05-06-2026

4504CMD303106260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass m dropped from a certain height strikes a light vertical fixed spring of stiffness k.
The height of its fall before touching the spring if the maximum compression of the spring is equal to

is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A particle of mass M, starting from rest, undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in
time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The potential energy of particle in a force field is where A and B are positive
constants and r si the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the
distance of the particle is :

(1) B / 2A
(2) 2A / B
(3) A / B
(4) B / A

4) An object is in the region where potential energy is changing as shown in the figure. Its total
mechanical energy is 30 J. If object is initially at C, then select the correct statement.
(1) Object will be able to reach at E.
(2) At point C kinetic energy of object is 50 Joules
(3) Object will be oscillating in between B and D.
(4) Object can reach at D.

5) A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of two
fragments are (3 + 2 ) m/s and (– – 4 ) m/s. The velocity of the third fragment (in m/s) is :-

2 +2
(1)

2 –2
(2)

–2 + 2
(3)

–2 – 2
(4)

6) A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision is oblique and initially
one of the balls was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speed. What will be the
angle between the velocities of the balls after the collision :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

7) Two blocks A and B are joined together with a compressed spring. When the system is released,
the two blocks appear to be moving with unequal speeds in the opposite directions as shown in
figure. Select correct statement :

(1) The centre of mass of the system will remain stationary.

(2) Mass of block A is equal to mass of block B.
(3) The centre of mass of the system will move towards right.
(4) It is an impossible physical situation.
8) A body rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the body about an axis passing through its
centre of mass is k. if radius of the body be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its
rotational energy will be :-

(1) (k2 + R2)

(2) (k2/R2)
(3) k2/(k2 + R2)
(4) R2/(k2 + R2)

9) A heavy particle hanging from a string of length l is projected horizontally with speed .The
speed of the particle at the point where the tension in the string equals weight of the particle is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re above the Earth's surface, where Re is the radius of
Earth how much minimum energy given to be the body so that it may escape :-

(1) mgRe
(2) 2mgRe

(3)

(4)

11) Two spherical bodies of masses m and 6m and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free
space with initial separation between their centres equal to 10R. If they attract each other due to
gravitational force only, then the distance covered by smaller sphere just before collision will be

(1) 6R
(2) 7.5 R
(3) 2.5 R
(4) 9 R

12) Two soap bubbles, one of radius 50 mm and the other of radius 80 mm, are brought in contact so
that they have a common interface. The radius of the curvature of the common interface is :-

(1) 0.003 m
(2) 0.133 m
(3) 1.2 m
(4) 8.9 m

13) An ideal gas is compressed from same initial volume V1 to same final volume V2 by different
process. Which of the following processes will result in maximum final pressure?
(1) Isothermal compression
(2) Adiabatic compression
(3) Isobaric compression
(4) Same in all of the above

14) Three identical metal rods in dimension A, B and C are placed end to end and a temperature
difference is maintained between the ends of A and C. If thermal conductivity of B is thrice that of C
and half that of A, then effective thermal conductivity of the system is :-

(1) 12K/7
(2) 6K/7
(3) 7K/3
(4) 2K

15) Three discs A, B and C having radii 2m, 4m and 6m respectively are coated with carbon black on
their outer surfaces. The wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity are 300 nm, 400 nm and
500 nm, respectively. The power radiated by them are Qa, Qb and Qc respectively :

(1) Qa is maximum
(2) Qb is maximum
(3) Qc is maximum
(4) Qa = Qb = Qc

16) 10 gm of ice at –20°C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10 gm of water at 10°C; the
specific heat of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain
:-

(1) 20 gm of water
(2) 20 gm of ice
(3) 10 gm ice and 10 gm of water
(4) 5 gm ice and 15 gm of water

17) P-V plots for three different gases during adiabatic compression are shown in the figure. Plots 1,
2 and 3 should correspond respectively to :-

(1) Monoatomic, diatomic, Polyatomic

(2) Polyatomic, diatomic, Monoatomic
(3) Diatomic, Monoatomic, Polyatomic
(4) Monoatomic, Polyatomic, diatomic

18) Two bodies M and N of equal masses are suspended from two separate massless spring of force
constants k1 and k2 respectively. If the two bodies oscillate vertically such that their maximum
velocities are equal, the ratio of the amplitude M to to that of N is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) For a given medium find intensity ratio I1 : I2 .

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 16 : 25
(4) 25 :16

20) Three concentric conducting spherical shells have radii r, 2r, and 3r and charges q1 , q2 and q3,
respectively. Innermost and outermost shells are earthed as shown in Fig. The charges shown are
after earthing. Select the correct alternative.

(1) q1 + q3 = –q2
(2) q1 = – q2

(3)

(4) None of these

21) An electric dipole consists of charges ±2.0 × 10–8 C separated by distance of ±2.0 × 10–3 m. It is
placed at a distance of 6 cm from a line charge of linear charge density 4.0 × 10–4 Cm–1 as shown in
Fig. such that the dipole makes an angle of θ = 60° with line AB. Find the force acting on the dipole.
(1) 0.012 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.04 N
(4) None of these

22) A capacitor C1 = 2μF is charged up to a voltage V = 60 V by connecting it to battery B through

switch (1), Now C1 is disconnected from battery and connected to a circuit consisting of two
uncharged capacitors C2 = 3.0 μF and C3 = 6.0 μF through a switch (2) as shown in the figure. The

final charge on C2 and C3 is:

(1) 36 μC
(2) 60 μC
(3) 54 μC
(4) 40 μC

23) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is> and the height is d, the capacitance of the

arrangement is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) In the circuit shown below, the switch S is connected to position P for a long time so that the
charge on the capacitor becomes q1 μC. Then S is switched to position Q. After a long time, the
charge on the capacitor is q2 μC.

The magnitude of q1 and q2 will respectively be : -

(1)

(2)

(3) 4 μC, 2μC

(4) 3 μC, 3 μC

25) The equivalent resistance between the points A and B is (R is the resistance of each side of

smaller square)

(1) R

(2)

(3) 2R

(4)

26) A particle having mass m, charge q enters a cylinder region having uniform magnetic field B in
the inward direction as shown. If the particle is deviated by 60° as it emerges out of the field then

what is the time spent by it in the field.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) It depends on the speed of particle.

27) In the figure shown let i1 be current from battery just after the switch is closed and i2 be current

at steady state. Find i1/i2.

(1) 1
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.25
(4) None

28) In the adjoining A.C. circuit, the voltmeter whose reading will be zero at resonance is :-

(1) V1
(2) V2
(3) V3
(4) V4

29) A plane electromagnetic wave of intensity 6 W/m2 strikes a small mirror of area 9 cm2, held
perpendicular to the approaching wave. The momentum transferred in kg-ms–1 by the wave to the
mirror each second will be :-

(1) 1.2 × 10–10

(2) 2.4 × 10–9
(3) 3.6 × 10–11
(4) 4.8 × 10–7

30) The magnetic field in the plane electromagnetic wave is given by Bz = 2 × 10–7 sin (0.5 × 103 x –
1.5 × 1011 t) tesla. The expression for electric field will be :-

(1) Ez = sin (0.5 × 103 x – 1.5 × 1011 t) v/m

3 11
(2) Ez = 60 sin (0.5 × 10 x – 1.5 × 10 t) v/m
(3) Ey = sin (0.5 × 1011 x – 0.5 × 103 t) v/m
3 11
(4) Ey = 60 sin (0.5 × 10 x – 1.5 × 10 t) v/m

31) A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to

(1)
b

(2)
b

(3)
b

(4)
b

32) In the figure, an object is placed at distance 25 cm from the surface of a convex mirror, and a
plane mirror is set so that the image formed by the two mirros lie adjacent to each other in the same
plane. The plane mirror is placed at 20 cm from the object. What is the radius of curvature of the

convex mirror?

(1) 75 cm
(2) 37.5 cm
(3) 150 cm
(4) 50 cm

33) A man is standing at the edge of a 1m deep swimming pool, completely filled with a liquid of

refractive index . The eyes of the man are m above the ground . A coin located at the bottom
of the pool appears to be at an angle of depression of 30° with reference to the eyes of man. Then
horizontal distance (represented by x in the figure) of the coin from the eyes of the man is

(1) 1m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 4m

34) A sodium lamp of power 10 W is emitting photons of wavelength 600 nm. Assuming that 60% of
the consumed energy is converted into light, find the number of photons emitted per second by the
lamp.

(1) 1.8 × 1019

(2) 1.8 × 1016
(3) 1.8 × 1015
(4) None of these

35) When the light of frequency 2v0 (where is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is
increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1
to v2 is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

36) The only source of energy in a particular star is the fusion reaction as given below
+ Energy
The masses of 2He4 and 6C12 are given
m(2He4) = 4.00254 amu
m(6C12) = 12.00004 amu
Speed of light in vacuum 3 × 108 m/s, power output of star is 4.5 × 1027 watt. Rate at which star
burns helium (in kg/s)

(1) 4 × 1013
(2) 8 × 1013
(3) 12 × 1013
(4) 16 × 1013

37) The diagram below shows the lowest four energy levels for an electron in a hypothetical atom.
The electron is excited to the –1eV level of the atom and transitions to the lowest energy state by
emitting only two photons. Which of the following energies could not belong to either of the photons

(1) 2 eV
(2) 4 eV
(3) 5 eV
(4) 6 eV

38) What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean expression

(1) 0, 0
(2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 0
(4) 1, 1

39) In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D1, D2 and D3 are ideal then I is :-

(1) E/R
(2) E/2R
(3) 2E/3R
(4) Zero

40) In the reading shown in the figure, find the zero error (Least count = 0.01 cm)

(1) 0.05 cm
(2) –0.05 cm
(3) 0.03 cm
(4) –0.03 cm

41) The density of a cube is measured by measuring its mass and the length of its side. If the
maximum errors in the measurements of mass and length are 3% and 2% respectively, then the
maximum error in the measurement of density is :-

(1) 7%
(2) 5%
(3) 9%
(4) 3%

42) A particle moves in a straight line with an acceleration a ms–2 at time ‘t’ seconds where a = – .
When t = 1 the particle has a velocity of 3ms–1 then find the velocity when t = 4 :
(1) 2.90 m/s
(2) 3.25 m/s
(3) 2.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

43) A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure, then the distance from the foot of the
tower where it will strike the ground will be :

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4000/3 m
(2) 5000/3 m
(3) 2000 m
(4) 3000 m

44) A man standing on a road hold his umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep the rain away. He
throws the umbrella and starts running at 10 km/hr. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head
vertically, the speed of raindrops with respect to the road will be :

(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 20 km/hr
(3) 30 km/hr
(4) 40 km/hr

45) A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by two unequal force F1 and F2 (< F1) as shown in the

following figure. The tension in the rod at a distance y

from the end A is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

 CHEMISTRY

1)
Identify B, C, D respectively :-

(1) H2CO3, NH4HCO3, Mg(OH)2

(2) CO2, NH4Cl, NaHCO3
(3) CO2, NH4HCO3, NH4Cl
(4) NH4Cl, NH4HCO3, H2CO3

2) The molecule with permanent dipole moment is :-

(1) SiF4
(2) BF3
(3) PCl5
(4) PF3

3) In which molecule central atom have 20% s-character :-

(1) CH4
(2) PCl5
(3) BCl3
(4) SF6

4) Which is incorrect order -

(1) SF6 > SeF6 > TeF6 Order of stability

(2) SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2 Order of Acidic character
(3) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te Order of Boiling Point
(4) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te Order of acidic strength

5) Bond present in N2O5 are :-

(1) Only ionic

(2) Only covalent
(3) Covalent & coordinate
(4) Covalent & ionic
6) In the reaction LiH + AlH3 LiAlH4. AlH3, LiH acts as :-

(1) Lewis acid & Lewis base

(2) Lewis base & Lewis acid
(3) Bronsted base & Bronsted acid
(4) None of these

7) The cationic part of solid Cl2O6 is having the shape:-

(1) Linear
(2) Angular
(3) Tetrahedron
(4) Undefined

8) Which compound of vanadium shows 1.73 BM magnetic moment :-

(1) VCl2
(2) VCl3
(3) VCl5
(4) VCl4

9) Which of the following compound produces only basic products on hydrolysis :

(1) Mg3N2
(2) NCl3
(3) B2H6
(4) PCl5

10)

Select the correct order according to their given properties -

(1) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl Dipole moment
(2) C = C > O = O Bond length
+ –
(3) N2 > N2 Bond order

(4) O2 < O2+ Magnetic moment

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Fac and Mer isomerism is associated with which of the following general formula ?

(1) [M(AA)2]
(2) [M(AA)3]
(3) [MABCD]
(4) [MA3B3]

12) Assertion (A) :- Br– ions do not interfere in chromyl chloride test for Cl– Reason (R) :- Br– on
oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 liberates Br2 which dissolves in NaOH to give a colourless solution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) Select the correct order of C–O bond order in following complexes.

(1) [M(CO)3(PCl3)2(PMe3)] > [M(CO)3(PCl3)] > [M(CO)3PCl3(PMe3)2]

(2) [M(CO)3PCl3(PMe3)2] > [M(CO)3(PCl3)3] > [M(CO)3(PCl3)2(PMe3)]
(3) [M(CO)3PCl3(PMe3)2] = [M(CO)3(PCl3)3] < [M(CO)3(PCl3)2(PMe3)]
(4) [M(CO)3(PCl3)3] > [M(CO)3(PCl3)2(PMe3)] > [M(CO)3(PCl3)(PMe3)2]

14) Methanides are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The donor sites of (EDTA)–4 are?

(1) O atoms only

(2) N atoms only
(3) Two N atoms and four O atoms
(4) Three N atoms and three O atoms

16) Which of the following will be optically active?

(1) CH2 = C = CH2

(2) CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following structure has D-configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)
End product 'E' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) Among the following, which is best method to prepare 2-bromo-4-nitrobenzoic acid from benzene
?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The Hydrolysis product of (+) lactose is :-

(1) β-D(+) glucose + β-D(+) galactose

(2) α-D(+)galactose + α-D(+)glucose
(3) α-D(+)glucose + β-D(+)galactose
(4) β-D(+)glucose + α-D(+)glucose

21) In the given reaction, Product

Find the product of reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In which of the following reaction CO2 gas will not evolve ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Ethanol when reacted with PCl5 gives A, POCl3 and HCl. A reacts with silver nitrate to form B
(major product) and AgCl. A and B respectively are

(1) C2H5Cl & C2H5NO2

(2) C2H6 & C2H5NO2
(3) C2H5Cl & C2H5OC2H5
(4) C2H6 & C2H5OC2H5

24) The correct stability order following resonating structures ?

(1) I > II > IV > III

(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

25) :-
Identify product B in above reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Which of the following reactions will undergo an elimination reaction and an alkene will be
formed in the product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) product
Product of the above reaction is

(1) an aldehyde
(2) a ketone
(3) an alcohol
(4) a carboxylic acid

28)
Major product and will be respectively:

(1)
&

(2)
&

(3)
&

(4)
&
29)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) (Major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)
product (C) will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following pairs of compound are functional isomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of sucrose at 373 K is found to be 750 mm Hg. The
molality of the solution at the same temperature will be :-

(1) 0.26
(2) 0.074
(3) 0.74
(4) 0.04

34) Radial node present for 6ƒ subshell is /are :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35)

In above balanced reaction, value of will be :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.2
(3) 8
(4) 5

36) A salt bridge contains :

(1) A saturated solution of KCl and agar-agar
(2) A saturated solution of KNO3 and agar-agar
(3) A saturated solution of NH4NO3 and agar-agar
(4) All of these

37) How much water must be added to 300 mL of 0.2 M solution of CH3COOH ? (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5) for
the D.O.I. (α) of the acid to double?

(1) 600 mL
(2) 900 mL
(3) 1200 mL
(4) 1500 mL

38) 2 mole of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel of 2 litre capacity. At equilibrium, 40% of PCl5 is
dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. The value of equilibrium constant is :

(1) 0.266
(2) 0.53
(3) 2.66
(4) 5.3

39)

The following equilibrium given by :

N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ; K1
N2 + O 2 2NO ; K2
H2 + O2 H2O ; K3
The equilibrium constant of the reaction

(1)

(2) K1K2K3

(3)

(4)

40) Time taken for an electron to complete one revolution in the Bohr orbit of H-atom is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) If hydrogen electrode dipped into solution of pH = 3 and pH = 6 and salt bridge is connected,
the emf of resulting cell is :-

(1) 0.177 V
(2) 0.3 V
(3) 0.052 V
(4) 0.104 V

42) If Δx = 2ΔP then value of ΔV will be :

(1)
ΔV =
(2) ΔV = 0

(3)
ΔV =
(4) ΔV = ∞

43) 12 moles of each A and B allowed to react as given 3A + 2B → C + D. If 60 gm of D is produced

then calculate the atomic mass of D :-

(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 15

44) Which has minimum number of atoms of oxygen?

(1) 10 mL H2O(l)
(2) 0.1mole of V2O5(s)
(3) 12 gm O3(g)
22
(4) 12.044 × 10 molecules of CO2

45) If for a reaction ΔH = 50 kJ/mol, ΔS = 50 J/K-mol then ΔG at 500 K will be :-

(1) 25 kJ/mol
(2) 5000 kJ/mol
(3) 0.5 kJ/mol
(4) None of these
 BIOLOGY

1) Find out the correct matches from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Ulothrix Filamentous Chlorophyceae

ii Laminaria Brown Algae Phaeophyceae

iii Nostoc N2 Fixing green alga Cyanobacteria

iv Fucus Haplontic life cycle Phaeophyceae

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and iii

2) Consider the following statements (A-D) and select the correct option.
(A) In Lichen, algal and fungal components are heterotrophic and autotrophic respectively.
(B) Protists have defined nucleus and other membrane bound organelles.
(C) Gametophytes are independent in plants like Equisetum and Funaria.
(D) The most notable disease caused by prions, is Cr-jacob disease in human which is analogous
variant of Madcow disease in cattle.

(1) only B
(2) B,C and D
(3) A,B and C
(4) A,C and D

3) Read the following statements regarding Gymnosperm :-

(A) The main plant body is sporophyte and heterosporous in nature.
(B) Roots of some gymnosperm have blue green algae based mutualistic association.
(C) The multicellular female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia.
(D) The male and female cones may be borne on the same tree or on different trees.

(1) Statement A, C and D are correct and statement B is incorrect.

(2) Statement A, B and D are correct and statement C is incorrect.
(3) Statement A and D are correct and statement B and C are incorrect.
(4) All statement are correct

4) Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements :-
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on
sporophyte
(1) (B), (C) and (D)
(2) (A), (D) and (E)
(3) (B), (C) and (E)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

5) Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option for correct
statements :-
(A) Diplontic life cycle is found in all seed bearing plants
(B) In Pinus, both male cones and females cones are borne on same tree.
(C) Male gametes of Pinus are biflagellated
(D) In Pinus, pollination takes place by wind, a process known as anemophily.
The correct statements are :-

(1) A, B and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

6) Given below is the diagram of transverse section of dorsiventral leaf. Identify the parts labelled A,

B, C and D and select the right option about then:-

A B C D

(1) Abaxial epidermis Xylem Spongy tissue Abaxial epidermis

(2) Adaxial epidermis Xylem Palisade tissue Phloem

(3) Abaxial epidermis Phloem Mesophyll Abaxial epidermis

(4) Abaxial epidermis Phloem Palisade tissue Xylem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) In which of the following,each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath

?

(1) Sunflower root

(2) Maize root
(3) Sunflower stem
(4) Maize stem

8) Read the following statements:

Statement-I: All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose
without the help of oxygen.
Statement-II: In anaerobic organisms, glycolysis is the only process in respiration.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is incorrect
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect

9) Statement-I- Stems of some plants spread to new niches and when older parts die new plants are
formed is called sucker.
Statement-II- Examples of sucker are banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

10) Match List-I with List-II.

List - I List - II
Centromere
situated close to
Metacentric the end forming
(a) (i)
chromosome one extremely
short and one
very long arms
Centromere at
Acrocentric
(b) (ii) the terminal
chromosome
end
Centromere in
the middle
(c) Sub-metacentric (iii) forming two
equal arms of
chromosomes
Centromere
slightly away
Telocentric from the middle
(d) (iv)
chromosome forming one
shorter arm and
one longer arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)

11) Statement-I : Prokaryotic cells have a variety of complex locomotary and cytoskeletal
structures.
Statement-II : The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of protein within the
phospholipid bilayer.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

12) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the correct option:

(1) a is less permeable than b

(2) c is the site of anaerobic respiration
(3) e increases the surface area of mitochondria
(4) c possess the single stranded DNA

13) Read the following statements and select incorrect statement

Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear division called Meiosis I and Meiosis II but
(1)
only a single cycle of DNA replication
(2) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis II
Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between sister
(3)
chromatids of homologous cromosomes
Meiosis I initiated after the parental chromosome have replicated to produce identical sister
(4)
chromatids at S-phase

14) Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because :

(1) They had a long undisturbed evolutionary time for species diversification
(2) There are less seasonal variation
(3) More solar energy is available in tropics
(4) All of these
15) Identify the correct match regarding plant diversity ?

A B C D E F

(1) Angiosperms Fungi Mosses Algae Ferns Lichens

(2) Fungi Angiosperms Mosses Algae Lichens Ferns

(3) Angiosperms Algae Fungi Mosses Lichens Ferns

(4) Angiosperms Fungi Algae Mosses Ferns Lichens

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

17) Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology; the Balzan
prize in 1983, the international prize for Biology in 1994, and the crafoord prize in 1999.

(1) Katherine Esau

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Alfonso Corti
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

18) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
 Column-I Column-II

(1) Chlorophyll a (a) Yellow

(2) Chlorophyll b (b) Yellow green

(3) Carotenoids (c) Yellow to yellow orange

(4) Xanthophylls (d) Bright or blue green

(1) 1–a, 3–b, 1–c, 2–d
(2) 3–a, 4–b, 1–c, 2–d
(3) 4–a, 2–b, 3–c, 1–d
(4) 2–a, 1–b, 4–c, 3–d

19) Statement-I : In C3 plants some oxygen does bind to RuBiSCO and hence rate of
photosynthesis increases
Statement-II : RuBiSCO combines with CO2 to form 2 molecules of 3 PGA

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

20)

Which of the following options contain all the correct information ?

Hatch and Slack

Calvin Cycle Z-scheme
Pathway

Bundle sheath Cyt. -b6 /f

2 ATP required during cells have only complex is a
(1)
carboxylation decarboxylating transmembrane
enzymes protein

Only down
1 ATP required Dicarboxylic acid
(2) hill movement
during reduction cycle
of electrons

Universal pathway for 12 Molecules of

production of NADPH.H+ and Plastoquinone
(3) glucose in all the 18 ATP are required for is a mobile
photosynthetic 1 H-carrier
plants glucose production

24 molecules of
12 molecules of Involve both
NADPH.H+ and
NADPH.H+and uphill and
60 ATP are
(4) 18 ATP are downhill
required for
required for 6 movement of
production of one
CO2 fixation electrons
sucrose molecule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Find out the correct one from the following

Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous

flower flower flower

Guava, Cucumber,
Plum, Rose, Mustard, Brinjal,
(1) Sunflower - Ray
Peach Chinarose
floret

Guava,
Cucumber,
(2) Plum, Rose, Brinjal Sunflower - Ray
Peach
floret

Cucumber,
Brinjal,
(3) Mustard, Guava Sunflower - Ray
Sunflower
floret

Guava,
Mustard, Brinjal, Plum, Rose, Cucumber,
(4)
China rose Peach Sunflower - Ray
floret
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which statement is wrong for Kreb's cycle?

+
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of Succinyl CoA to Succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
The cycle starts with condensation of Acetyl group (Accetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
(3)
Citric acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+

23) How many oxygen molecules [O2] are required at the terminal stage of the aerobic respiration if
electron transport system oxidise ten molecules of NADH + H+ ?

(1) Ten
(2) Five
(3) One
(4) Twenty

24) When two molecules of pyruvic acids forms two lactic acid by anaerobic respiration then ?

(1) 3 ATP is lost

(2) 1 ATP is lost
(3) 6 ATP is lost
(4) 38 ATP are gained

25) (I) Proton channel of oxysome/complex V/ATP synthase is F0.

(II) Metabolic water is water produced in terminal oxidation in respiration
(III) CoQ accepts electron from NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and also can accept electron from
complex II.
(IV) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane
and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III (Cyt bc1) and complex IV.
(V) Complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase (cyta a, a3 and 2 Cu centre).
Choose the corrects option :–

(1) All are correct

(2) All are incorrect
(3) Only I and V are correct
(4) Only III is correct

26) Given below the two statements :

Statement-I : During Kreb's cycle the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid a molecule of
GTP is synthesized.
Statement-II : There are three points in the Kreb's cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

27) Statement-I:- Confirmation of the release of volatile substances from ripened oranges that
hastened the ripening of stored unripe bananas.
Statement-II:- Callus formation from the internodal segments of tobacco stem with the Auxin and
extracts of vascular tissue/yeast/ coconut milk/DNA. Later, cytokinesis promoting substance was
identified, crystallized and named as Kinetin.
Statement-III:- Reporting of appearance of symptoms of bakane/foolish seedling disease caused by
fungus, Gibberella fujikuroi, in uninfected seedlings when they were treated with sterile filtrates of
the fungus. The active substances were later identified as GA.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) I-Miller and Skoog, II-Cousins, III-Kurosawa

(2) I-Kurosawa, II-Cousins, III-Miller and Skoog
(3) I-Cousins, II-Kurosawa, III-Miller and Skoog
(4) I-Cousins, II-Miller and Skoog, I II-Kurosawa

28) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition.
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants? Choose the correct
option from the following

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

29) The aestivation in petals of lady finger and Calotropis plants are respectively :-

(1) A & D
(2) B & A
(3) D & A
(4) D & B

30) Statement–A:– Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of foreign
pollen landing on the stigma.
Statement–B:– Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

31) How many characters in the list given below are contrivances for self-pollination? Protandry,
Protogyny, Cleistogamy, Anthesis, Heterostyly. Monocliny, Herkogamy, Self-sterility, Bud-
pollination, Homogamy

(1) Seven
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six

32) How many statements are correct about Mendel-

A. Mendel performed his experiments for seven years during 1956-1963.
B. Mendel considered 7 traits of 14 characters for his experiments.
C. His results allowed him to set up a basic framework of rules governing inheritance, which was
expanded on by later scientists to account for all the diverse natural observations and the complexity
inherent in them.
D. A true-breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous cross-pollination.
E. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were different except for one
character with contrasting traits.

(1) A, B and C
(2) C, D and E
(3) C and D
(4) C only

33) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Turner’s syndrome is due to 44+XXY condition.
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome is due to 44+X0 condition.
(C) Rudimentary ovaries are found in the individuals affected with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
(D) Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome both are autosomal disorders.
(E) Gynaecomastia can be seen in individuals affected with Klinefelter’s syndrome.

(1) A, B and E only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) E only

34) In capping of hnRNA, an unusual nucleotide called __(A)__ is added to 5'-end. In tailing,
adenylate residues, __(B)__ bases are added to 3'-end of hnRNA in __(C)__ manner by the enzyme
__(D)__ :-

A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,

(1) B = 2000-3000,
C = Template-independent, D = Poly(A)polymerase
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
(2)
B = 200-300, C = Template dependent, D = Poly(A)polymerase
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
B = 200-300,
(3)
C = Template-independent,
D = Poly(A)polymerase
A = Poly(A)polymerase,
B = 200-300,
(4)
C = Template-independent,
D = Methyl guanosine triphosphate

35) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

36) In the given diagram identify A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) 15
N15N 14
N15N 14
N14N

(2) 15
N15N 14
N14N 14
N14N

(3) 15
N15N 14
N15N 14
N15N

(4) 14
N15N 15
N15N 14
N14N
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
The Law of Independent Assortment states that "When two pairs of traits are combined in a
(2)
hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters".
(3) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene
(4) ABO blood group shows incomplete dominance

38) Assertion (A) :- Archaebacteria are found in some of the most harsh habitats.
Reason (R) :- Archaebacteria have different cell wall structure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

39) The presence of __'A'___ is reminiscent of antiquity and process of __'B'__ represent dominance
of ___'C'___.
Identify A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) Exon Splicing RNA world

 Ploy A
(2) sn RNA Tailing
polymerase

(3) Intron Splicing RNA world

(4) Split gene Splicing Spliceosome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Statement-I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

41) Assertion A: Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely due to the 'Competitive Exclusion Principle'.
Reason R: Species can evolve mechanisms like 'resource partitioning' to avoid direct competition
and promote co-existence.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

42) Which of the following is not a special adaptation for parasites ?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organ

(2) Presence of adhesive organs or suckers
(3) Loss of digestive system
(4) Low reproductive capacity

43) Plants have evolved various defenses to lessen the impact of predation by herbivores. Choose the
correct option for the defense measures in the given below plants. (where M-morphological, C-
Chemical, A-Anatomical, P-Physiological)

Acacia Cactus Calotropis

1 P P M

2 A M C

3 P C C
 4 M M C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44)

How many statement is/are correct about food chain ?

(a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not directly sun
(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to grazing food chain at some levels

(d) In grazing food chain size of organisms always decreases at higher level
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

45) Read the following statements :-

(i) .....A.... is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time
period by plants during photosynthesis.
(ii) Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the .....B......
(iii) .....C..... is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Identify the A, B & C :-

A B C

Secondary Net primary Primary

(1)
productivity productivity productivity

Primary
Net primary Secondary
(2) production
productivity productivity

Net primary Secondary Primary

(3)
productivity productivity productivity

Gross
Net primary Secondary
(4) primary
productivity productivity
productivity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) A ring of A blind tubules called B is present at the junction of foregut and mid gut Which secrete
digestive juice. At junction of midgut and hind gut is present another ring of C filamentous D :-

A B C D
 Malpighian Hepatic
1 6-8 100-150
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
2 100-150 6-8
tubules caecae

Malpighian
3 100-150 Hepatic caecae 6-8
tubules

Malpighian
4 6-8 Hepatic caecae 100-150
tubules
1
(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon
(B) In a polysaccharide chain, one end is called reducing end while the other end is called
non-reducing end.
(C) Cellulose form helical secondary structure.
(D) In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes How many of the above
statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

48) Medullary concentration gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) NaCl, Urea

(2) H2O
(3) NaCl only
(4) Urea only

49) Which structure is not found in female frog?

(1) Vocal sac

(2) Copulatory pad
(3) Cloaca
(4) 1 & 2 both

50) Match the column I & II and choose the correct combination from options given :-

Column-I Column-II
 (a) Mons pubis (1) Fleshy fold of tissue

(b) Labia minora (2) finger like structure

(c) Labia majora (3) Funnel shaped

(d) Clitoris (4) Cushion of fatty acid

(e) Infundibulum (5) Paired fold of tissue

(1) a-1, b-5, c-4, d-2, e-3
(2) a-1, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-3
(3) a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2, e-3
(4) a-4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2

51) Match the column I (organic compound) with column II (examples) and choose the correct
combination from the given options.

Column-I Column-II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)

A. Fatty acid I Glutamic acid

B. Phospholipid II Tryptophan

C. Aromatic amino acid III Lecithin

D. Acidic amino acid IV Palmitic acid

(1) A-I; B-II; C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-II, D-I
(3) A-II; B-III; C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III; B-IV; C-I, D-II

52) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can change the respiratory rate by :

(1) Increasing the duration of expiration

(2) Decreasing the duration of inspiration
(3) Decreasing the duration of expiration
(4) Increasing the duration of inspiration

53) Which of the following is correct regarding the passage of urine

DCT → Collecting duct → Renal calyx → Renal papilla → Renal Pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(1)
→ Urethra
PCT → Collecting duct → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Renal papilla → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(2)
→ Urethra
DCT → Collecting duct → Renal papilla → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Urethra → Urinary
(3)
bladder → Ureter
DCT → Collecting duct → Renal papilla → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(4)
→ Urethra

54) Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct

55) Find out the correct match of column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Stereociliated Epididymis &

A
epithelium Fallopian tube

Stratified non
Oesophagus &
B keratinized
pharynx
epithelium

Simple Vesicles of thyroid

C cuboidal gland &
epithelium Germinal epithelium

Neurosensory Myoepithelium &

D
epithelium cornea

Simple
E Columnar Liver
epithelium
(1) A, B, E
(2) B C, E
(3) B, D, E
(4) A, C, F

56) Which of the following statement is/are true about enzymatic reaction ?
(A) Enzyme may change the rate of reaction
(B) Enzyme interfere with equilibrium state of reaction
(C) They lower down the activation energy of reaction
(D) Presence of enzyme is a confirmation of being a living system

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) only C
(4) A,C & D

57) Which of the following statements are not correct :-

A. Carboxy haemoglobin is a stable product which does not dissociated at cellular level.
B. Affinity of Hb for CO2 is more than O2.
C. The animals with no residual air in lungs are birds.
D. When temperature decreases oxy-Hb curve is a hyperbola.

(1) B and C
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and D
(4) Only D

58)
P, QRS complex and T wave represents

P wave QRS complex T wave

Ventricular Atrial Ventricular
(1)
depolarisation depolarisation Repolarisation
Atrial Ventricular Ventricular
(2)
depolarisation Depolarisation Repolarisation
Atrial Ventricular Ventricular
(3)
depolarisation Repolarisation depolarisation
Atrial Ventricular Atrial
(4)
Depolarisation depolarisation hyperpolarisation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) In a person cardiac cycle duration is 0.6 sec and amount of blood pumped by the ventricle of that
person in each beat is 80 ml. Calculate the cardiac output of the person ?

(1) 5 litre
(2) 6 litre
(3) 7 litre
(4) 8 litre

60) Read all the statements carefully and choose correct option-
(A) Actin and myosin are arranged parallel to each other.
(B) Actin filaments are thinner than myosin.
(C) Actin is firmly attached to Z-line.
(D) Portion of myofibril between two Z-line is called sarcomere.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D only
(4) B, C and D only

61) The bones of the limbs alongwith their girdles constitute the appendicular skeleton. Each limb is
made of 30 bones. Identify the correct set of fore limb bones :-

(1) Humerus, radius, patella, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

(2) Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
(3) Humerus, femur, patella, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
(4) Femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

62) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Hinge joint (i) Ribs & Sternum

(B) Saddle joint (ii) Sutures

(C) Cartilagenous joint (iii) Elbow joint

(D) Fibrous joint (iv) Between Carpals and metacarpal of thumb

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

63) Read the following statements (A–D) :

(A) In the resting phase of nerve leakage ion channel are closed and potential is found 70mv at
inside
(B) During depolarisation opening of Na+ VGC takes place
(C) Na+ increases more in ECF in depolarisation which cause generation of action potential
(D) The time taken for restoration of resting membrane potential is called refractory period
How many of above statements are incorrect ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

64) Consider the following facts regarding the structures labelled as alphabets (A to F) in the
adjacent diagram of human brain and choose the correct option.

(i) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling

(ii) When get blocked, it may lead to enlargement of the head
(iii) Related with visual and auditory reflexes
(iv) Contains regulatory centres for respiration, cardio-vascular reflexs and gastric secretions

(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D

(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-E
(3) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-F
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-E, (iv)-A

65) Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and
its function/deficiency symptom :-

Endocrine Function/deficiency
Hormone
gland symptoms

(1) Testis Testosterone Stimulates oogenesis

Anterior Under secretion

(2) Growth hormone
pituitary causes dwarfism

(3) Adrenal cortex Epinephrine Help in emergency condition

(4) Thyroid gland Thyrocalcitonin Decrease glucose in blood

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Read the following statements.

(a) Prolactin regulates growth of mammary glands and milk formation in them.
(b) Over secretion of GH stimulates abnormal growth of body leading to dwarfism.
(c) Melatonin helps in maintaining normal rhythms of sleep wake cycle and body temperature.
(d) Thyroid hormones play role in regulation of basal metabolic rate.
(e) Parathormone acts on bones and stimulate process of bone resorption.
How many of above are true ?

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) c, b, e
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, c, d, e

67) Read the following four statement (A-D) :-

(1) Thyroid gland is median mesodermal endocrine gland
(2) Posterior pituitary is under direct neural control of hypothalamus
(3) Thyroid hormone affects RBC formation, H2O and electrolyte balancing
(4) Thymus gland play role in cellular and humoral immunity both
How many above statements are right ?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

68) In the given table which animal is correctly matched with its taxon group and character.

Animal Taxon Character

Circulatory system
(1) Balanoglossus Hemichordata
is absent
Air bladder is
(2) Hippocampus Chondrichthyes
present
(3) Chameleon Amphibia Epidermal scales
(4) Canis Mammalia Possessing Hair
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) You are observing an animal closely and you find some characters such as :-
* Endoskeleton made up of cartilage.
* Mouth is located ventrally.
* The skin is tough, containing placoid scales .
* Notochord persist through out life.
* Air bladder is absent.
After observing the above features, in which group will you classify that animal ?

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Cephalochordata

70)

How many animals in the given list are respired through gills ?

Prawn, Labeo, Myxine, Bufo, Dentalium, Euplectella, Hydra, Trygon, Pavo, Apis
(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Nine
(4) Five

71) Observe the schematic representation of menstrual cycle carefully and identify W,X,Y and Z
correctly from the given options :-

W X Y Z

(1) Estrogen Progesterone L.H. F.S.H.

(2) F.S.H. L.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(3) L.H. F.S.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(4) Estrogen Progesterone F.S.H. L.H.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) After two month of pregnancy (i) Major organ system formation

Body is covered with fine hairs and eye lashes

(B) During fifth month of pregnancy (ii)
are formed

(C) At end of 12 week of pregnancy (iii) Development of limbs and digit

(D) End of second trimester (iv) Hair on head is observed

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

73)

Match the following :-

 Non- Uterus
Multiload
A medicated a i unsuitable for
375
IUDs implantation

Copper
Phagocytosis
B Releasing b Saheli ii
of sperm
IUDs

Hormone
Lippes Suppress
C Releasing c iii
loop sperm motility
IUDs

Weekly Anti-estrogenic
D d LNG-20 iv
oral pill activity

(1) A-b-i , B-c-ii , C-d-iii , D-a-iv

(2) A-c-iv , B-a-iii , C-b-i , D-d-ii
(3) A-c-ii , B-a-iii , C-d-i , D-b-iv
(4) A-a-iii , B-c-ii , C-d-i , D-b-iv

74) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

75) Read the following four statement (A-D) :-

(A) Medical termination of pregnancy (M.T.P.) is safe during 14th to 15th week of pregnancy.
(B) In test-tube baby technique 32 cell stage zygote transfer into uterus.
(C) Saheli is a steroid pill which check the ovulation.
(D) ZIFT is an in-vitro technique in which zygote or embryo upto 8 cell stage is transfer in fallopian
tube.
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

76) How many of the following are examples of homologous structures in plants :
(a) Eyes of octopus and mammal
(b) Potato and sweet potato
(c) Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human
(d) Vertebrate heart
(e) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
(f) Potato and carrot
(g) Potato and radish

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

77) Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.

(1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger

(2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(3) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(4) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole

78) A small population of animals gets isolated on an Island after a natural disaster. After several
generations, the population shows large random change in allele frequencies and reduced variation.
Which evolutionary process best explains this observation?

(1) Bottleneck effect

(2) Gene flow
(3) natural selection
(4) Adaptive radiation

79) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland
 Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II

(a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons

(b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus

(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils

(d) Physiological barrier (iv) HCI in gastric juice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

81) Read the following statements carefully & select the correct number of incorrect statements :
(A) Spleen is an example of primary lymphoid organ.
(B) MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
(C) Vaccination is based on the property of 'memory'.
(D) Cancer is the major cause of death among the infectious diseases.
(E) Acquired immunity is characterised by memory and it is pathogen non-specific.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

82) From the below list, which of the following is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing
foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
(i) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
(ii) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
(iii) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
(iv) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
(v) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.

(1) (iv), (v), (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (iii), (ii), (iv), (v), (i)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v), (i), (ii)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (i)

83) Statement I: Transformation in bacteria requires cells to be made competent to take up foreign
DNA.
Statement II: Competence is a natural state in all bacterial species and does not require artificial
treatments.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

84) Some foreign DNA fragment is attached to Cla I site of pBR322. This recombinant vector is used
to transit Escherichia coli host cells. The cells subjected to transformation are plated on two
different media-one containing ampicillin and the other containing tetracycline. The transformed
called containing the recombinant vector

(1) will grow on both tetracycline containing and ampicillin containing media
(2) will not grow on either tetracycline containing or ampicillin containing media
(3) will grow on tetracycline, but not on ampicillin containing medium
(4) will grow on ampicillin, but not on tetracycline containing medium

85) Read and following statements carefully and select the correct option :
(A) Source of the restriction enzyme Hind III is [Link]
(B) In biolistic method of gene transfer, microparticles made up of gold or tungsten are coated with
foreign DNA.
(C) Micro-injection method for injecting desired gene is used for animal cell.
(D) Primers are chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of
DNA in PCR.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

86) Read the following statements and choose the option which have all the correct statements only:-
(a) RNA interference is used to prevent infestation of nematode pest in tobacco plant
(b) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms.
(c) RNA interference is a method of cellular defense in eukaryotic organisms
(d) RNA interference involves the silencing of a specific mRNA by preventing its formation from the
corresponding gene.
Options

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

87) Which of the following statements are correct regarding genetically modified organisms (GMO)
:
(A) Genetic modification has increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
(B) Bt-toxin gene has been cloned from Agrobacterium and been expressed in cotton to provide
resistance to insects without the need for insecticides.
(C) Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated.
(D) Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on human.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only

88) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones.
(a) Secondary follicle gets transformed into a tertiary follicle which has a cavity called antrum
(b) No more oogonia are formed and added after birth
(c) Each secondary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and then called the primary
follicle
(d) Tertiary follicle further changes into the mature follicle or Graafian follicle
Options :-

(1) Statements a, b and d

(2) Statements a, b and c
(3) Statements a and c only
(4) Statement d only

89) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

Carboniferous
I. Age of fishes a.
period

II. Age of amphibians b. Devonian period

III. Age of dinosaurs c. Quaternary period

IV. Age of humans d. Jurassic period

(1) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c
(2) I - b, II - a, III - d, IV - c
(3) I - b, II - a, III - c, IV - d
(4) I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b

90) Which of the following are related to the Thalamus?

i) It is the major co-ordinating centre for sensory & motor signalling
ii) The cerebrum is wrapped around it
iii) It lies at the base of hypothalamus

(1) i, ii & iii

(2) All except ii
(3) All except iii
(4) ii & iii
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 3 3 4 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 4 1 1 2 2 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation: A body of mass m dropped from a certain height strikes a light
vertical fixed spring of stiffness k. We have to find the height of its fall before touching the
spring if the maximum compression of the spring is given.

Concept: Conservation of energy in Spring block problems

Solution:
Equating initial and final energy :

Substitute the given value for maximum compression, :

Divide both sides by mg :

Final Answer: Option (1)

2) Power delivered in time T is

3) for equilibrium
4) Question Explanation:
Analyzing motion based on a potential energy graph.
Concept:
Conservation of Total Mechanical Energy.
Solution:
The total mechanical energy (E) of the object is the sum of its potential energy (PE) and kinetic
energy (KE). For an object to move to a certain position, its PE at that point must not exceed
its total energy ( = 30 J), because KE cannot be negative (KE = E – PE). If an object is at point
C and tries to move toward D or E, it must first pass the "peak" at D.
Calculation:
Total Energy (E): 30 J (Given).
Energy at Point C: PE = – 30 J. KE = 30 – ( –30) = 60J.
Energy Barrier at Point D: The PE at peak D is 35 J .
Feasibility Check: Since PE at D ( 35 J ) is greater than the total energy ( 30 J ), the object does
not have enough energy to cross point D.
Motion Analysis: The object is "trapped" in the potential well. It can move to the left until it
hits the barrier at point B (PE = 35J), but cannot pass B or D.
Final Answer:
Option (3) Object will be oscillating in between B and D.

5)
All three fragments have equal masses, say 'm' each,
Then, by COLM

⇒
 6)

The angle between the velocities of the balls after the collision will be 90°

7)

As net force on system = 0 (after released)

So centre of mass of the system remains stationary.

8)

Explain Question:
To find the ratio of rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic energy formula.

Concept:
Use of formula. of Rotational K·E and total K·E.

Solution:

KRot =

KTotal =

Final answer: Option (3)

9) T-mg cosθ =

mg – mg cos θ =

g (1–cosθ) =

10) EA = E∞

11) Explain Question:

Calculate the distance travelled by the smaller sphere before it collides with the larger sphere
under mutual gravitational attraction.
Concept:
Center of mass remains stationary in the absence of external force.

Solution:
Initial separation between surface = 10 R – (R + 2R) = 7 R
Since no external force acts, the displacement of center of mass is zero
m x1 = 6 m x2 ⇒ x2 = x1 / 6 ...(1)
x1 + x2 = 7 R ...(2)
⇒ x1 + x 1 / 6 = 7 R
⇒ 7x1 / 6 = 7 R
⇒ x1 = 6R

Final Answer: Option (1)

12)

or

or R = mm =

13) Answer :- Option (2.)

Problem Explanation :-
Given ⇒ An ideal gas is compressed from same initial volume V1 to same final volume
V2 (here V2 < V1) by three different thermodynamic processes given in the options, i.e.
Isothermal Process, Adiabatic Process & Isobaric Process

To determine ⇒ Which of these processes will result in maximum final pressure ?

Solution :-
Concept ⇒
(1.) State equation of Isothermal Process.
(2.) State equation of Adiabatic Process.
(3.) State equation of Isobaric Process.

Formula ⇒
1.
2.
3.
Calculation ⇒
(1.) For Isothermal Process
PV = Constant
P1V1 = P2V2
(2.) For Adiabatic Process

(3.) For Isobaric Process

Since, V1 > V2 and γ > 1

Therefore,
So, the correct answer is :
Option (2.) Adiabatic Compression
Conclusion :- Answer given in Q.B. is correct.
Time Estimate :- 35 seconds
Question Level :- Easy

14) Question Explanation: To find the effective thermal conductivity (Keff) of a system of
three identical rods joined end- to-end.
Given Data:
Three identical rods (same length L and area A).
Thermal conductivity of C = K.
Thermal conductivity of B = 3K (thrice of C).
Thermal conductivity of A = 6K (since B is half of A).

Concept:
Thermal Conductors in Series.

Solution:

Formula:
Calculation: Total length = 3L.
 Final Answer: Option (4)

15) ⇒ P = σAT4

⇒ P = σ(2πr2)

Qa : Qb : Qc =

=
= (0.049) : (0.062) : (0.057)

16) Heat gain by Ice = Heat loss by water

mi Si ΔQi = mw Sw ΔQw

= 10 × 1 × 10
Final condition ⇒ 0°C Ice of 10g
+
0°C water of 10g

17)

Question Explanation : Three P–V curves (1, 2, 3) represent adiabatic compression of three
different gases between the same volumes V2→V1​. We must identify which gas corresponds to
each curve.

Concept : Adiabatic process:

Solution : For adiabatic process PVγ = constant

Greater γ ⇒ steeper adiabatic curve.

Slope (m) : m3 > m2 > m1 ⇒ γ3 > γ2 > γ1

γ3 → Monoatomic [Maximum]
γ2 → Diatomic
γ1 → Polyatomic

Final Answer : Option (2)

 18)

Maximum velocity = aw =

Given that = a2 =

19)

Question Explanation : For the two waves shown in figure, for a given medium, we need to

find the intensity ratio

Concept : Progressive wave on string on string (Power and Intensity)

Solution
Intensity and Amplitude Relationship:
I ∝ A2 (ω)2
(Intensity is proportional to the square of amplitude).

Given that A1 = 4 A2 and ω2 = 5 ω1

then Intensity Ratio :

Final Answer : Option (3)

20) Correct option

21) correct answer

22)

As

and q1 + q2 = (60 × 2)
⇒ q1 + q1 = 120 ⇒ 2q1 = 120
⇒ q1 = 60 μC
And, q2 = 60 μC.

23) Capacitance of capacitor with air between plate,

All capacitor are in parallel combination.
∴ Ceq = C1 + C2

24)
Switch connected to position 'P'
VA – 1 × i1 – 1 + 2 – 2i1 = VA
3i1 = 1

VA – 1 × i1 – 1 = VB

VA – VB = 1 + i1 = volt

Potential drop across capacitor volt

∴ Charge on capacitor q1 = CΔV

Switch connected to position 'Q'

VA – 1 × i2 + 2 – 2i2 = VA
3i2 = 2

VA – i2 × 1 = VB

VA – VB = i2 × 1 = volt

Potential different across capacitor volt

∴ Charge on capacitor q1 = CDV
25)

26) For complex circular motion

Since it is deflection by 60°

27) i1 = 1A
For i2
Req = 8Ω

28) Case of Resonant condition.

29)

Explain Question:
To find how much momentum is transferred each second to a small mirror EM wave.

Concept:
Radiation pressure and momentum transferred.

Solution:

- m/s2

Final answer: option (4)

30) ∴ C = ⇒ Em = CBm
Em = 3 × 108 × 2 × 10–7
= 60 v/m
& because propagation is along direction so E must be in y direction. :-

31)

Question Explanation: Derive the approximate size of the image for a short linear object on
the principal axis.

Concept: Longitudinal magnification

Solution:

Longitudinal magnification

Size of image

Final answer : Option (4)

32) Image due to plane mirror will form at a distance of 20 cm left of the mirror. Since image
formed by two mirrors lie adjacent to each other. For convex mirror, image position is 15cm
towards left.
u = – 25 cm
v = + 15 cm

using

R = 75 cm.

33)
sin 60° = sinr r = 45°
S = h = 1m
y = H tan 60° = 3m
∴ x = S + y = 4m

34) 1.8 × 1019

35) 1 : 2

36) Q = (Δm)C2 = [ 3 × 4.00254 – 12.00004] × 931

= 7.058 Mev
Rate at which helium burns

× 3 × 4 × 1.67 × 10–27
= 8 × 1013 kg

37) When it jumps from n = 4 to 3 & 3 to 1

⇒ ΔE is 2eV & 9eV respectively
When it jumps from n = 4 to 2 & 2 to 1
⇒ ΔE is 6eV & 5eV respectively
Hence 4eV is not there

38)

for output 1, should be 1

=1
output of NOR gate is 1 only when A and B both are 0.

39)

D1 → FB → S/C
D2 → RB → O/C
D3 → FB → S/C

∴I= [∵ all current will pass through D3 due to R = O in that wire].

40) Question Explanation : In this question, as shown in figure ,we have to find zero error of
vernier scale.
Concept : This question is based on zero error in vernier callipers.
Solution : In the diagram, zero of the vernier scale lies to the right of zero of main scale. So it
has positive zero error.
Positive zero error = No. of divisions of vernier scale coinciding with main scale × L.C
∴ L.C. = 0.01 cm
3rd division of vernier scale coincide with main scale.
Positive zero error = 3 × 0.01 cm
Zero error = 0.03 cm

Final Answer : Option (3)

41)

Explain Question :
For a cube –

=3%

=2%

=?

Concept :
Error In multiplication, division & exponent .

Formula:

= =

Solution :
=
so,

= +1 +3
= + 1(3%) +3(2%)
= + 3% + 6%
= 9%

Final Answer : option (3)

42) a =

⇒ v–3=

⇒ v= = 2.25 m/s.

43)
 ⇒
So, t = 10 sec
Horizontal distance

= m

44)

When the man is at rest w.r.t. the ground, the rain comes to him at an angle 30° with the
vertical. This is the direction of the velocity of raindrops with respect to the ground.
= velocity of the man with respect to the ground.

and = velocity of the rain with respect to the man,

We have ...(i)
Taking horizontal components equation (i) gives
vrg sin30º = vmg = 10 km/hr

or vrg = = 20 km/hr

45)

M = total mass

Mass of y length = y=m

T – F1 = ma

T = F1 +

T = F1 + F2

CHEMISTRY
 46)

47)

48) PCl5-sp3d hence

49) BPt order H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S

50)

51)

52) Cl2O6(s) → ClO2+ + ClO4–

53) VCl4 , V+4 3d1 n = 1 hence µ = 1.7 BM

54) Mg3N2 + 6HOH —→ 3Mg (OH)2 + 2NH3

55)

Size ∝
size C > O

B.L. C2 > O2
56) NCERT XII PART I PAGE NO 45

57) Br– does not interfere with the chromyl chloride test, because Br– converted into Br2 and
liberated which leaves NaOH solution colourless.

58) Question Explanation: Influence of ligand electron-donating ability on C–O bond order.
Concept: Synergic Effect and Ligand Basicity
Solution: Stronger electron-donating ligands increase electron density on the metal,
enhancing back-bonding to CO. Increased back-bonding populates CO antibonding orbitals,
decreasing the C–O bond order. PCl3 is a π-acceptor (weak donor), while PMe3 is a strong
sigma-donor.
Electron density on Metal:

Back-donation to CO: Lowest in

Highest in

C–O Bond Order:

Final Answer: Option (4)

59) Up on hydrolysis, Be2C & Al4C3 produce CH4 gas.

60) Question Explanation: Identification of coordinating atoms in a hexadentate ligand.

Concept: Denticity of Ligands
Solution:

Ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA4–) is a hexadentate ligand. It binds to a central metal ion

through six donor atoms: two nitrogen atoms from the amino groups and four oxygen atoms
from the carboxylate groups.
2 Nitrogen atoms + 4 Oxygen atoms = 6 donor sites.

Final Answer: Two N atoms and four O atoms

61)
 Explain Question: The question asks to identify which of the given compound is chiral
(optically active).

Concept: Chirality of molecule.

Solution:

Given compounds POS COS Chirality of molecule

1 CH2 = C = CH2 ✔ ✖ Achiral molecule

2 CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3 ✖ ✖ Chiral molecule

3 ✔ ✔ Achiral molecule

4 ✔ ✖ Achiral molecule

Final Answer: Option (2)

62) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about the D-configuration.

Concept:
This question is based on D/L Nomenclature is fischer projection.

Solution:
D/L Nomenclature is applicable on correct fischer projection. In D/L Nomenclature C1 carbon
present on top of vertical line and Clast carbon present in bottom of vertical line.
In other than H-atom any group present on right hand side then Nomenclature is "D"
otherwise "L".

(1) "L".

(2) "D".

(3) "L".
(4) "L".

Final Answer: Option (2).

63) By NaNO2 + HCl at 0°–5°C introduce .

64)

65)

Question Explanation:
This question asks which monosaccharides are obtained when the disaccharide (+) lactose
undergoes hydrolysis.

Concept:
This question is based on carbohydrates, hydrolysis of disaccharides.

Solution:
Lactose is a disaccharide made of β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose linked through a β-1,4-
glycosidic bond.
Upon hydrolysis, this bond breaks to produce an equimolar mixture of galactose and glucose.
Both of these monosaccharides are dextrorotatory (+).

The hydrolysis reaction is:

C12H22O11 + H2O —→ C6H12O6 (Galactose) + C6H12O6 (Glucose)

Final Answer: Option (1)

66)

67)
 िफनाॅ ल H2CO3 से कम अलीय है इसिलये NaHCO3 से अिभिया नहीं करे गा।

68) C2H5OH + PCl5 → + POCl3 + HCl

C2H5Cl + AgNO2 → \(\mathop {{{\text {C}}_{\text {2}}}{{\text {H}}_{\text {5}}}{\text
{N}}{{\text {O}}_2}}\limits_{(B)}\)+ AgCl.

69)

70)

71) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72) Ans.-(2)

73)

Question Explanation: Identify major product C and D .

Concept: This question based on reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 and anti-elimination reaction.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

74) This is free radical addition reaction and major product according to radical stability.
75)
(electrophilic substitution reaction) (electrophile attack on ring with high e– density)

76)

77) and Functional isomers Alcohol Ether

78)

Ps = 750 mm Hg
P° = 760 mm Hg(B.P of H2O)

m=

79)

Radial node = n – ℓ –1 6f
=6–3–1 n=6

=2 ℓ=3

80)

81)

Question Explanation : The Question asks which electrolyte solution is used inside a salt
 bridge of a galvanic cell.

Concept: Salt Bridge of a Galvanic cell.

Solution: A salt bridge consists of a saturated solution of an inert electrolyte such as , ,

or with agar - agar.

Final answer : Option (4)

82)

∵ α is negligible w.r.t. 1
Ka =

∴ C2 = C1 = 0.2 ×
C1V1 = C2V2
⇒ 300 × 0.2 = 0.05 × V2
⇒ V2 = 1200 mL
Volume of H2O added = 1200 – 300
= 900 mL

83) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

Moles before diss. C 0 0
Moles after diss. C(1–a) Ca Ca

∴ Kc =

Given C= , a = 0.4 (∵ conc. of PCl5 =

∴ Kc =

84)

Given,

K1 = ........(1)

K2 = ........(2)

K3 = ........(3)
For oxidation of NH3 by oxygen

2NH3 +

K= ........(4)
 ∴ K=

85) ∵ According Bohr ; mvr =

or v =
No. of revolution per seond

∴ Time taken for one revolution =

86)

Ecell = 0 –
Ecell = 0.177V

87) Δx × ΔP =

∴ 2(ΔP)2 =

and

88) 3A + 2B → C +
2 mol 12 mol
(L.R)

∵3 moles of A produces D = mol

∴12 moles of A will produce D = = 2mol.

given amount of D = 60 g = 2 mol
∴ Atomic mass of D = 30

89) H2O ⇒ = 0.55 NA atoms

 V2O5 ⇒ 0.1 × NA × 5 = 0.5 NA atoms

O3 ⇒ × 3 = 0.75 NA atoms

CO2 ⇒ × NA × 2 = 0.4 NA atoms

90) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI, Page # 19,30,33,43

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 21, 27, 35, 37

93) Question explanation:

To check correctness of statements about Gymnosperms.
Concept:
Gymnosperms
Solution:
(A) Correct – Gymnosperms have a dominant sporophyte stage and are heterosporous.
(B) Correct – In some gymnosperms like Cycas, roots show symbiotic association with blue-
green algae (cyanobacteria).
(C) Correct – The female gametophyte is multicellular and generally bears two or more
archegonia.
(D) Correct – Gymnosperms may be monoecious (same plant bears both cones) or dioecious
(separate male and female plants).
Since all statements are correct, the correct option includes all.
Final Answer:
Option (4)

94)

Explain Question: The question asks to find the correct statements.

Concept: Plant Kingdom (Complete)

Solution: The Correct statements are:

(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.

(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.

(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on
the sporophyte.
 So, the correct answer is: 2. (A), (D) and (E)

Final answer: Option 2

95)

Question explanation: The question asks which statements about Pinus and plant life cycles
are correct.

Concept: Gymnosperms

Solution:
(A) True – Seed plants (including Pinus) show diplontic life cycle.
(B) True – Pinus is monoecious, bearing both male and female cones on same tree.
(C) False – Male gametes in Pinus are non-motile (not biflagellated).
(D) True – Pollination in Pinus occurs by wind (anemophily).

Final answer: A, B and D (Option 1)

96) Solution : A - Abaxial epidermis, B - Xylem; C - Palisade tissue; D - Phloem.

Final Answer : (2)

97)

NCERT-XI Page No. 93

98)

Both statement-I and II are correct.

NCERT Pg155 12.1
Do Plant Breathe & 12.2 Glycolysis

99)

Explain Question: The question is asking to check whether the two statements about
aestivation (arrangement of sepals/petals) are correct.

Concept: Aestivation (arrangement of sepals/petals)

Solution:

Statement I: In valvate aestivation, sepals or petals just touch each other at the margins without
overlapping (e.g., Calotropis).
→ True

Statement II: In imbricate aestivation, margins overlap irregularly without any fixed order (e.g.,
Cassia, Gulmohur).
→ True
Both statements correctly describe their respective types of aestivation.

Final answer: Option 4

100)

Option (3) is correct

101) NCERT Pg. # 129 & 132

102) NCERT XI Pg# 135

103)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement regarding meiosis.

Concept: Meiosis and recombination.

Solution: Recombination (crossing over) occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous

chromosomes, not sister chromatids. This process allows for genetic variation. The statement
is therefore incorrect as it claims recombination happens between sister chromatids.

Final Answer: Meiosis involves pairing of Homologous chromosomes and recombination

between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

104)

Explaining the Question : To identify are the reasons why tropical areas exhibit the greatest
biodiversity.

Concept : Patterns of biodiversity latitudinal gradients.

Solution : Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because tropical latitudes have
remained relatively undid turbid for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time
for species diversification Less seasonal variation More sadar energy available in tropics.

Final answer : The correct ans. is (4)

105) NCERT XII Pg.# 260

106)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

107) Solution:
The correct answer is Option 2: Ernst Mayr.
Explanation:
Ernst Mayr, a prominent biologist, was awarded the Balzan Prize in 1983,
the International Prize for Biology in 1994, and the Crafoord Prize in 1999. These three
prestigious awards are often referred to as the "triple crown" of biology. Mayr is renowned for
his contributions to evolutionary biology, particularly his work on the concept of species and
the theory of evolution.
So, the correct answer is Ernst Mayr.

109)

Option (4) is correct

111)

Correct option is 4

112)

NCERT Pg # 232

113) NCERT XI Eng Page No. 233, [Fig. 14.4], [िहदी पे ज]-233 [िच-14.4]
[In the figure 14.4 when one NADH + H+ donates its two electrons, half oxygen molecule
[½O2] is required to accept these electrons, so to accept electrons of ten molecules of NADH +
H+, five oxygen molecules are required.]
[िच 14.4 म जब एक NADH + H+ अपने दो इले ट ाॅस दान करता ह तो इन इले ट ाॅस को ग हण करने के िलए
+
आधे ऑसीजन अणु [½O2] की आवयकता होती ह अतः NADH + H के दस अणु ओं के इले ट ाॅस को ग हण
करने के िलए पाँच ऑसीजन अणु ओं की आवयकता होती ह ।]

114)

Explain Question : The question asks about the ATP loss/gain when pyruvic acid is converted
to lactic acid under anaerobic conditions (lactic acid fermentation)

Concept : Anaerobic respiration (Lactic acid fermentation)

Explanation : In lactic acid fermentation:

A. Pyruvic acid → Lactic acid

B. No ATP is produced or consumed in this step.

C. NADH is oxidised to NAD⁺ (important for continuation of glycolysis).

A. However, under aerobic conditions, 2 pyruvic acids would normally enter:

A. Link reaction + Krebs’ cycle + ETS

 B. This would yield 6 ATP from complete oxidation of 2 pyruvate.

By converting pyruvate to lactic acid instead of aerobic respiration, the cell loses the
opportunity to gain 6 ATP.

Final answer : Option 3 — 6 ATP is lost

115) NCERT Pg.# 233

116)

NCERT-XIth Pg # 216, 220

117) I-Cousins, II-Miller and Skoog, I II-Kurosawa

118) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase

119) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the correct aestivation patterns for the petals of two specific
plants : lady finger (Abelmoschus esculentus) and Calotropis.

Concept :
This question is based on aestivation.

Solution :
Lady Finger (Okra) :
Lady finger exhibits twisted aestivation in its petals, where one margin of each petal overlaps
the adjacent petal in a regular manner, giving a twisted appearance. This corresponds to
diagram (B).
Calotropis :
Calotropis :
Calotropis plants show valvate aestivation, where the margins of the petals just touch each
other without overlapping. This corresponds to diagram (A).

Final Answer :
Option (2)

120)

Explain Question: The question is asking whether both statements about cleistogamous
flowers are correct.

Concept: Pollination : Cleistogamous flowers.

Solution:
 Statement A: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous because they remain closed,
preventing cross-pollination. This ensures self-pollination.
Statement B: Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
pollinators, as self-pollination occurs within the closed flower. Thus, both statements are true.

Final answer: Option (3)

121) Module-04 Pg # 141

122)

Solution:
(A) Incorrect – Mendel performed his experiments between 1856-1863, not 1956-1963.

(B) Incorrect – Mendel considered 7 characters (traits), each with 2 contrasting forms (14 traits in
total), not "7 traits of 14 characters."

(C) Correct – Mendel's work provided the basic framework for inheritance, later expanded by
other scientists.

(D) Incorrect – A true-breeding line undergoes continuous self-pollination, not cross-

pollination.

(E) Correct – Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, each pair differing in only one
character with contrasting traits.

Correct option: (4)

123)

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about Which of the following statements is/are correct

Solution:
(A) Incorrect – Turner’s syndrome is caused by 44 + X0, not 44 + XXY (which is Klinefelter’s
syndrome).
(B) Incorrect – Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused by 44 + XXY, not 44 + X0 (which is Turner’s
syndrome).
(C) Incorrect – Rudimentary ovaries are found in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (44 +
X0), not Klinefelter’s syndrome.
(D) Incorrect – Turner’s and Klinefelter’s syndromes affect both sex chromosomes and somatic
characters (e.g., short stature in Turner’s syndrome, long limbs in Klinefelter’s syndrome).
(E) Correct – Gynaecomastia (enlarged breasts) is a symptom of Klinefelter’s syndrome (44 +
XXY).

Final Answer :
Option (4)

124) NCERT Pg. # 111

125) NCERT Pg. # 88

126) NCERT(XII) Pg. # 105

127) ABO blood group is an example of co-dominance

128)

Explanation Question: The question is asking to determine the correctness of both

statements
Concept: This question is based on Archaebacteria
Solution:
The assertion is correct because archaebacteria are found in extreme habitats, and the reason
is correct because their unique cell wall structures contribute to their ability to survive in
these harsh conditions.

Final Answer:Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

129) Question Explanation : RNA splicing and its significance

Concept: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Solution:
The non-coding intervening sequences in eukaryotic genes are Introns (A), which reflect an
ancient gene structure. The removal of these non-coding sequences is Splicing (B). The self-
catalytic nature of some RNA molecules in this process (ribozymes) supports the RNA world
(C) hypothesis, where RNA was dominant.

Final Answer : Option (3)

130)

Statement-l:
Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for
the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually.
This statement is correct
Statement-II:
In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. This
statement is false. Carnivores often have a more specialized diet (hunting other animals), and
competition can sometimes be less intense because of the availability of specific prey species.
Herbivores, on the other hand, may face more competition due to overlapping diets and
habitat use, especially when food resources are limited.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

131) The assertion is true in the context of Gause’s 'Competitive Exclusion Principle', which
 states that two species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely.
However, the reason is also true as it describes 'resource partitioning', a mechanism that
allows species to co-exist by utilizing different resources or the same resource in different
ways. While 'resource partitioning' is a response to competition, it does not directly explain the
'Competitive Exclusion Principle', but rather provides an exception to it. Therefore, both A and
R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

132) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 235

133)

The correct answer is Option 4: M-Morphological, M-Morphological, C-Chemical.

Explanation:

A. Acacia: Acacia plants have morphological defenses, such as thorns, which discourage
herbivores from feeding on them.
B. Cactus: Cactus plants also employ morphological defenses like spines and a thick waxy
surface that make them less palatable and harder to eat.
C. Calotropis: Calotropis uses chemical defenses, producing toxic compounds like cardiac
glycosides that prevents herbivores.

Thus, the defense measures are M-Morphological for Acacia and Cactus, and C-Chemical for
Calotropis.

134) Only (d) is incorrect

NCERT XII Page No. # 246

135) NCERT Pg. # 207

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

137)

Question Explanation : Incorrect - Statements

Concept : This question is based on Lipids.

Solution :
→ Cellulose form secondary helical Structure.
→ In solutions of different pH, the structure of camion acid changes.
→ These Statements are incorrect.

Final Answer : option (3)

138)

Ncert.
 139) NCERT(XI) Pg#116 Para:7.5.1

140) NCERT Pg. # 46

141)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106

142)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

143)

Asks you to identify the correct order of structures through which urine passes from its
formation in the nephron to its elimination from the body.)
Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

The correct sequence is:

1. DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubule): Urine is formed here after filtration and reabsorption.
2. Collecting duct: Urine flows from the DCT into the collecting duct.
3. Renal papilla: The collecting ducts empty into the renal papillae.
4. Renal calyx: The renal papillae drain into the renal calyces (minor and major).
5. Renal pelvis: The calyces drain into the renal pelvis.
6. Ureter: Urine flows from the renal pelvis into the ureter.
7. Urinary bladder: Urine is stored in the urinary bladder.
8. Urethra: Urine is expelled from the body through the urethra.
Therefore, the correct answer is 4. DCT Collecting duct Renal papilla Renal calyx Renal
Pelvis Ureter Urinary bladder Urethra.

144)

NCERT Pg. No: 214

145) NCERT Pg# 101, 102, para-2

146)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements are true about enzymatic
reactions.

Concept: Enzymes

Solution:

(A) Enzymes change the rate of reaction → Correct

(They speed up reactions)
(B) Enzymes interfere with equilibrium state → Incorrect
(They do not change equilibrium, only speed up attainment)

(C) Enzymes lower the activation energy → Correct

(D) Presence of enzyme is a confirmation of being a living system → Correct

(Enzymes are biological catalysts produced by living systems)

Correct statements = A, C and D

Final answer: Option 4

147)

Explain the Question : The question is asking which statements about haemoglobin and
respiratory physiology are incorrect.
Concept : Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve and CO2 transport.
Solution :
Statement A is correct: Carboxyhaemoglobin is stable.
Statement B is incorrect: Hb has higher affinity for O2 than CO2.
Statement C is correct: Birds have no residual air in lungs due to unidirectional airflow.
Statement D is incorrect: Lowering temperature shifts the oxy-Hb curve to the left, not
forming a hyperbola. Therefore, the incorrect statements are B and D.
Final answer : (3)

148) NCERT XIth Pg.#286 Figure-18.3

149) 0.6 = ⇒ HR = 100 beats/min

CO = SV × HR = 80 × 100 = 8000 ml

150) NCERT Pg. # 304-305

151)

Question Explanation – The question asks for the correct set of bones that make up the
forelimb of the appendicular skeleton.

Concept – Appendicular skeleton – forelimb bones

Solution –

A. The forelimb consists of:

A. Humerus (upper arm)

B. Radius and Ulna (forearm)

 C. Carpals (wrist bones)

D. Metacarpals (palm bones)

E. Phalanges (finger bones)

B. Patella and femur belong to the hindlimb, not the forelimb.

Final Answer – Option 2

152) NCERT Page No 227

153) NCERT E Pg. # 318

154) Explain Question : This question is asking about identifying brain structures (A–F)
based on their functions in the given diagram of the human brain.

Concept : CNS - forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain.

Solution:

A. (i) Major coordinating centre → Thalamus = B

B. (ii) Cerebral aqueduct connects 3rd and 4th ventricles, when get blocked, CSF cannot
drain and accumulate in ventricles & it may lead to enlargement of the head → Cerebral
aqueduct = C

C. (iii) Visual & auditory reflexes → Midbrain = D

D. (iv) Regulatory centres for respiration & cardiovascular reflexes → Medulla oblongata =
E

Final answer : option 2.

155) NCERT XI, Pg. # 332

156) NCERT Page # 331, 333, 334

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 242

158)

Option (4)

159)

Question Explanation :
Identify the group of animals based on given structural features.

Concept : Chondrichthyes

Solution :
Cartilaginous endoskeleton, ventral mouth, placoid scales, persistent notochord, and absence
of air bladder are characteristic features of Chondrichthyes.

Final Answer : Option (1)

160) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 40 to 50

161)

Explain Question : Identify W, X, Y and Z in the menstrual cycle graph.

Concept : This question is based on menstrual cycle
Solution :

Final answer : 3. 3

162)

Question Explanation – The question is asking to correctly match the stages of pregnancy
with developmental events in the fetus.

Concept – Embryonic and fetal development stages.

 Solution –

A. (A) After two months of pregnancy → Development of limbs and digits (iii)

B. (B) During fifth month of pregnancy → Hair on head is observed (iv)

C. (C) At end of 12 weeks of pregnancy → Major organ system formation (i)

D. (D) End of second trimester → Body is covered with fine hairs and eye lashes are formed
(ii)

Final Answer – Option 2

163) Question Explanation – Match IUD types with examples and actions.

Concept – Types of IUDs and their functions

Solution –

A. A: Non-medicated IUDs → c (Lippes loop) → ii (Phagocytosis of sperm)

A. Foreign-body reaction in uterus increases leukocyte activity, leading to sperm
phagocytosis.
B. B: Copper releasing IUDs → a (Multiload 375) → iii (Suppress sperm motility)
A. Copper ions impair sperm motility and viability.
C. C: Hormone releasing IUDs → d (LNG-20) → i (Uterus unsuitable for implantation)
A. Levonorgestrel causes endometrial changes and thickens cervical mucus.
D. D: Weekly oral pill → b (Saheli) → iv (Anti-estrogenic activity)
A. Centchroman has anti-estrogenic effects and is taken weekly.

Correct mapping: A-c-ii, B-a-iii, C-d-i, D-b-iv.

Final Answer – Option 3

164)

Question Explanation : Identify which two statements about assisted reproductive

technologies are correct.

Concept : The question is based on ART techniques

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. (a) ZIFT — Correct; zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into the
fallopian tube.

B. (b) ICSI — Incorrect; sperm is injected into the ovum (egg) in laboratory, not into
 fallopian tube.

C. (c) IUI — Correct; semen is artificially introduced into the uterus of the female.

D. (d) GIFT — Incorrect; it involves transfer of gametes (not zygote) into fallopian tube.

Final answer : Option 3

165) → MTP is safe generally in Ist Trimester.

→ Saheli is non-steroidal weekly pill.
→ ZIFT - in vitro technique.

166) Question Explanation: Determine how many listed pairs represent homologous
structures in plants.

Concept: The question is based on homologous organs

Solution:The correct answer is option 4.

Let’s check each option for plant-based homology:

A. (a) Eyes of octopus and mammal → Not plants; also analogous, not homologous.
B. (b) Potato and sweet potato → One is a stem tuber (potato), the other a root tuber (sweet
potato); analogous, not homologous.
C. (c) Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human → Homologous, but animal-based, not plant.
D. (d) Vertebrate heart → Homologous, but again animal-based.
E. (e) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita → Both are modified stems;
homologous plant structures.
F. (f) Potato and carrot → Stem tuber vs. root; analogous, not homologous.
G. (g) Potato and radish → Stem vs. root; again analogous.

Only (e) is a homologous structure in plants.

Final answer:Option 4.

167) Question Explanation :

Which group correctly represents Australian marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.

Concept :
This question is based on Convergent evolution.

Solution :
Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger are true Australian marsupials that diversified to
occupy different ecological niches, demonstrating adaptive radiation.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger.
 168) NCERT Pg. No. # 121
Drastic reduction in population size causes random genetic changes.

169)

Question Explanation: Choose which row correctly identifies A, B, C, D in the life cycle in
the malaria.

Concept: Malaria

Solution: In the malaria (Plasmodium) life cycle sporozoites enter the host and go to the liver;
later stages (gametocytes) are formed in the host blood and sporozoites are produced in the
mosquito salivary gland. So ,

A — Sporozoites

B — Liver

C — Salivary gland

D — Gametocyte

Final answer: Option 3

170) Question Explanation: The question asks to correctly match barriers of the immune
system with their examples.

Concept: The question is based on innate immunity barriers.

Solution:

A. (a) Cellular barrier → Neutrophils (cells involved in defense).

B. (b) Cytokine barrier → Interferons (proteins secreted to inhibit viral replication).
C. (c) Physical barrier → Mucus (blocks pathogen entry).
D. (d) Physiological barrier → HCl in gastric juice (destroys microbes).

Correct Matching: (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

Final Answer: Option 4

171) NCERT, Pg # 153, 154

D and E incorrect

172)

Correct option is 2.

173) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Transformation involves the uptake of foreign DNA by bacterial cells, which often
 requires making cells competent through artificial methods like calcium chloride treatment or
electroporation (Statement I is correct). However, Statement II is incorrect because
competence is not a natural state in all bacteria (e.g., E. coli requires artificial induction),
though some bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae are naturally competent.
Final Answer : (2)

174)

Solution:
The transformed cells will grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline. This is because the
foreign DNA fragment is attached to Cla I site, which is present in the region of tetR gene.
Thus, is cause disintegration of tetR gene.
Final Answer : (4)

175) Explanation :
How many of the given statements regarding biotechnology techniques are correct.

Concept :
The concept based on Tools of recombinant DNA technology.

Solution :
Statement (A) is incorrect because source of restriction enzyme hind III is Haemophilus
influenza not [Link].
Statement (B), (C) and (D) are correct.

Final Answer : (2)

176)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct statements about RNA interference (RNAi).
Concept: Biotechnology

Solution: The correct answer is option 2 (a, b and c).

A. Statement (a) is correct because RNAi is used to develop nematode-resistant tobacco plants.
B. Statement (b) is correct as RNA interference occurs in eukaryotic organisms.
C. Statement (c) is correct because RNAi acts as a cellular defense mechanism.
D. Statement (d) is incorrect because RNAi silences gene expression by degrading specific mRNA
after it is formed, not by preventing its formation from the gene.

Final answer: Option 2

177)

Explain Question – The question asks which statements about genetically modified
organisms (GMOs) are correct.

Concept – Based on biotechnology.

Solution –

(A) Correct – GMOs can enhance mineral usage efficiency.

(B) Incorrect – Bt gene comes from Bacillus thuringiensis, not Agrobacterium.

(C) Correct – Transgenic animals are used to study gene regulation.

(D) Correct – Transgenic mice are used for vaccine safety testing.

Final Answer – Option 3

178) NCERT Page No.48, 45