17-06-2026

4504CMD303021260003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Identical metal plates are located in air at equal distances d from one another. The area of each
plate is equal to A. If plates are interconnected as shown in figure, then the capacitance of system

between points P and Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

2) An air capacitor having capacity C0 is filled with dielectric as shown in figure. Then the new

capacitance of system will be :

(1) C0
(2) 2C0
(3) 3C0
(4) 4C0

3) Find potential at point 'a' :-

(1)
(2) 5 volt

(3)

(4)

4) A circuit has section AB as shown in figure. If the charge on each capacitor is 10 μC, then
potential difference VA – VB is

(1) 5 V
(2) –5 V
(3) 10 V
(4) –10 V

5) The current in an RC charging circuit is maximum at:

(1) t = RC
(2) t = 2RC
(3) t = 0
(4) t = ∞

6) A 2 μF capacitor stores 400 μJ energy. Find the voltage across capacitor.

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 40 V

7) A capacitor is charged by a battery. During charging, current in the circuit eventually becomes:

(1) Infinite
(2) Constant
(3) Zero
(4) Maximum

8) A capacitor takes 5 s to reach 63% of its maximum charge. Find the time constant of the circuit.

(1) 2 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 15 s

9) In figure, charge on a capacitor is plotted against potential difference across the capacitor. The
capacitance and energy stored in the capacitor are respectively :-

(1) 12μF, 1200 μJ

(2) 12μF, 600 μJ
(3) 24μF, 600 μJ
(4) 12μF, 1200 μJ

10) If the charge on a capacitor is doubled, the energy stored becomes:

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times
(3) times
(4) 8 times

11) The dimension of capacitance is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) n identical capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of the
equivalent capacitance in the two cases is:

(1) n
(2) n2
(3) 1/n
(4) 1/n2

13) If the distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled (with battery connected),
the energy stored:

(1) Doubles.
(2) Is halved.
(3) Increases four times.
(4) Remains the same.

14) Where is the energy in a capacitor actually stored?

(1) On the surface of the plates.

(2) In the connecting wires.
(3) In the electric field between the plates.
(4) In the battery.

15) The following arrangement consists of five identical metal plates parallel to each other. Area of
each plate is A and separation between the successive plates is d. The capacitance between P and Q
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Three capacitors are connected as shown in the figure. The potential at point O is equal to

(1) 1.4 volt

(2) 4.7 volt
(3) Zero
(4) 1.8 volt

17) Potential energy of a charged capacitor is U. If the charge is increased by 2µC, energy becomes
1.21U. The original charge was:

(1) 10µC
(2) 20µC
(3) 40µC
(4) µC

18) The capacitance of a capacitor depends on:

(1) The material of the plates

(2) The potential difference applied
(3) The geometry and the medium
(4) The charge present
19) Two capacitors of capacity 6µF and 3µF are charged to 100 V & 50 V and connected as shown.
Now all the switches are closed then find How much charge will flow through the cell :-

(1) 200 µC
(2) 50 µC
(3) 100 µC
(4) zero

20) The principle of a capacitor is that its capacitance can be increased by:

(1) Bringing an earthed conductor near it

(2) Bringing a positively charged conductor near it
(3) Increasing its potential
(4) Reducing its charge

21)

The force of attraction between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Three capacitors of and 6µF are connected in series. If the breakdown voltage of each
is 10V, the maximum voltage the combination can withstand is:

(1) 30V
(2) 10V
(3) 15V
(4) 20V

23) In figure a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery is shown. Charge that will
flow from switch S when it is closed is: -

(1) 5 μC from b to a
(2) 20 μC from a to b
(3) zero
(4) 5 μC from a to b

24) A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is given. Find the capacitance after dielectric is inserted as shown.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Find VA – VB for following given circuit

(1) 20V
(2) 24V
(3) 14V
(4) 7V
26) The sphere shown in the figure are connected by a conductor. The capacitance of the system is.

(1)

(2) 4πε0a
(3) 4πε0b

(4)

27) What is equivalent capacitance between points A and B shown in the figure?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Calculate charge on 20μF capacitor in steady state :–

(1) 50 μC
(2) 100 μC
(3) 20 μC
(4) 10 μC

29) Three conducting spheres A, B and C are as shown in the figure. The radii of the spheres are a, b
and c respectively. A and B are connected by a conducting wire. The capacity of the system is

outermost shell is grounded:-

(1) 4πε0 (a + b + c)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Two spherical shells of radii r1 and r2 carrying charge q1 and q2 are conneted by a wire as shown
in the fig. The equivalent capacitance of the system is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A 5 μF capacitor is connected to a 20 V battery. Find the maximum charge stored.

(1) 50 μC
(2) 100 μC
(3) 25 μC
(4) 75 μC

32) Seven capacitors each of capacitance 1 μF are connected as shown in figure. The equivalent

capacitance between A and B is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 7 μF

(4)

33) A 10µF capacitor is charged to 500V and then disconnected. It is then connected to an unknown
uncharged capacitor. If the potential drops to 100V, the unknown capacitance is:

(1) 20µF
(2) 30µF
(3) 40µF
(4) 50µF

34) Three capacitors of 2,3 and 6µF are connected in series. The potential difference across the
3µF capacitor is 2V. The total potential difference across the combination is:

(1) 4V
(2) 6V
(3) 10V
(4) 11V

35) Two capacitors 2µF and 4µF are in series across a 12V battery. The charge on each is:

(1) 8µC
(2) 16µC
(3) 24µC
(4) 48µC

36) When a dielectric (K) is inserted into a charged disconnected capacitor, the energy stored:

(1) Increases by K.
(2) Decreases by 1/K.
(3) Remains the same.
(4) Becomes zero.

37) A capacitor stores 10μC of charge at 10V. If the voltage is increased to 20V, the additional
energy stored is:

(1) 50 μJ
(2) 150 μJ
(3) 200 μJ
(4) 100 μJ

38) If plate area is doubled and distance is halved, capacitance becomes:

(1) 2 times
(2) Same
(3) Half
(4) 4 times

39) Unit of Capacitance is:

(1) Ohm
(2) Farad
(3) Tesla
(4) Henry

40) The equivalent capacitance of the combination across A and B.

(1) 2C
(2) 4C
(3) C/2
(4) 5/3C

41) Capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

42) Energy density of a parallel plate capacitor is proportional to:

(1)
(2) E2
(3) E
(4) 1/E

43) Work done in charging a capacitor is stored as:

(1) Electrostatic Energy

(2) Heat
(3) Magnetic Energy
(4) Kinetic Energy
44) Energy stored in a 10µF capacitor charged to 50V is

(1) 1.25 J
(2) 0.0125 J
(3) 500 J
(4) 0.025 J

45) Three identical capacitors are given a charge Q each and they are then allowed to discharge
through resistance R1, R2 and R3. Their charges, as a function of time shown in the graph below. The

smallest of the three resistance is :-

(1) R3
(2) R2
(3) R1
(4) Cannot be predicted

CHEMISTRY

1) For the zero order reaction : A → P , K = 10–2 (mol/litre) sec–1 If initial concentration of A is 0.3M
, then find concentration of A left at 10 sec.

(1) 0 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.1 M
(4) 0.15 M

2) For a process A + B → product, the rate of reaction is second order with respect to A and zero
order with respect to B. When 1 mole each of A & B are taken in 1 litre vessel, the initial rate of
disappearance of B is 1 × 10–2 mol/L-sec. The rate of reaction when 50% of the reactant have been
converted to product would be -

(1) 1 × 10–2 mol/L-sec

(2) 2.5 × 10–3 mol/L-sec
(3) 5 × 10–2 mol/L-sec
(4) 5 × 10–3 mol/L-sec

3) The compound A decomposed (A → product) by first order kinetics. If the concentration of A

dropped from 0.1 M to 0.05 M in 30 minutes, find the rate of reaction after 60 minutes, from start, in
M min–1

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) From the given data for the reaction -

2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g) at 298 K

[Cl2] [NO] rate of reaction

(molL–1sec–1)]
1. 0.05 M 0.05M 1 × 10–3
2. 0.15 M 0.05M 3 × 10–3
3. 0.05 M 0.15M 9 × 10–3
the rate law for for reaction will be -

(1) r = K[NO] [Cl2]

2
(2) r = K[Cl2] [NO]
2
(3) r = K[Cl2] [NO]
(4) r = K[Cl2]

5) Above graph is for a reaction which have only single reactant (R) and
order of reactions depends only on that single reactant then possible order of reaction may be -

(1) First order reaction

(2) 1/2 order reaction
(3) – 2 order reaction
(4) zero order reaction

6) The following data is given for reaction between A and B :-

[Link]. [A] [B] Rate
mol.1–1 mol.1–1 mol.1–1sec–1
I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4
II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–4
III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–4
Which of the following are correct statements -
(a) Rate constant of the reaction 10–4
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

7) For a first order reaction A → products, the concentration of [A] is reduced from 2M to 0.125 M in
one hour, the t1/2 of this reaction (in min) is :-

(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 15
(4) None

8) For the reaction

2H2 + 2NO → N2 + 2H2O
the following mechanism has been proposed :-
(i) 2NO N2O2 (fast)
(ii) N2O2 + H2 N2O + H2O (slow)
(iii) N2O + H2 N2 + H2O (fast)
then what will be the rate law of this reaction ?

2
(1) k[NO][H2]
(2) k[NO][H2]
0 3
(3) k[NO] [H2]
2
(4) k[NO] [H2]

9)

In the reaction xA → yB,

Then, x : y is : [log5 = 0.7, log3 = 0.48]

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 3
(4) None

10) For an exothermic reaction A → B, the activation energy is 65 kJ mol–1 and heat of reaction is – 42
kJ mol–1. The activation energy for the reaction B → A would be :-

(1) 23 kJ mol–1
(2) 107 kJ mol–1
(3) 65 kJ mol–1
(4) 42 kJ mol–1

11) The rate of reaction at 273 K is R0. The rate of reaction at 313 K will be (Assuming temperature
coefficient equal to 2) :-
(1) 16 R0
(2) 64 R0
(3) R0/32
(4) R0/16

12) For a reaction N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2

Given

relation between K1, K2 and K3 :-

(1) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3

(2) K1 = K2 = K3
(3) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3

K 1 = K2 =
(4)

13) The rate constant for a first order reaction becomes six times when the temperature is raised
from 350 K to 400 K. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction :-
[R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]

(1) 4.17 kJ mol–1

(2) 41.7 kJ mol–1
(3) 417.0 kJ mol–1
(4) 4170 kJ mol–1

14) Which is false about rate constant :–

(1) It’s value depends on temperature

(2) It’s value changes when catalyst is introduced in the reaction.
(3) It’s value does not depends on concentration
(4) None of the above

15) For an exothermic reaction ; A + B → AB following two steps are involved :

Step : 1 A + B → X (Slow)
Step : 2 X → AB (fast)
The progress of reaction can be best represented by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

For a gaseous reaction, following data is given :

A → B; K1 = 1015 e–3000/T
C → D; K2 = 1014e–1000/T

The temperature at which K1 = K2 is :-

(1) 434.2 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 868.43 K
(4) None of these

17) The rate of reaction becomes 2 times for every 10°C rise in temperature. How the rate of
reaction will increase when temperature is increased from 30°C to 80°C?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 128

18) When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, then the half life period of zero and second
order reactions become :-
(1) Halved and doubled respectively.
(2) Doubled and halved respectively.
(3) No effect on both the reactions.
(4) Same effect on both the reactions.

19) Assertion : Half life period decreases on increasing the temperature.

Reason : Half life period for first order reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

20) For a homogeneous gaseous reaction A → 3B, if pressure after time t was PT and at beginning of
reaction, pressure was P0 then select correct relation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) For producing the effective collisions, the colloiding molecules must posses :-

(1) A certain minimum amount of energy.

(2) Energy equal to or greater than threshold energy.
(3) Proper orientation.
(4) Threshold energy as well as proper orientation of collision.

22) Identify INCORRECT statement

Most of chemical reactions are accelerated by increase in temperature mainly, because fraction
(1)
of particles , which collide with kinetic energies greater than activation energy (Ea) increases.

(2) The plot of lnk vs (k = rate constant, T = absolute temperature) is a straight line with positive
slope.
In collision theory magnitude of rate of reaction depends mainly on the activation energy and
(3)
fraction of molecules with proper orientation for the reaction.
Collision theory has a drawback, that it considers atoms / molecules to be hard spheres and
(4)
ignores their structural aspect.

23)

Consider the structure of Al2Cl6 and choose correct statement

(1) It is planar molecule
(2) Al uses it's sp3 hybrid orbital to form bond with chlorine
(3) It has 3c-2e– and 2c-2e– bonds
(4) Al2Cl6 is electron deficient molecule

24)

The geometry with respect to central atom of the following molecules are :-

N(SiH3)3, Me3N, (SiH3)3P

(1) Planar, pyramidal, planar
(2) Planar, pyramidal, pyramidal
(3) Pyramidal, pyramidal, pyramidal
(4) Pyramidal, planar, pyramidal

25) BCl3 + H2O → Product, here product :-

(1) H3BO3 + HCl

(2) B2O3 + HOCl
(3) B2H6 + HCl
(4) B2H6 + HOCl

26) Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicone
polymer can be controlled by adding :

(1) MeSiCl3
(2) Me2SiCl2
(3) Me3SiCl
(4) Me4Si

27)

Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) BiCl5 is less stable than BiF5

(2) SnCl2 can't exists with HgCl2
(3) Ga2Cl6 exists
(4) Pb+4 is more stable than Pb2+

28) SnCl2 acts as a reducing agent because :-

(1) SnCl2 can accept electron

(2) Sn+2 is more stable than Sn+4
(3) Sn+4 is more stable than Sn+2
(4) Sn+2 can be easily converted to metallic tin.

29)

The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tℓ increases in the sequence :

(1) Tℓ < In < Ga < Al

(2) In < Tℓ < Ga < Al
(3) Ga < In < Al < Tℓ
(4) Al < Ga < In < Tℓ

30)

Which compound does not exist ?

(1) TlCl3
(2) Tll3
(3) BiF5
(4) PbI4

31) (BN)x exists in :-

(1) Benzene like structure

(2) Graphite like structure
(3) Both (1) & (2) forms
(4) It does not exist

32) Which of the following molecule is having complete octet

(1) BeCl2 (dimer)

(2) BeH2 (dimer)
(3) BeH2 (Polymer)
(4) BeCl2 (Polymer)

33)

Column-I Column-II

(A) B2H6 (P) Non-planar

sp3 hybridised
(B) Al2Cl6 (Q)
(anyone atom)

3c–2e– or 3c–4e–
(C) I2Cl6 (R)
bond is present
 Vacant orbital participate
(D) Si2H6 (S)
in hybridisation

(T) X–X bond is present

Choose the correct matching in above given column.

(1) A→P,Q,R,S; B→P,Q,R,S; C→Q,R,S; D→P,Q,T
(2) A→P,Q,R,T; B→Q,R,S,T; C→Q,T; D→P,Q,T
(3) A→P,Q,R,S; B→P,Q,R; C→Q,R,S; D→P,Q,T
(4) A→P,Q,R; B→P,Q,R; C→Q,R,S; D→P,Q,T

34) N–N bond not present in :-

(1) N2O4
(2) N2O5
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O

35) Which of the following halogen form only one oxyacids (HOX)

(1) F
(2) Br
(3) I
(4) Cl

36) What is true about S8 molecule ?

I. There is no Pπ–Pπ bonds present in the molecule
II. There are eight lone pair of electrons
III. Each S atom is sp3 hybridised

(1) I, III
(2) II, III
(3) I, II
(4) only II

37) How many S–S bonds, S–O–S bonds, σ bonds, π-bonds are present in trimer of sulphur trioxide:-

(1) 0, 3, 16, 2
(2) 0, 3, 12, 6
(3) 0, 6, 12, 16
(4) 0, 4, 12, 6

38) Consider the following statements for diborane. In these which of the following statements are
correct
(a) Boron is approximately sp3 hybridized
(b) B—H—B angle is 120°
(c) There are two terminal B—H bonds for each boron atom
(d) There are only 12 bonding electrons available

(1) a, c and d are correct

(2) a, b and c are correct
(3) b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b and d are correct

39) Among the following oxoacid, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is ?

(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

(2) HClO > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO4
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO3

40) Which of the following can not hydrolysis ?

(1) NF3
(2) CCl4
(3) NCl3
(4) Both 1 and 2

41) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) F2 has higher bond dissociation Energy than Cl2

(2) F has higher electron affinity then Cl
(3) HF is stronger acid than HCl
(4) Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

42) In which of the following reactions, the product(s) given is/are not correct ?

(1) Zn + conc. HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO2

(2) Zn + dil. HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO
(3) Cu + conc. HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2
(4) Cu + dil. HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO

43) Which of the following is not correct : ––

(1) XeO3 has four σ and four π bonds

3 2
(2) The hybridization of Xe in XeF4 is sp d
(3) Among noble gases, the occurrence of argon is highest in air
(4) Liquid helium is used as cryogenic liquid

44)

Shape of XeOF2 is
(1) Pyramidal
(2) T – shaped
(3) Octahedral
(4) Linear

45) The incorrect statement regarding 15th group hydrides (EH3). [E = N, P, As, Sb, Bi]

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Thermal stability
(2) N–H > P–H > As–H > Sb–H > Bi–H : E–H : bond dissociation enthalpy
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Reducing character
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 >BiH3 : Basicity

BIOLOGY

1) Chromosomal theory of inheritance is the united form of :

(1) Knowledge of mendelian principles and mitotic cell division.

(2) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Boveri principles.
(3) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Mendelian principles.
(4) Knowledge of chromosomal assortment and chromosomal segregation only.

2) Which of the following characters of Drosophila is not suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) Only d and e
(4) Only c and e

3) The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, & a & b
is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear
chromosomes?

(1) d, b, a, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, c, b, d
(4) a, d, b, c

4) In Drosophila, the genes for white eye and yellow body shows …….a……. recombination and genes
for white eye and miniature wing shows ………b……… recombination in F2 generation.

(1) a→98.7%, b→37.2%

(2) a→98.7%, b→62.8%
(3) a→1.3%, b→37.2%
(4) a→1.3%, b→62.8%

5) A dihybrid test cross produced the following offsprings

AB/ab 960
Ab/ab 60
aB/ab 40
ab/ab 940
What is the distance between genes A and B?

(1) 5 map units

(2) 100 map units
(3) 20 map units
(4) 10 map units

6) How many linkage groups are present in female honey bee ?

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 4

7) Which of the following contribution is made by Alfred Sturtevant?

(1) He established the concepts of linkage and recombination through crossing experiments
(2) He used the frequency of recombination as a measure of the distance between genes
(3) He proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance
(4) He gave the principles of inheritance

8) Henking observed that in few male insects , 50% of the sperm received a specific nuclear
structure known as X - body, whereas other 50% sperms did not receive it. This method of sex
determination was :-

(1) Environmental sex determination

(2) XX - XO method
(3) ZZ - ZW method
(4) Haplodiploidy

9) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.
(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females
(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

10) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a
single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z respectively:-

(1) GTG, GAC, Val

(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) GTA, GAG, Val
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

11) Sickle cell anemia is an example of :-

(i) Mendelian disorder
(ii) Genetic disorder
(iii) Chromosomal disorder
(iv) Inborn error of metabolism
(v) Point mutation
(vi) Frame-Shift mutation
(vii) Sex-linked disease
(viii) Recessive disorder
(ix) Qualitative disorder
(x) Quantitative disorder
(xi) Autosomal disorder

(1) i, ii, iv, v, viii, x, xi

(2) i, v, vi, ix, xi
(3) i, ii, v, viii, ix, xi
(4) ii, iii, v, vii, ix

12) Sickle cell anaemia induces due to :-

(1) Change of Amino Acid in α – chain of Haemoglobin

(2) Change of Amino Acid in β – chain of Haemoglobin
(3) Change of Amino Acid in both α and β chain of Haemoglobin
(4) Change of Amino acid either α or β chain of Haemoglobin

13) What will be the percentage of inheritance of a x-linked disorder from diseased father to his son
?

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

14) The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a
female has to be at least (i) and father should be (ii) :-

(1) (i) haemophilic, (ii) carrier

(2) (i) carrier, (ii) haemophilic
(3) (i) haemophilic, (ii) normal
(4) (i) normal, (ii) normal

15) If a normal man marries a girl who is carrier for haemophilia then :

(1) All sons will be haemophilic.

(2) All daughters will be haemophilic.
(3) 75% of the childrens will be haemophilic.
(4) 50% of the sons will be haemophilic.

16) In Drosophila, the genes for color of body and color of eyes are situated on _________.

(1) autosomes
(2) Y-chromosome
(3) X-chromosome
(4) Both the sex chromosomes

17) New combinations are formed due to :

(1) Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis

(2) Random fusion of gametes
(3) Crossing over
(4) All of the above

18) In which of the following pair of genetic disorders number of autosomes remains unchanged?

(1) Turner & Down’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter & Down’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome & Thalassemia
(4) Turner syndrome & Klinefelter’s syndrome

19) Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the above given cross?

(1) X-linked dominant trait

(2) Autosomal recessive trait
(3) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) X-linked recessive trait

20) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

21) In pedigree analysis, symbol given for mating or marriage line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Given pedigree show inheritance of autosomal dominant disorder (myotonic dystrophy) then
what will be genotype of shaded symbol :-

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

23) Assertion (A): Linked genes do not assort independently.

Reason (R): Linked genes are located on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

24) Two genes show 20% recombination frequency. This indicates that:

(1) They are on different chromosomes

(2) They are 20 map units apart
(3) They show complete linkage
(4) They assort independently
25) The term “linkage” was coined by

(1) T. Boveri
(2) G. Mendel
(3) W. Sutton
(4) T.H. Morgan

26) Pick out the correct statements :

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(1) (a) and (d) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

27) Assertion (A) : Morgan in his experiments observed that proportion of parental gene
combinations were much higher than non parental type.
Reason (R) : In Morgan's experiments, the genes are present very close to each other on the X
chromosome.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explaination of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explaination of (A)
(3) (A) is correct (A) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct.

28) Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. given figure.

(1) Sex chromosomes are represented as ZW.

(2) It produces single type of gamete.
(3) Both the sex chromosomes are structurally different.
(4) It is heterogametic.

29) What type of offspring develops from an unfertilized egg in honey bees?

(1) Queen
(2) Worker
(3) Drone
(4) Both 1 and 2
30)

21st Trisomy is

(1) Down Syndrome

(2) Edward Syndrome
(3) Patau's Syndrome
(4) Klinifelter's syndrome

31) Big and wrinkled tongue, broad flat face, congenital heart disease features are characteristics of

(1) Down's synndrome

(2) Turner's synndrome
(3) Patau's synndrome
(4) Klinefelter's synndrome

32) Which syndrome is caused due to the monosomy of sex chromosome (XO)

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Patau's syndrome
(4) Klinefelters syndrome

33) Which genetic disorder is caused due to presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome
resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY :-

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Patau's syndrome
(4) Klinefelters syndrome

34) Gynaecomastia refers to

(1) Masculine development in females

(2) Development of breasts in males
(3) Development of all female characters in male
(4) Reduced breasts in the female

35) Match column I with column II and find the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monoploidy (1) 2n – 1

(B) Monosomy (2) 2n + 1

(C) Nullisomy (3) 2n + 2

 (D) Trisomy (4) 2n – 2

(E) Tetrasomy (5) x

(6) 3x
(1) (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)
(2) (A)–(5), B–(2), (C)–(4), (D)–(1), (E)–(3)
(3) (A)–(6), B–(5), (C)–(3), (D)–(4), (E)–(2)
(4) (A)–(2), B–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(6), (E)–(5)

36) In α Thalassemia, production of α globin chain is affected while in β Thalassemia, production of β

globin chain is affected. α Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
chromosome ———— of each parent and it is observed due to mutation or deletion of one or more of
the four genes.

(1) 11
(2) 16
(3) X chromosome
(4) Y chromosome

37) If a colour blind female marries a man whose father was also colour blind, what are the chances
of its son having colour blindness ?

(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 100%
(4) 25%

38) Select the correct option regarding Thalassemia :-

(1) Anaemia
(2) Autosomal recessive disorder
(3) Quantitative disease
(4) All of the above

39) Statement I: Pedigree analysis is used to trace inheritance patterns of traits in human families.
Statement I: Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

40) Given below are some organi[Link]

I - Human male II - Female hen
III - Male cockroach IV - Male grasshopper
V - Male birds
Suppose
Male heterogamety = A
Female heterogamety = B
Male homogamety = C
On the basis of sex determination methods, which of the following combinations is correct?

A B C

(1) I, III, IV II V

(2) II, IV I III

(3) III, IV II I

(4) II, IV I II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) There is substitution of nitrogen base with another nitrogen base.

(1) Point mutation

(2) Frame-shift mutation
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) Polyploidy

42) Two genes are linked and are 12 map units apart. A heterozygous individual, whose parents are
AAbb and aaBB, would be expected to produce gamete in the following frequencies :–

(1) 44%-AB, 6%-Ab, 6%-aB, 44%-ab

(2) 6%-AB, 44%-Ab, 44%-aB, 6%-ab
(3) 12%-AB, 38%-Ab, 38%-aB, 12%-ab
(4) 6%-AB, 6%-Ab, 44%-aB, 44%-ab

43) The figure depicits. :-

(1) Linkage
(2) Independent assortment
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Equational division

44) In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia, what
percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?

(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

45) In haplodiploid sex-determination system as seen in honey bee

(1) Males produce sperms by meiosis

(2) Males do have father and thus can have sons
(3) Unfertilised egg develops as a male by means of parthenogenesis
(4) Females are mostly haploid

46)

Which of the following event does not occur after tubectomy :-

(1) Ovarian event

(2) Uterine event
(3) Menstrual cycle
(4) Fertilization

47) Which among the following works on principle of avoiding chances of meeting of ovum and
sperm
(1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Barrier method
(3) Coitus interruptus
(4) All of these

48) The world population which was around ___A___ in 1900 rocketed to about ___B___ by 2000.
Identify the 'A' and 'B' :-

(1) A - 2 billion, B - 4 billion

(2) A - 2 billion, B - 6 billion
(3) A - 1 billion, B - 6 billion
(4) A - 4 billion, B - 8 billion

49) Assertion : Lactational amenorrhea is effective only upto a maximum period of six months.
Reason : It is natural method of contracaptive method

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50) Oral birth-control pills:

(1) Contain either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations

Like ‘Mala-D’ have to be taken daily for a period of only seven days within the first five days of
(2)
menstrual cycle.
(3) Inhibit ovulation, implantation and alter the quality of cervical mucus
(4) Are related to more than one option

51) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. contraception?

(1) Natural method is based on the strategy to avoid fusion of sperms and ovum
(2) IUD and sterilization can inhibit gamete formation
(3) Vasectomy may not be immediately effective
(4) IUDs can always be used as emergency contraceptives

52) An individual who has undergone vasectomy:

(1) Cannot form sperms

(2) Cannot ejaculate
(3) Has low levels of male sex hormones in his blood
(4) Can ejaculate semen without sperms

53) Find out the true (T)/ false (F) statements and choose the correct option:
I. Contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive health
II. The use of contraceptives is against the natural reproductive event, i.e., conception/pregnancy
III. The use of contraceptives may have the possible ill-effects like nausea, abdominal pain, break
through bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding
IV. Use of contraceptives either to prevent pregnancy or to delay or space pregnancy due to
personal reasons

Options I II III IV
(1) T T T T
(2) T T T F
(3) F T T T
(4) T F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Diaphragms are contraceptive devices. Choose the correct option from the statements given
below:
(i) They are introduced into the uterus.
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

55) Assertion (A): The IUDs are presently available as non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs
and hormone releasing IUDs.
Reason (R): The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus suitable for implantation and the cervix
hostile to the sperms.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

56) Early symptom of most of STDs is

(1) Fluid discharge

(2) Abortions
(3) Infertility
(4) Ectopic pregnancies

57) Medical termination of pregnancy is:

 Essential in certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal
(1)
either to the mother or to the foetus or both
(2) Unsafe during the first trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks or pregnancy
(3) Quite safe even if performed by quacks as it involves no expertise
(4) In India is illegally practiced to discard the male foetus

58) If male has low sperm count and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive
technology is used for treating the infertility in particular couple ?

(1) GIFT
(2) Artificial insemination
(3) ZIFT
(4) Embryo transfer

59) How many of the following are copper releasing IUD's ?

LNG-20, CuT, Cu7, Progestasert, Multiload-375

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) During vasectomy, if only one of the vas deferens is cut and ligated, then

(1) Sterilization would still be successful

(2) Sterilization will not be successful
(3) Semen would be devoid of sperms
(4) Sterilization cannot be reversed

61) All of the following can be considered as complications of sexually transmitted diseases except

(1) Pelvic inflammatory disease

(2) Still birth
(3) Down's syndrome
(4) Infertility

62) Match column I with column II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Suppresses sperm
motility and
a. Saheli (i) fertilising capacity of
sperms

Non-steroidal oral
b. Condoms (ii)
contraceptive
 Terminal method of
c. Cu7 (iii)
family planning

Prevent the entry

d. Vasectomy (iv) of semen into female
reproductive tract
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

63) Which of the following is a most correct statement?

(1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
(3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
(4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

64) Emergency contraceptives are effective because

(1) They prevent ovulation permanently

(2) They act as a physical barrier after coitus
(3) They prevent fertilisation or implantation
(4) They induce permanent infertility

65) Lippes loop is a type of contraceptive used as

(1) Vault barrier

(2) Non-medicated IUD
(3) Copper releasing IUD
(4) Cervical barrier

66) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of it's

implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together:

Contraceptive device Site of implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Which of the following statement is not correct?

The most important step to overcome the alarming population growth problem is to motivate
(1)
smaller families using various contraceptive methods.
(2) Saheli is "once a week" pill.
(3) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days.
(4) Saheli has high side effect and low contraceptive value.

68) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) The reasons for infertility cannot be immunological

(2) STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 years
MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population growth rate though it is not meant for
(3)
that purpose
Females infected with STD may often be asymptomatic and hence, may remain undetected for
(4)
long

69) Match the following and give the answer for correct match :-

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i stage
transfer into the uterus

Sperm is directly injected

B IUT ii into
the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote with upto 8

C GIFT iii blastomere could be transfer
into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum
D ICSI iv collected from donor into the
fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

70) Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when
detected early and treated properly?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital herpes
(3) Hepatitis-B
(4) HIV infection

71) Which of the following method of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleedings, pain
and inflammation of uterine wall ?

(1) Condom
(2) Cervical cap
(3) Natural method
(4) Intra uterine device

72)

How many of the contraceptive methods in the list given below have almost no side effects ?

Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.
(1) Seven
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

73) Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1) Gonorrhoea, malaria, genital herpes

(2) Cancer, AIDS, syphilis
(3) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes
(4) AIDS, malaria, filaria

74) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types contraceptive
devices. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location

and function:

Device Location Function

Suppress the
(1) (A) Cu-T Intra uterine
sperm motility

Hormone Phagocyte the

(2) (B) Subcutaneous
Implant sperm
 Suppress the
(3) (C) Diaphragm In cervix fertilization
capacity of sperm

Female Suppress O2
(4) (D) Vagina
condom uptake of sperm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who
cannot conceive?

(1) ICSI and ZIFT

(2) GIFT and ICSI
(3) GIFT and ZIFT
(4) ZIFT and IUT

76) An ideal contraceptive should be :

(1) User-friendly
(2) Easily available
(3) Effective but reversible with no or least side effect
(4) All of these

77) Read carefully about test tube baby programme and choose the option:
(A) Fertilization inside female genital tract and growth in test tube.
(B) Gestation period is same as a normal.
(C) Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb of mother.
(D) Both fertilization and development are outside the female genital tract. How many options are
incorrect?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

78) An emergency contraceptive pill is given to the female who is 2 weeks pregnant. This will lead to

(1) Termination of pregnancy

(2) Deformity and teratogenicity of foetus
(3) Support pregnancy
(4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to negative feedback LH.

79) In the following matched pairs - which ones are correctly matched ?
 Column-A Column-B
(a) Barrier methods Prevents conception
(b) Many urban couples Adopted 'one child norm'
Surgical/terminal
(c) Sterilisation
methods
(d) Periodic abstinence Avoid fertile period
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) (c) and (d)
(4) All are correct

80) Spermicidal cream, jellies and foams are usually used along with the barrier method to :-

(1) Increase their conception efficiency

(2) Decrease their conception efficiency
(3) Increase their contraceptive efficiency
(4) Provide motility to sperms

81) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) A large number of couples all over the world including India are infertile
(2) In India often the female is blamed for the couple being childless
Successful implementation of various action plans to attain reproductive health requires strong
(3)
infrastructural facilities, professional expertise and material support
(4) All the above

82) Which of the following method of contraception is exclusively for female use only.
Natural, Barrier, IUDs, Saheli, Injectables, Implants, Surgical method.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

83) Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t MTP ?

(a) It is voluntary termination of full term pregnancy
(b) The MTP act was amended in 2017 with the intention of reducing incidence of illegal abortion
and consequent maternal mortality and morbidity.
(c) Nearly 20% of the conceived pregnancies are medically terminated every year.
(d) Majority of the MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified quack which are not only unsafe but
could be fatal too

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d
84)

Why the chances of pregnancy are very low in a lactating women till six months after delivery ?

(1) High levels of HCG in women kill sperms

High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum, that inhibit the
(2)
secretion of gonadotropins.
(3) High levels of prolactin, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins
(4) All of these

85) Which of the following sets of techniques is included in "in-vitro fertilisation" technique?

(1) GIFT and ZIFT

(2) GIFT and AI
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) AI and ICSI

86)

How many of the following are STDs ?

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Phenylketonuria, Typhoid, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B, AIDS.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five

87) Which of the following methods of contraception prevents ovulation ?

(1) Pills
(2) 'Depo-provera'
(3) 'Norplant'
(4) All the above

88) Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptives ?

(1) 'Mala-D'
(2) 'Saheli'
(3) 'i-pills'
(4) Condom

89) Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone ?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
90) The contraceptive 'SAHELI'

(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing embryo from getting implanted.
(2) increases the concentration of progesterone and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 1 1 4 3 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 2 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain Question: To determine equivalent capacitance between points P and Q.

Concept: Parallel plate capacitor, Wheatstone Bridge
Solution:

Final Answer: option (2)

2)

3)
q1 + q2 + q3 = 0
(Va – 10)1 + (Va – 5) × 2 + Va × 3 = 0

6Va = 20 ⇒ Va =

4) Question Explanation: A circuit segment AB contains a 1 μF capacitor, a 10 V battery, and

a 2 μF capacitor connected in series, where each capacitor carries a charge of 10 μC.
Calculate the total electric potential difference between the terminals, specifically finding the
value of VA - VB.
Concept: Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) applied to capacitor circuits.
Solution:
Starting from point A and tracking the voltage drops across each element to point B:

VA – 10 – 10 – 5 = VB
VA – 25 = VB
VA – VB = 25 V
Final answer: Option ()

5) Explanation: Question asks instant when charging current has maximum value
immediately after circuit connection with battery source.
Concept:
Charging current:
I = I0 e–t/RC
At: t = 0
I = I0 which is maximum.
Calculation:
Current decreases with time, so maximum current occurs initially.
Final Answer: Option (3)

6) Explanation:
Question asks capacitor voltage using stored energy and capacitance values after charging
process campletes successfully.
Concept: Energy stored:

Formula:
Calculation:

400 × 10–6 = 10–6 V2

V2 = 400
V = 20 V
Final Answer: Option (2)

7) Explanation: Question asks final current during charging process when capacitor becomes
fully charged after long time interval completely.
 Concept:

A. In RC charging circuit:
B. Initially current is maximum.
C. As capacitor charges, current decreases.
D. After full charging:

I = 0 Formula: I = 0
Calculation:
At complete charging, capacitor behaves like an open circuit.
So, I = 0
Final Answer: Option (3)

8) Question Explanation: The question asks for the RC time constant using the condition
where a capacitor reaches sixty-three percent of its maximum charging value.
Concept:

A capacitor reaches approximately 63 % of its maximum charge in one time constant.

= RC
Formula:
= RC
Solution :

Given time for 63 % charging:

=5s

Final Answer: Option (2)

9) ϕ ∝ v
solpe = C = 12 μf

energy stored =
= 600 μJ

10) . Since , doubling Q quadruples U.

11) From .

12) and . Ratio .

13) . Doubling d halves C ( ). Since V is constant, U is halved.

14) The energy is viewed as being stored in the electric field between the plates.

15) The following arrangement consists of five plates. The capacitance of each capacitor
formed by two adjacent plates is .
Identify the Connections : Let’s label the plates from top to bottom as 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Plate 1 and 4 are connected to each other.
Plate 2 and 5 are connected to Point Q (implied terminal, though only P and Q are usually the
standard labels, let’s look at the terminals).

Final Calculation: Let each individual capacitance be C.

Parallel part C + C = 2C
Series part (C in series with 2C):

Total Capacitance (C in parallel with Cs):

Substituting :

16) To find the potential at junction O, denoted as V0, we apply the law of conservation of
charge (similar to Kirchhoff’s Current Law for capacitors).
The sum of charges at junction O must be zero:

Calculation: Substitute the values for the three branches:

Branch 1 (Top):
Branch 2 (Right):
Branch 3 (Bottom):

Simplify and solve for V0:

10V0 = 18
V0 = 1.8 volt
Correct Option: (4)

17) U ∝ Q2. So .
C.

18) C is a constant of proportionality determined by shape and dielectric.

19) Let "q" charge flows from battery

By KVL

= 50 ⇒ q = 100μC

20) Bringing an earthed conductor lowers the potential of the first conductor, allowing more
charge to be stored for the same potential.

21) . since

22) for each: . In series, the lowest limits the

whole string. So . .
. Correction: Checking V across each at :
. Total V = 20V.

23) Explanation: Given: Capacitive circuit with switch.

Asked: The charge flow from switch S.

Concept: Without dielectric:

With dielectric:
Solution:
Initially,

(Qα + Qβ)i = (–12 + 12)μC = 0

Finally,
(Qα + Qβ)f = –15 + 10 = –5μC
So, 5 μC charge from b → a
Final Answer: (1)

24) Explanation: Given: A capacitor with dielectric.

Asked: The capacitance after dielectric is inserted.

Concept: : combination of capacitor and

Solution :

∵ k = 3 , C' =

Final Answer : Option (1)

25)
27) Question Explanation : The problem asks for the equivalent capacitance between points
A and B for a network consisting of seven identical capacitors, each with capacitance C. The
circuit contains a bridge-like structure that must be simplified using series and parallel
combinations.
Concept: Equivalent capacitance.

Formula : Parallel: Ceq = C1 + C2 Series: Solution:

Looking at the right side of the bridge, the two capacitors on the outer edge (top right and

bottom right) are in series. Cseries1 = This C/2

combination is in parallel with the diagonal capacitor C: Cparallel1 =

The combination from Step 2 is now in series with the bottom

horizontal capacitor Cseries2 = This

3C/5 is then in parallel with the vertical capacitor C in the middle: Cparallel2 =

Now, the circuit is reduced to three capacitors in series: the one

at input A (C), the reduced middle block (8C/5), and the one at input B (C):

Final answer: Option

(3)

29)

30)
 Question Explanation : We need to find equivalent capacitance of the system of two
connected spherical shells as shown.

Concept : Spherical capacitor.

Solution :

Both the sphere are at same potential, hence in parallel

C = C1 + C2 = 4πε0r1+4πε0r2 =4πε0(r1+r2)

Final answer : Option (3)

31) Explanation: Question asks maximum charge stored after capacitor becomes fully
charged and potential difference across capacitor equals battery voltage.
Concept: Charge stored in capacitor: Q = C V
Formula: Q = CV
Calculation:
Q = (5 × 10–6)(20)
Q = 100 × 10–6C
Q = 100 μC
Final Answer: Option (2)

32) The effective circuit is shown in figure.

33) . Common potential

34) In series, Q is same. . Total .

Total .

35) . .

36) . Since Q is constant and C increases to KC, the energy U becomes U0/K.

37) \({\text {C}} = {\text {Q}}/{\text {V}} = 1{\text {\mu F}}{\text {.}}\,\,{{\text
{U}}_{\text {i}}} = 0.5(1){(10)^2} = 50{\text {\mu J}}\)
\({{\text {U}}_{\text {f}}} = 0.5(1){(20)^2} = 200{\text {\mu J}}{\text {.}}\)
Difference = 150 μJ.

38) Answer is option 4 i.e. 4 times

 39) Answer is option 2 i.e. Farad

40) 2C

41) Answer is option 1 i.e.

42) Answer is option 2 i.e. E2

43) Answer is option 1 i.e. Electrostatic Energy

44) Answer is option 2 i.e. 0.0125 J

45) R1

CHEMISTRY

46)

[A]t = [A]0 – Kt
= 0.3 – 10–2 × 10
= 0.2 M

47) Question Explanation: Find rate of reaction when 50% of the reactant have been
converted to product.

Concept: This question is based on First order reaction.

Solution:
0
r = K [A]2 [B]
0
10–2 = K(1)2 (1) ⇒ K = 10–2
0
finally, r = 10–2(1/2)2 (1/2)
= 2.5 × 10–3

Final Answer: Option (2)

48)

First order reaction

t1/2 =

k= min–1
rate of reaction after 60 min.
 r = k[A]t

r=

r=

49) r = K[NO]a [Cl2]b

3 × 10–3 = ⇒b=1

9 × 10–3 = ⇒a=2

50) Question Explanation: Find possible order of reaction

Concept: This question is based on zero order reaction.

Solution:

From the graph concentration of reactant (R) is decreasing with the time
linearly.
So the order of reaction is zero.
For zero order reaction :
[R]0 – [R]t = kt

Final Answer: Option (4)

51) r = K[A]x [B]y

By I, II
A = doubled, B = same, r = doubled
∴x=1
By II, III
A = same, B = doubled, r = doubled
∴y=1
r = K [A] [B]
By I, 2 × 10–4 = K × (1 × 10–2) × (2 × 10–2)
K=1

54)
log3 + log rA = log rB + log5
log (3 × rA) = log (5 × rB)
 3rA = 5rB ;
x:y=5:3

55) The given data are known in the figure.

Obviously, Ea(b) = Ea(f)–ΔH = (65 + 42) kJ mol–1

56) rnew = rinitial × μ(ΔT/10)

= R0 × (2)40/10
= 16 R0

57) ×2
2K1 = K2 = 4K3

59) Question Explanation:

To select false statement about rate constant
Concept:
Theory of rate constant
Solution:
Value of rate constant depend on temp and catalyst
Value of rate constant does not depend on care
Final Answer:
Option (4)

61)

K 1 = K2
1015e–3000/T = 1014e–1000/T.

10 = e–1000/T + 3000/T
10 = e2000/T

ℓn10 =

T=

= 868.58

62)
Correct option is 2

63) Refer t50% formulae.

65)

Correct option is 4.

68) Question Explanation: Structural features of the Aluminum chloride dimer.

Concept: Dimerization and Bonding

Solution: Al2​Cl6​ is a non-planar dimer where each Al is sp3 hybridized.

It contains four terminal (2c-2e−) and two bridge (2c-2e−) coordinate bonds, completing Al's
octet.

Final Answer: Option (2)

70)

H3BO3 + HCl

71)

Answer – Option(3 )

Explanation – The question focuses on silicones, which are polymers containing chains of
silicon and oxygen atoms.

Concept – (Polymers of S & O)

72)

Question Explanation:
We need to identify the incorrect statement among the given options related to stability of
oxidation states and compounds.

Concept:
The inert pair effect becomes significant down a group. Due to poor shielding by d and f
electrons, the outer ns2 electrons tend to remain inert, making lower oxidation states more
 stable for heavier p-block elements.

Solution:

1. BiCl5 is less stable than BiF5

Correct. Fluorine stabilizes the +5 oxidation state better due to high electronegativity and
strong Bi-F bonds.
2. SnCl2 can't exist with HgCl2

Correct. HgCl2 oxidizes Sn2+ to Sn4+ due to redox reaction.

3. Ga2 Cl6 exists

Correct. Gallium halides exist as dimers due to incomplete octet.

4. Pb4+ is more stable than Pb2+

Incorrect. Due to inert pair effect, Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+.

Final Answer :
4+ 2+
Pb is more stable than Pb

73)

Sn+4 is more stable than Sn+2

74)

Question Explanation:
Asking about stability of +1 oxidation stare among AI, Ga, In and order

Concept: Inert pair effect.

Solution: The stability of the +1 oxidation state in Group 13 elements increases down the
group due to the inert pair effect.
Al < Ga < In <

Final Answer: Option(4)

75)

Conceptual

78)

Asking for : To match compounds (B2​H6​, Al2​Cl6​, I2​Cl6​, Si2​H6​) with their structural and bonding
properties.
Concept : This tests knowledge of bonding, geometry, and hybridization in these inorganic
molecules, including non-planarity, hybridization, multi-center bonds, vacant orbital
involvement, and presence of X-X bonds.

Solution: Diborane (B2​H6)​ (P, Q, R, S) and aluminum chloride dimer (Al2​Cl6)​ (P, Q, R, S) are
non-planar, sp3 hybridized with 3c−2e− or 3c−4e− bonds and vacant orbitals.

Iodine chloride dimer (I2​Cl6​) (Q, R, S,) is planar, sp3d2 hybridized with 3c−4e− bonds and
vacant orbitals.

Disilane (Si2​H6)​ (P, Q, T) is non-planar, sp3 hybridized and has a Si-Si bond, but lacks multi-
center bonds.

Therefore correct matching is : A→P,Q,R,S; B→P,Q,R,S; C→Q,R,S; D→P,Q,T

Answer : Option : 1

79)

Asking for: Identify the nitrogen oxide that does not contain an N-N bond.
Concept: Structure of nitrogen oxides, bonding in nitrogen oxides.
Formula: N/A
Solution/explanation:
1. N2O4 (Dinitrogen Tetroxide):
- Structure: O2N-NO2
- Contains an N-N bond.
2. N2O5 (Dinitrogen Pentoxide):
- Structure: O2N-O-NO2
- Contains an N-O-N linkage, not a direct N-N bond.
3. N2O3 (Dinitrogen Trioxide):
- Structure: ON-NO2
- Contains an N-N bond.
4. N2O (Nitrous Oxide):
- Structure: N=N=O
- Contains an N-N bond.
Therefore, N2O5 does not contain a direct N-N bond.
Answer:
Option : 2

80)

Explanation -
The question asks to identify the halogen (F, Br, I, Cl) that exclusively forms only one oxyacid
with the general formula HOX (hypohalous acid).

Concept - Oxy acids

Solution –
Fluorine (F) is the halogen that forms only one oxyacid of the type HOX, which is hypofluorous
acid (HOF). Its high electronegativity and small size restrict it from forming other oxy acids
with higher oxidation states, unlike chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

Final Answer - Option (1)

81)

Explain Question: Identify correct statements describing the S₈ molecule.

Concept: Structure and hybridisation of sulfur
Solution: S₈ has crown-shaped cyclic structure with single S–S bonds (no Pπ–Pπ). Each S atom
is sp³ hybridised with two lone pairs per atom (total 16).

Final Answer: Option (1)

82)

Conceptual

83)

Explanation - The question asks which statements about diborane (B₂H₆) are correct,
focusing on hybridization, bond angles, and electron count.
Concept - (Structure of diborane)
Boron in diborane is approximately sp³ hybridized. Each boron atom has two terminal B-H
bonds. The B-H-B bridging angle is not 180°. Diborane has 12 bonding electrons.

Final Answer - Option (1)

84) Explain Question: Decreasing order of acidic strength of chlorine oxoacids

Concept: Acidic strength, Electro negativity.

 Solution:
Oxidation number increases, acidic strength increases so
Acidic strength HClO4 (+7) > HClO3 (+5) > HClO2 (+3) > HClO (+1)

Final Answer: Option (1)

85)

Correct option is 4

86)

NCERT-XII, part-1, Pg. # 199, Edition -2022-23

87) Zn + dil. HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO

88) Explain Question: Identify incorrect statement.

Concept: Properties and structure of noble gas and their compound.

Solution:

A. In XeO₃, Xe forms 3 σ and 3 π bonds (not 4 σ and 4 π). (Incorrect)

A. XeF₄ has sp³d² hybridisation (Correct)

B. Argon is most abundant noble gas in air (Correct)
C. Liquid helium is used as cryogenic liquid (Correct)

Final Answer: option(1)

89)

Conceptual

90)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the incorrect trend among the given options describing the
properties (thermal stability, bond strength, reducing character, basicity) of Group 15
hydrides.
 Concept - General Properties of Group - 15.

Solution -

The incorrect statement is regarding reducing character. Reducing ability increases down the
group (NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3) because the stability of the hydrides decreases,
making it easier to donate hydrogen. The other trends for thermal stability, bond dissociation
enthalpy, and basicity decrease down the group.

Final Answer - Option (3)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XII Pg. # 67

92) NCERT XII pg.# 67

93)

Correct option is 3

94)

a→1.3%, b→37.2%

95)

Correct option is 1

96)

Correct option is 2

97)

Correct optio is 2

98) NCERT Pg. # 85

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 74 (2022 edition) Figure 4.15

101)
 Question Explanation : identify which ones correctly describe sickle cell anaemia.

Concept : Sickle Cell Anaemia — Type, Cause & Mode of Inheritance

Solution : Sickle cell anaemia is:

A. Mendelian → single gene defect

B. Genetic → inherited genetically
C. Point mutation → substitution
D. Autosomal recessive → both alleles must be defective
E. Qualitative → structure of Hb changes
F. Autosomal → chromosome 11

Final answer : Option (3) i, ii, v, viii, ix, xi

102)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 90

103) Explain Question – What percentage of sons will inherit an x-linked disorder from their
affected father.
Concept – This question based on X- linked inheritance.
Solution –
A diseased father (with an X-linked disorder) will pass his Y chromosome to his son (because
sons inherit the Y chromosome from their fathers).the X- linked disorder is carried on the X
chromosome, so the son cannot inherit the disorder from his father, as he does not receive an
X chromosome from him.
Final Answer :- (1)

104)

(i) carrier, (ii) haemophilic

105) NCERT Page # 73, 74

106)

In Drosophila (fruit flies), the genes for body color and eye color are located on the X-
chromosome.

A. The gene for eye color in Drosophila (such as the red or white eye color) is X-linked.
B. The gene for body color (such as grey or ebony body color) is also located on the X-
chromosome in Drosophila.

107)
New combinations of alleles are formed due to:
1. Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis - This leads to random
distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes to gametes.
2. Random fusion of gametes -The combination of any two gametes (each with a unique
genetic combination) during fertilization creates new genetic combinations.
3. Crossing over -During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material,
leading to the formation of new allele combinations.

108)

NCERT Reference:
Biology -XII, Page No.-92

109)

X-linked recessive trait

110)

Question Explanation:

Identifying inheritance pattern from a pedigree chart.

Concept:

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

Solution:

The trait is a recessive disorder as it skips a generation (e.g., the unaffected parents in the
second generation have an affected child in the third). It is autosomal because both males and
females are affected, and an affected female passes the trait to her son, which would not
happen in a sex-linked dominant pattern.

Final Answer:

Option 3: Autosomal recessive

OR

NCERT XII Page No.72

111)

Question Explain : This question asks which symbol is used to represent mating or marriage
in a pedigree chart.
Concept: Pedigree Analysis – Representation of relationships.
Solution:
In a pedigree chart, a horizontal line connecting a male (square) and a female (circle)
represents mating or marriage between them.

Final Answer:

113) Solution: Both statements are true and R correctly explains A.

Final Answer: (1)

114) Solution: 20% recombination means 20 map units apart on same chromosome.
Final Answer: (2)

115)

The term “linkage” was coined by T.H. Morgan.

116)

Correct option is 4.

117) NCERT-XII (H) Pg#93, PARA-5.3.3

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#83, PARA-5.3.3

118) NCERT-XII (E), Pg # 70, fig. 4.12(c)

120)

Down Syndrome

121) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92(E), 101(H)

122) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92(E), 102(H)

123) NCERT-XII, Pg # 92(E), 102(H)

124)

Development of breasts in males

125)

(A) Monoploidy → (5) x

(B) Monosomy → (1) 2n – 1
(C) Nullisomy → (4) 2n – 2
(D) Trisomy → (2) 2n + 1
(E) Tetrasomy → (3) 2n + 2
(A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)

126)

Correct option is 2

127)

100%

128) NCERT Page No. #

129)

Both statements I and II are correct

130) NCERT XII Pg.# 86,87

131)

Point mutation

133)

Explain Question: Question asks about the phenomenon depicted in the figure showing two
possible orientations of homologous chromosome pairs during meiosis I leading to different
combinations in germ cells.

Concept: Chromosomal theory of inheritance

Solution: The figure shows two different possibilities of alignment and separation of two
homologous chromosome pairs, producing different types of germ cells. This variation arises
due to independent assortment, not linkage, dominance, or equational division.

Final answer: Option 2

134)

Explain Question: The question asks to find the diseased progeny in the given cross.

Concept: Sickle cell anemia.

Solution:
HbᴬHbˢ × HbᴬHbˢ

The diseased progeny will be 25%.

So, the correct answer is: 3.

Final answer: Option 3

135)

Unfertilised egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis

136) Question explanation : The question asks which of the listed events does not occur
after a tubectomy, a surgical contraceptive method in females.

Concept: Birth Control Surgical Contraceptive Methods.

Solution: Tubectomy prevents fertilization by cutting or tying the fallopian tubes, blocking
the path of the ovum.

After tubectomy, fertilization does not occur because the ovum and sperm cannot meet.
Final answer: 4

137)

Correct option is 4

138)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct world population figures for the years 1900 and
2000.

Concept: Population growth.

Solution:

A = 2 billion → World population in 1900 was approximately 2 billion.

B = 6 billion → By 2000, global population had risen to around 6 billion.

Final answer: 2.

139) Explain Question : Check validity of statements about lactational amenorrhea as a

contraceptive method.
Concept: This question is based on contraception (Natural Methods)
Solution:The correct option is 2.
The Assertion is correct; lactational amenorrhea is a natural contraceptive method that is
typically effective for a maximum of six months postpartum.
The reason is also correct; it is a natural method of contraception.
However, the reason does not explain why it is only effective for six months.
Final answer : 2

141)

IUD and sterilization inhibit gamete formation

142)

Can ejaculate semen without sperms

143)

Correct option is 1

144)

(ii) and (iii)

146) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 47

147)

Correct option is 1

148)

Artificial insemination

149) ANSWER : 3

151) NCERT (2023-24), XII, PAGE 47

152) NCERT (2023-24) XII, PAGE: 44 -46

153)

IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

154) Correct option is 3.

They prevent fertilisation or implantation
 155)

Correct option is 2

156)

Question explanation: Identify the contraceptive device and its correct site of implantation
in a woman.

Concept: This question is based on birth control temporary contraceptive methods.

Solution:

A. The device shown is a contraceptive implant, which is a small rod-like structure containing
hormones. It is a temporary contraceptive method that releases hormones (like progestin)
slowly to prevent ovulation and fertilization.
B. This implant is placed under the skin (subcutaneous tissue), usually in the upper arm.
C. Being subcutaneous allows slow and continuous release of hormones into the bloodstream for
long-term contraception.

Final answer: Option 3

157)

Explain Question : Which of the following statement is not correct

Concept : This question is based on birth control temporary contraceptive methods
Explanation : Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill taken once a week, developed in
India, with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Final answer : 4

158) Correct option is 1

159) NCERT XIIth Pg # 64

160) NCERT new Pg # 47

161)

Intra uterine device

162) Question Is Asking:

A. To identify and count the contraceptive methods that are characterized by minimal to no
adverse side effects on the user's health.

Solution Explanation:

A. Lactational amenorrhea: Natural method; generally few side effects, but dependent on
 consistent breastfeeding.
B. Periodic abstinence: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
C. Coitus interruptus: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
B. Methods with "almost no side effects":
A. Lactational amenorrhea
B. Periodic abstinence
C. Coitus interruptus

Answer:
The correct answer is option 2: THREE.

163) NCERT New Pg#47

164)

Question Explanation: Identify the correctly matched contraceptive device with its location
and function.
Concept: Contraceptive methods

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. (A) Cu-T – It is an intrauterine device (IUD) placed inside the uterus.

B. Function: Copper ions released from Cu-T suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
capacity, thereby preventing fertilization.

Other options are incorrect because:

A. Hormone implants do not phagocytose sperm.

B. Diaphragm is placed in the vagina (not cervix) and acts as a barrier.

C. Female condom does not suppress oxygen uptake of sperm.

Final Answer: Option 1

165)

NCERT New Pg. No. 48

166)

Solution:
An ideal contraceptive should possess several key qualities to be effective and acceptable for
use. Let’s break down the options:
A. User-friendly:
An ideal contraceptive should be easy to use, ensuring compliance and convenience for the
user.
B. Easily available:
It should be accessible to individuals in terms of availability and affordability.
C. Effective but reversible with no or least side effects:
It should be effective in preventing pregnancy, reversible (for individuals who may wish to
conceive later), and have minimal or no side effects to ensure safety and long-term usage.
D. All of these:
An ideal contraceptive would ideally have all these qualities to ensure it is practical, safe,
and effective for the user.

Final Answer: (4) All of these

167)

Explanation : How many of the given statements about the test tube baby programme are
incorrect?
Concept : The question is based on assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
Solution :

A. (A) Incorrect: Fertilization in test tube baby programme occurs outside the female
genital tract, not inside.

B. (B) Correct: The gestation period after embryo transfer is same as normal pregnancy.

C. (C) Correct: Fertilization is done outside (in vitro), and the embryo is implanted in the
mother’s womb for gestation.

D. (D) Incorrect: Only fertilization occurs outside; development happens inside the uterus,
not outside.

Correct: B, C
Incorrect: A, D
Final answer : Option(1)

168)

Emergency contraceptive pill have progesterone mainly and they prevent ovulation.
These are not useful if implantation already occurred.

169)

Question Explanation – The question asks which of the given contraceptive methods are
correctly matched with their actions.
Concept – This question is based on Contraceptive methods – types and mechanisms
Solution –

A. (a) Barrier methods- prevent conception – correct.

B. (b) Pills- inhibit ovulation and sometimes implantation – correct.

C. (c) Surgical/terminal methods - sterilisation – correct.

D. (d) Periodic abstinence- avoids fertile period – correct.

All four pairs are correctly matched.

Final Answer – Option 4

170)

Question Explanation: The question asks why spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are
used along with barrier methods like condoms or diaphragms.

Concept: Barrier Methods of Contraception.

Solution: Spermicides contain chemicals that kill sperms, and when used with barrier
methods, they provide extra protection by ensuring that any sperm that escapes the barrier is
destroyed — thus increasing contraceptive efficiency.

Final Answer: Option (3)

171) NCERT XII, Page # 63, 64

172) NCERT XII, Page # 59

173) NCERT XII, Page # 62

174)

Module Page - 39

175)

Question Explanation: The question asks which combination of techniques comes under the
in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) procedure.

Concept: ART

Solution: In In vitro fertilisation (IVF), fertilisation occurs outside the body in a laboratory.
 After fertilisation, the embryo can be transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT – Zygote
Intrafallopian Transfer) or into the uterus (IUT – Intrauterine Transfer). These embryo transfer
methods are part of IVF techniques.

Final answer: Option 3

176)

Explain the Question : The question asks how many diseases in the given list are sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs).
Concept : This question is based on sexually transmitted diseases.
Solution :
Gonorrhoea → STD
Syphilis → STD
Phenylketonuria → Not an STD (genetic disorder)
Typhoid → Not an STD
Trichomoniasis → STD
Hepatitis B → STD
AIDS → STD
Total STDs = 5
Final Answer : (4)

177) Question Explanation – The question asks which contraceptive methods work by
preventing ovulation.

Concept – Hormonal methods of contraception

Solution – Pills, Depo-Provera (injectable), and Norplant (implants) are hormonal

contraceptives that inhibit ovulation by suppressing the release of FSH and LH from the
pituitary.

Final Answer – Option 4

178)

Emergency contraceptive pills - progesterone only pill.

e.g. i-pill, unwanted-72

179)

Lactational amenorrhea, pills, oral contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormones.

180) Saheli :

A. Weekly oral pill

B. Non-steroidal & non-hormonal pill. (Developed by scientists at CDRI Lucknow).
C. Few side effects and high contraceptive value.
D. Mechanism: it blocks oestrogen receptors in uterus and prevents implantation.