27-05-2026

4504CMD303021260002 MD

PHYSICS

1) The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is 0.5 A from A to B through E.

Find the emf of unknown battery X.

(1) 4V
(2) 10V
(3) 20V
(4) 15V

2) In the circuit shown, the current flowing from the battery, is

(1) 11/50 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 5/3 A
(4) Infinite current

3) The meter-bridge wire AB shown in figure is 50 cm long. When AD = 30 cm, no deflection occurs

in the galvanometer. Find R.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4) An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the two coils is switched on, the tea begins
to boil in 10 minutes. When only second coil is switched on, the boiling begins in 15 minutes. When
both coils are connected in parallel and switched on the tea starts boiling in time t, then t is :-

(1) 4 minute
(2) 6 minute
(3) 25 minute
(4) 12 minute

5) The potential difference between A and B will be

(1) 5 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 11 V
(4) 10 V

6) A battery consists of 24 identical cells, each of internal resistance r. They are arranged in a mixed
grouping of n rows in parallel, each row having m cells in series. This battery delivers maximum
power to an external resistor R = 1.5r. The values of m and n are:

(1) m = 6, n = 4
(2) m = 8, n = 3
(3) m = 4, n = 6
(4) m = 12, n = 2

7) Two different load resistances R1​ and R2​ dissipate the same amount of power when connected to a
certain cell. The internal resistance r of the cell is:

(1) (R1 ​+ R2​) / 2

(2)
(3) R1​R2 ​/ (R1​ + R2​)
(4) ∣R1​ − R2​∣

8) The graph of power (P) vs load resistance (R) for a real battery shows a peak at R = 4 Ω. The
internal resistance of the battery is:

(1) 2 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 8 Ω
(4) 16 Ω
9) Find the equivalent emf of the three batteries shown in fig.

(1) 1 volt
(2) 2 volt
(3) 3 volt
(4) 6 volt

10) Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The

ratio of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) When a shunt is connected in parallel to a galvanometer, the effective resistance of the resulting
ammeter is:

(1) Greater than the galvanometer resistance G

(2) Greater than the shunt resistance S
(3) Less than the shunt resistance S
(4) Equal to G+S

12) A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12Ω and the meter shows full scale deflection for a
current of 3mA. To convert this into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18V, the value of resistance to be
connected in series is:

(1) 5988Ω
(2) 6000Ω
(3) 5900Ω
(4) 6012Ω
13) In which of the following circuit(s), the effective resistance between A and B is equal to .

(1) I and II only

(2) I, II and IV only
(3) II and III only
(4) II and IV only

14) In the given circuit, the ratio of current i1 : i2 : i3 is:

(1) 5 : 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 5 : 10
(3) 3 : 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 2 : 5

15) Assertion: V – I graph is a straight line passing through origin, for ohmic metallic conductors.

Reason: For ohmic metallic conductors is constant.

(1) A is true but R is false

(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

16)
A cylindrical wire has a resistance R and resistivity ρ. If its length and diameter are both halved,
its resistivity will now be:

(1) 3ρ
(2) 4ρ
(3) 2ρ
(4) ρ

17) Four identical cells are connected as shown in figure. Potential difference VA – VC =

(1) 1.5 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 3.5 V
(4) Zero

18) Current through the resistance in the electrical network shown is

(1) Zero
(2) 1 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 5 A

19) In the circuit, the resistance between A and B is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The resistance between P and Q in the given figure is

(1)

(2)

(3) 2r
(4) 6r

21) Two wires of equal diameters of resistivities ρ1 and ρ2 and ℓ1 and ℓ2 respectively, are joined in
series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The equivalent resistance between points a and b of a network shown in the figure is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Find out current passing through switch when it is closed ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 25 A
(4) Zero

24) A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows

through it. Which one of the following statement is correct

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B
(4) The drift speed varies randomly

25) In the circuit shown, potential difference between X and Y will be

(1) Zero
(2) 20 V
(3) 60 V
(4) 120 V

26) In the given circuit, calculate the value of current in resistor :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 0.25 A
(4) 0.5 A

27) Consider a part of circuit as in figure some currents are indicated on branches then ‘i’ is :-
(1) 10 A
(2) 11 A
(3) 7 A
(4) 14 A

28) The resistance of the following circuit figure between A and B is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

29) The current i and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and

T2 are shown in the figure. It is concluded that

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) T1 = 2T1

30) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as . The charge flowing the
cross section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2s in

(1) 21 C
(2) 10 C
(3) 22 C
(4) 1 C

31) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a wire having cross-sectional area 1 mm2. If density of free
electrons in the material of the wire is 1029 per m3, the drift velocity of electrons will be :-

(1) 10–4 m/s

(2) 10–3 m/s
(3) 10–2 m/s
(4) 0.1 m/s

32) Resistivity depends on :

(1) nature of the material

(2) free electron number density
(3) temperature
(4) All of the above

33) If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given

by

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 400 Ω
(3) 200 Ω
(4) 50 Ω

34) If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistivity

(1) increase by 0.05%

(2) increase by 0.2%
(3) decrease by 0.2%
(4) None

35) Assertion (A): When Current flows in conducting wire every free e– moves along straight line
between two consecutive collisions
Reason (R): Current in wire flows in direction of electric field.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
36) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find
the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Four identical bulbs A, B, C, D are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. Whenever any bulb

fails, it cannot conduct current through it. Then :-

(1) Brightness of bulb C is highest without fuse of any bulb.

(2) If C fails, brightness of bulb D increases
(3) If C fails, brightness of all bulbs decreases
(4) If A fails, brightness of bulb B increases

38) In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in the 5Ω resistor due to the current flowing

through it is 10 cal/s. The heat generated in the 4Ω resistor is :

(1) 1 cal/s
(2) 2 cal/s
(3) 3 cal/s
(4) 4 cal/s

39) A battery of 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected to a resistor R. The maximum power
dissipated in R is:

(1) 10 W
(2) 25 W
(3) 50 W
(4) 100 W

40) Maximum power is transferred to a load when the ratio of external resistance to internal
resistance is:

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

41) A resistor of resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance 5Ω. The value of R is varied
from 1Ω to 5Ω. The power consumed by R :-

(1) increases continuously

(2) decreases continuously
(3) first decreases then increases
(4) first increases then decreases

42) current of 0.8 A flows in a conductor of 40 for 1 minute. The heat produced in the conductor
will be

(1) 1640 J
(2) 1445 J
(3) 1569 J
(4) 1536 J

43) In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are identical. Which bulb will be the brightest?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
44) Find the value of x for which bridge is balanced

(1) 80 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 16 Ω

45) Three electric bulbs 40W , 60W and 100W are designed to work on a 220V mains. Which bulb
will burn most brightly if they are connected in series across 220V mains

(1) 100W bulb

(2) 60W bulb
(3) 40W bulb
(4) all bulbs will burn equally brightly

CHEMISTRY

1) Write Nernst equation at equilibrium condition:-

(1)
= E°
(2) 2.303 RT log Keq = E°

(3)
= E°
(4) None of these

2) Electrons flow from Cu to Zn in Daniel cell when :-

(1) Eext < 1.1V

(2) Eext > 1.1V
(3) Eext = 1.1V
(4) All of these

3) The standard electrode potential for Daniel cell is 1.1V. calculate the standard Gibbs free energy
change for the reaction :
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

(1) –219 KJ/mol

(2) –212.27 KJ/mol
(3) –201.92 KJ/mol
(4) –192 KJ/mol

4) The value of specific conductance and molar conductance on dilution respectively :-

(1) Increases, Decreases

(2) Decreases, Increases
(3) Decreases, Decreases
(4) Increases, Increases

5)
A and B respectively are :-

(1) HCN, NaCl

(2) KCl, NaCl
(3) KCl, CH3COOH
(4) CH3COOH, HCN

0
6) for NaCl, HCl and NaAc are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Calculate Λ for
HAc.

(1) 295.6 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 385.2 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 405.28 S cm2 mol–1

7) The conductivity of 10–3 mol L–1 acetic acid is 7.81 × 10–5 S cm–1. Calculate its dissociation constant
if for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol–1.

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1

(2) 4 × 10–5 mol L–1
(3) 4 × 10–6 mol L–1
(4) 5 × 10–5 mol L–1

8) A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. What is the mass
of copper deposited at the cathode? (mass of Cu = 63 g/mol)

(1) 0.38 g
(2) 0.456 g
(3) 0.2938 g
(4) 0.598 g

9) Galvanic cells that are designed to convert the energy of combustion of methane into electrical
energy are called :-

(1) Primary cell

(2) Secondary cell
(3) Fuel cell
(4) Mercury cell

10) Given the standard electrode potentials,

K+/K = –2.93V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80V,
Hg2+/Hg = 0.79V
Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V, Cr3+/Cr = –0.74V
Arrange these metals in their increasing order of reducing power.

(1) K > Cr > Hg > Ag > Mg

(2) K > Hg > Ag > Cr > Mg
(3) K > Mg > Cr > Hg > Ag
(4) K > Mg > Cr > Ag > Hg

11) How much charge is required for the reduction of 1 mol of Al3+ to Al ?

(1) 6.257 × 107 C

(2) 2.895 × 105 C
(3) 2.895 × 107 C
(4) none of the above

12) Which of the following is strogest oxidising agent?

– 2+
(1) MnO4 /Mn , E° = + 1.52
(2) Fe3+/Fe2+, E° = + 0.76
–
(3) BrO3 /Br2, E° = + .150
2– 3+
(4) Cr2O7 /Cr , E° = + 1.33

13) Given standard electrode potentials

0
Fe+2 + 2e– → Fe; E = –0.440 V
0
Fe+3 + 3e– → Fe; E = –0.036 V
The standard electrode potential (Eº) for Fe+3 + e– → Fe+2 is :

(1) –0.476 V
(2) –0.404 V
(3) +0.404 V
(4) + 0.772 V
14) Eº for the cell is 1.10 V at 25ºC, the equilibrium constant for the
reaction is of the order of :

(1) 10–28
(2) 10+37
(3) 10+18
(4) 10+17

15) The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1cm–1 at 25° C. Its equivalent
conductance (cm–1 ohm eq–1 ) is :–

(1) 140
(2) 14
(3) 1.4
(4) 0.14

16) The electrical properties and their respective SI units are given below. Identify the wrongly
matched pair

Electrical Property SI Unit

(1) Specific conductance Sm–1

(2) Equivalent Conductance Sm2(gm equiv)–1

(3) Molar Conductance Sm2mol–1

(4) Cell constant m

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) In a process of electrolysis, is converted into MnO2. By 1 Faraday, one mole of will
give

(1) 1 mol of MnO2

(2) 0.5 mol of MnO2
(3) 0.66 mol of MnO2
(4) 0.33 mol of MnO2

18) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt-bridge because

(1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of

(2) Velocity of is greater than that of K+
(3) Velocity of both K+ and are nearly same
(4) KNO3 is soluble in water

19) 0.32g of a metal on treatment with an acid gives 112 mL of hydrogen at NTP. Calculate the
equivalent weight of the metal :-

(1) 58
(2) 32
(3) 11.2
(4) 24

20)

Find the EMF of cell at 25°C

[Given : P1 = 600 mm, P2 = 420 mm, = 0.06, log 7 = 0.85]

(1) – 0.0045 V
(2) – 0.0 V
(3) + 0.0045V
(4) + 0.0015 V

21) Rusting of iron is catalyzed by which of following :-

(1) Fe
(2) Zn
(3) O2
(4) H+

22) For lead storage battery pick the correct statements

A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode is converted into PbO2
B. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on cathode is converted into PbO2
C. Lead storage battery, consists of grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode
D. Lead storage battery has ~ 38% solution of sulphuric acid as an electrolyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, D only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) B, C only

23) Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is
1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of
0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol–1 is :

(1) 5 × 103
(2) 5 × 102
(3) 5 × 10–4
(4) 5 × 10–3

24) When an electric current is passed through acidulated water, 112 ml. of hydrogen gas at STP
collects at the cathode in 965 second. The current passed, in ampere is :

(1) 1.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.1
(4) 2.0

25) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 produces :–

(1) An increase in pH
(2) A decrease in pH
(3) Either decrease or increase
(4) None

26) For HCl solution at 25°C, equivalent conductance at infinite dilution, is

425 ohm–1cm2equiv–1. The specific conductance of solution of HCl is 3.825 ohm–1 cm–1. If the degree of
dissociation is 90%, the normality of the solution is :-

(1) 0.90 N
(2) 1.0 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 1.2 N

27) The emf of cell Tl is 0.83 V at. 298 K It could be increased by :

(1) decreasing concentration of both Tl+ and Cu2+ ions

(2) increasing concentration of Cu2+ ions
(3) increasing concentration of Tl+ ions
(4) increasing concentration of both Tl+ and Cu2+ ions

28) Match List I with List II

List - II
List - I (Cell)
(Use/Property/Reaction)

Converts energy of combustion into

A. Leclanche cell I. electrical
energy

Does not involve any ion in solution and is

B. Ni − Cd cell II.
used in hearing aids
 C. Fuel cell III. Rechargeable

D. Mercury cell IV. Reaction at anode Zn → Zn2+ + 2e−

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

29) The function of a salt bridge is to:

(1) Maintain electrical neutrality of both half cells

(2) Increase the cell potential at the positive electrode
(3) Decrease the cell potential at the negative electrode
(4) Eliminate the impurities present in the electrolyte

30) Select the correct cell reaction of the cell Pt(s)|Cl2(g)|Cl–(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s)

+
(1) Cl2(g) + Ag (aq) Ag(s) + 2Cl–(aq)
(2) Cl2(g) + Ag(aq) 2Cl–(aq) + Ag+(aq)
– +
(3) 2Cl (aq) + 2Ag (aq) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
(4) AgCl(s) Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq)

31) The electrode potential becomes equal to standard electrode potential when reactants and
products concentration ratio is:

(1) Equal to 1
(2) greater than 1
(3) less than 1
(4) none of these

32) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) and ∆G of cell reaction both are extensive properties.

(2) and ∆G of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(3) is an intensive property while ∆G of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(4) is an extensive property while ∆G of cell reaction is an intensive property.

33) A gas Cl2 at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Br–1 and 1 M F–1 at
25°[Link] the reduction potential order is F2 > Cl2 > Br2. then :

– –
(1) Cl2 will oxidise Br and not F
– –
(2) Cl2 will oxidise F and not Br
– –
(3) Cl2 will oxidise both Br and F
 –
(4) Cl will reduce both Br2 and F2

34) For the given Nernst equation

Which of the following representation is correct?

(1) Ag+ | Ag || Mg2+ | Mg

(2) Mg2+ | Mg || Ag | Ag+
(3) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag+ | Ag
(4) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag | Ag+

35) I. Cathode is at negative terminal both in electrochemical and electrolytic cells.

II. Reduction occurs at cathode both in galvanic as well as electrolytic cells.
III. Chemical change in electrolytic cell is non-spontaneous.

(1) If all the statements are correct

(2) If II and III are correct
(3) If I and III are correct
(4) If only II is correct

36) Assertion (A): If standard reduction potential for the reaction, Ag+ + e– → Ag is 0.80 volt, then
for the reaction, 2Ag+ + 2e– → 2Ag, it will be 1.60 volt.
Reason (R): If concentration of Ag+ ions is doubled, the electrode potential is also doubled.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

37) The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character
is given as Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. What will happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of
aluminium nitrate?

(1) The spoon will get coated with aluminium

(2) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed
(3) The solution becomes blue
(4) There is no reaction

38) On passing one faraday of electricity through a dilute solution of an acid, the volume of hydrogen
obtained at NTP is : -

(1) 22400 mL
(2) 1120 mL
(3) 2240 mL
(4) 11200 mL
39) The amount of electricity required to produce one mole of copper from copper sulphate solution
will be :

(1) 1 faraday
(2) 2.33 faraday
(3) 2 faraday
(4) 1.33 faraday

40) Which of the following metals can be displaced by Zn from its aqueous solution :-

(1) Mg
(2) Cu
(3) Na
(4) Al

41) Equal quantities of electricity are passed through three voltameters containing FeSO4, Fe2(SO4)3
and Fe(NO3)3. Consider the following statements in this regard :-
(a)The amount of iron deposited in FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 is equal.
(b) The amount of iron deposited in Fe(NO3)3 is two third of the amount of Fe deposited in FeSO4
(c) The amount of iron deposited in Fe2(SO4)3 and Fe(NO3)3 is equal
Of these statement :

(1) (a) alone is correct

(2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) alone is correct

42) Cost of electricity for the production of 'X' litre H2 at NTP at cathode is Rs. X, then cost of
electricity for the production 'X' litre O2 gas at NTP at anode will (assume 1 mole of electrons as one
unit of electricity) :-

(1) 2X
(2) 4X
(3) 16X
(4) 32X

43) Electrolysis of a solution of HSO4– ions produces S2O82–. Assuming 75% current efficiency, what
current should be employed to achieve a production rate of 1 mole of S2O82– per hour ?

(1) 71.5 A
(2) 35.7 A
(3) 53.0 A
(4) None of these

44) The current required to produce oxygen at the rate of 2ml per second during electrolysis of
acidulated water is :-
(1) 8.6 amps/sec
(2) 17.23 amps/sec
(3) 72.6 amps/sec
(4) 34.48 amps/sec

45) The standard potentials of OCl–/Cl– and Cl–/Cl2 are 0.94 V and –1.36 V respectively. The E° value
of OCl–/Cl2 will be -

(1) 1.04 V
(2) –0.42 V
(3) –2.20 V
(4) 0.52 V

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following conditions is true for co-dominance ?

(1) F1 didn't resemble either of two parents.

(2) F1 generation resembles both parents.
(3) F1 resembled either of two parents.
(4) Some blended phenotype appear in F1 generation.

2) If size of starch grain in pea is considered as phenotype, the heterozygous condition of Alleles
(Bb) will show.

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Co-dominance
(3) Dominant phenotype
(4) Recessive phenotype

3) Heterozygous round seed shape plant is crossed with wrinkled seed shape garden pea plant.
Progeny will be :-

(1) All round

(2) All wrinkled
(3) 50% round and 50% wrinkled
(4) 75% round and 25% wrinkled

4) When pink and white flowered Antirrhinum plants are crossed, the genotypic and phenotypic
ratios of the progeny will be :-

(1) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 and 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
5) How many pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?

(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Seven
(4) Five

6) Which of the following is true regarding Mendel's experiments ?

(1) F1 progenies are exactly similar to either of their parents in appearance.

(2) 50% of F2–plants showed parental genotype
(3) 50% of F2-plants showed F1-genotype
(4) All the above

7) Which statement is correct for incomplete dominance ?

(1) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are same

(2) Phenotypical blending of characters
(3) F1 hybrid does not resemble either of the parent
(4) All of the above

8) Assertion : Mendel found that the phenotype of F1 heterozygote Tt to be exactly like the TT
parent in appearance.
Reason : In a pair of dissimilar factors one dominates the other.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false Reason is true

9) Identify the incorrect statement:

(1) Tall plants produce gametes by meiosis and the dwarf plants by mitosis.
(2) Only one allele out of the pair is transmitted to a gamete.
(3) The segregation of alleles is a random process.
(4) Gametes will always be pure for the trait.

10) Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties. How many traits are related to flowers?

(1) Four
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Eight

11) How many type of zygotes will be formed by a parent having genotype RRYY × RrYY?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

12) Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotype of an offspring in
genetic cross is called.

(1) Morgan square

(2) Mendel square
(3) Punnett square
(4) Bunett square

13) In F2 generation of a monohybrid cross, 120 plants are obtained. The ratio between homozygous
and heterozygous plants will be

(1) 40:80
(2) 60:60
(3) 20:100
(4) 10:110

14) Assertion (A): Mendel’s dihybrid cross between round yellow and wrinkled green also showed
recombinants in F2.
Reason (R): Alleles of seed shape and seed colour assort independently during gamete formation.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

15) Identify the incorrect statement regarding a monohybrid cross :

(1) F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1

(2) F2 genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1
(3) All F1 individuals are homozygous
(4) Heterozygotes in F2 are indistinguishable phenotypically from dominant homozygotes

16) Which of the following trait will express only in homozygous condition -
(a) Yellow seed colour
(b) Green pod colour
(c) Inflated pod shape
(d) Terminal flower position
(e) Yellow pod colour

(1) Only e
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) d & e

17) Match the following (column-I with Column-II)

Column-I Column-II

a Allele i Two alleles of a gene are identical

An individual having two different alleles of a

b Genotype ii
gene

c Homozygous iii Genetic constitution of an organism

d Heterozygous iv Alternative forms of a gene

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

18) The degree by which the progeny differ from their parents is known as :

(1) Genetics
(2) Variation
(3) Heredity
(4) Inheritance

19) In human skin color inheritance, the genotype with three dominant and three recessive alleles
will produce

(1) Mulatto color

(2) Very dark color
(3) Fairly light color
(4) Light color

20) An allele is said to be dominant if :-

(1) It is expressed only in heterozygous condition.

(2) It is expressed only in homozygous condition.
(3) It is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition.
(4) It is expressed only in second generation.

21) Match the following column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Test cross 1 9:3:3:1

B Monohybrid cross 2 Tt × tt
 C Out cross 3 Tt × TT

D Dihybrid cross 4 3:1

(1) A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1
(2) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3
(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(4) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

22) The segregation of allele is a random process and so in a monohybrid plant there is a ______
chance of a gamete containing either allele :-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

23) If a dwarf variety of pea plant is treated with gibberellins it grows as tall pea plant, further it is
crossed with dwarf plant. Phenotype in the progeny is likely to be _______

(1) 100 % Tall

(2) 100 % Dwarf
(3) 50% Tall and 50% dwarf
(4) None of the above

24) Match the column–I (Type of offsprings) with the column-II (Their probability) in F2 generation of
a Mendelian dihybrid cross.

Column-I Column-II

Homozygous for one

(A) and Heterozygous for (i) 6/16
other character.

(B) Recombinant phenotype (ii) 2/16

(C) F1 phenotype (iii) 8/16

(D) Parental Genotypes (iv) 9/16

(1) A-iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii
(2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(3) A–i, B–iii, C–iv, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii

25) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct
identification of A, B & C :-

(1) A-Artificial cross pollination; B-Hybrid offsprings; C-Emasculation.

(2) A-Emasculation; B-Bagging & tagging; C-Hybrid offsprings.
(3) A-Emasculation; B-Artificial cross pollination; C-Hybrid offsprings
(4) A-Bagging & tagging; B-Emasculation; C-Hybrid offsprings.

26) Number of different alleles and genotypes of human ABO blood group types respectively are :-

(1) 2, 4
(2) 3, 6
(3) 6, 3
(4) 4, 2

27) Genotype of blood group ‘A’ will be

(1) IAIA / IAIB

(2) IBIB / IAi
(3) IAIA / IAi
(4) IAIB

28) What is the probability of obtaining offsprings homozygous for both characters in F2 generation
of dihybrid cross?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
29) Multiple alleles can be found only when :-

(1) Population studies are made

(2) Individual study is made
(3) Mutation is absent
(4) Dominance is present

30) A child's blood group is 'O'. His parents blood group can not be :-

(1) B & O
(2) A & O
(3) AB
(4) A & B

31) Match these tables :-

Many genes controlling

(a) Pleiotropic gene (i)
one character.

Single gene controlling

(b) Multiple alleles (ii)
many characters.

Polygenic
(c) (iii) Different forms of a gene.
Inheritance
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i

32) How many types of gametes will be produced by a genotype AaBbCCDD ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Sixteen

33) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-
(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.
(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of organisms.

34) Dihybrid test cross ratio proposed by Mendel is :-

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

35) Law, based on fact that the characters don't show any blending and both the characters are
recovered as such in F2-generation although one character was absent in F1-progeny, is:

(1) Law of purity of gametes.

(2) Law of independent assortment.
(3) Law of incomplete dominance.
(4) Law of dominance.

36) Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table:

No. of No.
Cross type
genotypes of phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid (I) 9 (1) 8

(B) Dihybrid (II) 27 (2) 4

(C) Trihybrid (III) 3 (3) 2

Choose the correct option:
(1) A-III-3, B-I-2, C-II-1
(2) A-II-1, B-III-2, C-I-3
(3) A-I-2, B-III-1, C-II-3
(4) A-III-3, B-II-1, C-I-2

37) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds:-

YR Yr yR ry

YR F J N R

Yr G K O S

yR H L P T

ry I M Q U
A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants
of:-
(1) Type M
(2) Type U
(3) Type P
(4) Type N

38) Ratio of plants which are dominant for both characters and recessive for both characters in the
F2 generation of dihybrid cross is –

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

39) If human blood grouping is controlled by 5 alleles of a gene. Calculate the possible genotypes in
a population.

(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 21
(4) 15

40) Mendel proposed which of the following term for hereditary units ?

(1) Factor
(2) Genome
(3) Chromosome
(4) Gene

41) If the D allele is completely dominant over the d allele, what percentage of the offspring will
have the homozygous dominant genotype when Dd and Dd individuals mate ?

(1) 0%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

42) Which law is universal without any exception?

(1) Law of segregation

(2) Law of Independent Assortment
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Law of Dominance

43) Statement I: Mendel conducted artificial pollination/cross pollination experiments using several
true-breeding pea lines.
Statement II: Mendel experiments had a small sampling size.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

44) Which one of the following is not an example of Co-dominance?

(1) Coat colour in cattles

(2) AB blood group in humans
(3) HbAHbS individual in sickle cell anaemia
(4) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

45) The modified allele :-

(1) Never expresses itself

(2) May form functional or non functional enzyme
(3) Mostly shows dominance over unmodified allele
(4) Is present at a locus different from the locus of unmodified allele

46) Which of the following events induce the completion of the meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte in Human ?

(1) The process of contact of sperm with spermatid

(2) The entry of the sperm into the ovum.
(3) The release of ovum from the ovary.
(4) Collection of ovum after ovulation by infundibulum.

47) When released from ovary, each human egg contain:-

(1) X/Y chromosome

(2) 2 X chromosome
(3) 1 X chromosome
(4) XY chromosome

48) Assertion : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason: Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

49) Which of the following structure is present in fallopian tube ?

(1) Blastula
(2) ICM
(3) Gastrula
(4) Zygote

50) In table below, time of embryo development and their characters are given. Find out correct
option:-

By the end
By the end of By the end of
of second
second month first trimester
trimester

External
Major organs Limbs and
(1) genital
system digit
organ

Major
Separation of Eye lashes are
(2) organ
eye lid formed
system

Eye lashes
Limbs and Limbs are well
(3) are
digit developed
formed

Major organ Eye lashes Limbs &

(4)
system formation digit
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Peak of LH & FSH occur during :-

(1) The beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.

(2) The period just before ovulation
(3) The end of luteal phase
(4) The secretory phase of menstrual cycle
52) In the given diagrammatic structure, which one is implanted ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53) Identify the structure shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in the

human and select the right option for two together.

Structure Site of occurrence

(1) Graafian follicle Ovary

(2) Ovum Fallopian tube

(3) Blastula Uterine cavity

(4) Morula Fallopian tube

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
54) The figure below shows three stage (A, B, C) of human development select the option giving

correct identification:

(1) A–Morula, B–Blastula, C–Zygote

(2) A–Blastocyst, B–Morula, C–Morula
(3) A–Ovum, B–Blastocyst, C–Zygote
(4) A–Blastocyst, B–Fertilization, C–Resembles mulberry

55) Which is not a correct match :-

(1) Morula - 8-16 cells solid ball like structure

Trophoblast - Extraembryonic membrane and
(2)
some part of embryo are formed
(3) Inner cell mass - Embryo formation
(4) Blastocoel - Blastocyst

56) Which is true for cleavage :-

(1) It is a type of mitotic division

(2) It starts in Isthmus
(3) It forms blastomeres
(4) All

57) Parturition is induced by a complex mechanism involving :-

(1) Cortisol
(2) Estrogen
(3) Oxytocin
(4) All

58) Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :-

(1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance

(2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus

59)

What is true for cleavage ?

(1) Size of embryo increases

(2) Size of embryo decreases
(3) Size of individual cells decreases
(4) Size of individual cells increases

60) Match the following and choose the correct options :-

Column I Column II
(A) Trophoblast (i) Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium
(B) Cleavage (ii) Group of cells that would differentiate as embryo
(C) Inner cell mass (iii) Outer most layer of developing embryo
(D) Implantation (iv) Lacks G1 and G2 phases
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

61) HCG, HPL, Estrogen, Progesterone, Androgen, Relaxin, Thyroxin.

How many of hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy ?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five

62) Which of the following is not a function of placenta ?

(1) Respiratory surface for exchange of O2 and CO2

(2) Transport antibodies for measles, polio, etc to foetus.
(3) Secretes hormones like GnRH, LH, FSH etc.
(4) Supply of nutritional substances to foetus.

63) Which one of following hormone is responsible for ovulation :-

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) GnRH
(4) Estrogen

64) Capacitation of sperm occurs in :-

(1) Testis
(2) Epididymis
(3) Female genital tract
(4) Urethra
65) After implantation, finger-like projections appear on ___(A)___ called __(B)___.
Find the option which correctly fills above blanks.

(1) A-inner cell mass, B-umbilical cord

(2) A-trophoblast, B-yolksac
(3) A-trophoblast, B-chorionic villi
(4) A-inner cell mass, B-chorionic villi

66) Process of parturition in human being is a :-

(1) Hormonal mechanism

(2) Neural mechanism
(3) Chemical process
(4) Coordinated process of nervous and endocrine system

67) In the given diagram identify the labelled part :-

P-Umbilical cord with its vessels,

(1)
Q- Placental microvilli, R-Cavity of uterus, S-Embryo
U-Plug of mucus in cervix, S-yolk sac,
(2)
R-Cavity of uterus, Q-Placental villi
P-Umbilical cord with its nerves,
(3) Q-Placental villi, U-Plug of mucus in vagina,
S-Embryo
Q-Placental villi, S-Cavity of uterus,
(4)
R-Yolksac, U-Plug of mucus in cervix

68)

Read the following statements & find out the correct option :-
(a) Zona pellucida is formed by ovary
(b) Bleeding phase last for 3 to 5 days and menarche is first menstruation
(c) Lack of menstruation is confirmation of pregnancy
(d) FSH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle

(e) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone for maintenance of endometrium

(1) a, c & e are correct but b and d are incorrect
(2) a, d, e are correct but b & c are incorrect
(3) a, b, c are correct but d & e are incorrect
(4) b & e are correct but a, c, d are incorrect
69) Arrange is sequence.
(a) Stronger and stronger uterine contractions.
(b) release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
(c) mild uterine contractions.
(d) parturition.
(e) stronger uterine contractions, which in turn stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
(f) placenta is expelled out of the uterus.

(1) d-b-c-e-a-f
(2) b-c-e-a-f-d
(3) c-b-e-a-d-f
(4) c-b-e-a-f-d

70) Consider the following statements and select the wrong one :-

(1) Yolk sac is the first site of haematopoiesis in human ontogeny

The first movement of the foetus & appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed during
(2)
fifth month of pregnancy
(3) Relaxin secreted by placenta and ovary, facilitates parturition
(4) Progesterone and estrogen are produced in women only during pregnancy

71) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the options which includes all the
correct ones only :-
(A) Placenta also secretes steroid hormones.
(B) Sex of the baby is decided during fertilisation.
(C) Oxytocin is the main parturition hormone
(D) LH, maintains and supports the foetus during the whole pregnancy period.

(1) Statement (A, B, C) are correct

(2) Statement (A, B, D) are correct
(3) Statement (A, B, C, D) are wrong
(4) Statement (A, B, C, D) are correct

72) Assertion : Placenta is a temporary endocrine gland.

Reason : It is present only during pregnancy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) In the given four statements (a-d). Select the option which includes all the not correct ones :
(a) Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region
(b) The embryo with 8 to 16 cell stage is Blastocyst
(c) The Trophoblast layer gets attached to myometrium
(d) The male partner is responsible for sex of the baby
(1) a,b,c
(2) a,b,d
(3) a,d
(4) b,c

74) Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side:
A. Zona pellucida
B. Perivitelline space
C. Corona radiata
D. Plasma membrane of ovum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C, A, B, D
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) A, C, B, D

75) Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female:-

(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

76) The placenta is formed from the _______ of the embryo and the _______ of the mother.

(1) Uterus, Trophoblast

(2) Chorion, Endometrium
(3) Endometrium, Chorion
(4) Inner cell mass, Endometrium

77) Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy:

List - I List - II

The foetus movement starts and hair

A. I. 24 weeks of pregnancy
appears on the head

B. The foetus develops limbs and digits II. 20 weeks of pregnancy

The foetus develops external genital

C. III. 8 weeks of pregnancy
organs

The foetus body is covered with fine

D. IV. 12 weeks of pregnancy
hair; eyelids separate
(1) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(2) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(3) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - IV, D - I
78) What process is occuring at arrow I in the figure?

(1) Ovulation
(2) Estrous
(3) Fertilization
(4) Menstruation

79) Assertion (A): Only one sperm fertilises an ovum in humans.

Reason (R): Zona pellucida of the ovum prevents polyspermy after the first sperm enters.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

80) Assertion (A) : Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by
doctors.
Reason (R) : Colostrum contains antibodies (mainly IgA) absolutely essential to develop resistance
for the new born babies.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

81) The mammary glands of female undergo differentiation A pregnancy and starts producing milk
towards the B of pregnancy by the process called C .
In above paragraph, identify the A, B, and C.

A B C

(1) End After Spermiation

(2) During Before Lactation

(3) During End Lactation

(4) Before during Menstruation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Identify the Diagram & Choose the correct option :-

A B C
(1) Vitelline membrane Zona pellucida Corona Radiata
(2) Zona pellucida Corona Radiata Perivitelline space
(3) Corona Radiata Zona pellucida Perivitelline space
(4) Plasma membrane Zona pellucida Corona Radiata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of
the following must be true?

(1) They are monozygotic twins.

(2) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
(3) They are fraternal twins
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content

84) Correct match the column I and Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Syngamy (a) Intermixing of cytoplasm

(ii) Plasmogamy (b) Union of male and female gametes

(iii) Karyogamy (c) Intermixing of chromosomes

(iv) Amphimixis (d) Fusion of pronuclei of sperm and ovum

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(2) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(3) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Which kind of uterine changes occurs during pre-ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle ?

(1) Endometrial hyperplasia

(2) Secretory changes
(3) Development of perimetrial glands
(4) Degeneration of stratum functionalis

86) Which statement is wrong about human embryology?

(1) Zona pellucida disappears from blastocyst.

(2) Implantation occurs in gastrula stage.
(3) After trophoblast attachment, the uterine cells divide rapidly leading to implantation.
(4) Placenta is connected to embryo through an umbilical cord.

87) Gestation period is duration

(1) Between egg growth and ovulation

(2) Of fertilisation
(3) Between fertilisation and parturition
(4) Between preparation of sex cells and fertilisation

88) Assertion :- During follicular phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully
mature Graafian follicle.
Reason :- Endometrium of uterus regenerates during follicular phase due to increasing level of
estrogen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

89) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only
a. The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of myometrium lining of uterus and its blood
vessels.
b. The secretion of acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane.
c. During pregnancy, the levels of hormones like estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin,
thyroxine, etc., are increased several folds in the foetal blood for supporting the fetal growth and
maternal metabolic changes.
d. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and it gets
differentiated as the embryo.
(1) Statements b, c and d
(2) Statements a, b
(3) Statements c, d
(4) Statement only b

90) In the given graph identify A, B, C, D :-

A B C D

(1) Estrogen LH FSH Progesterone

(2) Estrogen FSH LH Progesterone

(3) Progesterone FSH Estrogen LH

(4) Progesterone FSH LH Estrogen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 4 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 4 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 4 4 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 3 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 1 4 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Correct option is 1.

2) 10 A

3)

5) VA – VB = 1 × 2 + 10 + 1 × 3
= +15 V.

6) Concept:
Mixed grouping of cells.

Solution:

Total cells mn = 24. For max power, R = req​ = ​. Given R = 1.5r, so 1.5 r = ​ ⇒ m/n = 1.5 ⇒
2 2
m = 1.5n. Substitute in mn = 24: (1.5n)n = 24 ⇒ 1.5n = 24 ⇒ n = 16 ⇒ n = 4. Then m = 1.5 ×
4 = 6.

Final Answer: Option (1)

7)

Concept:
Characteristic of the Power-Resistance curve.

Solution:

P1​ = P2 ​⇒ ​. Solving this quadratic

2
equation for r gives r = R1​R2​, or r =

Final Answer : Option (2)

8) Concept:
Graphical interpretation of Maximum Power Theorem.

Solution:
The peak of the P vs R curve always occurs where R = r. Therefore, r = 4 Ω.
Final Answer: Option (2)

9)

ETotal = 4 – 2 = 2 volt

10)

11) Concept Used: Resistance of parallel combination.

Solution: The effective resistance RA​ is the parallel combination of G and S: RA​= ​. Since
the equivalent resistance of parallel resistors is always less than the smallest individual
resistor, and S is usually very small, RA ​<S < G.

Correct Answer: Less than the shunt resistance S

12) Concept : Conversion of galvanometer into a Voltmeter.

Solution:

Resistance of galvanometer G = 12 Ω,

full scale deflection current Ig​ = 3 mA = 3 × 10−3A,

desired Range V = 18 V

For a voltmeter, V=Ig​(G+R).

Final Answer: Option (1)

13)

14)
15)

16)

Resistivity of wire does not depend on length and area of cross-section of the wire. Resistivity
of wire depends on material of the wire.

17) Zero

18) Zero

19)

20) Two resistances of each side of triangle are connected in parallel.

Therefore, the effective resistance of each arm of the triangle would be

The two arms AB and AC are in series and they together are in parallel with third one.

Total resistance

21) Ans. (1)

22) Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

23) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

24) For a conductor of non-uniform cross-section

25) It is an open circuit and for open circuit, terminal potential difference = emf of cell, i.e.V =
E
 26)

27) Theory based.

28) Since resistance connected in arms CE, ED,CF and FD will form a balanced Wheatstone
bridge, therefore, the resistance of armEF becomes ineffective. Now resistance of arm CED
or CFD = 2 + 2 = .
Effective resistance of these two parallel

Now resistance of arm ACDB = 2 + 2 + 2 = , is in parallel with resistance arm AB = .

Thus, effective resistance between A and B

29) Slope of the graph will give us reciprocal of resistance.

Here resistance at temperature T1 is greater than that at T2.
Since, resistance of metallic wire is more at higher temperature, then at lower temperature,
hence T1 > T2.

30)

31)

Explain Question : Given i = 1.6 A, A = 1mm2 = 10–6 m2

Density of wire (n) = 1029 per m3
Drift velocity = ?

Concept : This question is based on drift velocity Vd =

Solution :

Vd

Vd =
Final answer : Option (1)

32) Explain the Question : In this question, we have to identify the factors on which
resistivity (ρ) of a material depends.
Concept : This question is based on resistivity of a material (microscopic view of ohm's law)
Solution :
Resistivity is a material property given by

Where n = electron density, τ = relaxation time, m = mass of electron, e = charge of an

electron
Hence, it depends on material nature, number of free electrons, and temperature (which
affects τ).
Final Answer : 4

33)

No current through 'G'

So potential difference across R is 2V.

34)

Resistivity is an intrinsic property of the material itself. It depends only on the nature of the
material (e.g., copper vs. aluminum) and its temperature. Because it is independent of the
wire's physical dimensions like length or cross-sectional area, stretching the wire does not
affect it.

35)

Conceptual

36)
37)

Bulb 'D' will have zero brightness.

If 'A' fails 'B' will have zero brightness.

38)

Question Explanation: We need to find the heat generated in the 4Ω resistor.

Concept: Distribution of current in resistor & heat dissipated
Solution :
Upper branch: 4Ω and 6Ω in series ⇒10Ω
Lower branch: 5Ω

For parallel combination

Power dissipated in
Power dissipated in

Given
From (1) and (2)

Final Answer: Option (2)

39) Concept:

Formula Pmax ​= ​.

Solution:

Pmax ​= ​= 25 W.

Final Answer: Option (2)

40) Concept:
R/r ratio.

Solution:
R = r ⇒ R/r = 1.

Final Answer: Option (3)

 41)

at R = 5Ω, so power is maximum at R = 5Ω

Therefore increases continuously till R = 5 Ω

42)

The heat produced in the conductor is 1536 J.

43)

Current through bulb C is maximum and P ∝ i2

44) for balanced bridge

320 + 16x = 20x

x = 80 Ω

45)

R1 : R2 : R3 = = 15 : 10 : 6
In series I → same
bright ness × Power loss × R (A3 P = i2R)
Ans. → 40 W

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explain Question: We need to find Nernst equation for equilibrium condition.

Concept: Nernst equation at equilibrium
Solution:

Final answer : Option 3

 47)

Explain the question: In Daniell cell, spontaneous flow of electrons occurs based on cell
potential and external voltage.
Concept: This question is based on daniell cell
Solution:
The Daniell cell has Ecell = 1.1 V.
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– (oxidation at anode)
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu (reduction at cathode)
Electrons naturally flow from Zn to Cu when no external EMF is applied.
If an external potential (Eext) is applied opposite to cell EMF —
• For Eext < 1.1 V → cell reaction dominates, electrons flow Zn → Cu.
• For Eext = 1.1 V → equilibrium, no flow.
• For Eext > 1.1 V → reverse flow, Cu → Zn.
Hence, electrons flow from Cu to Zn when Eext > 1.1 V.
Final Answer: 2

48)

Question Explanation: Find standard Gibbs energy (ΔG°) from the given standard electrode
potential (E°cell = 1.1 V) for the Daniel cell reaction.
Concept: This question is based on the relation between Gibbs free energy and cell potential
is ΔG° = –nFE°cell
where n = number of electrons exchanged, F = Faraday constant = 96500 C/mol.
Solution:
For Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + Cu(s), n = 2
ΔG° = –nFE°cell
= –2 × 96500 × 1.1
= –212300 J/mol
= –212.3 kJ/mol
Final Answer: Option 2

49)

Question Explanation: On dilution, the number of ions per unit volume decreases, but the
molar conductance increases due to greater ion mobility.

Concept: Specific conductance (κ), Molar conductance (Λm)

Solution:

A. Specific conductance (κ) depends on number of ions per cm³.

On dilution → ions per cm³ decrease → κ decreases.
B. Molar conductance (Λm) depends on total ions produced by 1 mole of electrolyte.
On dilution → ions move more freely → Λm increases.

Final Answer: Option 2

50)
A → Strong electrolyte (KCl)
B → Weak electrolyte (CH3COOH)

51) Explain Question: We need to find for HAC if of NaCl, HCl and NaAc are given.

Concept : Kohlrausch’s law

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (3)

52)
= 48.15 S cm2 mol–1

= 1.78 × 10–5 mol L–1

53)

t = 600 s

charge = current × time

= 1.5 A × 600 s = 900 C
According to the reaction :
Cu2+(aq) + 2e¯ → Cu(s)
We require 2F or 2 × 96487 C to deposit 1 mol or 63 g of Cu.
For 900 C, the mass of Cu deposited
= (63 g mol–1 × 900C) / (2 × 96487 C mol–1)
= 0.2938 g.

54)

Question explanation:
Which cell convert energy of combination into electrical energy.

Concept:
Fuel cell
Solution:
A fuel cell is a special galvanic cell that generates electricity due to chemical energy produced
by combustion reaction.

Final answer: Option (3)

55)

Explain Question:
We need to find order of reducing power of metals if standard reducing potentials are given.

Concept:
Reducing power S.O.P

Solution:

∴ Sop Reducing power

order of Reducing power K > Mg > Cr > Hg > Ag

Final answer: option (3)

56)

Explain the question : To find charge required to reduce 1 mol of Al3+ ions to Al atom.
Concept: This question is based on faraday’s first laws
Solution: According to Faraday’s laws, charge (Q) = n × F, where n = number of electrons
and F = 96500 C/mol e–.
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
For 1 mol Al3+, electrons required = 3 mol
Charge = 3 × 96500 = 289500 C = 2.895 × 105 C
Final Answer: 2

58)

Correct option is 4.
+ 0.772 V

62)
Thus, electrons gained = 3

Thus, on passing 1F, mol MnO2 is produced.

 63) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt-bridge because they have same ionic
mobility.

64)

65)

H2 —→ 2H+ + 2e–
(P1)
2H+ + 2e– —→ H2(g)
P2
____________________________
H2(g) H2(g)
P1 P2

E = E° –

E = – 0.03 log
= – 0.03 (log 0.7)
= – 0.03 (log 7 – log 10)
= – 0.03 (0.85 – 1)

= + 0.0045 V

66) Acidic medium promotes rusting of Fe.

67)

Explain question:
Lead stronger battery pick the correct statement.
Concept:
Based on standard chemical principles for lead acid batteries.
Solution:
Lead storage battery consists of lead anode and a grid of lead packed with lead oxide (PbO2) as
cathode, a 38% solution of H2SO4 is used as an electrolyte.
On charging the battery the reaction is reversed and PbSO4(s) on anode and cathode is
converted into Pb and PbO2 respectively.
Final answer: Option (1)

68) ⇒ = 50 × 1.4
With same electrolyte

⇒ ⇒
⇒ ⇒ 5 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1

69) ∵ 112 ml H2 gas at STP

mol of H2 gas =

mass of H2 gas = = 0.01 gm

I = 1 ampere

70) 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– (At anode)

[OH–] ↓, pOH ↑ , pH ↓

71) α =

∴ = 0.9
N = 10

72)

Correct option is 2.
increasing concentration of Cu2+ ions

74)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Maintain electrical neutrality of both half cells.
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Correct option is 3.
2Cl–(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

76)

78) As reduction potential ↓, reducing power of the metals ↑.

 79)

Correct option is 3.
Mg | Mg2+ || Ag+ | Ag

81)

Conceptual

82) No reaction will take place if a solution of aluminium nitrate is stirred with the spoon of
copper, since the displacement power of copper is less than that of Al.

83) Equivalent volume of hydrogen is 11.2 L at STP. Thus, 1 faraday charge will liberate 11200
mL H2 gas at NTP.

84) Cu2+ + 2e¯ → Cu(s)

1 mole copper requires 2 mole electron, i.e., 2 faraday charge.

85)

Explain Question:
To find a metal displaced by Zn.

Concept:
Application of ECS.

Solution:
A metal which is less active than Zn will be replaced by Zn.
Mg is more active than Zn.
Cu is less active than Zn.
Na, Al are more active than Zn.

Final Answer: Option (2)

86) Explain Question:

Equal charges passed through voltameters containing FeSO4, Fe2(SO4)3, and
Fe(NO3)3 –compare iron deposited.

Concept:
Electrolysis (Faraday's law).

Solution:

A. Ionic states: FeSO4 → Fe2+ (n = 2); Fe2(SO4)3 and Fe(NO3)3 → Fe3+ (n = 3).

B. Mass deposited: for equal charge.

 A. Comparisons:

→ False.

→ True.
3+
(c) Both Fe → equal → True.

Final answer: Option (3)

90)

Question Explanation; We need to find E° of the OCl⁻/Cl₂ couple using the given potentials
of OCl⁻/Cl⁻ and Cl⁻/Cl₂.

Concept; ΔG° = −nFE°

Solution
Half-reactions:
(1) OCl⁻ + 2e⁻ → Cl⁻ ; E°₁ = 0.94 V ; n1 = 2

Given Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + e⁻ ,E°= -1.36V

(2) 1/2 Cl₂ + e⁻ → Cl⁻ ; E°₂ = 1.36 V ; n2 = 1

ΔG°₁ = −2F(0.94) = −1.88F

ΔG°₂ = −1F(1.36) = −1.36F

Required equation ; OCl⁻ + e⁻ → 1/2 Cl₂ ; n = 1, ΔG°= -1FE°

ΔG° = ΔG°₁ − ΔG°₂ = −1.88F − (−1.36F) = −0.52F

E° = −ΔG°/(nF) = −(−0.52F)/(1F) = 0.52 V

Final Answer→ Option 4

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 61

92)

If the size of the starch grain in the pea plant is considered the phenotype, the heterozygous
condition of alleles (Bb) will show incomplete dominance.

93) The correct Answer is: 3, 50% round and 50% wrinkled
 Explanation:

A. In this case, you have a heterozygous round seed (Rr) crossed with a wrinkled seed (rr).
B. The offspring can inherit one allele from each parent:
A. 50% will inherit R (round) from the heterozygous parent and r (wrinkled) from the other
parent, resulting in Rr (round).
B. 50% will inherit r from both parents, resulting in rr (wrinkled).

94) Ncert Pg No. 76, test cross

95) NCERT Pg. # 70

96)

Question Explanation:Identifying true statements about Mendel's experiments.

Concept:Mendelian Genetics

Solution:All the given statements are correct based on a standard monohybrid cross.
In the F₁ generation, all progeny are heterozygous but express the dominant parental
phenotype.
In the F₂ generation, 50% of the plants have a homozygous parental genotype (TT and tt,
which is 1/4 + 1/4 = 50%).
n the F₂ generation, 50% of the plants have the heterozygous F₁ genotype (Tt).

Final Answer:Option 4: All the above

97) NCERT Pg. # 76, para-[Link]

98)

Question Explanation:Explaining Mendel's Law of Dominance.

Concept:Mendelian Genetics

Solution:Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason is the correct
explanation for the Assertion. The phenomenon described in the Assertion—that the phenotype
of a heterozygote is identical to that of the homozygous dominant parent—is a direct result of
the Law of Dominance described in the Reason.

Final Answer:Option 1: Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation
of Assertion
 99) NCERT Page no. 59.

101) NCERT Pg No 79

102) NCERT Pg No 57

103) NCERT Pg no. 58

104) Concept: Dihybrid cross confirms law of independent assortment

Explanation: Recombinants like wrinkled yellow and round green appear due to independent
assortment.
Final Answer : (1)

105) Concept: Genotype of F₁ in monohybrid cross

Explanation: F₁ of TT × tt = Tt → heterozygous
Solution: Option (3) is incorrect because F₁ individuals are heterozygous.
Final Answer : (3)

106) NCERT (XII) Pg # 55

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72, 73

108) NCERT-XII Page # 69, 3rd Para.

109)

NCERT Pg#69

110) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

111)

Explanation:

A. A Test cross is a cross between a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive

individual (Tt × tt).
B. B Monohybrid cross involves a cross between two individuals differing in a single trait,
resulting in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (Tt × Tt).
C. C Out cross refers to a cross between,Tt × TT
D. D Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two traits, with a typical 9:3:3:1 phenotypic
ratio(TtGg × TtGg).

The correct answer is : (1) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1

 112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

113)

Even if plant is treated with GAS, its genotype will not change - it will remain same tt.

All progeny will be 100% dwarf

114) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 79

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71-72

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 77

117)

Correct option is 3.

118) NCERT XIIth Pg # 79

119) NCERT Pg#62

120)

Solution/Explanation:
Childs (Blood group O)

(Io Io) genotype

- So the parent must have Io in the genotype which is not possible in AB
- So the correct option is (3)

121) Explain Question: The question asks to match the given tables:
Concept: Polygenic Inheritance/ Multiple alleles/ Pleiotropic gene.
Solution:

A. Pleiotropic gene. (ii) Single gene controlling many characters.

B. Multiple alleles. (iii) Different forms of a gene.
C. Polygenic Inheritance. (i) Many genes controlling one character.
So, the correct answer is: 4. a-ii, b-iii, c-i

Final answer: 4.

122) Aa Bb CC DD
2 × 2 × 1 × 1 = 4 types of gametes

123)

Explain Question :The question asks to identify which type of genetic cross is represented in
the diagram showing two separate crosses with a homozygous recessive plant.
Concept : This question is based on test cross
Explanation :– In the left cross, all offspring are violet → dominant parent is homozygous. In
the right cross, 1:1 violet:white → dominant parent is heterozygous. This is the classic test
cross result.
Final answer : 4

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 58

125) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 75

126) Question Explanation: Match each cross type (monohybrid, dihybrid, trihybrid) with the
correct number of genotypes and phenotypes produced (typical F₂ ratios with simple
dominance and independent assortment).

Concept: Mendelian crosses — Number of genotypes and phenotypes in F₂ (Monohybrid /

Dihybrid / Trihybrid)
Explanation : A (Monohybrid) → III (3) ; phenotype → (3) (2)
B (Dihybrid) → I (9) ; phenotype → (2) (4)
C (Trihybrid) → II (27) ; phenotype → (1) (8)

Final answer: A-III-3, B-I-2, C-II-1

127) Explain Question : The question: A plant of type ‘H’ will produce seeds with genotype
identical to seeds produced by plants of which type?

Concept : Mendelian Genetics – Dihybrid Cross & Punnett Square

Explanation : Box H is formed from row gamete yR and column gamete YR.

A. So genotype of H = Yy RR

A. (Y from YR and y from yR → Yy)

B. (R from both → RR)

Now find another box with the same gamete combination:

A. Box N is formed from row gamete YR and column gamete yR, which is just the reverse
order of H.

So box N also has genotype: Yy RR.

Thus, both plants produce identical genotypes.

Final answer : Option 4

128) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

129)

To calculate genotype =
= (n = 5) according to question

130)

NCERT, Pg # 56
Mendel referred to the hereditary units as "factors." These factors are now known as genes,
which determine the inheritance of traits from one generation to the next.

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 73, 74

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 76

135) Explaining : A modified allele may still code for a protein — which can be functional or
non-functional.
Concept : Mutated or modified alleles can produce altered enzymes.
Solution : Modified alleles vary in expression — some may produce active enzymes, some may
not.
Final Answer : (2)

136)

Explain Question : To identify the event that induce the completion of the meiotic division of
the secondary oocyte in Human

Concept : This question is based on Oogenesis

Explanation : When sperm enter into the cytoplasm of ovum through the zona pellucida and
plasma membrane. This induces the completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte.

Final answer : 2

137)

Explain Question : to identify the set of chromosome that a human egg contains When
released from ovary.

Concept : This question is based on oogenesis.

Solution : When released from ovary, human egg contains 1 X chromosome only

Final Answer : option (3)

138)

NCERT - Pregnancy and embryonic development

139)

Question explanation: Identify the developmental stage present in the fallopian tube.
Concept: Human fertilisation & early embryonic development

Solution:

A. Fertilisation occurs in the ampullary–isthmic junction of the fallopian tube, forming

a zygote.

B. The zygote undergoes cleavage while moving through the fallopian tube.

C. Blastula (blastocyst), ICM, and gastrula stages are formed after implantation in
the uterus, not in the fallopian tube.

Final answer: Option 4

140) NCERT XIIth Pg # 54

141)

NCERT Pg#51
 142)

Question Explanation: Identify which embryonic stage is capable of implantation into the
uterine wall.

Concept: The question is based on stages of development and implantation.

Solution :

A. Option 3 shows a blastocyst. This is the stage of the embryo that implants in the uterine
lining. You can see the inner cell mass (which will develop into the embryo) and the outer layer
(trophoblast), which is crucial for implantation.

Option 3 is the correct answer.

143) NCERT Pg. No. 52

144)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to correctly identify the stages (A, B, C) of human development shown in the
figure.

Concept:
Early embryonic development in humans

Solution:
In human development, fertilization is followed by cleavage forming morula and then
blastocyst. Based on the typical sequence and diagram representation, A corresponds to
blastocyst, B represents fertilization, and C represents morula.

Final answer: Option - 4

145) NCERT XII Page # 53

146) NCERT XII Page # 52

147)

Question Explanation – The question asks which hormones are involved in the
neuroendocrine mechanism that induces childbirth (parturition).

Concept – Hormonal regulation of parturition

Solution – Parturition involves multiple hormones: cortisol from the fetus, estrogen from the
placenta, and oxytocin from the maternal pituitary, all working together to trigger uterine
contractions.

Final Answer – Option 4

 148)

Module

149)

The correct answer is 3. The size of cells decreases.

Cell Size: However, the overall size of the embryo does not increase significantly during
cleavage. Instead, the cells get progressively smaller with each division. This is because the
cytoplasm of the original zygote is divided among the increasing number of cells.

150) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 36, 37.

151) [Link]. 53

152) Module–1, Pg # 51

153) NCERT- XII, Pg # 51

154)

The correct answer is 3. Female genital tract.

Capacitation is the final stage of sperm maturation that enables sperm to fertilize an egg. It
occurs within the female reproductive tract.

155)

Question Explanation : The question asks about the structure from which finger-like
projections arise after implantation.

Concept : Placenta Formation

Solution:The correct answer is option 3 .

A. After implantation, the trophoblast(A) develops finger-like projections. These projections are
called chorionic villi(B) , which help in forming the placenta for exchange of nutrients and
gases.

Final answer : Option (3)

156) Module-1 Pg # 48

157)

Question Explanation –
The question is asking to identify the labelled parts of the uterus and developing embryo
shown in the diagram.

Concept –
Human pregnancy and placentation

Solution –

A. Q represents placental villi, which help in exchange of materials between mother and
embryo.

B. R represents the cavity of uterus where the embryo develops.

C. S represents the yolk sac, which provides early nourishment to the embryo.

D. U represents the plug of mucus in cervix, which prevents entry of pathogens into the
uterus.

All these identifications correctly match one option.

Final Answer – Option 2

158) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 50, 51

159) NCERT 2.7 Parturition and Lactation

th
160) NCERT (XII ) Pg. # 53-54 (E) ; 58-59 (H)

161)

Question Explanation : The question is asking which of the statements about placenta and
pregnancy are correct.

Concept : placenta

Solution :
Statement (A) is correct because placenta secretes steroid hormones like estrogen and
progesterone.
Statement (B) is correct because placenta allows exchange of O2 and CO2 between mother and
embryo.
Statement (C) is correct because oxytocin triggers uterine contractions and is the main
parturition hormone.
Statement (D) is incorrect because LH does not maintain pregnancy; progesterone from
corpus luteum and placenta does.

Correct statements are (A), (B) and (C).

Final Answer: Option (1)

162) NCERT XII, Page # 53

163) NCERT-XII, Pg # 36, 37

164) NCERT fig. 2.10 Ovum surrounded by few sperms

165) Solution : hCG or human chorionic gonadotropin rescues corpus luteum from
degeneration and increases estrogen and progesterone secretion.
Final Answer : (3)

166) Solution : The chorionic villi and the endometrium become interdigitated with each
other and together form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus)
and maternal body called placenta.
Final Answer : (2)

167) NCERT XII 2.6 Pregnancy and embryonic development

168) Menstruation

169) Solution : Acrosomal enzymes allow sperm entry → zona pellucida membrane reaction →
blocks polyspermy → ensures monospermy.
Final Answer : (1)

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 38

171)

NCERT XII Pg # 38

172) NCERT Pg. # 51 ; Fig. 3.10

173) Frateranal or dizygotic twins are formed by two different oocytes being fertilised
simultaneously and hence has different genetic makeup. Therefore twin boy and girl can only
be fraternal.

174) Module Pg.#40

175) Module Pg.# 34

176) Module Pg.# 45, 47

177)

Gastation Peroid ® Period between fertilisation and delivery of baby (parturition)

178) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 50

179) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 50, 51, 52, 53 (E), 54, 55, 56, 57 (H)

180) Module-01, Pg# 36 fig (b)