21-09-2025

1103CMD303035250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) Dimensional formula of Planck's constant is similar to:

(1) torque
(2) work
(3) pressure
(4) angular momentum

2) The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of the ball is
measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular
scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular scale is 20 divisions. Then
diameter of ball is :

(1) 2.60 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.70 mm
(4) 2.80 mm

3) The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are:-

(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5
(4) 5, 5, 2

4) Units of length, velocity and force are doubled. Which of the following is the correct change in
other units ?

(1) Units of time is doubled

(2) Unit of mass is doubled
(3) Unit of momentum is doubled
(4) Unit of energy is doubled

5) The number of circular division on screwgauge is 100. It moves 1 mm on main scale for one

complete revolution. Find reading of micrometer.

(1) 3.25 mm
(2) 3.24 mm
(3) 3.30 mm
(4) 3.41 mm

6) If R1 = 6.0 ± 0.2 Ω and R2 = 3.0 ± 0.1 Ω find % error in equivalent resistance of parallel
combination

(1) 2%
(2) 3.33%
(3) 5%
(4) 5.4%

7)

Two resistance are measured in ohm and is given as:-

R1 = 3Ω ± 1%
R2 = 6Ω ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, the percentage error in equivalent resistance is

(1) 3%
(2) 4.%
(3) 0.67%
(4) 1.33%

8) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed, then
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A body is moving with velocity 10 m/s towards North and after 2 seconds its velocity becomes 20
m/s towards West. The average acceleration of the body will be :-

(1) m/s2
(2) 25 m/s2
(3) 125 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

10) If v = 24t – 2t2 + 60 then find the time (t) at which velocity (v) is maximum :-

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 24
(4) 6

11) The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration is given by Z = bt, which of
the following relation is valid for velocity?

(1) v = u + bt2

(2)
v=u+
(3) v = u + bt
(4) v = u

12) A particle moves, along a straight line OX. At a time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the
particle from O is given by, x = 20 + 12 t – t3. How long would the particle travel before coming to
rest for the first time?

(1) 16 m
(2) 36 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 56 m

13) A body starting from rest moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by the
body during the 5th sec to that covered in 5 sec is :-

(1) 9/25
(2) 3/5
(3) 25/9
(4) 1/25

14) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times its initial speed. If the range of the
projectile is P times the maximum height attained by it, P is equal to :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) The splash is heard after 2.05 sec after the stone is dropped into a well of depth 19.6 m. The
velocity of sound is :-

(1) 342 ms–1

(2) 372 ms–1
(3) 392 ms–1
(4) 352 ms–1

16) From the top of the tower of height 400 m, a ball is dropped by a man, Simultaneously from the
base of the tower, another ball is thrown up with velocity 50 m/s; at what distance will they meet
from the middle of the tower :-

(1) 320 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 120 m
(4) 240 m

17) Water drops fall from a tap on the floor 5 m below at regular intervals of time, the first drop
striking the floor when the fifth drop begins to fall. The height at which the third drop will be, from
ground, at the instant when the first drop strikes the ground, will be: (g = 10 m s–2) :-

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.15 m
(3) 2.75 m
(4) 3.75 m

18) A balloon is at a height of 81 m and is ascending upwards with a velocity of 12 m/s. A body of 2
kg weight is dropped from it. If g = 10 m/s2, the body will reach the surface of the earth in :-

(1) 1.5 s
(2) 4.025 s
(3) 5.4 s
(4) 6.75 s

19) If a particle is thrown with velocity more than 10 m/s vertically upward, then the distance
travelled by the particle in last second of its ascent is

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) At what angle to the horizontal should a ball be thrown so that its range R is related to the time

of flight T as

(1) 30º
(2) 45º
(3) 60º
(4) 90º
21) In the given x-t curve the number of times velocity becomes zero :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) For the given v2 – s graph, find the acceleration at s = 0.

(1) 0.4 m/s2

(2) – 0.4 m/s2
(3) 0.2 m/s2
(4) – 0.2 m/s2

23)

The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given
below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Two paper screens A and B are separated by 150 m. A bullet pierces A and then B. The hole in B
is 15 cm below the hole in A. If the bullet is travelling horizontally at the time of hitting A, then the
velocity of the bullet at A is : (g = 10ms–2) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection, is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°

(3)
tan–1

(4)
tan–1

26) A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (x-z plane) such that its velocity vector at time t is
given by . Its range on the horizontal plane is given by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

27) The equation of projectile is .The horizontal range is : (Only gravitational force is
acting on projectile)

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 12.8 m

28) A projectile is fired with a speed u at an angle θ with the horizontal. What is its speed when its
direction of motion makes an angle α with the horizontal

(1) u cos α
(2) u cos θ
(3) u cos θ cos α
(4) u cos θ sec α

29) A boat man could row his boat with a speed 10 m/sec in still water. He wants to take his boat
from P to a point Q just opposite on the other bank of the river flowing at a speed 4 m/sec. He should

row his boat-

(1) At right angle to the stream

(2)
At an angle of sin–1 with PQ up the stream

(3)
At an angle of sin–1 with PQ down the stream

(4)
At an angle of cos–1 with PQ down the stream

30) A man standing on a road has to hold his umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep rain away. He
throws the umbrella and starts running at 10 km/h. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head
vertically. What is the speed of rain w.r.t ground ?

(1)
(2) 20 km/h
(3)

(4)

31) Find speed of projection 'u' for object B so that B collides with object A.

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 20/ m/s
(4) 10 m/s

32) A small ball of mass m having charge +q is suspended by a string in a region of uniform
horizontal electric field E. The tension in the string will be :-

(1) mg
(2) qE
(3) mg + qE

(4)

33) It is required to hold equal charges q in equilibrium at the corners of a square. What charge is to
be kept at the centre of a square to do this:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Linear charge density of wire is λ = λ0x2, where x is the distance from origin and λ0 is a constant.

The total charge on wire is :-

(1)
(2)

(3) λ0L
(4) λ0L
2

35) Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be: (e being the
charge on an electron) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in an electric field of constant
magnitude E. The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the electric field strength will be -

(1) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis

(2) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis
(3) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120º with X-axis
(4) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120º with X-axis

38) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2y – xz3 + 4 The electric field at that
point is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Three charges Q, q & q are placed at the vertices of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown.

The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if q/Q is equal to

(1) -1
(2) -
(3) -2
(4) -2

40) The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and
radius R will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The charge on the four quadrant of the ring is as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric

potential at the centre is.

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)
(4)

42) Two large sheets of charge density (+σ) and (–2σ) are placed parallel as shown in figure then

electric field at P will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The radius of hollow metallic sphere is r. If the potential difference between its surface and a
point at a distance 3r from its centre is V, then the electric field intensity at a distance of 3r from its
centre is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A hollow charged spherical conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface. If surface charge

density near the hole is σ then electric field in the hole is :-

(1)
, directed inward

(2)
, directed outward

(3)
, directed inward

(4)
, directed outward
45) The
α = +ve constant.
Find charge contained in cube shown.

(1) ε0αa
3

(2) 2ε0αa
3

(3) 3ε0αa
3

(4) 0

CHEMISTRY

1) The temperature of 5 ml of a strong acid increases by 5° when 5 ml of a strong base is added to it.
If 10 ml of each is mixed the temperature should increase by :-

(1) 5°C
(2) 10°C
(3) 15°C
(4) 20°C

2) Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction, H2 + F2 → 2HF given that:
Bond energy of H–H bond = 434 kJ/mol
Bond energy of F–F bond = 158 kJ/mol
Bond energy of H–F bond = 565 kJ/mol

(1) 538 kJ
(2) –538 kJ
(3) 27 kJ
(4) –27

3) Which of the following values of heat of formation indicates that the product is least stable :-

(1) –90 kcal

(2) –250 kcal
(3) 90 kcal
(4) 250 kcal

4) Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are –110, –393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol–1
respectively. Find the value of ΔH for the reaction :
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)

(1) +778 kJ mol–1

(2) –211.7 kJ mol–1
(3) +211.7 kJ mol–1
(4) –778 kJ mol–1

5) For the hypothetical reaction

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
ΔrG° and ΔrS° are 20 kJ/mol and – 20 JK–1 mol–1 respectively at 200 K. If ΔrCp is 20 JK–1mol–1 then ΔrH°
at 400 K is :-

(1) 20 kJ/mol
(2) 7.98 kJ/mol
(3) 28 kJ/mol
(4) None of these

6) Which of the following substances has a non zero value at 298 K :-

(1) Fe(s)
(2) I2(ℓ)
(3) Hg(ℓ)
(4) O2(g)

7) Consider the following reactions :

C(s) + O2(g) →CO2(g) + x kJ

CO(g) + → CO2(g)+ y kJ
The heat of formation of CO(g) is :

(1) –(x + y) kJ/mol

(2) (x – y)kJ/mol
(3) (y – x) kJ/mol
(4) None of these

8) The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2(g) is –393.5 kJ mol–1. Calculate the heat released upon
the formation of 35.2 g of CO2(g) from carbon and oxygen gas :-

(1) 205 kJ
(2) 115 kJ
(3) 315 kJ
(4) 425 kJ

9)
Magnitude of net work done in the given cycle is :-

(1) 60 × 10–3 J
(2) 54 × 102 J
(3) 40 × 10–3 J
(4) 50 × 10–3 J

10) Which expansion will produce maximum change in entropy during reversible & isothermal
process?

(1) 1 mole H2 at 300 K from 2 litre to 20 litre

(2) 1 mole N2 at 400 K from 1 litre to 10 litre
(3) 1 mole O2 at 500 K from 3 litre to 30 litre
(4) All have same ΔS

11)

If change in gibbs energy at 300 K is –300 KJ/mol and ΔSsystem = +500 J/K-mol.
The enthalpy change is___

(1) –501 KJ/mol

(2) +500 KJ/mol
(3) –499 KJ/mol
(4) –150 KJ/mol

12) If the change in internal energy at 27°C for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 is – 92 kJ/mol then calculate the
change in enthalpy (in kJ) at 27°C for the same reaction when 2 mol of NH3 is formed:-

(1) – 97
(2) – 99
(3) – 194
(4) – 198

13) Out of E, H, G, q and w which are state functions ?

(1) E, H, G
(2) E, q, H
(3) G, q, w
(4) H, G, q

14) Thermodynamics is concerned with:-

(1) Total energy of a system, microscopic system

(2) Microscopic system, energy change of system
(3) Rate of the process.
(4) spontaneity of reaction

15) Which is the intensive property?

(1) Temperature
(2) Viscosity
(3) Density
(4) All of these

16)

Select the correct statement among the following :

(1) Equilibrium constant changes with addition of catalyst

(2) Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction.
(3) The ratio of mixture at equilibrium does not changed by catalyst
(4) Catalyst are active only in solution.

17) At constant pressure the addition of argon to N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 will

(1) Shift the equilibrium in forward direction

(2) Shift the equilibrium in backward direction
(3) Not affect the equilibrium
(4) Stop the reaction

18) In the equilibrium, AB(s) A(g) + B(g), if the equilibrium concentration of A is doubled, the
equilibrium concentration of B would become :-

(1) half
(2) twice

(3)

(4)

19) Ammonium hydrogen sulphide dissociates according to the equation :

NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
when solid NH4HS is taken in an evacuated flask at a certain temperature, It is observed that the
pressure of the mixture is 600 mm, when equilibrium is established. Calculated the value of
equilibrium constant KP for the reaction :-
(1) 300 atm2.
(2) 760 atm2.
(3) 0.156 atm2.
(4) None

20) In the equilibrium SO2Cl2 SO2 + Cl2 at 2000K and 10 atm pressure, %Cl2 = %SO2 = 40 by
volume. Then :-

(1) KP = 2 atm

(2)
= at equilibrium
(3) KP = 8 atm
(4) n(SO2Cl2) = n(SO2) = n(Cl2)

21) When 20 g of CaCO3 were put into 10 litre flask and heated to 800ºC, 35% of CaCO3 remained
unreacted at equilibrium. Kp for decomposition of CaCO3 is :-

(1) 1.145 atm

(2) 0.145 atm
(3) 2.146 atm
(4) 3.145 atm

22) Calculate the volume % of chlorine at equilibrium in PCl5 under a total pressure of 1.5 atm (Kp =
0.202) :-

(1) 10 %
(2) 18 %
(3) 25.5 %
(4) 33.3 %

23) If the equilibrium constant for the given reaction is 0.25

NO , then the equilibrium constant for the reaction will be :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Which is correct curve at equilibrium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

25) Which statement is correct at equilibrium :

(1) Rate must be equal with time

(2) Concentration must be equal with time
(3) Equilibrium can be achieved from reactant side only
All the measurable parameters becomes constant with time as the reaction stops in both the
(4)
direction

26) Which of the following are NOT state functions?

1. Q + W 2. Q
3. W 4. H - TS

(1) 1,2 and 3

(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 4
(4) 2,3 and 4

27) q = –w is not true for :

(1) Isothermal process

(2) Adiabatic process
(3) Cyclic process
(4) 1 and 3 both

28) The work done during expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 3 atm is:
(1) -6 J
(2) -608 J
(3) +304 J
(4) -304 J

29) The work done during the process when 1 mole of gas is allowed to expand freely into vacuum is:

(1) Zero
(2) +ve
(3) –ve
(4) Either of these

30) The compound I & II are related with each other as:-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Enantiomers
(3) Conformational isomers
(4) diasteromers

31) Following isomeric pair constitutes an example of :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Metamers

32)

(1) I and II are identical

(2) II and III are chain isomers
(3) I and III are positional isomers
(4) II and III are identical

33) Total number of isomers possible with moleculer formula C2H4Cl2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

34) Choose the correct statement ?

(1) Cyclobutane is a planar compound

(2) Geometrical isomers are interconvertable at room temperature
(3) Steric strain is same in both anti & Gauche form
(4) Structural isomers have different connectivity of groups

35) CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)
Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Homologous

36)
(A) and (B) are :-

(1) Chain Isomers

(2) Position Isomers
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Metamers

37) Identify correct matched ?

(1)
& - Functional isomers

(2)
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH - Chain-isomers

(3)
& Metamers
(4) All

38) Minimum C atoms required for 2° amine to show chain isomerism :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

39) In which of the following compound/ion 'N' is chiral ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Total number of geometrical isomers possible of the following compound

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

41) Which of the following has plane of symmetry (POS) but not centre of symmetry (COS) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42) The total number of acyclic isomers, including the stereoisomers, with formula C4H7Cl are :-

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 9

43) The most stable conformer of 1,2 - diphenyl ethane is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The Z-isomer among the following is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The chirality of the compound is :-

(1) R
(2) S
(3) Z
(4) E

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion (A): Viruses are not included in Whittaker’s five-kingdom classification.

Reason (R): Viruses are non-cellular organisms that exhibit an inert crystalline structure outside
the living cell.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

2) Match the types of taxonomy with their respective basis:

Column A Column B

1 Phylogenetic taxonomy A Chemical constituents of plants

2 Numerical taxonomy B Evolutionary relationships

Chromosome number, structure,

3 Cytotaxonomy C
and behavior

Observable characteristics
4 Chemotaxonomy D
processed with codes
(1) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
(2) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(3) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
3) Arrange the following taxa of mango in ascending order w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy and choose
the correct option
A – Dicotyledonae
B – Anacardiaceae
C – Sapindales
D – Angiospermae

(1) B → C → D → A
(2) B → C → A → D
(3) A → B → C → D
(4) D → C → B → A

4) Find out which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Living organism are self replicating, evolving and self regulating.
(2) Growth and reproduction are important characters of livings.
(3) Brain dead coma patient has self consciousness.
(4) All livings are made up of living cell/cells.

5) Which one of the following has least similar characters?

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Genus
(4) Species

6) Select the incorrect combination:

(1) Fragmentation-Fungi, Planaria, Protonema of moss, humans.

(2) Budding-Yeast, Hydra and Sponges
(3) Order-Primate, Diptera, Poales
(4) Genus-Homo, Triticum, Musca

7)

(1) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv

(2) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

8) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristics, goes on

____(A)_____. Higher the category greater is the _____(B)_____ of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level :-

(1) A = Increasing, B = Difficulty

(2) A = Decreasing, B = Difficulty
(3) A = Decreasing, B = Simplicity
(4) A = Increasing, B = Simplicity

9) Read the following statements :

Statement - I : Defining property of living organism is a property which is present in all livings and
absent in all non livings.
Statement - II : Intristic growth metabolism, consiouness and self conciousness all defining features
of living organisms.
Select the correct option :

(1) Statement I & II are correct

(2) Both statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct

10) Which is a group of organism in which reproduction is synonymous with growth :

(1) Algae, Fungi and lichen, protists

(2) Amoebe, bacteria and unicellular algae
(3) Lower organisms
(4) Higher multicellular organisms

11) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Euglenoids

12) Two kingdom classification do not distinguish between-

(1) Eukaryote and prokaryote

(2) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic plants
(3) unicellular and multicellular organisms
(4) all of these

13) Sexual spores in ascomycetes-

(1) are called ascospores

(2) produced endogenously in asci
(3) Asci are arranged in ascocarps
(4) All of these

14) Select the incorrect from the following.

(1) Vibrio–Comma shape bacteria which causes cholera

(2) Fungi–Body consist of slender thread like structure called Hyphae.
(3) Blue green algae–Filamentous structure, helps in nitrogen fixation
(4) Chrysophytes – Includes Diatoms and Dinoflagellates.

15) Match the column and select the correct option for the following.

Column I Column II
1. Phycomycetes (i) Diatomaceous earth
2. Dinoflagelates (ii) Puccinia
3. Basidiomycetes (iii) Aseptate, coenocytic
4. Chrysophytes (iv) Gonyaulax
(1) 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 - i
(2) 1 – ii, 2 – iv, 3 –iii, 4 - i
(3) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 - iv
(4) 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 - iv

16) How many of the following are the examples of Ascomycetes fungi
Penicillium, Albugo, Ustilago, Aspergillus, Saccharomycetes, Mushroom, Morels, Neurospora,
Puccinia and Colletotrichum.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

17) Fill in the blanks in Given information (A to D) Related to Viruses?

A. In general, viruses that infect plants have ———— .
B. Viruses that infect animals have————
C. Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages are usually ———-
D. Viruses are —————.

(1) A-Single stranded RNA, B-ssRNA only , C-dsDNA, D-Obligate Saprophyte

A-Single stranded RNA, B-dsDNA , C -either ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA , D - Facultative
(2)
Saprophytic
A-Double stranded RNA, B-dsDNA , C -either ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA ,D- Facultative
(3)
Parasite
(4) A-Single stranded RNA, B-either ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA, C-dsDNA , D - obligate parasites

18) After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1) Neurospora
(2) Agaricus
(3) Alternaria
(4) Saccharomyces

19) Mycoplasma are organisms that

(A) completely lack a cell wall
(B) smallest living cell known
(C) pathogenic in animal only
(D) can survive without oxygen
(E) Pathogenic in plants only

(1) A, B, E correct
(2) D, E correct
(3) A, D, B incorrect
(4) C, E incorrect

20) Identify the parts labelled as A to E in the figure given below.

(1) A–Node, B–Rhizome, C–Internode, D–Strobilus, E–Branch

(2) A–Strobilus, B–Node, C–Internode, D–Branch, E–Rhizome
(3) A–Branch, B–Internode, C–Strobilus, D–Node, E–Rhizome
(4) A–Strobilus, B–Node, C–Branch, D–Internode, E–Rhizome

21) Given below are two Statement –

Statement-I : Bacteria shows the most extensive metabolic diversity.
Statement-II : In diatoms the call wall form two thin overlapping shell, which fit together as in a
soap box.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

22) Select the wrong statement.

(1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible

(2) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of diatoms
(3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

23) Ustilago caused plant disease

(1) Rust
(2) Wilting
(3) Smut
(4) Red rot

24) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattle is caused by

(1) A free RNA molecule

(2) Abnormally folded protein
(3) Acellular agent having DNA and protein
(4) Symbiotic organisms, lichens

25) Select the incorrect statement for fungi-

(1) They show only heterotrophic mode of nutrition

(2) They are cosmopolitan
(3) All members show multicellular body organisation
(4) Its nucleus is surrounded by nuclear membrane

26) Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Parasitic fungus on
(1) Albugo Basidiomycetes
mustard

Sexual spores are

(2) Claviceps Ascomycetes
produced endogenously

Both sexual and asexual

(3) Trichoderma Deuteromycetes
stages are present
 Branched and septate
(4) Neurospora Phycomycetes
mycelium
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

27) Consider the following figure and choose the correct option.

(1) It can infect both plant and animal

(2) It consists of ssRNA
(3) Label 'A' represents a part between head and sheath
(4) The structure labelled as 'B' is made up of carbohydrate

28) Assertion: Fungi can also live as symbionts with roots of higher plants
Reason: Fungi are very diverse in nutrition like parasitic, symbiotic & saprophytic

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

29) Alternaria, Colletorichum and Trichoderma belongs to

(1) Club fungi

(2) Sac fungi
(3) Algae fungi
(4) Fungi imperfecti

30) Statement-I : Methanogens are archae-bacteria which produce methane is marshy areas.
Statement-II : Nostoc is a filamentous BGA which fixes atmospheric N2.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

31) Protonema and prothallus are respectively :-

(1) Diploid and Haploid

(2) Diploid and Diploid
(3) Haploid and Diploid
(4) Haploid and Haploid

32) Select the mismatch :-

(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous

33) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the characteristic of given kingdom/organisms–

(1) [Link] – Simple in structure and complex in behaviour

(2) Heterotrophic bacteria – Most abundant in nature
(3) Protista – Organisms are primarily aquatic
(4) Fungi – Boundaries are not well defined

34) If the diploid number of a Pinus (conifers) is 36. What would be the chromosomes numbers in its
endosperm

(1) 36
(2) 18
(3) 54
(4) 72

35) Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having –

(1) Independent gametophyte and sporophyte

(2) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
(3) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
(4) Absence of sporophyte
36) According to five kingdom classification system, below organisms of groups belong to how many
kingdoms?
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Chara, Euglena, Cycas, Pinus, Mango, Amoeba, Nostoc, Plasmodium,
Mycoplasma, Slime moulds

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

37) Classification of algae is mainly based up on :-

(1) Reproductive organs

(2) Structure of spores
(3) Pigments
(4) Stored food

38) Identify the brown algae given below labelled as A, B and C:

(1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C = Laminaria

(2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C = Fucus
(3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C = Fucus
(4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C = Dictyota

39) The four sketch (A,B, C and D) given below represent four different types of organism. Which
one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct stored food and class.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Chlorophyll common between Phaeophyceae and Diatoms but absent in Rhodophyceae is

(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Chlorophyll c
(3) Chlorophyll b
(4) Chlorophyll e

41) Identify the structure marked A, B and C for Marchantia :-

 A B C

(1) Antheridiophore Gemma cup Rhizoids

(2) Rhizoids Gemma cup Archegoniophore

(3) Antheridiophore Rhizoids Gemma cup

(4) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Rhizoids

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) "Agar-agar" is obtained from :-

(1) Green Algae

(2) Red Algae
(3) Brown Algae
(4) Yellow green Algae

43) Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are the examples of :

(1) liverworts
(2) ferns
(3) mosses
(4) pteridophytes

44)

The main plant body of bryophytes is ...A... . It produces ...B..., hence is called a ...C... . Fill in the
blanks by choosing the correct option for A, B and C.

(1) A-diploid, B-spores, C-sporophyte

(2) A-haploid, B-gametes, C-gametophyte
(3) A-diploid, B-endospores, C-sporophyte
(4) A-haploid, B-conidia, C-gametophyte

45) Prothallus in pteridophyte is -

(1) Nonvascular, haploid, multicellular, small, mostly photosynthetic thalloid body

(2) Vascular, diploid, multicellular sporophyte
(3) 2n, free-living gametophyte generation
(4) A thallus/plant body in some primitive pteridophytes

46) Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) is equal to :

(1) Substrate concentration at which the rate of reaction is maximum

(2) Substrate concentration at which the reaction attains half of its maximum velocity
(3) The rate of enzymatic activity
(4) The rate of reaction

47) The competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase is :

(1) Malonate
(2) Succinate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) Citrate

48) If the optimum temperature of an enzyme is 30oC, then the enzyme activity at 10oC would be

(1) V

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

49) The role of the enzyme [Link] would be catalyzing

(1) Joining of two DNA fragment

(2) Digestion of food in intestine
(3) Catalyses C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O bond formation
(4) Reduces CO2 into glucose during photosynthesis

50) The non-protein moiety of conjugate enzyme is called:

(1) Holoenzyme
(2) Apoenzyme
(3) Co-factor
(4) All are correct

51)

Match the column

Column I Column II
(Proteins) (Functions)

Catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether,

(A) Ligases (i)
peptide.

(B) Isomerase (ii) Catalysing a transfer of a group.

catalyse oxido-reduction between two

(C) Lyase (iii)
substrate.

(D) Hydrolase (iv) Optical, geometric or positional isomer.

 Catalysing formation of bonds between
(E) Transferase (v)
DNA fragments

(F) Oxidoreductase (vi) Catalyse removal of groups from substrate

A B C D E F

(1) iv v vi i iii ii

(2) iv v vi i ii iii

(3) v iv vi i ii iii

(4) iv v iii ii i vi
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Assertion: Catalysed reactions proceed at rates vastly higher than that of uncatalysed ones.
Reason: Enzymes eventually bring down this energy barrier making the transition of substrate to
product more easy.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

53) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

54) Select the incorrect statements for Enzymes :

In the formation of H2CO3 the carbonic anhydrase has accelerated the reaction rate by about
(1)
10 million times.
(2) In thermophilic organisms the enzymes retain their catalytic power even at high temperature.
(3) Enzymes increases the rate of reaction by increasing activation energy.
(4) None of these

55) Which enzyme is without protein?

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Synthetase
(3) Endonuclease
(4) Ribozyme

56) Full form of NAD is:-

(1) Nicotinamide adenine nucleotide

(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleoside
(3) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(4) Nicotinamide adenine nucleoside

57) Which one of the following statements about enzymes is true?

1. Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape is key to their functions.
2. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy.
3. Enzymes are highly specific for reactions.
4. Enzyme activity is affected by the change in temperature and pH.

(1) All except 2

(2) All except 1
(3) All except 3
(4) All of these

58) The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action can be described in the following steps. Arrange them in
sequence accordingly.
1. The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the
substrate.
2. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site.
3. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to another
molecule of the substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again.
4. The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds
of the substrate and the new enzyme product complex is formed.

(1) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(2) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
(3) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
(4) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4

59) Which one of the graphs shows the effect of pH on the enzymatic activity (EA)?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60) Read the following statements –

(a) Simple enzymes made up of only protein.
(b) Enzymes show three dimentional (3–D) structure.
(c) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
Which above statements/s is/are correct?

(1) Only a
(2) Both a and b
(3) Both b and c
(4) All are correct

61) An acid soluble compound formed by phosphorylation of nucleoside is called

(1) Nucleotide
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Nitrogenous base
(4) Both (1) and (2)

62) Which of the following is a heterocyclic ring compound?

(1) Adenine and guanine

(2) Cytosine and Uracil
(3) Cytosine and thymine
(4) All of the above

63) Which of the following are all nucleotides?

(1) Adenosine, Cytidylic acid, Cytosine

(2) Adenylic acid, Cytidylic acid, Guanylic acid
(3) Cytidine, Adenine, Adenylic acid
(4) Uracil, Thymidine, Thymidylic acid.

64) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Adenine and Guanine are substituted pyrimidines, while uracil, cytosine, and thymine
are substituted purines.
Statement II: A nucleic acid containing deoxyribose is called ribonucleic acid (RNA), while that
which contains ribose is called deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

65) Select the correct option w.r.t to given compound below

(1) A purine (Adenine)

(2) A pyrimidine (Uracil)
(3) A purine (Uracil)
(4) A pyrimidine (Adenine)

66) Following structure is :

(1) Deoxyribonucleoside
(2) Ribonucleotide
(3) Deoxyribonucleotide
(4) Ribonucleoside

67) If the sequence of bases in one of the DNA strand is A G G A G A A, then the sequence of bases
in the other complementary strand of DNA would be

(1) C C T T C T T
(2) T C T C T C C
(3) T C C T C T T
(4) C C T C T C T

68) What does x and y represent in the structure given below ?

(1) (x) = Uridylic acid, (y) = Uridine

(2) (x) = Uridine, (y) = Uridylic acid
(3) (x) = Uridine, (y) = Uracil
(4) (x) = Uracil, (y) = Uridine

69) A sudden rise in arterial CO2 levels is detected. In response, the respiratory rate increases
quickly. Which inference best explains this change?

(1) The VRG directly detects CO2 and activates expiratory muscles
(2) Peripheral chemoreceptors in the lungs stimulate the DRG.
(3) Central chemoreceptors stimulate the respiratory rhythmic center to increase inspiratory drive.
(4) The apneustic center directly initiates hyperventilation.

70) In a blood sample taken from pulmonary capillaries (lungs), compared to systemic capillaries,
the concentration of chloride in RBCs is:

(1) Higher
(2) Lower
(3) Equal
(4) Unpredictable

71) During quiet inspiration in humans, which combination of pressure changes allows air to enter
the lungs?

(1) Intrapulmonary pressure > atmosphere pressure

(2) Intrapleural pressure = atmospheric pressure
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure < atmospheric pressure
(4) Intrapleural pressure > atmospheric pressure

72) Which condition would increase the rate of oxygen unloading by hemoglobin in peripheral
tissues?

(1) Decreased temperature

(2) Decreased PCO2
(3) Increased H+ concentration
(4) Increased blood pH

73) In certain high-altitude mammals, hemoglobin has a higher oxygen affinity than in lowland
mammals. What explains this adaptation in terms of hemoglobin saturation curve?

(1) The curve shifts to the right to facilitate oxygen unloading

(2) The curve shifts to the left to enhance oxygen loading at low PO2
(3) The curve flattens to stabilize oxygen saturation
(4) There is no shift, only breathing rate increases.

74) The maximum volume of air a person can inhale after forceful expiration is called

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Vital capacity

75) Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre is preent in

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Midbrain

76) Conducting respiratory organs in mammals in correct sequence are:

(1) Lungs, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea

(2) Lungs, pharynx, nasal chamber, wind pipe and trachea
(3) Lungs, pharynx, wind pipe and trachea
(4) Nasal path, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe or trachea

77) Bulk of carbon dioxde is transported as bicarbonate ion in __X__ and about 20 to 25 percent CO2
is transported as carbaminohaemoglobin in __Y__. Choose the correct option for X and Y.

(1) X-Blood plasma, Y-Blood plasma

(2) X-RBC, Y-Blood plasma
(3) X-Blood plasma, Y-RBC
(4) X-RBC, Y-RBC

78) Thoracic chamber increases in which of the following axis due to contraction of diaphragm

(1) Antero-ventral axis

(2) Dorso-ventral axis
(3) Antero-posterior axis
(4) Dorso-posterior axis

79) Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of

(1) 3rd thoracic vertebrae

(2) 4th thoracic vertebrae
(3) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(4) 6th thoracic vertebrae

80) Match the following and mark the correct options

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

81) Vital capacity of lung is _____.

(1) IRV + ERV + TV – RV

(2) IRV + ERV + TV
(3) IRV + ERV
(4) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
82) Which of the following factors are favorable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli ?

+
(1) Low pCO2 and High H concentration
(2) Low pCO2 and High temperature
(3) High pO2 and High pCO2
+
(4) High pO2 and Lesser H concentration

83) Complete the analogy.

Outer pleural membrane : Thoracic lining : : Inner pleural membrane:

(1) Lung surface

(2) Sternum
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Vertebral column

84)

Read the following statements and identify 'X'.

I. 'X' humidifies the air to body temperature.
II. 'X' clears it from foreign particles.

(1) Conducting part

(2) Alveoli
(3) Alveolar ducts
(4) Exchange part

85) The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by X, and ventrally by Y. What do X and Y represent
here ?

(1) X-sternum, Y-Vertebral column

(2) X-Vertebral column, Y-Sternum
(3) X-Diaphragm, Y-Ribs
(4) X-Ribs, Y-Diaphragm

86) Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, respectively.
What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL ?

(1) 1500 mL
(2) 1700 mL
(3) 2200 mL
(4) 2700 mL

87) Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering
from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to

(1) Benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity.

(2) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(3) Proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls.
(4) Reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.

88) Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre by

(1) Reducing the duration of inspiration

(2) Increasing the duration of inspiration only
(3) First increasing and then reducing the duration of expiration
(4) Increasing the duration of expiration only

89) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

(1) Equal to that in the blood

(2) More than that in the blood
(3) Less than that in the blood
(4) Less than that of carbon dioxide

90) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D.
Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

(1) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(2) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
(3) D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
(4) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 1 4 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 4 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 4 4 3 2 1 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 2 3 (2) 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain: find the dimensional formula of Planck's constant (h) and then determine which of
the given options has the same dimensions.

Concept: the principle of dimensional homogeneity,

Formula : E = hf, where E is energy and f is frequency.

Calculation : [h] = [E] / [f] = [ML2T–2 / T–1] = [ML2T–1]

Angular momentum [L] = Moment of Inertia × Angular Velocity = [ML2][T–1]
= [ML2T–1]
Final Answer : (4)

2) LC = 0.01 mm
Diameter d = 2.5 + (0.01) × 20 = 2.70 mm

3)

5, 1, 2

4)

unit of length is doubled i.e. 2m

unit of velocity → 2 m/s i.e. doubled
unit of force → Kg × 2 m/s2 i.e. doubled
Thus, there is no change in unit of mass (Kg) and unit of time (s).
Unit of momentum → Kg × 2 m/s i.e. doubled

5)

Total reading (T.R.) = MSD + CSR

= (3 mm) + 25 × (L.C.)
(L.C. = 0.01 mm)
= 3.25 mm

6)

3.33%

7)
1.33%

8)

9) Question Explanation: In this question, we need to find the Average acceleration.

Concept: Average Acceleration
Solution:

Final Answer: option (1)

10)

Explain Question : In this question for v = 24t – 2t2 + 60, we have to find the time (t) for
which velocity(v) is maximum.
Concept : This question is based on calculus for general motion.
Explanation : v = 24t – 2t2 + 60

putting

t= = 6 sec.
 = – 4 < 0 {hence maxima}
at t = 6 sec, v is maximum
Final answer :
Option (4)

11)

12)

Explain Question : To find how long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?
Concept : This question is based on calculus for general motion.

Explanation :

t2 = =4
t = +2 sec
xf = 20 + 12(2) – (2)3
= 20 + 24 – 8 = 36 m
xi = 20 (t = 0)
xf – xi = 36 – 20 = 16m
Final answer : 1

13)

Explain Question: Find the ratio of the distance a body covers in the 5th second to the total
distance it covers in the first 5 seconds, assuming it starts from rest with constant
acceleration.
Concept: This question is based on uniformly accelerated linear motion.

Formula :

Solution :

S5th =

S5 =

=
Final Answer : (1)

14)

Given : = speed at maximum height

∴
or θ = 30° ...(i)
Given that; PHmax. = R ...(ii)

We know,

15)

Time of splash heard =

16)

120 m

17)

3.75 m

18)

t1 = = = 1.2 sec

h= = = 7.2 m

t2 = = 4.2 sec
t1 + t2 = 5.4 sec
 19)

20)

S = ut + at2

⇒h=0+ × gt2 ⇒ t =

For first height 'h' t1 =

For II height 'h' t2 = For III height 'h' t3 =

t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : –1:

21)

22)

eq of this curve

v2 = –
diff. w.r.t s

= – 0.2 m/s2

23)

V = 20 – 2x

a = 4x – 40
a – x graph is straight line with slope = 4
intercept = – 40

24)
25)
tan θ =

⇒ θ = tan–1

26)

27) Equation of projectile

so,

28)
v cos α = u cos θ
v = ucosθ secα

29)

⇒
30)
VRsin30° = Vm

VR = 10
VR = 20 km/h

31) For collision

(VA)y = (VB)y
20 sin 30º = u sin 60º

20 × =u

u= m/s

32)

33)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what charge must be placed at the center of a square
so that four equal charges placed at the corners of the square remain in equilibrium. This
means the center charge must balance the repulsive forces between the corner charges to
keep each corner charge from moving.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the electrostatic force between point charges
(Coulomb's law) and the condition for equilibrium. Charges repel or attract each other with a
force proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them. To keep the corner charges stationary, the net force on each must
be zero, which requires balancing the repulsive forces from other corner charges with an
attractive force from a central charge.

Relevant Formulas: Coulomb's law: where - is the magnitude of force between

two charges, - is Coulomb's constant, - are the magnitudes of the charges, - is the
distance between the charges.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Place four equal charges at corners of a square of side , with
the center at the origin.
2. Calculate the net repulsive force on one corner charge due to the other three: - Two nearest
charges each at distance exert forces perpendicular to each other. - The

diagonal charge at distance exerts force , split equally into horizontal and
vertical components.
3. Combine these components to get total force magnitude: \[ F_{net} = \frac{k q^2}{a^2}
\cdot \frac{2\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}}. \]
4. The central charge at distance from a corner charge exerts force \[ F_c = \frac{2k |q
q_c|}{a^2}. \]
5. Equate magnitude of to to get equilibrium condition: \[ 2 |q_c| = \frac{q
(2\sqrt{2}+1)}{\sqrt{2}} \implies |q_c| = \frac{q(2\sqrt{2}+1)}{2\sqrt{2}}. \]
6. Simplify to: \[ q_c = -\frac{q}{4} (1+2\sqrt{2}). \] (The negative sign indicates the center
charge is opposite in sign to the corner charges to provide attraction.)

Tips and Tricks: Use symmetry to simplify the problem by focusing on one corner charge; the
forces from others will have predictable directions. Express terms with common denominators
to combine easily. Recognize that the center charge must be opposite in sign to attract the
corner charges.

Common Mistakes: Forgetting to consider the diagonal charge force or incorrectly resolving
its components. Errors in adding vector components of forces. Forgetting the center charge
must be negative (attractive) to balance repulsion. Miscalculating distances between charges.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices that miss the negative sign indicate wrong
direction (repulsive instead of attractive). Coefficients that do not match the combined force
magnitudes or omit the factors are not correct. The incorrect options either underestimate
or overestimate the stabilizing charge magnitude.

34) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given a linear charge density of the wire as , where x is the distance from the
origin along the wire, and λ0 is a constant. We need to find the total charge on the wire.
2. Concept-Based (Linear Charge Density and Total Charge):
• This question based on the Linear Charge Density λ is defined as charge per unit length:
3. Formula Used

Q=
Given , we substitute this into the equation:

4. Calculation:
Now, perform the integration:
The integral of x2 is:

Thus, the total charge is:

Conclusion:
The total charge on the wire is:

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

35)

36) F = qE = ma or a =

and v = at =

KE = mv2 = m

37)

Now,
= 200 V/m at 120º with x-axis

38)
 ∴

39)

For U = 0,

⇒ =

40)

41)

42)

43)

44) , directed outward

45) ϕnet = αa×a2 =

qen = ε0αa3

CHEMISTRY

46)

5°C
47)

48)

250 kcal

49)

ΔH = ΣΔHf(P) –ΣΔHf(R)
or ΔH = [81 + 3(–393)] – [9.7 + 3(–110)]
or ΔH = –1098 + 320.3
or ΔH ≃ –778 kJ mol–1

50)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔH = ΔG + TΔS
= 20000 + 200 × (–20)
= 16000 J/mol
Using Kirchoff's equation,
ΔH2 – ΔH1 = ΔCp (T2 – T1)
ΔH2 = ΔH1 + ΔCp (T2 – T1)
= 16000 + 20 (400 – 200)
= 20000 J/mol
= 20 kJ/mol.

51)

I2(ℓ)

52)

(y – x) kJ/mol

53)

315 kJ

54)

W = area of graph
W = 9 × 6 = 54 × 102 J

55) For reversible isothermal process

 ΔS = 2.303 nR

56)

–150 KJ/mol

57)

ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT

= –92 – 2 ×
= –92 – 5 = –97 kJ/mol

58)

State function depends upon Initial and final state but does not depends upon path or
Mechanism.

59) Question Explanation : The question asks to identify what thermodynamics is primarily
concerned with from the given options.
Concept : The question based on Fundamental principles and scope of thermodynamics.
Solution :

Analyzing the given options:

A. Option 1 (Total energy of a system, microscopic system): While thermodynamics

considers the total energy (internal energy), it primarily focuses on changes in energy
and deals with macroscopic, not microscopic, systems.

B. Option 2 (Microscopic system, energy change of system): Thermodynamics deals with

energy changes, but in macroscopic systems.

C. Option 3 (Rate of the process.): This is incorrect. The rate of a process is studied by
chemical kinetics.

Option 4 (spontaneity of reaction): This is a core concern of thermodynamics. Predicting whether a

reaction will proceed on its own is a fundamental application of thermodynamic principles (e.g.,
using ΔG).
Final Answer : (4)

60)

All of these

61)
Question Explanation : Which of the following is correct.
Concept : at equilibrium catalyst does not affect equilibrium, it incease speed of both forward
reaction and backward reaction with game speed.
Final Answer : (3)

62) Question Explanation : N2 + 3H2 ≓ 2NH3

Given:
• Inert gas (angon) is added
• Pressure is kept constant
• The system is gaseous and dynamic equilibrium exists
Concept:
affecting factor of Equilibrium

Explanation :
At constant pressure, adding an inert gas increases the total volume to keep pressure
constant.
This leads to a decrease in partial pressures of the reacting gases
The system will now shift to the tide with more moles of gas to increase pressure again In the
given reaction
• Reactants: 1 mol N2,+ 3 mol H2 = 4 mols
• Products 2 mol NH3
So, since the reactant side has more gas molecules, equilibrium will shift towards the left
(backward) to increase the total number of gas molecules

Final Answer: 2. Shift the equilibrium in backward direction

At constant pressure, adding argon cures the equilibrium to shift backward.

63)

half

64)

0.156 atm2.

65)

KP = 8 atm

66)

1.145 atm

67)

25.5 %
68)

69)

All

70)

Rate must be equal with time

71)

2 and 3

72)

Adiabatic process

73)

-608 J

74)

Zero

75)

Position isomers

76)
Position of substituents are different so they are position isomers.

77)

CH3–CHD–CH2T, CH2D–CHT–CH3, CHDT–CH2–CH3

1 2 3
1 ∝ 2 → Positional isomers
2 & 3 → Positional isomers

78)
2

79)

Fact

80)

NCERT XI Pg. # 348

81)

Chain Isomers

82)

Answer : All

83)

84)

Ans In 2nd, 'N' has four different groups, so sp3N is chiral.

Ans (2)

85)

Explaining the Question:

Calculate total number geometrical isomers possible for given compound.
Concept: If molecule is symmetrical and number of geometrical center are even then number
of geometrical isomers. = where n = number of geometrical center.

Solution:
1) Molecule is symmetrical
2) Number of geometrical center (n) = 2 [Even]
3) ∴ Number of geometrical isomers =
⇒

⇒
0
⇒ 21 + 2
⇒2+1
⇒3
Final Answer: Option_3
86)

Explaining the Question:

Identify the compound having POS but not COS.
Concept: symmetry element POS and COS.
Solution:

1. : Molecule is planar (1) slice cut (POS) (2 COS)

2. : Molecule is planar (1) slice cut (POS) (2 COS)

3. : Molecule is planar (1) slice cut (POS) (2 COS)

4. : Molecule is planar (1) slice cut (POS) (2 COS)

Final Answer: Option_3
87)
So total 12 isomers (acylic) are possible.

88) Concept -
Conformational isomers and their stability.

Answer Explanation -

(1)

(2)
 (3)

(4)

Let's analyze each Newman projection:

A. Option 1: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

B. Option 2: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

C. Option 3: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are eclipsed (0° apart). This leads to maximum
torsional and steric strain, making it highly unstable.

D. Option 4:The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are anti (180° apart). This minimizes steric strain
between the phenyl groups.

Now, let's consider the specific interactions:

A. Steric Strain: Phenyl groups are large and bulky, so minimizing steric strain is crucial for
stability.
B. Torsional Strain: Eclipsed conformations have high torsional strain.

Therefore, the most stable conformation is the one where the two phenyl groups are anti.

Final Answer:

Option 4

Question Level:

Moderate

89)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
Here : H.P. → High priority group.
L.P. → Low priority group.

90)

Concept:

R/S Configuration:

A. Cahn-Ingold-Prelog Priority Rules:

A. Assign priority to the four groups attached to the chiral center based on atomic
number (highest atomic number gets highest priority).

B. If the lowest priority group (usually 4) is present at the vertical line or dash line
then trace a path from 1 to 2 to 3. If the direction is clockwise, it's the (R)
configuration. If it's anticlockwise, it's the (S) configuration.

C. If the lowest priority group (usually 4) is present at the horizontal line or wedge
line then trace a path from 3 to 2 to 1. If the direction is clockwise, it's the (R)
configuration. If it's anticlockwise, it's the (S) configuration.

D. Orient the molecule so that the lowest priority group (usually 4) is pointing away
from you.

Answer Explanation:
 Final Answer: Option-(1) ( R configuration )

BIOLOGY

91)

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

92)

1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

93)

B→C→A→D

94)

Brain dead coma patient has self consciousness.

95)

Class

96)

Fragmentation-Fungi, Planaria, Protonema of moss, humans.

97)

a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii

98) The correct answer is: 2. A = Decreasing, B = Difficulty

As we move from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristics decreases, and it
 becomes more difficult to determine the relationship between taxa at the same higher level.

99)

The correct answer is 3. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

A. Statement I: "Defining property of living organisms is a property which is present in all

livings and absent in all non-livings." This is correct. Defining properties of living organisms
(such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction) are typically present in all living organisms
and absent in non-living things.
B. Statement II: "Intrinsic growth, metabolism, consciousness, and self-consciousness are all
defining features of living organisms." This is incorrect. While intrinsic growth, metabolism,
and consciousness are defining features, self-consciousness is not a defining feature of all
living organisms. Self-consciousness is more related to higher animals, especially humans, and
is not universally applicable to all living organisms.

100) The correct answer is 2: Amoeba, bacteria and unicellular algae.

Explanation:
In unicellular organisms like Amoeba, bacteria, and unicellular algae, reproduction and growth
are closely linked. These organisms reproduce by binary fission or similar processes, where
the organism grows and then divides into two or more smaller organisms. In this process,
reproduction is essentially a form of growth, as the single organism splits into two, effectively
increasing its population.

A. Amoeba: It reproduces through binary fission, where the cell grows and then divides into two
daughter cells.
B. Bacteria: Reproduce by binary fission, and as they grow, they divide into two cells.
C. Unicellular algae: These also reproduce by binary fission or other asexual methods where
the organism grows and then divides.

Why not the other options?

A. Option 1 (Algae, fungi, and lichen, protists): While algae and protists can reproduce
asexually, they are typically multicellular or have complex life cycles, and their growth and
reproduction are not as directly synonymous as in unicellular organisms.
B. Option 3 (Lower organisms): While many lower organisms (like simple invertebrates)
reproduce asexually, the term is too broad and does not specifically refer to the growth-
reproduction relationship seen in unicellular organisms.
C. Option 4 (Higher multicellular organisms): In higher multicellular organisms, growth
involves the development of tissues and organs, and reproduction is typically a separate
process involving specialized cells (like gametes in sexual reproduction).

Thus, unicellular organisms like Amoeba, bacteria, and unicellular algae best fit the description
where reproduction is synonymous with growth.

101)

Diatoms

102)
all of these

103)

All of these

104)

Chrysophytes – Includes Diatoms and Dinoflagellates.

105)

1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 - i

106)

107)

A-Single stranded RNA, B-either ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA, C-dsDNA , D - obligate parasites

108) Agaricus

109)

C, E incorrect

110)

A–Strobilus, B–Node, C–Internode, D–Branch, E–Rhizome

111)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

112)

The walls of diatoms are easily destructible

113)

Smut
114) Ncert Pg No: 27_ 2021-22

115)

Ncert page 16.

116)

Ncert page 18.

117)

Ncert page 20.

118)

NCERT Page No. 22

119)

NCERT Page No. 24

120) NCERT-XI Pg#13

121)

Haploid and Haploid

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

123)

Fungi – Boundaries are not well defined

124)

18

125)

Independent gametophyte and sporophyte

 126)

127) Allen Module Pg-100, Q no. 141

128)

NCERT pg no. 31

129)

130)

Chlorophyll c

131)

A B C

(3) Antheridiophore Rhizoids Gemma cup

132)

NCERT [Link]. 32

133)

mosses

134)

A-haploid, B-gametes, C-gametophyte

135) NCERT XI Pg # 36, 38

136)

Substrate concentration at which the reaction attains half of its maximum velocity

137)
 Malonate

138)

139)

Digestion of food in intestine

140)

Co-factor

141)

A B C D E F

(3) v iv vi i ii iii

142)

Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion

143)

Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

145) Ncert page 154.

146) [Pg - 159, M]

147)

All of these

148)

2→1→4→3
149)

150)

All are correct

151)

Nucleotide

152)

All of the above

153)

Adenylic acid, Cytidylic acid, Guanylic acid

154) Statement I: Incorrect. Adenine and Guanine are substituted purines, not pyrimidines,
while uracil, cytosine, and thymine are substituted pyrimidines, not purines.
Statement II: Incorrect. A nucleic acid containing deoxyribose is called deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA), while that which contains ribose is called ribonucleic acid (RNA), not the other way
around.

155) NCERT Page No. 108

156) NCERT [Link]. 145

157)

correct Answer: (3) T C C T C T T

Explanation:
DNA follows complementary base pairing, where:
A (Adenine) pairs with T (Thymine)
G (Guanine) pairs with C (Cytosine)
Given DNA strand:
AGGAGAA
Now, applying the base pairing rule:
A G G A G A A (Original Strand)
 T C C T C T T (Complementary Strand)

158)

Concept: Nucleic acid structure, nucleotides, nucleosides, nitrogenous bases (Uracil), pentose
sugars (Ribose), phosphate groups.

Explanation:

A. A nitrogenous base linked to a pentose sugar is called a nucleoside. In this case, uracil linked
to ribose is uridine.
B. A nucleoside with one or more phosphate groups attached to the sugar is called a nucleotide
or a nucleoside phosphate. In this specific case, with uracil as the base, ribose as the sugar,
and at least one phosphate group, it is uridylic acid (or uridine monophosphate).

Final Answer : Based on the assumed structure where 'x' is uridine and 'y' is uridylic
acid, the correct option would be: 2. (x) = Uridine, (y) = Uridylic acid

159) Central chemoreceptors stimulate the DRG to increase inspiratory drive.

160) Chloride re-enters plasma as HCO3– enters RBC to covert back to CO2 in longs

161) Boyle’s law; pressure gradients during ventilation

162) Effects of pH and CO2 on hemoglobin affinity (Bohr effect).

163) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts; adaptation to hypoxia.

164)

Vital capacity

165)

Pons

166)

Nasal path, nasal chamber, pharynx, wind pipe or trachea

167)

X-Blood plasma, Y-RBC

168)

Antero-posterior axis

169)

5th thoracic vertebrae

170)

A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

171)

IRV + ERV + TV

172)

High pO2 and Lesser H+ concentration

173)

Lung surface

174)

Conducting part

175)

X-Vertebral column, Y-Sternum

176)

1500 mL

177)

Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

178)

Reducing the duration of inspiration

179)
More than that in the blood

180)

C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases