :-

(1) Anaphylactic shock

(2) Autoimmune disease
(3) AIDS
(4) Cancer

69) Which of the following scientists is known as father of passive immunization ?

(1) Edward Jenner

(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Von Behring
(4) William Harvey

70) The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is :-

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgG
(4) IgM

71) The given barrier belongs to the same category to which tears from eyes belongs ?

(1) Skin
(2) Mucosa
(3) Plasma cells
(4) Saliva in mouth

72)

Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six drugs according to the
plant from which they are obtained ?

Erythroxylum Cannabis Papaver

coca sativa somniferum
(1) Cocaine Heroin, morphine Morphine, Ganja
Hashish, charas, Hashish, charas,
(2) Cocaine
heroin ganja
 Hashish, charas, Heroin,
(3) Cocaine
ganja morphine
Cocaine, morphine,
(4) Heroin Charas, Hashish
ganja

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Rheumatoid Arthritis is :-

(1) Bone Cancer

(2) Auto-immune disease
(3) Immuno deficiency disease
(4) Allergy

74) Malignant malaria is caused by :

(1) Plasmodium falciparum

(2) Plasmodium vivax
(3) Plasmodium malaria
(4) None of these

75)

Identify (A), (B), (C), (D).

(A) Heavy chain (C) Epitope

(1)
(B) Disulphide bond (D) Light chain
(A) Light chain (C) Antigen binding site
(2)
(B) Disulphide bond (D) Heavy chain
(A) Light chain (C) Antigen binding site
(3)
(B) Heavy chain (D) Disulphite bond
(A) Light chain (C) Heavy chain
(4)
(B) Disulphite bond (D) Epitope

76) How many statements given below are the examples of 'Naturally Acquired passive immunity ?
(a) Interferons which protects non infected cells from further viral infection
(b) The foetus receives some antibodies from their mothers through placenta during pregnancy
(c) Colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant IgA antibodies to
protect the infants
(d) ATS (Anti-tetanus serum) provides temporary protection in case of injuries and burns

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

77) Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of :-

(1) Generating tumors

(2) Metastasis
(3) Contact inhibition
(4) Less number of mitochondria

78) Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release ............. and ................ .

(1) Adrenaline and acetyl choline

(2) Adrenaline and Dopamine
(3) Acetyl choline and Dopamine
(4) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline

79)

Which drug principally interferes transport of dopamine ?

(1) Morphine
(2) Cocaine
(3) Heroin
(4) LSD

80) How many of the following types of Cancer are associated with smoking ?
Lung Cancer, Urinary bladder, Throat, Prostate, Skin Cancer, Liver Cancer

(1) Five
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

81) Which of the following statement is not correct about typhoid

(a) Sustained high fever (39° to 40° C) (b) Weakness

(c) Stomach pain (d) Constipation
(e) Headache and loss of appetite (f) Intestinal perforation
(1) a, c, d
(2) d, e, f
(3) a and f only
(4) All are correct

82) Techniques useful for detection of cancers of internal organ which uses X rays are :-

(1) MRI and CT scan

(2) MRI and Radiography
(3) CT scan and radiography
(4) Radiography and biopsy

83)
Incorrect about given diagram/ structure :-

(1) Opioid Analgesic

(2) Obtained from poppy plant
(3) Inhibit dopamine transport
(4) Effective sedative

84) Which measure would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug
abuse among adolescents ? (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Avoiding professional and medical help
(c) Looking for danger sign
(d) Education and counselling (e) Seeking help from parents and peers

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d, e
(3) c, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

85) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) α-interferon activates immune system in tumor patients and helps in destroying the tumor.
(b) Chemotherapy for cancer has side effects like hair-loss and anemia.
(c) Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
(d) In leukemia, there is tremendous increase in the number of leucocytes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

86) Cancer cells are characterized by :

(1) Uncontrolled growth

(2) Invasion of local tissue
(3) Spreading to other body parts
(4) All the above

87) What is true about T lymphocytes in mammals:

(1) They makes second line of defense of our immune system

(2) They are granulocyte
(3) They originate in thymus
(4) They are included in acquired immunity

88) Find the correct statement

(1) T-cells secrete antibodies and also help B-cells to produce them
(2) Innate immunity is pathogen specific and is based on memory
(3) Antibodies provide humoral immune response
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae infects mainly kidney

89) Mark the correct statement :-

(a) Yoga has been practised to achieve physical and mental health
(b) Infectious diseases are very common and everyone of us suffers from these at sometime
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease
(d) Cancer is non - infectious disease
(e) Healthy persons bring economic prosperity

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b, c, d and e only
(3) c and d only
(4) a, b, c, d and e

90) Which of the following are most abundant antibodies in the blood ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgG
(3) IgE
(4) IgD
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 1 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 1 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For y = ax – bx2,

slope, = a – 2bx

is positive when

when

is negative when

Also, for x = 0 and , y = 0.

2)

or ...(1)
Now

= (from eqn (1))

= {a = 12}

3)

4)
 5)

So ,
Now area of parallelogram =

6)
so are coplaner

so

7)

Gauss's law

Initial state: The charge enclosed is +q, and the flux is .

Final state: (After adding charges)
Charges added:

A. –3q at x = –R/2 (inside the surface)

B. +5q at x = R/2 (inside the surface)
C. +4q at x = 3R/2 (outside the surface)

The charges inside the surface are +q and +5q and –3q.
Qenclosed new = +q +5q = 3q = +3q

The new flux is:

Since the initial flux was , we find:

Therefore, the correct answer is 3ϕ.

8) MPVP = mαVα

KP =

=
= 4Kα
K i + U i = Kf + U f
 = Kα + 4Kα

Kα =

9) Since electric field lines point in the direction of decreasing electric potential, the potential
decreases as one travels from initial point to final point on each line. Since the electric field is
uniform and in the x-direction, equipotential lines will be perpendicular to the x-axis.
Therefore, since the final position of each line has the same x-coordinate, each will have the
same final potential. Plot c best describes this situation.

10)

11) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

12)
Pnet =
where P1 =
P2 = 2QR = 2P

13)

E= ⇒E=

⇒E=
 ⇒σ=∈ E
0

14) = (Q)
= [E1(c-a) + E2(d-b)Q]

15)

U1 = –

U1 =

U2 = –

16)
due to induction potential at point P decreases.

17)

18) For minimum possible electric field take minimum charge (e)

E = 0.9 V/m

19)

By symmetry E at centre due to

remaining part =
⇒ = 2.3 × 108 N/C

20)
ΔV ∝ Q1; if Q1 is doubled ; ΔV is doubled
Hence, p-d will become 2V.

21)
b < r < c, E = 0 (Inside conductor E = 0)

22)

Based on simple concept of resultant of vectors.

23) No charge will flow.

24) ....(i)

....(ii)
On diving Eq. (ii) Eq. (i), we get

∴ Dielectric constant, K = 12.

25) The potential difference across capacitor of 12µF is

V = 10 + 10–20 = 0
So charge on this capacitor, q = 0.
Charge on 4µF capacitor is 40µC. Thus only option (1) is correct.

26)

C=
=
= 2 × 10–9 farad

27)

⇒
CT = 4μF

28) Q = CV = (10 × 10–6) 10 = 100 µC

Q' = C’V = (25 × 10–6) 10 = 250 µC
Additional charge = Q' – Q = 150 µC

29)

30) In case of discharging

Q = Q0e–t/RC

⇒ t = –RCℓn

=
= 10 loge10 = 10 × 2.3 = 23 sec

31)

Current in R3,

32)
If length of conductor is increased by stretching then r ∝ ℓ2

⇒
⇒ r2 = 4r1

33)

R = R0 (1 + α ΔT)
Given :
R'1 + R'2 = R1 + R2
⇒ R'1 = R1(1 + αΔT) ; R'2 = R2[1 + (–β)ΔT]
⇒ R1(1 + αΔT) + R2[1 + (–β)ΔT] = R1 + R2
⇒ R1 + R1 α ΔT + R2 – R2 βΔΤ= R1 + R2
⇒ R1 α ΔT = R2βΔΤ

34)

Nodal Method

RAB = 2 + 12.5 + 8 = 22.5 Ω

35) i = 2A
Applying KVL in loop
Vb = –4V
so Va = +6V

36)
By using where

t∝ℓ
Which gives

37) PA = 8W; PB = 32W

As PB > PA
and bill is equally distributed so, shopkeeper B will be in advantage.

38)

from B to A
I4Ω = 4A B to A

39) On closing the switch, right branch resistance will get short circuited ; Thus Req = R (Req.
→ decreases)

, Req. ↓ ; I ↑; ammeter reading will increases

Voltmeter = V1 = IR ; I ↑, V ↑, voltmeter reading increases

(Req ↓ ; P ↑)

40)

i= = 1A

41)

R= ⇒R∝

= =4
 42)

Nichrome wire has more resistance than copper wire hence will get more heated.

43)

V1 : V2 : V3 = 4 : 3 : 8

44) ;
I S = IP ⇒ R = r

45) As balance length is 20 cm so from another end it is 80 cm.

so we can write

..(1)
now if resistance 4X and Y are used then balance length is ℓ so we can write

..(2)
using (1) & (2)
ℓ = 50 cm.

CHEMISTRY

46)

4f belongs to 6th pd while 5f belongs to 7th pd i.e. why shielding effect is different.

47)
a = 2e – 2C = 4
b = 2e – 3C = 4

48) Question Explanation: Identifying the element(s) that show the +7 oxidation state.
Concept: Maximum Oxidation States.
Solution: Cl (in HClO4​), Mn (in Mn2​O7​), and Np (Neptunium, an Actinide) all show the +7
oxidation state.
Final Answer: All of these.

49)

Fe+3 = 3d5 with CN– SFL = t2g eg

5
0

Hybridisation = d2sp3 - low spin

Fe+2 = 3d6 with CN– SFL = t2g eg
6
0

Hybridisation - d2sp3

50)

[SiCl6]2– not exist due to steric repulsion beween Cl – Cl atom.

51) • Homoleptic complexes contain only one type of ligand.

• Heteroleptic complexes contain more than one type of ligand.
• [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only NH3 ligands, making it homoleptic.
• [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has both NH3 and Cl- ligands, making it heteroleptic.
• Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Final Answer - Option (4)

52)

[Fe(η5–C5H5)2]

53)

For example - Pb
Pb = 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p2
Y = Pb+2 = 4f14 5d10 6s2 - (18+2)
X = Pb+4 = 4f14 5d10 - pseudo inert gas.

54)

(I) NH₃
•Nitrogen: 5 valence electrons
3 single bonds with H (3 electrons used)
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
(II) SF₄
• Sulfur: 6 valence electrons
• 4 bonds with F → 4 electrons used
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
• Molecular geometry: See-saw
(IV) XeF₆
• Xenon: 8 valence electrons
6 bonds with F (6 electrons used)
• Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
Shape: Distorted octahedral
Correct Answer: (2) I, II, IV

55)

F– is stronger oxidising agent than MnO2.

56) z-axis
π-bond

57)

(A) H3O+ → sp3 (R)

(B) NO2+ → sp (P)
(C) NO3– → sp2 (Q)
(D) ClF3 → sp3d (S)

58)

(1) Cl2 NaCl + NaClO3

(2) XeF2 Xe + HF + O2
(3) 2NO2 HNO2 + HNO3
+
(4) HNO2 + H → HNO3 + NO
all are correct

59)

NCERT XII Pg # 233 Part-I

60)

No. of Chelate Rings α stability

(2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 > [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 - due to chelation.
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 > [Co(Cl)6]–3 - H2O is stronger ligand than Cl.
(4) [Fe(edta)]– > [Fe(H2O)6]+3 - due to chelation.
2, 3, 4 are incorrect.

61)

Yb+2 = [Xe]. 4f14

Lu+3 = [Xe]. 4f14

62)

(A) IUPAC name diamminesilver (I) dicyanido argentate (I)

(B) Number of coordination isomer = 1
(E) Complex is diamagnetic.

63)

CH3F < CH2F2

(107-108°) (112.3°)

64)

(i) across the period (left to right) radius decreases.

(iii) La+3 and Lu+3 due to absence of unpaired e– diamagnetic and colourless.

65)

CN– is SFL than NH3 i.e. more energy will be absorbed hence wavelength will be less than 475
nm.

66)

Stability ∝ bond order

B2+ < B2 < B2–
0.5 1.0 1.5

67)

Concept: (Peroxide bond presence in compounds - HClO4, HMnO4, O2F2, H2SO5)

(1) Perchloric acid

(2) Permagnic acid

(3) O2F2

(4) Caro's acid (H2SO5)

Conclusion: Hence, option (4) is correct.

68)

NCERT Pg. No. 245

69)
Hybridisation of I in I2Cl6 = sp3d2 (2 L.P.)
while Al2Cl6 having sp3 hybridisation of Al.

70)

It do not form Ln3C2.

71) sp2 – s – sp2

72)

PO4–3

Formal charge =
Bond order = 2 – | F.C. | = 2 – 0.75 = 1.25

73) When a mixture containing bromides is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and
manganese dioxide (MnO2), reddish-brown vapours of bromine (Br2) are liberated. This
reaction is a common lab method for producing bromine
Final Answer (1)

74) d4 to d7 metal ions in presence of SFL undergoes pairing of electrons leading to form low
spin complex this lower energy state forms complex is more stable.

75)

Due to +ve E° Value Cu Can't displace H+ from acids.

76)

Alumn. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
Moh. Salt → FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
Diff. = 24 – 6 = 18

77) Question Explanation

Question is asking about correct and incorrect statement.
Concept
The concept based on Disproportionation, Oxidation state.
Explanation
Cu+ ions spontaneously react to form both Cu(metallic copper) and Cu2+ ions. 2Cu+(aq) →
Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq). So it is true statement.
Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) impart a purple color in the sodium nitroprusside test, So it is false
statement. The oxidation state of iron does change in the reaction between sulphide ions and
sodium nitroprusside, specifically from +2 to +4. This reaction results in the formation of a
purple-colored complex. So it is true statement.
Final Answer (1) OR TTF
(i) Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu – True
(ii) Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO] + H2S → Na4 [Fe(CN)5NOS] – True
↓ ↓
+2 +2 (purple)
(iii) Oxidations state of iron will not change.

78)

79)

According to KSP value.

80)

XeF4 acts as F. donor

XeF4 + HF → XeF3+ + HF–
81)

Due to absence of π.bond.

82)

Cs has largest size.

83)

A – Z = 37 – 36[Kr] s-s′ → s-block

B – Z = 42 – 36[Kr] 4d5 ss′ → d-block
C – Z = 34 – 18[Ar] 3d104s24p4 → p-block
D – Z = 92 – 86[Rn]5f36d17s2 f – block

84)

"Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid." Lanthanum (La) is classified as a

transition element, specifically a d-block element. Lanthanoids begin with Cerium (Ce),
following Lanthanum.
Final Answer : Option (4)

85)

Acidic strength of [Link] Hydride ∝ B.L.

Basic strength of Hydroxide ∝

86)

Chelating ligand on combination with metal ion form stable complex compound.

87)

In d-block element on moving down the group stability of higher oxidation state increases.
Hence Cr(VI) is less stable.

88)
CH3F > CHF3

(B) a < e due to large size of Cl

 89)

Ionic potential means polarising power of cation.

90) P2O5 + 3H2O 2H3PO4

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII Pg # 83

92) NCERT Pg. # 85 (Search of Genetic Material)

93) NCERT Pg. # 84 (Search of Genetic Material)

94) NCERT Pg.# 96 (Structure of Polynucleotide Chain)

95) NCERT-XII, Pg # 81

96) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92

97) NCERT Pg. No. 85

98)

NCERT XII, Pg # 99

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 86

100) NCERT Pg. # 88

 101)

Question Explanation : DNA serves as template

Concept: Central Dogma – DNA function

Solution:
DNA serves as a template for the synthesis of both RNA (through the process of transcription) and
DNA (during DNA replication).

A. DNA to RNA: In transcription, a strand of DNA serves as a template to synthesize messenger

RNA (mRNA).
B. DNA to DNA: During DNA replication, DNA serves as a template to create a new
complementary DNA strand.

Thus, DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of both RNA and DNA.

Final answer: Option (4)

102)

Question Explanation: Nucleosome presence in E. coli

Concept: Nucleosomes exist only in eukaryotes

Solution: E. coli is a prokaryote and lacks histones, so it does not form nucleosomes.

Final Answer: 4

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 100, 101

104) Question Explanation: Asking about the level of gene expression in prokaryo.
Concept: Gene regulation
Solution: In prokaryotes predominant site for gene regulation is trancription level. Hence
option 2nd is correct.
Final answer: option (2)

105)

NCERT Pg # 116

106) NCERT Pg. # 86

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 88

108) The correct answer is: 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation:
Statement I: DNA polymerases catalyze polymerization only in one direction (5' 3') (Correct)
 A. DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3'-OH end of a growing DNA strand.
B. This means DNA synthesis always occurs in the 5' → 3' direction.
C. The enzyme cannot synthesize DNA in the 3' → 5' direction because the chemistry of
nucleotide addition relies on the 3'-OH group attacking the incoming dNTP.

Statement II: DNA replication is continuous on one strand and discontinuous on the other
(Correct)

A. Leading Strand: Synthesized continuously in the same direction as the replication fork
movement (5' → 3').
B. Lagging Strand: Synthesized discontinuously in the opposite direction of the replication fork
movement, forming Okazaki fragments. These fragments are later joined by DNA ligase.

Since both statements are correct, the correct answer is option 4.

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 117

110) Explanation:
Taylor (I): Studied DNA replication in Vicia faba (a plant). So I-c is correct
Hershey and Chase (II): Worked with bacteriophages in their experiment, so II-d is correct.
Meselson and Stahl (III): Demonstrated semi-conservative DNA replication using E. coli, so III-
a is correct. Griffith (IV): Worked with Streptococcus pneumoniae to discover the
transformation process so IV-b is correct
Answer : The correct answer is option (3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

111) NCERT XII Pg # 80

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

113) NCERT-XII Pg. # 110-111

114) NCERT-XII Pg# 117(E) & 126(H)

115)

NCERT XII, Pg # 110

116) NCERT Pg. # 97, 98

117) NCERT Page No. # 110

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 89

119) Question Explanation: Reasoning on DNA strand prediction.

 Concept: DNA Complementarity

Solution: The assertion states that if the sequence of one DNA strand is known, the other can
be predicted. This is correct. The reason is that the two strands are complementary to each
other due to specific base pairing (A with T, and G with C). This makes the reason a correct
explanation for the assertion.

Final Answer: Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

120) The question explores what would happen if DNA contained sulfur instead of
phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of sulfur in the context of the
Hershey and Chase experiment.
If DNA contained sulfur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead
of sulfur, the labeling would be reversed:

A. DNA would be labeled with radioactive sulfur.

B. Proteins would be labeled with radioactive phosphorus.

When the experiment was conducted under these conditions, radioactive sulfur would be found
inside the bacterial cells, as it would label the DNA that enters the cell.
Correct Answer: 3. Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells

121)

Explain Question : The question asks for the number of different genotypes and phenotypes
that result from a dihybrid Mendelian cross.

Concept : This question is based on dihybrid Mendelian cross.

Solution : "In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and
genotypes are phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9."

Final Answer : option (3) 9 and 4 respectively

122)

Explain question : The question aks about the probability that a gamete carrying allele T
from an F1 heterozygote (Tt) will fertilise an egg carrying allele t.
Concept : This question is based on Monohybrid cross
Explanation : If pollen grain is T (given), the egg can be either T (50%) or t (50%) from a Tt
plant
Final answer :- 2

123) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 60, 61

124)

It is the diagrammatic representation of a test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
organisms.

125)

Because in male only x is present.

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 88

127)

NCERT Page No. 69

128)

129)

NCERT Page No. 75

130)

NCERT Page No. 73

X linked dominant gene | There are 2X chromosomes in Female and only one Chromosome in
male.

131)

Normal Vision → XY
Normal woman with CB mother → XCX

132)

NCERT Page No. 68

133) So not possible

134)
NCERT Page No. 74

135)

Pea plant Pleiotropic genes

– Seed shape NCERT Page No. 62
– Size of starch grains

136)

Dominant characters always express in homozygous and heterozygous condition

137) NCERT XII Pg # 85

138)

139)

Mendel's work published in 1865.

140)

TtRr =

141)
Pure tall → 0
F2 = TT : Tt : tt
1: 2 : 1

= 1:1

142)
TtRrEE | tRE =

143)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 61

144)

Question Explanation:Evaluating genetics statements.

Concept:Mendelian Genetics

Solution:Statements A, C, and E are correct. A monohybrid test cross yields a 1:1 ratio, and
the genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same. Reciprocal crosses do show a change in
results for maternal inheritance. Statements B and D are incorrect. A test cross is used to
determine the genotype of a dominant individual, not a recessive one. The definition in D is for
a back cross, not an out cross. Therefore, all statements except B and D are correct.

Final Answer:Option 3: All except B and D

145)

NCERT Page No. 60, 61

146)

Explain question : The question asks about identifying steps A, B and C in Mendel's
experimental technique shown in the figure.
Concept : This question is based on Emasculation (Mendel's experimental technique)
Explanation : A = Emasculation (anthers removed from the female parent)
B = Pollination (pollen transferred from the male parent to the emasculated flower)
C = Hybrid offsspring (plants grown from the crossed pod/seed)
Final answer :- 3

OR

NCERT Page No. 55

147)

The correct answer is: 2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i

Explanation :
 A. (A) Multiple alleles: (ii) Blood groups in humans — The ABO blood group system is
controlled by multiple alleles (IA, IB, and IO).

B. (B) Polygenes: (iii) Skin color in humans — Skin color is determined by multiple genes
(polygenic inheritance).

C. (C) Pleiotropy: (i) Phenylketonuria in humans — A single gene can cause multiple effects,
as seen in phenylketonuria, where a genetic mutation affects multiple aspects of health

OR NCERT Page No. 62, 69

148) Question Explanation: Identifying an inheritance pattern.

Concept: Maternal Inheritance
Solution: The pedigree chart shows a pattern consistent with Maternal inheritance, also
known as Mitochondrial inheritance. All children, regardless of sex, of an affected mother
are affected, as the trait is passed through the mother's mitochondrial DNA. Conversely, the
children of an affected father are never affected, as they inherit their mitochondrial DNA
solely from their mother. This is clearly shown in the pedigree.
Final Answer: Maternal inheritance OR In Pedigree mother and all her progeny are affected.

149) NCERT Page No. 72, 73

150) NCERT Page No. 63

151)

NCERT-XII Pg#135

152)

NCERT Pg. No. # 129

153)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135

154)

NCERT Pg. No. # 143

155)

NCERT Pg. No. # 138

156) NCERT XII Pg. # 158,159 Para-8.5

157) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

158)

NCERT Pg. No. # 137

159)

NCERT Pg. No. # 136

160)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135

161) NCERT XII Pg. # 150

162)

NCERT Pg. No. # 143

163) NCERT Pg. # 153

164)

NCERT Pg. No. # 131

165)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135

166)

b, c are correct statements. Allen module

167)

The question focuses on the characteristics of cancer cells and asks which property they do
not exhibit.
• Cancer cells are abnormal cells that exhibit uncontrolled growth and division, leading to the
formation of tumors. They also have several other distinct properties.
Explanation of Options:
1. Generating tumors: Incorrect. Generating tumors is a defining characteristic of cancer cells.
They lose control over cell division, leading to the formation of abnormal masses of tissue.
2. Metastasis: Incorrect. Metastasis is the ability of cancer cells to spread from the original
tumor site to other parts of the body. This is a hallmark of cancer.
3. Contact inhibition: Correct. Normal cells exhibit contact inhibition, meaning they stop
dividing when they come into contact with neighboring cells. Cancer cells have lost this
property, allowing them to continue dividing and forming tumors.
4. Less number of mitochondria: Incorrect. Cancer cells often have altered mitochondrial
function, but they don't necessarily have fewer mitochondria. The number and function of
mitochondria can vary depending on the type of cancer.
The correct answer is Option 3: Contact inhibition. Cancer cells lack contact inhibition, which
is a key factor in their uncontrolled growth and the development of tumors.

168) NCERT (E) Pg. # 162

169)

NCERT Pg. No. # 143

170)

NCERT Pg. No. # 141

171)

NCERT Pg. No. # 130

172)

NCERT Pg. No. # 141

173)

NCERT Pg. No. # 143

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 146

175) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 157

176)

NCERT Pg. No. # 141

177)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135

178)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135

179)

NCERT Pg. No. # 129, 130, 139, 140, 141

180)

NCERT Pg. No. # 135