07-09-2025

1103CMD303035250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and the units of length and time are changed in kilometer
and hour respectively, then the numerical value of acceleration will be :-

(1) 360000
(2) 72000
(3) 36000
(4) 129600

2) In a new system the unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and unit of times of γ s. The value of
1J in this new system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) αβγ
(4) αγ2/β2

3) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,

are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

4) Time period of oscillation of a drop, depends on surface tension , density of liquid (ρ) and
radius (r). The relation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) A student measures the resistance R1 = 10 ± 1Ω and R2 = 20 ± 0.5 Ω. What is the range of value
of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 30 ± 1.5 Ω
30 ±
(4)

6) A science student takes 100 observations in an experiment. Second time he takes 600
observations in the same experiment. By doing so the random error becomes :-

(1)
times
(2) 6 times
(3) unchanged
(4) 36 times

7)

An experiment measured quantities a, b, c and then x is calculated from x = ab2/c3. If the percentage
errors in a, b, c are ± 1%, ± 3% and ± 2% respectively, the percentage error in x can be :-

(1) ± 13%
(2) ± 7%
(3) ± 4%
(4) ± 1%

8) The area of rectangle of size 1.23 cm × 2.345 cm is

(1) 2.88 cm2

(2) 2.884 cm2
(3) 2.9 cm2
(4) 2.88435 cm2

9) Given below are two statement; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): - In multiplication or division, the final result should retain as many significant
figures as are there in the original number with least significant figures.
Reason (R): - In addition or subtraction, the final result should retain as many decimal places as
are there in the numbers with the least decimal places.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

10) ind the thickness of the cubical object using a defective vernier calliper. Main scale has mm
marks and 10 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 9 divisions of main scale.

After a cube have been put between the jaws.

(1) 13.8 mm
(2) 13.4 mm
(3) 14.1 mm
(4) 13.0 mm

11) The least count of the main scale of a vernier callipers is 1 mm. Its vernier scale is divided
into 10 divisions and coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. When jaws are touching each other,
the 7th division of vernier scale coincides with a division of main scale and the zero of vernier scale is
lying right side of the zero of main scale. When this vernier is used to measure length of a cylinder
the zero of the vernier scale between 3.1 cm and 3.2 cm and 4th VSD coincides with a main scale
division. The length of the cylinder is (VSD is vernier scale division)

(1) 3.21 cm
(2) 2.99 cm
(3) 3.2 cm
(4) 3.07 cm

12) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measure value
of thickness of a thin sheet. If diagram show reading without and with thin sheet.

(1) 3.40 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

13) Which of the following is unitless quantity ?

(1) Pressure gradient

(2) Displacement gradient
(3) Force gradient
(4) Velocity gradient

14) A monkey standing on the ground wants to climb to the top of a verticle pole of 15 m. He climb 5
m in 1 s and slips downward 3 m in next second. He again climb 5 m in 1 sec and slips by 3 m in the
next second and so on. The time taken by the monkey to climb at the top of pole is :-

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 9 s
(4) 11 s

15) A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally m in south-west
direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be :

(1) 10 m along north

(2) 10 m long south
(3) 10 m along west
(4) None of above

0
16) A particle travelling along a straight line, traversed of the distance with velocity V . The
remaining part of the distance was covered with velocity V1 for half time and with velocity V2 for the
other half of the time. Then the mean velocity of the particle averaged over the whole time of motion
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

A particle goes from position A to B, find ratio of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I : Instantaneous speed is always equal to magnitude of instantaneous velocity.
Statement II : Distance is always equal to magnitude of displacement.

(1) Statement (I) is true and statement (II) is false

(2) Statement (I) is false and statement (II) is true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

19)

Velocity (in m/s) of a particle moving in a straight line is given by V = (t2 – 2t +1) :-

List-I List-II

Velocity (in m/s) of

(P) (1) 1
particle at t = 3 sec is

Acceleration (in m/s2)

(Q) (2) 2
of particle at t = 2 sec is

Time (in sec) when

(R) (3) 3
particle is at rest is

Magnitude of average
acceleration (in m/s2)
(S) (4) 4
of particle in first one
second is
(1) P→3, Q→2, R→4, S→1
(2) P→4, Q→3, R→2, S→1
(3) P→4, Q→2, R→1, S→1
(4) P→1, Q→4, R→3, S→2

20) For motion of an object along the x-axis the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 –
2x, then what is the acceleration at x = 2m.
(1) 48 ms–2
(2) 80 ms–2
(3) 18 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

21)

The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The retardation
is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

22) Velocity-time graph corresponding to displacement-time graph shown in adjoining figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according
to v(x) = bx–2n
where b and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a
function of x, is given by :

(1) –2nb2x–4n–1
(2) –2b2x–2n+1
(3) –2nb2e–4n+1
(4) –2nb2x–2n–1

24) A particle moves towards east with speed 5 m/s. After 10 seconds its direction changes towards
north and it moves with same speed. The average acceleration of the particle is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) At any instant of time acceleration and velocity of particle are given by & then
rate of charge of speed at the same instant will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The deccleration experienced by a moving motor boat, after its engine cut-off, is given by

where k is a constant. if v0 is the magnitude of velocity during the cut-off, the magnitude
of velocity at a time t after the cut-off is :

(1)

(2) v0
(3)

–kt
(4) v0e

27) The motion of a body falling from rest in a resisting medium is described by the equation =a
– bv, where a and b are constant. The velocity at any time t is :

(1) a(1 – b2t)

(2)

(3) abe–t
(4) ab2 (1 – t)

28) A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If the sum
of the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100cm, then its velocity after t seconds,
in cm/s, is

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 80

29) Acceleration of a particle is given by . At t = 0 velocity of the particle is zero. The

magnitude of velocity of the particle at t = 2 is equal to 2.6 × K. The value of K is.

(1) 13
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 6

30) A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinates varies with time t according to
equation x = 4 – 2t + t2. The speed of the particle will vary with time as:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) Two identical balls having like charges and placed at a certain distance apart repel each other
with a certain force. They are brought in contact and then moved apart to a distance equal to half
their initial separation. The force of repulsion between them increases 4.5 times in comparison with
the initial value. The ratio of the initial charges of the balls is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

32) Consider the following charged suspended ball system. If α < β then the statements which can

be true at equillibrium out of followings (a) Q1 > Q2 m1 < m2

(b) Q1 > Q2 m1 > m2
(c) Q1 < Q2 m1 = m2
(d) Q1 < Q2 m1 > m2

(1) Only d
(2) Only c
(3) (c, d)
(4) (b, d)

33)

A charged metallic bob of mass m and charge Q is in equilibrium in presence of electric repulsion by
Q (fixed) as shown in fig. Find Q = ?
(1) (2πϵ0mg) L
1/2

(2) (4πϵ0mg) L
1/2

(3) (8πϵ0mg) L
1/2

(4) None

34) If q1 + q2 = 8q then which of the following force between q1 and q2 is not possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A and B are two small, identical and conducting spheres. Their separation is 'r'. They have
unequal amount of charge q and 2q respectively. They repel each other with force F. If they are
brought in contact and again separated to distance '2r' then they will repel each other with force :-

(1)
F

(2)
F

(3)
F
(4) 9F

36) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure.

The force on the charge kept at the centre O is:-

(1) Zero
(2) Along the diagonal BD
(3) Along the diagonal AC
(4) Perpendicular to side AB

37) Two point charges exert on each other a force F when they are placed r distance apart in air.
When they are placed R distance apart in a medium of dielectric constant K, they exert the same
force. The distance R equals :

(1)

(2)

(3) rK
(4)

38) An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 µC, are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x
= 1, 2, 4, 8, ...∞. If a charge of 1 C is kept atthe origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C
charge :-

(1) 9000 N
(2) 12000 N
(3) 24000 N
(4) 36000 N

39) For a given figure resultant force on charge q situated at O will be (If side of triangle is a)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

40) Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
length 'l' are initially a distance d (d << ℓ) apart because of their mutual requlsion. The charge
begins to leak from both of the spheres at a constant rate 'α' A a result the spheres approach
towards each other with a velocity v. then v will depend upon instantaneous charge 'q' as :-

(1) v ∝ q
(2) v ∝ q–1/3
(3) v ∝ q1/3
(4) v ∝ q–1
41) Three charges –q1 , +q2 and +q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x–component of the force
on –q1 is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A point charge Q is placed at a point A(x, y) and q at B(0, 0). Find electric force on 'q' in vector
form :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Two identical conducting spheres carrying different charges attract each other with a force F
when placed in air medium at a distance d apart. The spheres are brought into contact and then
taken to their original positions. Now, the two spheres repel each other with a force whole
magnitude is equal to that of the initial attractive force. The ratio between initial charges on the
spheres is.

(1)
only
(2) only

(3)

(4)

44) The electrostatic force of repulsion between two positive ions carrying equal charges is 4 × 10–9
N, when their separation is 12Å. How many electrons are missing from each?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
45) Force of attraction between two point charges Q and – Q separated by d metre is Fe . When these
charges are placed on two identical conducting spheres of radius R = 0.3d whose centres are d
metre apart, the force of attraction between them is :

(1) Greater than Fe

(2) Equal to Fe
(3) Less than Fe
(4) Less than 0.5 Fe

CHEMISTRY

1) What would be the radius of 2nd excited state in Li+2 ion ?

(1) 0.529 A°
(2) 1.51 A°
(3) 0.2645 A°
(4) 0.5299 A°

2) For a 6s electron the values of n,l,m,s respectively could be:

(1) 6, 4, 4, +1/2
(2) 1, 0, 0, +1/2
(3) 6, 1, 0, +1/2
(4) 6, 0, 0, +1/2

3) Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass ) moving with a velocity 300 ms–1
accurate upon 0.001% will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman & Balmer series will be :–

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.4
(4) 10

5) Magnetic moment of X+3 ion of 3d series is B.M. What is the atomic number of X+3 ?

(1) 24
(2) 25
(3) 26
(4) 27

6) When a gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly, the final temperature is-

(1) Higher than the initial temperature

(2) Lower than the initial temperature
(3) The same as initial temperature
(4) Dependent upon the rate of compression

7) Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for water at 100oC is 40.66 kJmol-1. The internal
energy of vaporisation of water at 100oC (in kJmol-1) is

(1) +43.76
(2) +40.66
(3) +37.56
(4) -43.76

8) If 400 kJ work is done by the system and 150 kJ heat is given to system then what will be effect on
internal energy?

(1) Increases by 250 kJ

(2) Decreases by 250 kJ
(3) Increases by 600 kJ
(4) Decreases by 600 kJ

9) The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 3 atm is :-

(1) –608 J
(2) +304 J
(3) –304 J
(4) –6 J

10) Which of the following conditions indicates the reaction is spontaneous?

(1) at all temperature

(2) at low temperature
(3) at all temperature
(4) at high temperature

11) Which of the following equations represents the first law of thermodynamics under isobaric
conditions?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) For a process, entropy change of a system is expressed as

(1) H - TS

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Given the following entropy values (in JK–1 mol–1) at 298 K and 1 atm : H2(g) : 130.6, Cl2(g) : 223.0
and HCl(g) : 186.7. The entropy change (in JK–1 mol–1) for the reaction is

(1) + 540.3
(2) 727.0
(3) – 166.9
(4) 19.8

14) Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Quantum Number) (Information provided)

A ml I Shape of orbital

B ms II Size of orbital

C l III Orientation of orbital

D n IV Orientation of spin of electron

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

15) If is the heat of reaction for

at constant volume, the (heat of reaction at constant pressure), at constant temperature is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) For the reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K, from a volume of
10 dm3 to 20 dm3, is -

(1) 1.73 KJ
(2) – 1.73 KJ
(3) 3.46 KJ
(4) Zero

17) Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between Cp and Cv for
one mole of ideal gas?

(1) Cp + Cv = R
(2) Cp -Cv = R
(3) Cp = RCv
(4) Cv = RCp

18) Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously into vacuum. The work is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 8 J

19) Change in entropy is negative for :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction
?

(1) endothermic and decreasing disorder

(2) exothermic and increasing disorder
(3) endothermic and increasing disorder
(4) exothermic and decreasing disorder

21) Which reaction occurs with the greatest increase in entropy ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) For a reaction

Where S is -ve; then which of the following is correct?

(1) reaction is possible only at low temperature

(2) reaction is possible only at high temperature
(3) reaction is never possible
(4) reaction is possible at all temperature

23) Diethyl ether is a metamer of :-

(1) 1–Butanol
(2) 2–Butanol
(3) 2–Methoxy propane
(4) 1–Propanol

24) CH3—NH—C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

25) Number of structural isomer of

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

26) Which of these will exhibit geometric isomerism?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) I & II
27) Which of these will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) All of these

28) The two compounds and may be considered as :

(1) position isomers

(2) metamers
(3) stereoisomers
(4) tautomers

29) The E-isomer from amongst the following is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which of the following can show conformational isomerism ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

31) Most stable conformation of n-butane is:

(1) Fully eclipsed

(2) Anti staggered
(3) Partially eclipsed
(4) Gauche

32) This compound can be named as :

(1) Cis -2-butene

(2) (Z)-2-butene
(3) (1) and (2)
(4) R-2-butene

33) Which one of the following is a Z isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Which of the following represents the structure having cis arrangement around each double
bond :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which conformer of the given compound is most stable (rotation about C–C bond) :-
HO–CH2–CH2–NO2

(1) Staggered
(2) Gauche
(3) Fully eclipsed
(4) Partially eclipsed

37) Which is the highest energy conformation of butane :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following compound will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) The for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8kJ mol–1 respectively. The
standard enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) is

(1) 524.1
(2) 41.2
(3) – 262.5
(4) – 41.2

40) If at 298 K the bond energies of C – H, C – C, C = C and H – H bonds are respectively 414, 347,
615 and 435 kJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction
H2C = CH2(g) + H2(g) H3C – CH3(g) at 298K will be :–

(1) + 125 kJ
(2) – 125 kJ
(3) + 250 kJ
(4) – 250 kJ

41) The bond dissociation energies of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 104, 58 and 103 Kcal respectively. The
enthalpy of formation of HCl is :-

(1) + 44 KCal
(2) + 22 KCal
(3) – 22 KCal
(4) – 44 KCal

42) Heat of combustion for C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are – 94, – 68 and – 213 Kcal/mol. then
for C(s) + 2H2(g) CH4(g) is :-

(1) – 17 Kcal
(2) – 111 Kcal
(3) – 170 Kcal
(4) – 85 Kcal

43) The work done during combustion of 9 × 10–2 kg of ethane, at 300 K is (Given R =
8.314 J deg–1 mol–1, atomic mass C = 12, H=1)

(1) 6.236 kJ
(2) –6.236 kJ
(3) 18.71 kJ
(4) –18.71 kJ

44) If ,

,
calculate for formation

(1) -Y-X
(2) Y-X
(3) X+Y
(4) -Y+X
45) Which of the following equation is correct for heat of sublimation?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Match the following.

Column -I Column-II

I. W.M. Stanley A. Viroids

II. M. W. Beijerinek B. Crystallized virus

III. Cr Jacob Disease C. Contagium vivum fluidum

IV. T. O. Diener D. Mosaic disease of tobacco

E. Prions
(1) I-C, II-E, III-D, IV-B
(2) I-B, II-C, III-E, IV-A
(3) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(4) I-E, II-D, III-E, IV-B

2) Viroids differ from viruses in having

(1) DNA molecules with protein coat

(2) DNA molecules without protein coat
(3) RNA molecules with protein coat
(4) RNA molecules without protein coat

3) Which of the following are most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment ?

(1) Lichens
(2) Conifers
(3) Algae
(4) Fungi

4) Identify (A) and (B) given below:

 A – DNA virus– Cauliflower mosaic virus
(1)
B – RNA virus – Pox virus
A – RNA virus – T.M.V
(2)
B – DNA virus – T2 bacteriophage
A – RNA virus – Hepatitis B virus
(3)
B – Retero virus – T.M.V
A – Retro virus – Hepatitis B virus
(4)
B – RNA virus – T4 bacterophage

5) Lichens are ecologically important as they

(1) are symbionts/combination of algae and fungi

(2) are source of some medicines
(3) are pioneers of succession on barren rocks
(4) are associated with mycorrhizal roots

6) Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?

(1) Polio virus

(2) Tobacco masaic virus
(3) Measles virus
(4) Retrovirus

7) Lichens are well known combinaton of an alga and a fungus where fungus has :

(1) An epiphytic relationship with the alga

(2) A parasitic relationship with the alga
(3) A symbiotic relationship with the alga
(4) A saprophytic relationship with the alga

8) Mad cow disease in catttle is caused by an organism which has :-

(1) Inert crystalline structure

(2) Abnormally folded protein
(3) Free RNA without protein coat
(4) Free DNA without protein coat
9) An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called

(1) Lichen
(2) Fern
(3) Mycorrhiza
(4) BGA

10) The figure given below shows the structure of a bacteriophage. Identify its parts labelled as A, B,

C and D.

(1) A-Tail fibres, B-Head, C-Sheath, D-Collar

(2) A-Sheath, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibres
(3) A- Head, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Tail fibres
(4) A-Collar, B-Tail fibres, C-Head, D-Sheath

11) Assertion : Viruses are not considered as truely living organism.

Reason : Viruses are non cellular organism and present as inert molecule outside the host.

(1) Assertion & Reason both are false

(2) Assertion and Reason both are true and R is correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true and R is not correct explanation of Assertion

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) TMV has a double-stranded DNA molecule.

(2) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
(3) Most bacteriophages have double-stranded DNA as genetic material.
(4) Animal viruses have either DNA or RNA.

13) Bacterial viruses :

A. Infect the bacteria
B. Usually have double stranded DNA
C. Are also called bacteriophages
D. Lack protein coat

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A & C are correct
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Only D is incorrect

14) Which of the following algae produce large amount of hydrocolloids ?

(1) Chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae and Chlorophyceae
(4) Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

15) Which group shows diverse Variety of chloroplast shapes ?

(1) Brown algae

(2) Golden algae
(3) Green algae
(4) Red algae

16) Which of the following is correct for polytrichum :-

(1) main plant body diploid.

(2) roots, seed are absent
(3) endosperm is haploid
(4) seeds sorrounded by ovary wall.

17) Stored food of chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid and largely aquatic organism is :-

(1) Starch, Mannitol, Laminarin & Floridean starch

(2) Cellulose, Pectin, Algin & Polysulphate esters
(3) Starch, Pyrenoid, Cellulose & Pectin
(4) Pyrenoid, Protein and Algin

18) Rich in proteins and are used as food supplements even by space travellers :-

(1) Chlorella and Sargassum

(2) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra
(3) Chlorella and Spirogyra
(4) Chlorella and Spirullina

19) Find out the incorrect statement for given below figure ?
(1) It is a member of red algae
(2) It is an edible algae
(3) Name of this algae is polysiphonia
(4) Pigment of this algae is chl-a, chl-d, R-phycocyanin and R-phycoerythrin

20) Identify the given figures of algae and select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox

(2) A–Volvox, B–Chlamydomonas, C–Chara
(3) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox
(4) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus

21)

Oogamous type of sexual reproduction found in :-

(1) Volvox and Fucus

(2) Spirogyra and Ulothrix
(3) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra
(4) Chlamydomonas and Ulothrix

22) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and accompanied by complex post fertilisation
development, can be observed in :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Xanthophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae
23) Which of the following match is correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Male and female sex organ of chara (green algae) are and their location ?

(1) Male-Globule-Lower side, Female-nucule-Upper side

(2) Male-Spermatamgia-Lower side, Female, Nucule-Upper side
(3) Male-Globule-Lower side, Female-Carpogonia -Upper side
(4) Male-Globule-Upper side, Female-nucule-Lower side

25) Which of the following is filamentous non-flagellated algae ?

(1) Chlorella
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Spirogyra

26) Which of the followings are incorrect statements about reproduction in non embryo forming
members of plantae ?

(1) These are unicellular, colonial or multicellular

(2) They usually have unicellular, simple non jacketed gametangia
(3) Embryo does not form but some of the members show complex post fertilization development
(4) Some of the members have haploid rhizoids for effective absorption of water and minerals

27) Which of the following is unicellular green algae?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Volvox
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Chlamydomonas

28) Find the correct statement :

(1) Ulothrix and Spirogyra show Oogamy type of syngamy

(2) Red algae have a dominant pigment r-phycocyanin
(3) Red algae produce gametes with two equal lateral flagella
(4) Agar-Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In Rhodophyceae food is stored as complex carbohydrate in the form of mannitol.
Statement II : Mannitol starch is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure.
Chosse the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both, statement I and statement II are correct

30) Asexual reproduction in pheophyceae is :

(1) Pear shaped spore having 2 flagella

(2) Pear shaped biflagellate spore, equal, apcial
(3) Pear shaped biflagellated unequal, lateral
(4) None of the above

31)

Gemmae are asexual reproductive bodies of :-

(1) Algae
(2) Liverwort
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) All of these

32) In moss the germination of spore gives rise to :-

(1) Prothallus
(2) Protonema
(3) Main plant body
(4) None of these

33) Read the following statements :-

(i) The predominant stage of life cycle is the gametophyte
(ii) The sex organs antheridia and archegonia are produced at the apices of the leafy shoot
(iii) Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema
Which of the following is correctly matched with all the above given statements (i-iii) ?
Option :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Selaginella
(3) Chara
(4) Funaria

34)

Presence of Unicellular rhizoids, scales and dorsiventral thallus closely appressed to ground, are the
character of -

(1) Moss
(2) Horn worts
(3) Liver worts
(4) algae

35) Mosses are ecologically important as :-

(1) They are source of absorbant cotton

(2) They reduces soil erosion
(3) Mosses are first organism to colonise water lake
(4) All of the above

36)

Observe the diagrams given below and choose the correct option for A and B :

(1) A-Antheridiophore, B-Archegoniophore

(2) A-Archegonia, B-Antheridia
(3) A-Antheridia, B-Archegonia
(4) A-Archegoniophore, B-Antheridiophore

37)

Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and select the correct statements :-
(A) Presence of true root, stem and leaves
(B) Main plant body is haploid
(C) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
(D) Zygote divides and produces embryo
(1) A & B
(2) A, C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B, C & D

38)

Bryophyte differ from algae in :

(1) Presence of well developed independent sporophyte

(2) Absence of archaegonia
(3) Presence of an embryo stage
(4) Absence of vascular tissue

39)

In a moss the sporophyte -

(1) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte.

(2) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte.
(3) Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte.
(4) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte.

40)

Which of the following is odd one from the following about liver worts ?

(1) Foot, Seta, Capsule

(2) Spore, Archegonium, Antheridium
(3) Protonema, Primary protonema & Secondary protonema
(4) Parenchyma, Gemmae, Scales

41) Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places
because :

(1) it reduces transpiration

(2) it serves as a disinfectant
(3) it is easily available
(4) it is hygroscopic

42)

Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the figure given below

 A - Sporophyte; B - Meiosis
(1)
C - Gametogenesis; D - Endosperm
A - Sporophyte; B - Mitosis
(2)
C - Gametogenesis; D - Zygote
A - Gametophyte; B-Meiosis
(3)
C - Gamotogenesis; D -Zygote
A - Sporophyte; B - Meiosis
(4)
C - Gametogenesis; D - Zygote

43) Assertion (A) : Liverworts can be monoecious or dioecious. Reason (R) : Antheridium and
archegoina are always present on different branches on same leafy gametophyte.

(1) A and R both are false.

(2) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(3) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true while R is false.

44) Assertion : The main plant body of bryophytes is haploid.

Reason : Some cells of the sporophyte undergo reduction division to produce haploid spores which
germinate to produced gametophyte.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Assertion : In bryophytes, zygote do not undergo reduction division immediately.

Reason : Bryophytes produces embryo.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Among the following neutral amino acids are :-

(1) Glycine & Alanine

(2) Histidine & Arginine
(3) Glycine & Aspartic acid
(4) Glutamic acid & Tyrosine

47) Which of the following is aromatic amino acid?

(1) Valine
(2) Tryptophan
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Both (2) and (3)

48)

Match the column I with column II and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

i Lectins a Codeine

ii Essential oil b Lemon grass

iii Pigment c Concanavalin A

iv Alkaloid d Anthocyanin

i ii iii iv

(1) d c b a

(2) c b d a

(3) a b d c

(4) b c d a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) How many total carbons are found in palmitic acid?

(1) 25
(2) 16
(3) 20
(4) 18
50) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Lectin i. Sataturated fatty acid

b. Glycerol ii.

c. α-amino acid iii. Trihydroxy alcohol

d. Palmitic acid iv. Concanavalin A

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

51) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

A Phospholipid i β - D Glucose polymer

B Chitin ii α - D Glucose polymer

N - acetyl
C Glycogen iii
glucosamine

D Cellulose iv Lecithin
(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(3) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

52) Which one out of 1-4 given below correctly represent the structural formula of the acidic amino
acid ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

53) Which among this is a reducing sugar ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Starch

54) The protein structure that gives a 3-D view is :

(1) α-helix
(2) Primary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) β -pleated sheath

55) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Acid insoluble
(i) Polysaccharide Biomacromolecule
fraction

Acid soluble
(ii) Lipid Biomacromolecule
fraction
 Acid insoluble
(iii) Protein Biomicromolecule
fraction
(1) (iii)
(2) (ii)
(3) (i)
(4) (i) & (ii)

56) Which of the following is a protein ?

(1) Antibody
(2) GLUT-4
(3) Sensory receptors and collagen
(4) All of the above

57) Choose the odd one out w.r.t homopolymers :

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycogen
(3) Protein
(4) Chitin

58) Which of the following is a zwitter ion ?

(1) W
(2) W and X
(3) W and Y
(4) X

59) Find out the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary protein structures in the diagram :

W X Y Z

(1) Quaternary Secondary Primary Tertiary

(2) Tertiary Primary Quaternary Secondary

(3) Quaternary Primary Tertiary Secondary

(4) Secondary Primary Quaternary Tertiary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Which of the following is not an example of aromatic amino acid.

(1) Tryptophan
(2) Phenylalanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Alanine

61) If a protein is imagined as a line, then the left end can be represented by :-

(1) The first amino acid and its carboxyl terminal

(2) The last amino acid and its amino terminal
(3) The first amino acid and its amino terminal
(4) All of these

62) In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 represents ?

(1) Amino acid

(2) Fatty acid
(3) Lecithin
(4) Carbohydrate

63) Which of the following is acidic amino acid :

(1) Valine
(2) Glutamic acid
(3) Aspartic acid
(4) Both 2 and 3

64) Identify the incorrect pair

(1) Lectins - Concanavalin-A

(2) Insulin - Hormone
(3) Starch - Homo polysaccharide
(4) Maltose - Invert Sugar

65) Identify the incorrect pair ?

(1) Chitin - Exoskeleton of scorpion
(2) Inulin - Polymer of fructose
(3) Palmitic acid - Unsaturated fatty acid of 16 C
(4) Lysine - Essential amino acid

66) To analyse chemical composition of organic compounds found in living organisms, which of the
following is used-

(1) Trichloroacetic acid

(2) Dichloroacetic acid
(3) Dilute hydrochloric acid
(4) Dilute Sulphuric acid

67) Which of the following pair represents toxin from secondary metabolites

(1) Carotenoids and Anthocyanin

(2) Morphine and codein
(3) Abrin and Ricin
(4) Rubber and gums

68) Which of the statement regarding biomolecules is not correct

(1) Due to its structure, cellulose can not hold I2

(2) Inulin is a polymer of fructose
(3) Polysaccharides are carbohydrates and micromolecule
(4) Monosaccharides are building blocks of polysaccharides

69) Main source of energy in Animal Body is/are-

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Fats

70) Assertion : Primary metabolites have identifiable functions and play known role in normal
physiological processes
Reason : We do not at the moment understand the role of functions of all the secondary metabolites
in host organism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) Which of the following statement is correct:

(1) In human body highest amount is of carbon
(2) Breakdown of H2O, in animal body produce oxygen
(3) Amino acids are substituted methane
Fresh weight gives idea of inorganic content while dry weight gives information of organic
(4)
content.

72) Find out the pair with one correct and one incorrect statement respectively :-
(A) Some tissues especially the neural tissues have lipids with simple structure
(B) Vinblastin is a toxin found in seeds of castor
(C) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids
(D) Nucleic acids are macromolecule found in acid insoluble fraction of any living tissue.

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) C and B
(4) B and D

73) Read the given statements carefully -

Statements (A) :- Intercellular ground substance is collagen.
Statement (B) :- Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre is cellulosic.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct only
(4) Statement B is correct only

74) There is one feature common to all these compounds found in the acid soluble pool. They have
molecular weight ranging from :

(1) 180 to 1800 dalton

(2) 18 to 8000 dalton
(3) 18 to 800 dalton
(4) 1800 to 18000 dalton

75) Lecithin is a type of

(1) Glycolipid
(2) Lipoprotein
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Glycoprotein

76) Which of the following is considered as function of protein ?

(1) Enzymatic Activity

(2) Hormone
(3) Fights against infectious organism
(4) All the above

77)

Read the following statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them :-

(A) Peptide bonds are not broken in denaturation of protein
(B) Protein denaturation is a type of biophysiochemical change
(C) Both +ve and –ve charge are present on amino acid in equal amount at isoelectric point
(D) Haemoglobin is a type of protein
(E) Tertiary configuration of protein is soluble in water.

How many of above statements are correct?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 1

78) Identify the given structure and their nature :-

Structure Nature

(1) Glucose Reducing

(2) Glucose Non reducing

(3) Maltose Reducing

(4) Fructose Reducing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79)

Secondary metabolites are produced by:-

(1) Plants
(2) Fungi
(3) Microbial cells
(4) All of the above

80) Most abundant protein in animal world is :-

(1) RuBisCO
(2) Collagen
(3) GLUT-4
(4) Insulin

81)

All of the following are made up of cellulose except :

(1) Plant cell wall

(2) Cotton fibres
(3) Exoskeleton of arthropods
(4) Paper made from plant pulp

82) Which protein is found in maximum amount in bio-sphere

(1) Catalase
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Collagen
(4) RUBISCO

83) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells

% of the total
Componen
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

84) Which of the following bond is absent in the tertiary structure of proteins :-

(1) Disulfide bond

(2) Hydrophobic bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

85) Which of the following biomolecules is not found in acid-soluble pool of cells ?

(1) Lipids
(2) Nucleotides
(3) Amino acids
(4) Monosacchrides

86) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
(b) The R group could be a methyl (–CH3) or ethyl (–C2H5) or higher number of –CH2 group (1 carbon
to 19 carbon) in fatty acids
(c) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 21 carbon atom including the carboxyl carbon.

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b)
(3) Statement (c), (d)
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

87) Carbohydrates are -

(1) Polymers of fatty acids

(2) Polymers of amino acids
(3) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
(4) None

88) Choose the element which is negligible in Human body:-

(1) Si
(2) Mg
(3) Ca
(4) O

89) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues/cells in term of % of the total cellular
mass is

(1) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O>Carbohydrate>Ions>LIpid

(2) H2O>Proteins>Nucleic acid >Carbohydrate>Lipid > Ion
(3) H2O>Proteins>Carbohydrate>Nucleic acid >Lipid>Ions
(4) Lipid>Ions>Carbohydrate>H2O>Proteins>Nucleic acid

90) Which one of the following molecules does not have the molecular weight greater than 1000
dalton?

(1) Nucleic acid

(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) Polysaccharide
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 1 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

129600

2) n2= n1
=

3) and =
⇒

So

4) T ∝ σx.ρy.γz
x + y = 0 –3y + z = 0
–2x = 1

; ;

5)

R=

dR =

6)

No. of observation
7) X =

⇒ =
= (1 × 1 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 2)%
= 13%

8)

2.88 cm2

9)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

10) Measured value = 13 mm + (0.1 mm)7 = 13.7 mm

Zero error = 0 + (0.1 mm)3 = 0.3 mm
True value = (13.7 – 0.3) = 13.4 mm

11)

3.07 cm

12) Least count of circular scale

Zero error = 5(0.01 mm) = 0.05 mm
Measured value = 3 mm + 45 (0.01 mm)
= 3.45 mm
True value = 3.45 mm – 0.05 = 3.40 mm

13) Among the given quantities displacement gradient is unitless quantity.

14)

Total time = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 11s

15)

10 m along west
16)

∴ mean velocity =

17)

Distance A to B,
and displacement

18) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part I, Page No. 43

19)

V = (t2 – 2t + 1)
At t = 3 sec, V = 4 m/s

a= = 2t – 2
at t = 2 sec, a = 2 m/s2
when V = 0 ⇒ (t2 – 2t + 1) = 0
⇒ t = 1 sec

aav = = = –1

20)
at x = 2

= 80 m/s2

21) = 2αx + β ⇒ v =
∴ a=

a= = –2α . v . v2 = –2αv3 ∴ Retardation = 2av3

22) From O to A, velocity will be positive.

At A, velocity is zero
From A to B, velocity is negative

23)

–2nb2x–4n–1

24)

m/s2. N-W

25)

rate of change of speed = component of in direction of

26)

Given that

or

or

or

or v2 =
 or v=

27) ∵

28) a = f

=f ⇒ = ⇒ v=u+ft

v= =u+ft ⇒ =
⇒ 2u + 2f t = 100 ⇒ u + f t = 50 ...(1)
v t sec ⇒ v = u + f t = 50 cm/s (by (1)

29)

30) x = 4 – 2t + t2
v = – 2 + 2t = 2t – 2
Speed = |2t – 2|

31)

Suppose the balls having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively.

Initially :-

Finally:

It is given the F = 4.5F

so
(Q1 + Q2)2 = 4.5 Q1Q2.

32)

(b, d)

33)

Consider FBD of given system

for suspended charge by lami's theorem

34)

35) F

36)
Fnet on central
charge is along BD
37) F1 =

F2 =

As F1 = F2

Hence,

∴R=

38)

Concept:
Coulomb's law
progression.
Formula:
The force F due to a charge at position x = 2n is calculated using Coulomb's law:

Fn =

where r = 2n and q1 = 1 C, q2 = 1μC = 1 x 10–6 C.

The total force is the sum of the forces from all charges, which is a geometric series:

F=

Sum of ∝ G.P. =

Calculation:

The sum of the infinite geometric series is:

Now, we calculate the total force:

F = 9 × 109 × 10–6 × = 12000 N

Answer: Option 2: 12000 N.
39)

40)

v ∝ q–1/3

41) ∴ Fx = F2 – F1 sinθ

42)

43) F1 = and F2 =
According to question, F1 = F2
 ⇒ 4Q1Q2 = Q12 + Q22 – 2Q1Q2
0 = Q12 + Q22 – 6Q1Q2

44)

45)

Greater than Fe

CHEMISTRY

46)

1.51 A°

47)

6, 0, 0, +1/2

48)

49)

For Lyman series, minimum frequency line

transition
For Balmer series, minimum frequency line.
transition.

50)

26

51)
Higher than the initial temperature

52)

+37.56

53)

Decreases by 250 kJ

54)

w = –3atm(6-4) dm3 = -6 atm dm3

w = –6×101.3 J = –608 J.

55) at all temperature

56)

57) According to second law of thermodynamics:

58)

19.8

59) Magnetic quantum number mi informs about orientation of orbital. Spin quantum number
ms informs about orientation of spin of electron. Azimuthal quantum number (I) informs about
shape of orbital Principal quantum number (n) informs about size of orbital

60) We know that, where, number of moles of gaseous products -

number of moles of gaseous reactants
So,

61)

Zero

62)
Cp -Cv = R

63)

Zero

64)

65)

exothermic and increasing disorder

66)

67)

reaction is never possible

68)

2–Methoxy propane

69)

Functional

70)

71)

72)

II

73)

metamers
74)

75)

76)

Anti staggered

77)

(1) and (2)

78)

79)

80)

81)

Gauche

82)
 83)

84)

41.2

85)

– 125 kJ

86)

– 22 KCal

87)

– 17 Kcal

88)

18.71 kJ

89)

Y-X

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks us to correctly match the names or terms from
Column 1 with their corresponding definitions or associated concepts from Column 2.
Essentially, it tests knowledge about specific scientists and discoveries related to viruses,
viroids, prions, and diseases.
Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding historical contributions in
microbiology and molecular biology, specifically relating to infectious agents like viruses,
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certain important findings, such as the crystallization of viruses, the concept of contagious
fluids (virus particles), viroids, and prion diseases.
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agent', 'Diener = Viroids', and 'CJD = Prions.'
Common Mistakes: Confusing the roles of these scientists or mixing up terms like viroids
and prions. For example, mistakenly attributing prion discovery to T. O. Diener or confusing
viroids with viruses.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Some incorrect matchings swap the agents with wrong
scientists, such as linking W. M. Stanley to viroids or CJD to be associated with infectious
fluids rather than prions.

92)

RNA molecules without protein coat

93)

Lichens

94)

A – RNA virus – T.M.V

B – DNA virus – T2 bacteriophage

95)

are pioneers of succession on barren rocks

96)

Tobacco masaic virus

97)

A symbiotic relationship with the alga

98)

NCERT Pg # 27

99) Solution/Explanation :
Mycorrhiza refers to a symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots. The fungi
enhance nutrient and water absorption for the plant, particularly phosphorus, while the plant
provides the fungi with carbohydrates. This mutualistic association improves plant growth,
increases soil health, and supports biodiversity in ecosystems.

100)
A- Head, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Tail fibres

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 25,26

102) NCERT Page 26

103) NCERT Page # 26

104) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

(NCERT Pg.#32 Para-3.1)

105)

Green algae

106)

roots, seed are absent

107)

Starch, Mannitol, Laminarin & Floridean starch

108) Chlorella and Spirullina

109) NCERT Pg # 31, Para–3.1

110)

A–Volvox, B–Chlamydomonas, C–Chara

111)

Volvox and Fucus

112)

Rhodophyceae

113)

2
114)

Male-Globule-Lower side, Female-nucule-Upper side

115) NCERT XI, Page # 30, Para-3.1

116)

Some of the members have haploid rhizoids for effective absorption of water and minerals

117) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 130

118)

Agar-Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

119) NCERT page No. # 33

120) NCERT Page No. # 32,33

121)

Liverwort

122)

Protonema

123) Funaria

124)

Liver worts

125) NCERT-XI, Pg # 35

126)

NCERT XI Page No. # 34, Fig. 3.2

127)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 35

128)

Presence of an embryo stage

129)

Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte.

130)

Protonema, Primary protonema & Secondary protonema

131) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
Here it is asked about, economic importance of sphagnum or peat moss. -Sphagnum can
absorb water in very high amount(Hygroscopic nature) therefore it is used in the form of
absorbent cotton in Europe.
-Species of Sphagnum, a moss, provide peat that have long been used as fuel, and because of
their capacity to hold water as packing material for trans-shipment of living material.
The correct option is 4. It is Hygroscopic

132)

A - Sporophyte; B - Meiosis
C - Gametogenesis; D - Zygote

133) NCERT XI Pg. # 35

134) NCERT Pg. # 35

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 35

136)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to identify which pairs of amino acids from the
given options are neutral amino acids. Neutral amino acids have side chains that are neither
positively nor negatively charged at physiological pH.

Underlying Concept: Amino acids can be classified based on the chemical nature of their
side chains (R-groups). Neutral amino acids have side chains that are uncharged and neither
acidic nor basic at physiological pH (around 7.4). Examples include Glycine and Alanine. Basic
amino acids like Histidine and Arginine carry positive charges, while acidic amino acids like
Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid carry negative charges. Tyrosine has a polar side chain but is
considered neutral at physiological pH.
 Tips and Tricks: Remember the classification of amino acids into acidic, basic, and neutral
based on their side chains. Glycine and alanine are among the simplest neutral amino acids.

Common Mistakes: Confusing neutral amino acids with polar or charged amino acids.
Assuming that all amino acids with side chains containing oxygen or nitrogen are charged.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Histidine and Arginine are basic amino acids and carry
a positive charge, so they are not neutral. Glycine and Aspartic acid mix a neutral amino acid
with an acidic one, so this pair is incorrect. Glutamic acid is acidic, so the pair with tyrosine
(which is neutral but polar) is not fully neutral.

137)

Both (2) and (3)

138) Concept:

A. Lectins: Carbohydrate-binding proteins.

B. Essential oils: Volatile aromatic compounds.
C. Pigments: Colored substances.
D. Alkaloids: Nitrogen-containing organic compounds with physiological effects.

Explanation:

A. Lectins (i): Concanavalin A (c) is a well-known lectin. So i matches with c.

B. Essential oils (ii): Lemon grass (b) is a source of essential oils. So ii matches with b.
C. Pigments (iii): Anthocyanin (d) are pigments responsible for red, purple, and blue colors in
plants. So iii matches with d.
D. Alkaloids (iv): Codeine (a) is an alkaloid derived from the opium poppy. So iv matches with a.

Therefore, the correct matching is: i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a.

Final Answer: 2. cbda

139)

Explaining the Question :-

Carbons in palmitic Acid
Concept:-
Lipids / fat
Solution :-
​Palmitic acids → 16 carbons
Final Answer :- option (2)

140)

Concept;
Lectin: A carbohydrate, Glycerol: A simple polyol compound. α-amino acid: The basic
building block of proteins,Palmitic acid: A common saturated fatty acid with 16 carbon
atoms.
 Explanation ;
a. Lectin: Lectins are carbohydrate-binding proteins. Concanavalin A is a specific example of
a lectin. Therefore, 'a' matches with 'iv'.
b. Glycerol: Glycerol is a molecule with three hydroxyl groups (-OH), making it a trihydroxy
alcohol. Therefore, 'b' matches with 'iii'.
C. α-amino acid: An α-amino acid is the basic structural unit of proteins. The general
structure includes an amino group and a carboxyl group attached to the alpha carbon. This is
the definition of an α-amino acid. Therefore, 'c' matches with 'ii'.

A. d. Palmitic acid: Palmitic acid is a long-chain fatty acid with no double bonds in its
hydrocarbon chain, making it a saturated fatty acid. Therefore, 'd' matches with 'i'.

Final Answer : (1) : a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

141) NCERT Page 148,149

142)

Solution;

The general structure of an amino acid always includes one central carbon bonded to one
amino group and one carboxyl group. An acidic amino acid will have an additional carboxyl
group in its R-chain.

Final answer : 1

143)

Glucose

144)

NCERT XI, Pg # 144

145)

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Polysaccharide Acid insoluble fraction Biomacromolecule

146)

All of the above

147)

NCERT XI, Pg # 148

148)

NCERT XI, Pg # 145

149)

NCERT XI, Pg # 150

150) Explanation :- The question is asking about not an example of aromatic amino acid
Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Alanine lacks an aromatic ring (cyclic structures with alternating double bonds) so
Alanine is not an aromatic amino acid. Aromatic amino acids are phenylalanine, tyrosine, and
tryptophan.
Answer :- 4

151) NCERT Page No. 149

152)

NCERT Page No. # 145

153) NCERT Page No. 144

154) NCERT Page No. # 146,147,148

155) NCERT Page No. 149, 144

156) NCERT-XI
Hint Page -142, Trichloroacetic acid is used as a medium to grind plant or animal tissue.

157) NCERT XI Page No. 146

Abrin and Ricin are toxins found in seeds mainly

158) NCERT Page No. 148

Polysaccaride are macromolecules

159) NCERT-XI, Page No. 151

160) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on The Primary and secondary metabolites
Solution :- The Assertion is about primary metabolites and the Reason is about secondary
metabolites. While both statements are true, but the Reason does not directly explain why
primary metabolites have identifiable functions.
Answer :- 2

161) NCERT-XI, Page No. 142-143

162) NCERT-XI, Page No. 144-150

163) NCERT-XI, Pg # 146-149

164) NCERT-XI, Pg # 147

165) NCERT-XI, Page No. 144

166) NCERT-XI, Pg # 147, Last Para.

167)

168)

Explaining the Question: Structure and their nature

Concept: Monosaccharide-Carbohydrate

Solution: Glucose → Reducing sugar

Monosaccharide
Final Answer: Option_1

169)

DNA and RNA differ in two major aspects:

1 Sugar Difference

A. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) contains deoxyribose (lacks an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

B. RNA (Ribonucleic acid) contains ribose (has an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

2 Nitrogen Base Difference

 A. DNA contains Thymine (T).

B. RNA contains Uracil (U) instead of thymine.

Final Answer : Option (4) All of the above

170)

Concept :
Collagen: This is the most abundant structural protein in animals, forming the framework of
connective tissues like skin, bones, tendons, and ligaments.

Explanation :
ollagen is the primary structural protein in animals, making up a significant portion of their
tissues.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 2. Collagen

171)

Explaining the Question: Cellulose is used → Except

Concept: Polysaccaride

Solution: Cellulose is absent in → Exoskeleton of arthopods

Final Answer: Option_3

172)

Concept

A. RUBISCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase): The enzyme responsible

for carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Explanation

A. RUBISCO is essential for photosynthesis, the process by which plants and algae convert
carbon dioxide into organic compounds. Given the vast amount of photosynthetic
organisms on Earth, RUBISCO is by far the most abundant protein.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is (4) : RUBISCO.

173) NCERT XI Pg.# 147

 174)

The bond absent in the tertiary structure of proteins is 4. Phosphodiester bond.

Explanation : Phosphodiester bonds are found in the backbone of DNA and RNA, not in
protein structure.

175) Explanation: Lipids are large biomolecules that do not dissolve well in acids and are
found in the acid-insoluble fraction, whereas nucleotides, amino acids, and monosaccharides
are small molecules present in the acid-soluble pool. Correct Answer: Lipids

176)

Explanation:

Statement (a), (b) and (c)

A. (a) Lipids are generally water insoluble.

B. (b) The R group could be a methyl (-CH3) or ethyl (-C2H5) or higher number of -CH2
group (1 carbon to 19 carbon) in fatty acids.

C. (c) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.

The correct answer is 1. Statement (a), (b) and (c).

177)

The correct answer is option 3.

EXplanation:
Carbohydrates are sugars and starches. Chemically, they have many hydroxyl (-OH) groups and
either an aldehyde (-CHO) or ketone (C=O) group. They are NOT made of fatty acids or amino
acids.

178) NCERT Pg. # 143, Table-9.1

179)

A. Water (H2O) is the most abundant component, making up about 60-70% of a cell's mass.

B. Proteins are the next most abundant, contributing around 15-20%.

 C. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) follow, accounting for a smaller portion, around 1-5%.

D. Carbohydrates typically contribute about 1-2%.

E. Lipids (fats) are also present in cells, usually around 2-4%.

F. Ions (like sodium, potassium, calcium) are present in small amounts but are crucial for
cellular functions.

Thus, option 2 is the correct one.

180)

Concept

A. Lipid: A diverse group of hydrophobic molecules, some of which are small.

Explanation

A. Lipids: Are a diverse group. Some lipids, like fatty acids and steroids, have molecular weights
well below 1000 daltons. Others, like complex lipids, have higher molecular weights.

Final Answer
The correct answer is 2. Lipid. Lipids are a diverse group and many have molecular
weights less than 1000 daltons.