18-06-2026

1001CMD303052250126 MD

PHYSICS

1) Calculate the current in wire BD.

(1) 0
(2) 1 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 5 A

2) A transformer is used to light 140 watt 24 volt lamp from 240 volt AC mains; the current in the
main cable is 0.7 amp. The efficiency of the transformer is :-

(1) 63.8 %
(2) 87%
(3) 83.3%
(4) 48%

3) A charged particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' moving under the influence of uniform electric field
and a uniform magnetic field follows a trajectory from point P to Q as shown in figure. The
velocities at P and Q are respectively, and . Then which of the following statements (a, b, c,
d) are the correct?

(Trajectory shown is schematic and not to scale) : (a)

(b) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is

(c) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero
(d) The difference between the magnitude of angular momentum of the particle at P and Q is 2 mav.

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)

4) The sum of the numbers 276.51, 321.3 and 0.524 in appropriate significant figures is :

(1) 598.334
(2) 598.3
(3) 598.33
(4) 598

5) In an LR-circuit, the inductive reactance is equal to the resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f E = E
cos (ωt) is applied to the circuit. The power consumed in the circuit is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If the atomic masses for the parent and daughter element in a radioactive decay are Mp and Md
and the mass of the electron me, the Q-value for radioactive β+ decay is given by :- (c = speed of
light)

2
(1) Q = Mp C
2
(2) Q = (Mp – Md – me) C
2
(3) Q = (Mp – Md) C
2
(4) Q = (Mp – Md – 2me) C

7) Assertion :- In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown metallic resistance is
measured. Now, the unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher
temperature. The null point can be obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of
the standard resistance.
Reason :- Resistance of a metal decreases with increase in temperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Which of the following statement [s] is/[are] correct -

(a) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum of the rest masses of its separated
nucleons
(b) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the sum of the rest masses of its separated
nucleons
(c) In nuclear fusion, energy is released by fusing two nuclei of medium mass [approximately 100
a.m.u]
(d) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation of a very heavy nucleus

(1) a, d
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

9) Energy required to shift a satellite of mass m from orbit of radius r to another orbit of radius is
?
(mass of earth = M )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) In an experiment on photo electric effect, the wavelength of the incident radiation is λ. The

wavelength of the incident radiation is reduced to of initial value, the maximum KE of

photoelectron is observed to be n times the previous value. The threshold wavelength for the metal
plate is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct :-

(A) A proton enters a uniform, transverse magnetic field. The time taken by the particle to complete
one revolution is independent of its speed.
(B) A proton and an electron enters a uniform transverse magnetic field with same speed V. Time
taken by both particle to complete one revolution will be same
(C) An electron enters a uniform transverse magnetic field. Its angular speed is independent of its
speed.

(1) A, B
(2) Only A
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, C

12) When 2g of gas A is introduced into an evacuated flask kept at 25°C the pressure is found to be
1 atm. If 3 g of another gas B of same temperature is then added to the same flask the total pressure
becomes 1.5 atm. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is 1 : n. Find n.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

13)
Which of the following circuits has the same output as that of the given circuit?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Consider the situation in figure. The width of each plate is b. The capacitor plates are rigidly
clamped in the laboratory and connected to a battery of emf V. All surface are frictionless. The value

of M for which the dielectric slab will stay in equilibrium is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A motor car is travelling at 60 m/s on a circular road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its speed
at the rate of 4 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is :-

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 9 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

16) A metre stick swinging in vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its one
end, undergoes small oscillation of frequency Hz. If the bottom half of the stick were cut off,

then its new frequency (in Hz) for small oscillations would become.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

17) A cell supplies a current i1 through a resistance R1 and a current i2 through a resistance R2. The
internal resistance of this cell is :

(1) R2 – R1

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure (µ = 0.2) so that
it just touches the spring. The block is allowed to move downwards. The spring will be compressed

to a maximum of

(1) 0.1 cm
(2) 6.6 m
(3) 1 cm
(4) 13 cm

19) A rocket of mass 20000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5 m/s2. Calculate the
initial thrust (force) of the blast. (use g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 3 × 105 N
(2) 2 × 104 N
(3) 1 × 105 N
(4) 3 × 108 N

20) Statement-1 : Areal velocity of earth about centre of sun remains constant (areal velocity is
defined as area swept per unit time by line joining the centre of earth and centre of sun).
Statement-2 : Torque on earth due to gravitational force of sun about centre of sun remains
constant.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

21) The critical angle for light going from medium x into medium y is θ. The speed of light in
medium x is v. The speed of light in medium y is :-

(1) v(1 – cosθ)

(2) v/sinθ
(3) v/cosθ
(4) v cosθ

22) A glass flask of volume one litre at 0ºC is filled, level full of mercury at this temperature. The
flask and mercury are now heated to 100ºC. How much mercury will spill out if coefficient of volume
expansion of mercury is 1.82 × 10–4/ºC and linear expansion of glass is 0.1 × 10–4/ºC respectively ?

(1) 21.2 cc
(2) 15.2 cc
(3) 1.52 cc
(4) 2.12 cc

23) The time period of a particle undergoing S.H.M. is 16 sec. It starts motion from the mean

position. After 2 second its velocity is m/s. The amplitude (in m) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 > i2 . When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 20µ T. If the direction of i1 is
reversed, the field becomes 30µT. The ratio i1/i2 is :–

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 1

25) A cubical block of side 'a' and density 'ρ' slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity
'v'. There is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness 't' between the plane and the block. Then the
coefficient of viscosity of the thin film will be : (Acceleration due to gravity is g)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

26) Three identical thin rods, each of mass m and length ℓ, are joined to form an equilateral
triangular frame. The moment of inertia of the frame about an axis parallel to its one side and
passing through the opposite vertex is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The breakdown in a reverse biased p–n junction diode is more likely to occur due to :
(a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small
(b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large
(c) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is small
(d) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is large.

(1) a, d
(2) c only
(3) b only
(4) b, c

28) Two concentric shells have radii R and 2R, charges qA and qB and potentials 2V and (3/2)V
respectively. Now shell B is earthed and let charges on them become q′A and q′B. Then incorrect
statement is :

(1)

(2)

(3) Potential of A after earthing becomes (3/2)V

(4) Potential difference between A and B after earthing becomes (V/2)

29) The area of the hole of heat furnace is 0.5 × 10–4 m2. It radiates 56.7 joule of heat per second. If
the emissivity of the furnace is 0.5, then its temperature is : (approx) (Given: 401/4 = 2.5)

(1) 1500 K
(2) 250 K
(3) 2500 K
(4) 25000 K

30) The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope are 2.0 and 3.0 cm
respectively. The distance between objective & eye piece is 15.0 cm. The two lenses are thin. The
distance in cm of the object and the image produced by the objective measured from the objective
lens are respectively (The final image formed by the eyepiece is at ∞a) :-

(1) 2.4 & 12.0

(2) 2.4 & 15.0
(3) 2.3 & 12.0
(4) 12.3 & 3.0

31) Three charges 1µC, 2µC, 3µC are kept at vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1m. If they
are brought nearer, so that they now form an equilateral triangle of side 0.5 m, then the work done
is :-

(1) 11 J
(2) 1.1 J
(3) 0.1 J
(4) 0.11 J

32) In the following figure the bar is uniform and weighing 500 N. How large must W be if T1 and T2
are to be equal ?

(1) 500N
(2) 300N
(3) 750N
(4) 1500N

33) An ideal gas undergoes a process as per given diagram. Find work done in process.

(1) 6 P0V0
(2) 4 P0V0
(3) 2 P0V0
(4) 3 P0V0

34) A boy wants to throw a ball from a point A so as to just reach point B as shown. The horizontal

velocity with which the boy should throw the ball is [g = 10 ms–2]

(1) 2.4 ms–1

(2) 23.8 ms–1
(3) 238 ms–1
(4) 47.4 ms–1

35) Which of the following figure correctly depicts the Lenz's law. The arrows show the movement of
the labelled pole of a bar magnet into a closed circular loop along its geometrical axis and arrows on
the circle show the direction of the induced current :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In Young's double slit experiment, the 8th maximum with wavelength λ1 is at a distance d1 from
the central maximum and the 6th maximum with a wavelength λ2 is at a distance d2 from the centre.
Then (d1/d2) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Find dimensions of an unknown quantity (ϕ) :-

, . Where m = mass,
a = acceleration and ℓ = length are :-

(1) [MLT2]
(2) [MT–2]
0 0
(3) [M LT ]
(4) [MT–3]

38) A particle moves in straight line. Acceleration of particle changes with velocity as shown in
graph. Then - (a) Speed of particle increases
(b) Speed of particle decreases
(c) Acceleration of particle increases
(d) Acceleration of particle decreases.
Which of the above are correct ?

(1) a and c
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) b and d

39) Two billiards balls undergo a head on collision. Ball-1 is twice as heavy as ball-2. Initially, ball-1
moves with a speed 'v' towards ball-2 which is at rest. Immediately after the collision, ball-1 travels

at a speed of in the same direction. What type of collision has occured ?

(1) Inelastic
(2) Elastic
(3) Complete inelastic
(4) Cannot be determined from the given information

40) Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed.
The ratio of the velocity of sound in the mixture to that in oxygen (at same temperature and
pressure) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The length of a sonometer wire is 1.25 m and density is 8 × 103 kg/m. It can bear a stress of 3.2
× 108 N/m2 without exceeding the elastic limit. The fundamental frequency which can be produced in
the wire, is :-

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 80 Hz
(3) 200 Hz
(4) 250 Hz

42) A spherical object of mass 1 kg & radius 1 m is falling vertically downward inside a viscous
liquid in gravity free space. At a certain instant the velocity of sphere is 2 m/s. If coefficient of

viscosity of liquid is ; then velocity of ball will be 1 m/s after a time –

(1) ℓn 2 s
(2) 3ℓn 2 s
(3) 2ℓn 2 s
(4) 2ℓn 3s

43) Which of the following plots may represent the reactance of a series LC combination

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

44) Two identical slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d apart and illuminated by light of wavelength λ
passing through an ideal source slit S placed on the line through S2 as shown. The distance between
the planes of slits and source slit is D. A screen is held at a distance D from the plane of the slits.
The minimum value of d for which there is a darkness at O (consider d << D).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Two large parallel metallic plates are connected with the terminal of 100 V power supply. These
plates have a fine hole at the centre. An electron having energy 200 eV is so directed that it passes
through the holes. When it comes out it's de-Broglie wavelength is :-

(1) 1.22 Å
(2) 1.75 Å
(3) 2 Å
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following statement are incorrect?

P. Increasing order of wavelength is
Microwaves > Radio waves > IR waves > UV waves
Q. The electric and magnetic field components of EM waves have different wavelength and
frequency.
R. Electromagnetic waves do not require medium to move.
S. Radio waves are used for broadcasting.

(1) P, R
(2) Q,R,S
(3) P, Q
(4) P,Q,R

2) How much charge (in Faraday) is required for the oxidation of 0.5 mole of H2O to O2 and 2 mole
FeO to Fe2O3, respectively ?

(1) 1 F, 2 F
(2) 2 F, 2 F
(3) 1 F, 1 F
(4) 2 F, 3 F

3) Match the following :-

Column-II
Column-I
(colour in
ions (aq)
aqueous medium)

(a) Sc3+ (p) yellow

(b) V3+ (q) Colourless

(c) Fe3+ (r) Blue

 (d) Cu2+ (s) green
(1) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
(2) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(3) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r
(4) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-q

4) Statement-I : Borax dissolves in water to give an alkaline solution.

Statement-II : On heating borax loses water molecules and shrink up.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

5) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : 2-methylbutane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
Statement-II : n-alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding alcohol with KMnO4.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

6) In which of the following blue colour will not be obtained ?

(1) When ammonium hydroxide is dissolved in copper sulphate.

(2) When CuSO4 solution react with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) When ferric chloride react with sodium ferrocyanide.
(4) When dehydrated white copper sulphate is dissolved in water.

7) Determine the moles of CaCl2 (i = 2.5) dissolved in 5 litre solution, such that its osmotic pressure
is 8.21 atm at 27°C.

(1) 0.03
(2) 6.66
(3) 0.66
(4) 3.33

8) Given :
C + 2S → CS2, = +117.0 kJmol–1 ...(1)
C + O2 → CO2, = –393 kJmol–1 ...(2)
S + O2 → SO2, = –297 kJmol–1 ...(3)
The heat of combustion of :-
CS2 + 3O2 → CO2 + 2SO2 is :-

(1) –807 kJmol–1

(2) –1104 kJmol–1
(3) +1104 kJmol–1
(4) +807 kJmol–1

9)

Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Test/reagent) (Radical identified)

A. Lake Test I.

B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe3+

C. Potassium sulphocyanide (thiocyanate) III. Al3+

D. Brown Ring Test IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

10) What is the empirical formula of Vanadium oxide if 2.74 gm of metal oxide contains 1.53 gm of
metal (Given ; [Link]. of V = 51, Oxygen = 16)

(1) V2O3
(2) VO
(3) V2O5
(4) V3O2

11) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

N2(g) + 3H2(g) K increases with

(A) ⇌ 2NH3(g); (P) increase in
ΔH = –ve temperature

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ K decreases with

(B) 2NO(g); (Q) increase in
ΔH = +ve temperature

A(g) + B(g) ⇌
Pressure has no
(C) 2C(g) + D(g); (R)
effect
ΔH = +ve
 Moles of product
PCl5(g) ⇌ increases due to
(D) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g); (S) addition of inert
ΔH = +ve gas at constant
pressure
(1) A → Q; B → P, R; C → S; D → P, Q
(2) A → Q; B → P, R; C → P, S; D → P, S
(3) A → P; B → Q; C → R; D → S
(4) A → Q; B → P, S; C → P, S; D → R

12)

Consider the following table and select incorrect option :

bond
Bond Boiling
Compound dissociation
angle point (°C)
energy(kJ/mole)

H2O a1 b1 c1

H2S a2 b2 c2

H2Se a3 b3 c3

H2Te a4 b4 c4

(1) a1 > a2 > a3 > a4

(2) b1 > b2 > b3 > b4
(3) c1 > c2 > c3 > c4
(4) c2 < c3 < c4 < c1

13) For Y -

Find incorrect statement -

(1) It reduces fehling solution

(2) It reduces tollen's reagent
(3) It can forms cyanohydrin
(4) It does not react with NaHSO3

14) Which of the following is not a property of interstitial compounds.

(1) They retain metallic conductivity.

(2) They are chemically reactive.
(3) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metal.
(4) They are very hard, some borides approach diamond in hardness.

15) Match the column A with B :-

 B
A (Uses)
(Species)

(i) Cryogenic agent (a) Ar

(ii) Fluoroscent bulb (b) Ne

(iii) electric bulb (c) XeF2

(iv) Fluorinating agent (d) He

(1) (i) - (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (c)
(2) (i) - (a); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
(4) (i) - (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b)

16) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

Number of
(a) (p)
chiral center = 1

Number of
(b) (q)
chiral center = 2

Number of
(c) (r)
chiral center = 3

Number of
(d) (s)
chiral center = 4

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s
(2) a → q, b → r, c → p, d → s
(3) a → p, b → s, c → r, d → q
(4) a → p, b → q, c → s, d → r

17) The compound which could not act as both oxidising as well as reducing agent is :-

(1) SO2
(2) MnO2
(3) Al2O3
(4) HNO2

18) Select the correct order of given properties :-

(I) Cr+2 > Fe+2 : Reducing power
(II) Co+3 > Mn+3 : Oxidising power
(III) Cu+2 > Cu+1 : Stability in aq. Soln
(IV) Co+3 > Cr+3 : Magnetic moment

(1) 1 & 2
(2) 3 & 4
(3) 1,2,3 & 4
(4) Only 3rd

19) Which of the following option is INCORRECT :

(1) [RuF6] ; Δ0 > P

3–

(2) [NiF6] ; Δ0 > P

2–

(3) [Co(H2O)6] ; Δ0 > P

3+

(4) [CoF6] ; Δ0 > P

3–

20) The sequence not correct for basic strength of compounds are :-

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N (in Aq. solution)

(2) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 (in aq. solution)

(3)

(4)

21) Rate constant of first order reaction is 0.01 S–1 at 300 K. If temperature coefficient of the
reaction is 2 then calculate half life of the reaction at 350 K.

(1) 4.32 sec

(2) 21.65 sec.
(3) 2.165 sec.
(4) 43.24 sec.

22) The molar conductivity of KCl, HCl and HCOOK at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 Ω–1
cm2 mol–1 respectively. Find molar conductivity of HCOOH at infinite dilution.

(1) 540.45 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1

(2) 201.28 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
(3) 698.28 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
(4) 390.71 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1

23) Calculate the mass of dissolved CO2(g) (less soluble) in 504 ml of water (d = 1gm/ml), when
packed under 3.2 atm CO2(g) pressure at 298 K. For CO2(g) in water, KH is 1.6 × 103 atm at 298 K.

(1) 2.464 gm
(2) 1.232 gm
(3) 3.696 gm
(4) 4.928 gm
24) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) F > Cl > Cl– > F– (Ionisation energy)

+ +2 –
(2) Li > He > Be > H (Zeff)
(3) Li < Na < K (Screening constant)
(4) Tl > In > Al > Ga (Atomic size)

25) The decomposition of N2O5 takes place according to the equation :-

2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Initially the concentration of N2O5 is 2.6 mol L–1 and after 20 minutes, it is reduced to 1.7 mol L–1.
Calculate rate of disappearance of N2O5 and rate of reaction respectively.

2.5 × 10–5 mol L–1 S–1 and

(1)
1.25 × 10–5 mol L–1 S–1
2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1 and
(2)
1.25 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
7.5 × 10–5 mol L–1 S–1 and
(3)
3.75 × 10–5 mol L–1 S–1
7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1 and
(4)
3.75 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

26) Which is not correctly matched.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Vitamin A Night Blindness

(2) Vitamin B6 Convulsions

(3) Vitamin C Scurvy

(4) Vitamin D Muscular weakness

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Chelating ligands among following are :-

(a) dien (b) C2O42– (c) gly
(d) py (e) dipy

(1) a, b, d, e
(2) a, b, c, e
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, c, d, e

28) Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing boiling point :-
(I) Pentan-1-ol (II) n-Butane
(III) Pentanal (IV) Ethoxyethane

(1) I < III < IV < II

(2) II < IV < III < I
(3) IV < II < III < I
(4) II < IV < I < III

29) In acid-base titration experiment, 20 ml of 0.15 M oxalic acid (H2C2O4) is completely neutralised
by 0.2 M NaOH solution. Find volume of NaOH solution used in this titration.

(1) 30 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 45 ml
(4) 20 ml

30) Four organic compounds P, Q, R, S were subjected to following tests -

Test P Q R S
Neutral FeCl3 ✓ ✕ ✕ ✕
Lucas test ✕ ✓ ✕ ✕
Tollen Test ✕ ✕ ✕ ✓
Compound P, Q, R, S respectively are -

(1) t-butyl alcohol, phenol, acetic acid, Acetaldehyde

(2) Acetaldehyde, Acetic acid, t-butyl alcohol, phenol
(3) Acetic acid, phenol, t-butyl alcohol, Acetaldehyde
(4) Phenol, t-butyl alcohol, Acetic acid, Acetaldehyde

31)
What will be ‘D’ in the reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

32) Incorrect match is :-

(1)
Friedal craft reaction

(2) + HCN Gattermann

aldehyde synthesis

(3) + CHCl3 ReimerTiemann

reaction
(4) CH3–Br + AgF → Swart reaction

33) CH3CH2C ≡ N A

CH3–CH2–NC B
Then relationship between A and B is :

(1) Functional group isomers

(2) Chain isomers
(3) Position isomers
(4) Tautomers

34) The product "B" of which of the following reaction is not phenol :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Incorrect about [Ni(NH3)6]+2 complex ion -

(a) sp3d2 hybridisation
(b) d2sp3 hybridisation
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) Paramagnetic
(e) Outer orbital complex
(f) Octahedral

(1) a, d, e, f
(2) b, c
(3) b, c, e
(4) a, b, e

36) Which of the following compound show mutarotation :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) Only a, b, c
(2) Only a, c
(3) Only a, c, d
(4) Only a, d

37) With respect to valence bond theory, the correct statement is

(1) Bond energy order is H2 > F2

(2) Number of lone pair order is
(3) % s character order in lone pair of electron(s) is OCl2 > OF2
(4) Bond angle order is SCl2 > OCl2

38) Match each coordination compound in List-I with an appropriate pair of characteristics from
List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
{en = H2NCH2CH2NH2 ' atomic numbers ; Ti = 22 ; Cr = 24 ; Co = 27 ; Pt = 78}

List-I List-II
 Paramagnetic
and exhibits
(P) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (1)
ionisation
isomerism

Diamagnetic and
(Q) [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 (2) exhibits cis-trans
isomerism

Paramagnetic
and exhibits
(R) [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 (3)
cis-trans
isomerism

Diamagnetic
and exhibits
(S) [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 (4)
ionisation
isomerism
(1) P → 4 , Q → 2 , R → 3 , S → 1
(2) P → 3 , Q → 1 , R → 4 , S → 2
(3) P → 2 , Q → 1 , R → 3 , S → 4
(4) P → 1 , Q → 3 , R → 4 , S → 2

39) Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Temperature of a system cannot be changed without heat exchange.
Statement-II : According to principle of conservation of energy, total energy of an isolated system
is constant.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

40) The oxyacid of phosphorous in which phosphorous has lowest oxidation state?

(1) Phosphinic acid

(2) ortho phosphoric acid
(3) pyro phosphoric acid
(4) metaphosphoric acid

41)
The major product A and B respectively :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.

(A) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8
(B) The conjugate base of is
(C) Kw increases with increase in temperature
(D) When a solution of weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half neutralisation
point

pH = pKa.

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, C, D

43) Given hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell -

H2(g) + → H2O(ℓ) ;

= – 245 kJmol–1 ,
ΔvapH(H2O, ℓ) = 40 kJmol–1

log2 = 0.3 ,
The efficiency of fuel cell is -

(1) 96.08 %
(2) 41.3 %
(3) 61.95%
(4) 82.68%
44) Which of the following is 1-chloro-2, 2-dimethyl propane.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The magnitude of crystal field stabilisation energy in octahedral field depends on
I : the nature of the ligand
II : the charge on the metal ion
III : whether the metal is in the first, second or third row of the transition elements.

(1) I, II, III are correct.

(2) only I, II are correct.
(3) only II, III are correct.
(4) only III are correct.

BIOLOGY

1) What is the function of T-DNA of Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?

(1) It transform normal plant cell into a tumourous cell

(2) It transform normal animal cell into cancerous cells
(3) It is used to deliver gene of interest into human.
(4) Replication of Ti plasmid

2) Nile perch, Water hyacinth and Lantana camara are :-

(1) Predator species

(2) Symbiotic species
(3) Exotic species
(4) Endangered species

3) Read the given statements and select the correct option regarding this.
(i) Ecosystem services provided by nature to human beings are oxygen for respiration, aesthetic
value, etc.
(ii) Direct economic benefits derived from nature by human beings are food, medicines, etc.
(iii) Every species has an intrinsic value, even if it is not of any economic use to us.
With respect to above given codes (i), (ii) and (iii) choose the correct option.

Narrowly Broadly
Ethical
utilitarian utilitarian
 (1) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Assertion (A) : Net primary productivity represents actual biomass available for herbivores and
decomposers.
Reason (R) : NPP is calculated by subtracting respiration losses from gross primary productivity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true.

5) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents
translation of mRNA is known as ______.

(1) Transformation
(2) Translation
(3) RNA interference
(4) RNA induction

6) In which of the following, the genus name, its character and its class are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correctly matched ?

Genus
Character Class
Name

Sexual stage
(1) Alternaria Deuteromycetes
is absent

Endogenous
(2) Aspergillus Ascomycetes
ascospores

Aseptate
(3) Mucor Phycomycetes
mycelium

septate
(4) Albugo and coenocytic Ascomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is known as
(1)
Autogamy.
(2) Entomophily is seen in Zostera
(3) In water lily and water hyacinth pollination take place by insects or wind.
(4) Date palm is a dioecious plant

8) Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the genetic code is

(1) Overlapping
(2) Wobbling
(3) Degenerate
(4) Generate

9) Study the given algae and answer the following questions respectively :-

(a) Name of algae ?

(b) Type of sexual reproduction ?
(c) Name of class ?
(d) Stored food ?

(1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyceae : Starch

(2) Volvox : Oogamous : Phaeophyceae : Starch
(3) Fucus : Oogamous : Phaeophyceae : Laminarin & mannitol
(4) Chara : Oogamous : Rhodophyceae : Glycogen

10) Which peptide hormone is secreted by the atrial wall of the heart to decrease blood pressure?

(1) Atrial natriuretic factor

(2) Vasopressin
(3) Angiotensin
(4) Renin

11) All of the statements are correct, except :-

(1) Pea shows marginal placentation
(2) Argemone shows parietal placentation
(3) China rose shows free central placentation
(4) Sunflower shows basal placentation

12) Statement-I: The initial process of cellular respiration takes place in the cytoplasm in which
glucose molecule is broken down into pyruvic acid and CO2.
Statement-II: The energy, in the NADH + H+ and FADH2 generated in the matrix of the
mitochondria is used to synthesised ATP. This is called substrate level phosphorylation.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

13) Male gametes are flagellated in :

(1) Polysiphonia
(2) Pinus
(3) Fucus
(4) Spirogyra

14)

What are the nature of Darwinian variations-

(1) Small, directionless and random

(2) Large, single step and directional
(3) Small, gradual and directional
(4) Large, gradual and directional

15) With respect to Tilman's outdoor plots experiment, identify the correct statement from the below
statements.

(1) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
(2) Decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Increased diversity contributed to lower productivity.
(4) Plots with less species show less year to year variation in total biomass.

16) A man has red-green colour blindness and his wife has normal vision with no family history of
colour blindness. What is the probability that their daughter will be colour blind ?

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%
17)
Identify given figures and select the correct options about them :

(1) b → Phyllotaxy in Alstonia.

(2) a → Phyllotaxy in china rose.
(3) c → Phyllotaxy in Calotropis.
(4) a and b → Phyllotaxy in mustard and sunflower respectively

18) Tricuspid valve is present between :-

(1) Left Atrium and left ventricle

(2) Right Atrium and right ventricle
(3) Aorta and lungs
(4) Pulmonary Artery and lungs

19) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in :-

(1) Henle's loop

(2) PCT
(3) DCT
(4) Collecting duct

20)

Which is a correct option about mammary gland ?

Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla which is connected to mammary
(1)
duct through which milk is sucked out.
Mammary gland contain glandular tissue and variable amount of fat and the glandular tissue of
(2)
each breast is divided into 30 - 40 mammary lobes.
Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla which is connected to
(3)
lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out
(4) Milk is stored in the cavities of lactiferous duct.

21) Taq polymerase which is used in PCR,

(1) it shows its best efficiency at 72° C temperature.

(2) it is used in annealing step of PCR
(3) it was obtained from Thermus aquaticus thermosensitive bacterium.
(4) it is a RNA polymerase

22) Arrange the following events of sexual reproduction in correct sequence :-

(a) Formation of zygote
(b) Gametogenesis
(c) Embryogenesis
(d) Gamete transfer
(e) Syngamy

(1) (b) (d) (e) (a) (c)

(2) (b) (d) (a) (e) (c)
(3) (b) (d) (c) (e) (a)
(4) (c) (d) (e) (a) (b)

23) A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and red flower was crossed with a plant
homozygous for green seeds and white flowers. The F1 plants had yellow seeds and pink flower, the
F1 plants were selfed to get F2 progeny. Assuring independent assortment of two character which
phenotypic ratio are expected in the F2 generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1: 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

24) Which is not a reason for maximum diversity in tropics?

(1) Availability of more solar energy

(2) Long evolutionary time
(3) Less climatic variation
(4) Greater environmental variations

25) Consider the following statements and select the false statement :-

In primary lymphoid organs immature lymphocytes differentiates in antigen sensitive

(1)
lymphocyte
(2) After maturation lymphocyte migrate to secondary lymphoid organs
(3) Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocyte with the antigen
(4) Maturation of lymphocytes occur in secondary lymphoid organs

26)

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(A) Shed scales as skin cast (i) Platypus

 (B) Air sacs associated with lungs (ii) Lizard

(C) Oviparous mammal (iii) Corvus

A B C

(1) i ii iii

(2) ii i iii

(3) ii iii i

(4) iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Read the following statements :

(A) Law of dominance also explains the proportion of 3:1 obtained at the F2.
(B) Human skin colour is classic example of pleiotropy
(C) Female heterogamety is found in birds.
(D) Thalassemia is an autosome linked recessive blood disease.
How many statements is/are incorrect?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Which of the following drug is a white odourless, bitter, crystalline, compound ?

(1) Cocaine
(2) Heroin
(3) LSD
(4) Marijuana

29) How many of following are related to Hatch and Slack pathway ?
OAA, PEP, Aspartic acid, Decarboxylation in mesophyll cells, carboxylation in bundle sheath cells,
carboxylation in mesophyll cells.

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

30) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-
(1) 1–b–i, 2-a-ii, 3-d-iii, 4-c-iv
(2) 1–b–ii, 2-a-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-i
(3) 1–c–iii, 2-b-ii, 3-d-i, 4-a-iv
(4) 1–d–iv, 2-b-iii, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii

31) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Glucocorticoids i Balance of water & electrolystes

B Mineralocorticoids ii Corbohyotrate metobolism

C Gonadocortieoids iii Secretion of estrogen & androgen

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

32) Which is correctly matched in the given table?

number of
Blood is
Group chambers in Type of circulation
oxygenated by
Heart

(1) Fish 1 single gills

incomplete double
(2) Amphibia 3 Skin/lungs /Gills
circulation
 Complete double
(3) Reptiles 3 Lungs
circulation

Complete double
(4) Birds 2 Lungs
circulation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements.
(A) Male sex chromosome (Y) has fewest genes and most genes are present on chromosome-1
(B) Largest known human gene is dystrophin present on x-chromosome.
(C) In human genome project, the fragments of DNA sequenced using automated DNA sequencers
that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Meischer.
(D) In Eukaryotes, the polycistronic structural genes do not have intervening sequence along with
coding sequences.
(E) Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide chain.

(1) B, C, E
(2) A, B, E
(3) C, D, A
(4) D, E, A

34) During spermatogenesis, second meiotic division is completed in :

(1) Secondary spermatocyte before puberty

(2) Secondary spermatocyte after puberty
(3) Primary spermatocyte before puberty
(4) Primary spermatocyte after puberty

35) Which of the following option give the correct categorisation of examples according to the type
of species interaction (A, B, C) :-

A B C
Mutualism Parasitism Commensalism

1 Barnacle & Whale Loranthus & Mango Yucca plant & Pronuba Moth

2 Leech on Cattle Orchid & Bee Pilot fish & shark

3 Lichen Viscum & Oak Barnacles and Whale

4 Sucker fish & Shark Lichen Ticks on Dog

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
36) Identify the set of correct statements-
A. Leaves are the most important vegetative organs for photosynthesis.
B. In cymose type of inflorescence the flowers are borne in acropetal order.
C. A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in guava and mustard.
D. The ovary is inferior in the flowers of guava and cucumber.
E. The carpels are fused in tomato and mustard.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

37) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes during meiosis is called :

(1) Axoneme
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Bivalent

38) Choose the incorrect information about the parts of Hind brain.

(1) Pons consists of fibre tract that interconnect different region of the brain.
Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space of many more
(2)
neurons.
The medulla contains the centres which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
(3)
secretion.
(4) Pons, cerebrum and medulla are the 3 part of hind brain.

39)

How many animal from given list are Homoithermous, Oviparous and show internal fertilisation.
Macropus, Pteropus, Corvus, Psittacula, Calotes, Hyla, Ornithorhynchus, Pavo, Alligator, Columba,
Crocodilus.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

40) Assertion (A) : One of the problem of hybrids is that hybrids seeds have to be produced every
year.
Reason (R) : Seeds collected from hybrids are sown, genes in progeny plants will segregate and do
not maintain hybrid characters.

(1) A is false but R is true.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

41) Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct option :–

Column-I Column-II

(A) Hydrolytic enzymes (i) Gives the appearance of small fragment

(B) Osmoregulation & excretion (ii) Present in prokaryotic cell

(C) Peripheral triplet (iii) Centriole

(D) Non staining secondary constriction (iv) Centromere

(v) pH 5

(vi) Contractile vacuole

(vii) Basal body

(1) (A)-(v), (B)-(vi), (C)-(iii),(vii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(v),(vi), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i),(iv), (D)-(ii),(vii)
(3) (A)-(ii),(v), (B)-(vi), (C)-(iii),(vii), (D)-(i),(iv)
(4) (A)-(v), (B)-(vi),(vii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i),(iii)

42) Select the odd one out with respect to functions of endomembrane system -

(1) Involved in protein synthesis and secretion

(2) Synthesis of lipids and steroids
(3) Active r-RNA synthesis
(4) Intracellular and intercellular diagestion

43) Observe the given diagram : Select the correct option :

(1) A- Is a sex accessory duct, releases male hormone androgen

(2) B- Bartholin gland, its secretion help in the lubrication of the peins
(3) C- Seminal vesicle, release seminal fluid which is rich in fructose, calcium
(4) D- Testis, secondary sex organ, its secretion constitutes certain enzymes

44) If the number of chromosomes at each pole of anaphase-I are 25, than how many chromosomes
will be present in a gametes of same organism ?

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 100
(4) may be 50 or 100

45) Select incorrect statement ?

(1) Biomacromolecules are polymers.

The elemental composition of living tissues and nonliving matter appears to be similar when
(2)
analysed quantitatively.
(3) Biomacromolecules have a hierarchy of structures-primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary.
(4) Polysaccharides are components of cell wall in plants and fungi.

46) What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?

(1) Body temperature

(2) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Acidic pH of stomach

47) Match the following column I, column II and column III and select the appropriate answer.

Column I Column II Column III

Change in Renin Glomerular

(1) (i) (a)
blood volume release blood flow ↑

Release Osmoreceptor
(2) Fall in GFR (ii) (b)
of ANF activated

Increase in GFR
(3) (iii) (c) Atria of heart
blood flow increase

Blood pressure ADH JG cells

(4) (iv) (d)
increase release activated
(1) (1) - (iv) - (c), (2) - (i) - (d), (3) - (ii) - (b), (4) - (iii) - (a)
(2) (1) - (iv) - (c), (2) - (i) - (b), (3) - (ii) - (d), (4) - (iii) - (a)
(3) (1) - (iv) - (b), (2) - (i) - (d), (3) - (ii) - (c), (4) - (iii) - (a)
(4) (1) - (iv) - (d), (2) - (iii) - (b), (3) - (i) - (a), (4) - (ii) - (a)

48) Select the incorrect statement given below :

The skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with help of two
(1)
occipital condyle.
Vertebral column extends from the base of the skull and constitute the main framework of the
(2)
trunk
(3) Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal midline of thorax.
There are 12 pair of ribs, in which first seven pair of ribs connected dorsally to the vertebral
(4)
column and ventrally to the sternum directly.
49) Match the column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Interferon (a) Physical barrier

(ii) Macrophages (b) Physiological barrier

Saliva in
(iii) (c) Cellular barrier
mouth

(iv) Mucosa (d) Cytokine barrier

(1) i–c, ii–d, iii–a, iv–b
(2) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
(3) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c
(4) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d

50) Which of the following hormones secreted from gonads ?

a. Estrogen b. Progesterone
c. LH d. FSH
e. Testosterone f. Cortisol

(1) a, c & d
(2) c, d & e
(3) a & b only
(4) a, b & e

51) In plants glucose in derived from sucrose which is the end product of photosynthesis or from
storage carbohydrates. Glucose is obtained from sucrose with the help of the enzyme :-

(1) Zymase
(2) Citrate synthase
(3) Invertase
(4) Hexokinase

52) A molecule that can act as genetic material must not have following properties :-

(1) It should be chemically and structurally highly reactive.

(2) It should be able to generate its replica.
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes.
(4) It should be structurally more stable.

53) False for Periplanata americana is/are

(i) Female genital pouch contains male gonopore, spermathecal pores and collateral gland.
(ii) In males, genital pouch or chamber lies at the hind end of abdomen bounded ventrally by 9th and
10th terga and dorsally by the 9th sternum
(iii) Males genital pouch contains ventral anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis.
(iv) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal cerci which are absent in females.
(v) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal style.

(1) Only (i), (iii)

(2) Only (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) Only (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) All

54) Resource partitioning is for :-

(a) Niche differentiation
(b) Reduce competition
(c) Utilisation of similar resources in same habitat
(d) To maintain ecological balance

(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only d
(4) a, b and c

55) Given below are two statements

Statement-I :- Amniocentesis for sex determination is part of the reproductive and child health care
programme.
Statement-II :- Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic disorders in the fetus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

56) Gap between division phase and start of DNA-replication is called :-

(1) G1 - phase
(2) G2 - phase
(3) M - phase
(4) Interkinesis

57) Number of carbons in the first CO2 acceptor and first stable product in C3 cycle respectively are:-

(1) 5-C, 4C
(2) 5-C, 3-C
(3) 4-C, 3-C
(4) 2-C, 3-C

58) The nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is a -

(1) Proteinaceous enzyme

(2) Prosthetic group
(3) Metal activator
(4) Coenzyme

59) Select the correct match with respect to findings of HGP :-

(1) Largest gene → 2400 bp

(2) Minimum genes → Present on Y-chromosome
(3) E.S.T → 1.4 millions locations
(4) Chromosome-1 → largest gene

60) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
(2) The main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
(3) Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
(4) In paddy fields, mycorrhiza serve as an important biofertiliser.

61)

A diagram is given below -

The correct name of A,B and C are :-

A B C

Rough Smooth
(1) Ribosome endoplasmic endoplasmic
reticulum reticulum

Smooth Rough
(2) Ribosome endoplasmic endoplasmic
reticulum reticulum

Smooth Rough
(3) endoplasmic endoplasmic Ribosome
reticulum reticulum

Rough Smooth
(4) endoplasmic endoplasmic Ribosome
reticulum reticulum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) When a desired DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, β-galactosidase:-
I. This result into inactivation of the Lac z gene
II. This is called insertional inactivation
III. In the presence of insertion, the colonies produce white colour

(1) I only
(2) I and II
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III

63) In dorsiventral leaves, the location of xylem and spongy tissue are towards :-

(1) Abaxial epidermis

(2) Adaxial Epidermis
(3) Adaxial and abaxial side respectively
(4) Abaxial and adaxial side respectively

64) Statement-I :- Humans occupy multiple trophic levels, functioning as primary consumer when
eating plants, secondary consumer when eating herbivores, and even tertiary consumer in some food
web.
Statement-II :- Detritus food chains begins with living plants.

(1) Both Statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

65) Match List-I With List-II

List-I List-II

A. Incomplete dominance I. AB-Blood group in human

B. Co. Dominance II. Flower colour in snapdragon

C. Pleiotropy III. skin colour in human

D. Polygenic inheritance IV. Phenylketonuria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

66) Which of the following is a physiological effect of abscisic acid?

(1) Breaks seed and bud dormancy

(2) Sprouting of potato tubers
(3) Stimulates the closure of stomata
(4) Induce flowering in mango

67) Which is substituted methane ?

(1) Fatty acid

(2) Amino acid
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

68) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I:- In plants, meristems are the sites of growth. Root and shoot apical meristems
sometimes along with intercalary meristem, contribute to the elongation growth of plant axis.
Statement-II:- Following cell division in root and shoot apical meristem cells, the growth could be
arithmetic or geometrical. Growth generally sustained at a high rate throughout the life of
cell/tissue/organ/organism
In the light of the above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

69) Given below are two statement :-

Statement-I :- Expiratory capacity is the total volume of air a person can expire after a normal
inspiration.
Statement-II :- The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air tight
chamber.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

70) Simple epithelium has all of the following funcions except :

(1) Diffusion
(2) Filtration
(3) Protection
(4) Secretion
71) The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting has been increased by use of _______.

(1) ELISA
(2) Ethidium bromide
(3) PCR
(4) Elution

72) Which type of fertilization and development found in frog respectively ?

(1) Internal and direct

(2) External and indirect
(3) Internal and indirect
(4) External and direct

73)

Select the incorrect statement about cancerous cell.

In cancer cell, there is a breakdown of the regulatory mechanism of cell growth and
(1)
differentiation
(2) Cancerous cells grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues
Cancerous cells are sloughed from tumors and reach distant sites through blood and start a new
(3)
tumor
(4) Cancerous cell never starve the normal cells by competing for vital nutrients

74) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding chromosomal disorders ?

(1) In Down syndrome there is presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21.
(2) In Klinefelter's syndrome there is presence of an additional copy of 'y' chromosome.
(3) In Turner's syndrome there is absence of one of the 'x' chromosome.
(4) Females with turner's syndrome are sterile

75) How many tissue/structures in the list given below are included in epidermal tissue system ?
Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem, Root hair, Stomata, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

76) Plants, bacteria, fungi & animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following statements is not applicable to GM
plants ?

(1) Reduced dependence on chemical pesticides

(2) Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(3) Crops are less tolerant to abiotic stresses
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food

77) In cockroach, outer layer of Gizard is formed by :-

(1) Thick longitudinal muscles

(2) Thin circular muscles
(3) Thick cuticle
(4) Thick circular muscles

78) Plant hormone, which accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton, cherry,
walnut), is :-

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin

79) What happens during the repolarisation phase of an action potential?

(1) Influx of Na+ continues

(2) Outflux of K+ occurs
(3) Ca2+ influx occurs
(4) Na+/K+ pump is inactive

80) Given below are two statements : one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Lipids molecular weights do not exceed 800 Dalton yet they come under acid
insoluble fraction, i.e. macromolecular fraction.
Reason (R) : Lipids are present not only as such in cells but also arranged into structures like cell
membrane and other membranes. When we grind a tissue, we are disrupting the cell structure. Cell
membrane and other membranes are broken into pieces, and form vesicles which are not water
soluble.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

81) Assertion :- In stabilizing natural selection, the peak of curve gets higher and narrower.
Reason :- In stabilizing natural selection more individuals acquire mean character value.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

82) In class-aves the forelimbs are modified into :

(1) Scales
(2) Limbs
(3) Wings
(4) Crop

83) Which of the following complex of mitochondrial electron transport system doesn't pump protons
into the intermembrane space ?

(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex

(2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex
(4) Cythochrome C-oxidase complex

84) Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called ______.

(1) Diffusion
(2) Partial pressure
(3) Atmospheric pressure
(4) Atrial pressure

85) Select the correct combination of the statements (a - d) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms
(a) Sphagnum provide peat that have long been used as fuel
(b) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion
(c) Gammae are green, multicellular, asexual buds which are developed on Marchantia thallus in
gamma cup
(d) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by conidia
The correct statements are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

86) Identify the characteristic of tertiary follicle in human female ovary :-

(1) Appearance of antrum cavity

(2) Release of progesterone
(3) Surrounded by single layer of granulosa cells
(4) Formation of new theca layer

87) Mark the incorrect match :

(1) Primary productivity - Varies in different types of ecosystem

(2) NPP - Available biomass for the consumption to herbivores
(3) 55 billion tons - Annual NPP of biosphere
(4) Secondary productivity - Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

88)
Which of following option is not true about diagram?

(1) It is free living, found in stagnant fresh water

(2) Example of unicellular organism
(3) Presence of two flagella, one eye spot and contractile vacuole
(4) The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.

89) Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option :-

(a) (b)
Option : -

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) (b) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) (a) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) (a) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) (b) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Study the following statements carefully and give the correct answer :-
(A) Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
(B) Higher the taxonomic category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationships to other
taxa at the same level.
(C) In lower taxa the problems of classification becomes more complex.
(D) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characters increases.

(1) A,B – incorrect ; C, D – correct

(2) A,B – correct ; C,D – incorrect
(3) B, D – correct ; A, C – incorrect
(4) A,C – correct ; B, D – incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Taking potential of point x is zero potential of y would be 10 while of z would be 20. Current
will flow from hight to low potential.

;
applying KCL at X
Iz + Ix = Iy ; 4 + Ix = Iy = 5

2)

Output power = 140 watt

Input power = 240 × 0.7 = 168 watt

Efficiency =

3) Option (A)
W = k f – ki

qE(2a – 0) =

qE2a = ⇒
Option (B)
Rate of work done
Power = qEV

Power =

Power =

Power =
Option (C)
Angle between electric force and velocity is 90º, hence rate of work done will be zero at Q.
Option (D)
Initial angular momentum Li = mVa
Final angular momentum Lf = m(2V) (2a)
Change in angular momentum Lf – Li = 3mVa
(Note : angular momentum is calculated about O)

4) 276.51 + 321.3 + 0.524 = 598.334

Least decimal place is one Hence after rounding off 598.334 598.3

5)

Given XL = R so,

6)

Q = [(Mp – Zme) – {Md – (Z – 1) me + me} ] C2

= [ Mp – Md – 2me ] C2

7)

With increase in temperature resistance of metallic resistor increases.

If R ↑ → P should be increase

8)

→ |Zmp + (A–Z) MN| > Mnucleus

→ In fission heavy nucleus breaks into light nuclie and energy is released.
So, statement a and d are correct.

9)

10) .....(1)

.....(2)
Divide equation (1) by (2)
11)

Time period (T) for complete revolution of a charge 'q' of mass 'm' in uniform transverse

magnetic field B is
(A) T does not depend on speed of charge particle.
(B) If a proton and an electron enters in a uniform transverse magnetic with same speed, their
time period depends on mass and charge so time period will be different.

(C) Angular speed ω = independent of speed.

12)

From pV = nRT

1×V= ....(i)

1.5 × V = RT ...(ii)
From (i) & (ii)

⇒ 1.5 = 1 +

⇒ =

13)

14)

Suppose some instant, the length of the slab, inside the capacitor is X
Now the system is equivalent to 2 capacitor in parallel having capacitance
 total capacitance
PE stored in system (U)

electric force on the slab, tending to pull it towards left

15) Tangential acceleration, at = rα = 4 m/s2

Radial acceleration

= 3 m/s2
Hence, resultant acceleration of the car

= 5 m/s2

16)

where, 1 is distance between point of suspension and centre of mass of the body. Thus, for the
stick of length L and mass m :

when bottom half of the stick is cut off

17) and i2 =

By solving,

18) According to work energy theorem

Wg + Wfr + WRF = 0
mg sinθ x – μmg cosθ x

2 × 10 sin 30 – 0.2 × 2 × 10 cos 30 – × 100x = 0

10 – 3.4 – 50x = 0
50x = 6.6

x=

19) Initial mass of the rocket, m = 20000 kg

Initial acceleration, a = 5 m/s2 in upwards direction Let initial thrust of the blast be Th.

TH – mg = ma
TH = mg + ma
= m × (g + a) = 20000 × (10 + 5.0)
= 3 × 105 N

20)

According to Kepler's 2nd Law

Torque on earth about sun is always zero hence its is constant. The areal velocity is a measure
of angular momentum of earth. The areal velocity is constant due to torque being zero and not
due to torque being constant. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a
correct explanation for Statement-1.

21)

22) The change in volume of a liquid relative to its container is determined by the difference
between their volume expansion coefficients.
Given v0 = 1000cc, αg = 0.1 × 10–4 /°C,
and Δθ = 100 :
Calculate vessel expansion:

Calculate relative volume:

ΔV = V0 [γL – γg]Δθ
ΔV = 1000 [1.82 × 10–4 – 0.3 × 10–4] × 100 = 15.2 cc

23) Solution :

Given: T = 16 s rad/s,

v= m/s at t = 2 s.
Since motion starts from mean position

24)

3I1–3I2 = 2I1 + 2I2

I1 = 5I2

25)

Viscous force = mg sin θ

∴ or

26) Moment of Inertia of each of rod AC and BC about the given axis OO' is

IAC = IBC = sin2 60° =

and M.I. of rod AB about the given axis OO' is

IAB = m =
 Hence,

I = IAC + IBC + IAB =

27)

The breakdown in reverse biased P-N junction diode occures primarily through two
mechanism.
Avalanche breakdown and zener breakdown
Statement (a) describes Avalanche breakdown and statement (d) describes zener breakdown.

28) Initially

(1) ...(i)

and ...(ii)
from (i) and (ii)

and =V

then
After earthing VB = 0
(2) = qA

(3)

(4)

29)

According to Stefan's law E = σεAT4

or

T = 2500 K

30) Final image is at ∞

L = v0 + fe
15 = v0 + 3
v0 = 12 cm
Object distance from objective

0
u =
v0 = 12 cm
u0 = 2.4 cm

31) When charges are placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle of side

1m, then potential energy of the combination is,

When charges are placed at the vertices of an

equilateral triangle of side 0.5 m, then potential energy of the combination is,

= 22 ×
Work done = ΔU = U2 – U1

= 11 × 9 × 109 × 10–12
= 99 × 10–3 = 0.099 J ≈ 0.1 J.

32) Taking torque about attachment point

T1 × 0.4 L – T2 × 0.3L
– 500 × 0.2 = 0
T1 = T 2

T1 + T2 = W + 500
33)
WAB = 0 (Volume is constant)
WCD = 0 (Volume is constant)
Total work done = WAB + WCD + WDE
= 0 + 2V0 × 3P0 + 0 – V0 × 2P0
= 4P0V0

34) h = 20 – 12 = 8 m

t=

x = uxt ⇒ ux =

35)

36)

37) input = 1 + = Dimensionless

[α] = [MT–2]

[ϕ] =
0 0
= [M LT ]

38) a.v < 0

So speed decreases
As speed decreases, acceleration increases
39)

COM = 2mv + m(0) = 2m + mv2

v2 =

e=

40)

Now, .

41) Velocity of wave,

v= =

= = = 200 m/s

∴ fundamental frequency =
= 80 Hz

42)

43)
 If ω = 0 X = +∞

If ω = X=0
If ω = +∞ X = –∞

44)

For dark Δx =

So

45)

Initial energy
Energy gained/lost in field
Final energy

= 1.227 Å
λ ≈ 1.22 Å

CHEMISTRY

46) NCERT Pg. 37, 38

47) Solution
2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e–
2 mole 4 mole e– = 4 F

0.5 mole
=1F
+2 +3 –
2Fe → 2Fe + 2e
2 mole 2 mole e–
=2F

48)

Table 4.8 (NCERT Pg. # 103) colours of some of the first row (aquated) transition metal ions.

49) On heating borax loses water molecules and swells up.

50)
 Solution:
Ordinarily alkanes resist oxidation by potassium permanganate (KMnO4) but alkanes having
tertiary H atom can be oxidized to corresponding alcohols by potassium permanganate
(KMnO4).

Statement – 1 is correct and statement – 2 is wrong.

Final Answer: The correct option is (3).

51) NCERT Pg. # 76

52)

53) Question is based on laws of thermochemistry

54)

(A) Lake Test → Al+3

(B) Nessler's Reagent →
(C) Potassium sulphocyanide → Fe+3
(D) Brown ring Test →

55) % of
% of O = 100 – 55.84 = 44.16

simple molar
element % moles Integer ratio
ratio

V 55.84 2

O 44.16 5

56) NCERT, Pg. # 202, 203

57)

H2O H2S H2Se H2Te

B.D.E. a1 > a2 > a3 > a4
Bond angle b1 > b 2 > b3 > b4
Boiling point c1 > c4 > c3 > c2

58) It does not react with NaHSO3

59) Interstitial compounds are chemically inert –

60) Parts NCERT Page no. 211

61)

Answer Explanation:

The correct matching sequence is a→p, b→q, c→r, d→s.

62) In Al2O3, aluminium is in highest oxidation state of +3, hence it can not undergo further
oxidation.

63) Fact based

64)

Question Explanation: Question is asking incorrect statement.

Concept: Based on C.F.T
Solution:
Δ0 splitting energy
p = Pairing energy
Acc to C.F.T
If S.F.L present in complex than
Δ0 > P (e–s are paired 1st)
If W.F.L present in complex than
Δ0 < P (Filling electrons parallelly 1st than pairing taken place)
(4) In this option F → W.F.L . So compare should be Δ0 < P (not Δ0 > P).
Final Answer: Option (4)

65)

Localised lone pairs are more basic than delocalised lone pairs.

66) K350 Kelvin = (2)5 × K300 Kelvin = 32 × K300 Kelvin

= 32 × 0.01 = 0.32 sec–1

= 2.165 sec.

67)
= 91 + 426.16 – (126.45)
= 390.71 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1

68) From Henry's law

for CO2(g) in water ;

Hence,

69)

70) NCERT (Old) XII, Part-I, Pg.# 100 Ex. 4.2

= 7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

= 3.75 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

71)

Solution :

Vitamin A → Night blindness (correct)

Vitamin B6 → Convulsions (correct; due to impaired neurotransmitter synthesis)

Vitamin C → Scurvy (correct; defective collagen synthesis)

 Vitamin D → Muscular weakness (incorrect; the main deficiency symptoms are rickets in
children and osteomalacia in adults, not muscular weakness)

Thus, the mismatch is Vitamin D – Muscular weakness.

Final Answer : option (4)

72) Question Explanation: Identifying ligands that form ring structures with a central metal.
Concept: Chelating Ligands and Denticity.
Solution: Chelating ligands are polydentate ligands that use two or more donor atoms to bind
to a single metal ion, forming a stable cyclic ring. Ligands like dien (tridentate), oxalate
(bidentate), glycinate (bidentate), and dipyridyl (bidentate) can all form these rings. Pyridine
(py) is monodentate and cannot form a ring. All polydentate ligands are chelating ligands
dien (H2NCH2 CH2 NHCH2 CH2NH2)

C2O42–

gly

py

dipy
Final answer: Option (2) a,b,c,e

73)

Solution –
Boiling point depends on the strength of inter - molecular force.
Boiling Point α [Link].

mol. weight

(i) Pentan-1-ol 88 g/mol

(ii) n-Butane 58 g/mol

(iii) Pentanal 86 g/mol

(iv) Ethoxyethane 74 g/mol

So order of increasing boiling point is II < IV < III < I

Final Answer – Option (2)

74) For complete neutralisation,

(N × V)for oxalic acid = (N × V)for NaOH
For more details refer principles related to practical chemistry.

75)

Phenol give neutral FeCl3 test.

76) NCERT XII PART II PAGE NO 384

77) + CHCl3 Friedal craft reaction

78)

CH3–CH2–C≡N CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
(A)

CH3–CH2–NC CH3–CH2–NH–CH3
(B)

79)

80) NCERT Pg. # 128, 129

81)

a, c has free OH on aromatic carbon.

82) Question Explanation: Verifying statements regarding bond energy, lone pairs, and bond
angles.
Concept: Valence Bond Theory (VBT).
Solution:
• Statement 1: Correct; H2​ bond energy is greater than F2​ because F2​ suffers from heavy
inter-electronic repulsion between lone pairs.
• Statement 2: Incorrect; I3+​ (8 lone pairs) does not have more lone pairs than I3−​ (9 lone
pairs).
• Statement 3: Incorrect; % s character in lone pairs decreases as central atom
electronegativity increases (EN O > S).

• Statement 4: Incorrect; bond angle OCl2​ (≈110°) is larger than SCl2​ (≈103°) due to larger
size/repulsion of Cl and oxygen's hybridization.
Final Answer: Option (1)

83) (P) [CrIII(NH3)4Cl2]Cl :

(1) Complex given in (P) is Paramagnetic & show two geometrical
(3 unpaired electrons) isomerism (cis and trans) (does not show ionization isomer)
(Q) [TiIII(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2
(2) Complex given in (Q) is paramagnetic show ionization(1 unpaired electrons) isomerism
(R) [PtII(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3
(3) Complex given in (R) is diamagnetic and show ionization (1 unpaired electrons) isomerism
(S) [CoIII(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3
(4) Complex given in (S) is diamagnetic does not show ionization (0 unpaired electrons)
isomerism show geometrical isomerism

84)

ΔU = q + W
If q = 0, ΔU = W = nCvdT
Temperature can be change by work also

85) Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid )

(H3PO2)
O.S of P → +1

86) Solution :

:
It is ESR of benzene with excess of Cl2/AlCl3
 :
It is free radical addition reaction.

Final answer : Option (3)

87) (B) → + H⊕
acid C.B.
(C) H2O ⇌ H+ + OH⊝
Temp ↑ Kw ↑

88)
Ecell = 1.23 – 0.03 × 0.3 = 1.221V

W=2× × 1.221 = 235.653 kJ

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(g) + 245

H2O(g) → H2O(ℓ) + 40
_________________________

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ) + 285

|ΔCH| = 285 kJ

η= × 100 = 82.68%

89)

90) Magnitude of CFSE depends on nature of ligand, charge on metal ion and whether the
metal is in the first, second or third row of the transition elements.

BIOLOGY

91) Question Explanation :

Identify the function of T-DNA in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
Concept:
This question is based on Plasmid vector.
Solution :
T-DNA → integrates into plant genome → transforms normal plant cell into tumor cell.
Final Answer :
 Option (1)

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 223

93) Question Explanation: Matching the rationales for biodiversity conservation with their
correct categories.

Concept: Reasons for Biodiversity Conservation

Solution: The reasons for conserving biodiversity are grouped into three categories:

A. Narrowly utilitarian: Direct economic benefits like food, firewood, and medicines. → (ii) Direct
economic benefits.
B. Broadly utilitarian: Indirect, major ecosystem services like oxygen production, pollination, and
aesthetic pleasure. → (i) Ecosystem services (oxygen, aesthetic value).
C. Ethical: Based on moral duty to protect every species, acknowledging their intrinsic value. →
(iii) Intrinsic value (moral duty).

Final Answer: Option -2

94) NCERT Pg. # 243

95) NCERT XII, Pg. # 209

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17, 18

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. 11, 13, 15

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 25 , 26, 27

100)

NCERT XIIth Pg. # 247

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65
102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156, 159

103) NCERT XI, Pg # 27

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 118

105)

Question Explanation: Relationship between diversity and stability.

Concept: Diversity-stability hypothesis.
Solution: According to David Tilman's research, a species-rich community is more stable
because it shows less year-to-year variation in biomass, has higher productivity, and is more
resistant to invasions by alien species. All three options are correct indicators of stability in a
diverse ecosystem.
Final Answer: All of these.

106) NCERT Page No. :- 73

107) NCERT Pg # 61

108) NCERT Pg. # 283

109) NCERT Pg. # 209

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 47

111) NCERT-XII Pg. # 203

112) NCERT XII Pg.# 10-15

113) NCERT Page No. 63

114)

Explain Question : The question asks which factor does not contribute to the high
biodiversity found in tropical regions.

Concept : This question is based on Latitudinal gradients (Patterns of Biodiversity)

Solution : Option (1), (2) and (3) support stable conditions that promote species richness.
Option (4) refers to high variation, which disrupts stability and reduces biodiversity.

Final Answer : option (4)

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 138

116) NCERT, Pg. # 49, 50

117) NCERT Page No. 59, 69, 71, 75 (E) 66, 76, 78, 83 (H)

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 146

120)

Question Explanation: Match items from Column I with correct entries in Column II and III.
Concept: Biomolecules & experiments
Solution:

A. (1) Tertiary structure of protein → stabilized by S–S, ionic, hydrophobic bonds (b) → gives
biological activity (i)

B. (2) Structure shown is lecithin (a) → a phospholipid (ii)

C. (3) Hershey–Chase experiment → used radioactive ³²P and ³⁵S (d) → proved DNA as
genetic material (iii)

D. (4) Structure is steroid (cholesterol-like) → formed using UV rays (c) → gives Vitamin D
(iv)

Correct matching:
1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iii, 4–c–iv
Final Answer: Option 1

121) NCERT Pg. # 244

122)
NCERT Pg. # 197

123)

NCERT XII, Pg # 120

124) NCERT Pg.#31

125) Explain Question : The question is asking: “Which option correctly matches the three
examples with the three types of interactions: A = Mutualism, B = Parasitism, C =
Commensalism?”
Concept: Population Interaction
Solution:
The Correct answer : Option 3.
A = Mutualism, B = Parasitism, C = Commensalism
Lichen → Mutualism (A) (Algae + fungus both benefit)
Viscum & Oak → Parasitism (B) (Viscum is a hemi-parasite on host trees)
Barnacles & Whale → Commensalism (C) (Barnacles get transport; whale unaffected)
All three match perfectly → Option 3 is correct
Final answer: The Correct answer: Option 3.

126) NCERT Pg. 59, 61, 63

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

128) NCERT Pg. # 236 (18.4.2)

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 49-50

130)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 23

131) NCERT Pg.# 96,100,102.

132) NCERT-XI, Pg#95-96

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 43
134) NCERT Pg. # 127

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108, 111, 118, 119

136)

NCERT XII, Pg # 157

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212

138)

NCERT Pg. # 225-226

139) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 134

140) NCERT Pg.# 338

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 155, 156

142)

Question Explanation: The question asks that which of the given options is not the property
of the genetic material.

Concept: Properties of genetic material.

Solution: The genetic material should be chemically and structurally stable and non reactive.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: 1.

143)

Module

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

145) NCERT Pg. # 42(E), 47, 48(H)

146)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 121

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142, 143

148) NCERT XI, Pg. # 118

149) NCERT Pg. # 79

150) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157, 158

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

152) Question Explanation :

Determine which statements about inserting DNA into the β-galactosidase coding sequence
are correct.
Concept :
Insertional inactivation (Cloning vectors)
Solution :
I – True (gene inactivated).
II – True (called insertional inactivation).
III – True (no color → white colonies).
Final Answer :
Option (4)

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

154) NCERT Pg. # 210

155) NCERT Page No. :- 60, 61, 69

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 178

159)

NCERT Pg. # 186-187

160)

Module

161)

NCERT XII Pg. Eng-122

NCERT XII Pg. Hindi-135

162) NCERT Page No. # 120

163)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 141

164) NCERT Page No. :- 76, 84

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

166) Explain Question:

The question asks which statement is not true (i.e., not applicable) to genetically modified
(GM) plants.

Concept :
Genetically modified (GM) plants. (BIOTECH. APPLICATION IN AGRICULTURE)

Explanation :
Option 3 is incorrect because GM crops are usually more tolerant to abiotic stresses, not less.
Hence, this statement is not applicable to GM plants.

Final answer: 3

167) Module

168) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

169) NCERT, Pg # 232, 233

170) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108, 109

171)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 120

172) NCERT Pg. # 50

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

174) NCERT-Pg : 272

175) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 29

176) NCERT, Pg. # 32

177)

NCERT Pg. # 207

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

179) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 145 fig 9.1

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8