Diversity in The Living World

The Living World

[Link]. Question Answer
1. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin Growth
characteristics of which character of living organisms?
2. Growth, reproduction, ability to sense environment are the True
features of living organisms. (True/False)
3. Who is the Darwin of 20th century? E. Mayr
4. The biggest spin off of taxonomic studies was the recognition of A-Horizontally
sharing of similarities among living organisms both 'A' and 'B' B-Vertically
.
5. Early man could easily perceive the difference between True
inanimate matter and living organisms. (True/False)
6. In majority of higher animals and plants, growth and True
reproduction are mutually exclusive events. (True/False)
7. What is the common method for multiplication among the fungi, Fragementation
filamentous algae and protonema of mosses ?
8. Reproduction can not be taken as defining characteristics of There are many organisms
living organisms. Why ? those cannot reproduce
9. For unicellular organisms like bacteria, unicellular algae and A-Reproduction
Amoeba, 'A' is synonymous with 'B' . B-Growth
10. Properties of tissues are not present in the constituent cells but True
arise as a result of interactions among the constituent cells.
(True/False)
11. The sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in a living body Metabolism
is called ?
12. What is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of Consciousness
all living organisms ?
13. The patient is brain-dead and has no self-consciousness. Such Living
patients who never come back to normal life. Such patient is
considered living or non-living.
14. Early man could easily perceive the difference between Inanimate
_____________ matter and living organisms.
15. In Binomial nomenclature, each name has two components the A-Generic name
___A _ and the _B_ . B-Specific epithet
16. What is the full form of ICBN ? International Code of
Botanical Nomenclature
17. How many species are known and described till now ? 1.7-1.8 million

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18. The number and types of organisms present on earth, this refers Biodiversity
to as ?
19. For plants, scientific names are based on agreed principles and ICBN
criteria, which are provided by :-
20. Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are Their Latin origin
separately underlined, or printed in italics to indicate _______.
21. Biological names are generally in _A_ language and written in A-Latin, B-Italics
__B_ .
22. All living organisms can be classified into different taxa on the Classification
basis of characteristics, this process is called ?
23. According to binomial system, how the first letter of first word Capital and Small
and first letter of second word in name of an organism are
written respectively ?
24. A need to standardize the naming of living organisms such that Nomenclature
a particular organism is known by the same name all over the
world. This process is called _______________.
25. The word systematics is derived from the Latin word 'Systema' Systematic arrangement of
which means ? organisms
26. Taxonomic categories / taxonomic groups are distinct biological True
entities and not merely morphological aggregates. (True/False)
27. What are basics of taxonomy ? Identification
Nomenclature
Classification
28. The earliest classifications were based on the _________ of various Uses or economic
organisms. importance
29. Genus comprises a group of related species which has more True
characters in common in comparison to species of other genera.
(True/False)
30. Felidae and Felis represent which taxonomic categories Family, Genus
respectively?
31. Write the scientific names of :-
(A) Human A-Homo sapiens
(B) Potato B-Solanum tuberosum
(C) Leopard C-Panthera pardus
32. Solanum, Petunia and Datura are the genera, belong to which Solanaceae
family ?
33. A group of individual organisms with fundamental Species
morphological similarities is called ?

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Diversity in The Living World
34. Order and other higher taxonomic categories are identified True
based on the aggregation of characters. (True/False)
35. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals Phylum (Chordata)
constitute the next higher category called ?
36. As we go higher from species to kingdom then what will happen They will decrease
to the number of common characteristics ?
37. The following sequence shows taxonomic categories in A-Family
ascending order : Kingdom  Phylum  B  Order  A  B-Class
Genus  Species
What are A and B in this sequence?
38. Find the odd one from followings :- Solanum
Chordata, Carnivora, Solanum, Mammalia
39. Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining Because common characters
the relationship to other taxa at the same level. Why ? are less in higher taxa.
40. Match the column (I & II)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Man (i) Mangifera indica (A) - iii
(B) Housefly (ii) Triticum aestivum (B) - iv
(C) Mango (iii) Homo sapiens (C) - i
(D) Wheat (iv) Musca domestica (D) - ii
41. Find out the odd one with respect to rank or taxonomic Anacardiaceae
categories :- Sapindales, Anacardiaceae, Poales
42. Identify A & B :- A - Poaceae
Triticum aestivum → Triticum → A → Poales → B → B - Monocotyledonae
Angiospermae
43. The taxonomic studies of various species of plants and animals True
are useful in agriculture, forestry, industry and in general for
knowing our bio-resources and their diversity. (True/False)
44. The Binomial naming system given by ________________is being Carolus Linnaeus
practiced by biologists all over the world.
45. In Mangifera indica , Mangifera represents the __________while Genus, specific epithet
indica, is a ___________.
46. Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, Latin, italics, Latin
are___________, or printed in ____________to indicate their
___________origin.
47. ‘animals’, ‘mammals’ and ‘dogs’ represent taxa at ____________. different levels
48. The word systematics is derived from the___________ word Latin, organisms
‘systema’ which means systematic arrangement of _____________.

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49. ___________used Systema Naturae as the title of his publication. Linnaeus
50. Classification is not a single step process but involves hierarchy rank, category
of steps in which each step represents a____________ or ____________.
51. The category is a part of overall taxonomic arrangement, it is taxonomic hierarchy
called the taxonomic category and all categories together
constitute the _____________.
52. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms species
with fundamental similarities as a ____________.
53. Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithet morphological similarities
representing different organisms, but having ______________.
54. ___________Comprises a group of related species which has more Genus
characters in common in comparison to species of other genera.
55. Felis (cats) in the family ___________. Felidae
56. _____________, has a group of related genera with still less number Family
of similarities as compared to genus and species.
57. All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the Kingdom
highest category called ___________.
58. The taxonomic categories from species to kingdom have been Ascending, species
shown in__________ order starting with _____________.
59. When the species is determined on the basis of morphological taxonomic species
characters then it is called as_____________.
60. Ernst Mayr Darwin of____________, & proposed the ____________of 20th century , biological
species. concept
61. ____________classification is easily carried out by using computers Phenetic classification or
and it is based on all observable characteristics. Numerical classification
62. Taxonomic hierarchy ,can be descending or ascending True
arrangement of taxonomic categories
63. ____________in his book "Theories elementaire de la botanique" A.P. de. Candolle
(Theory of elementary botany)
64. Occurrence of the number and types of organisms present on Biodiversity
earth, is called____________
65. Anabolism + Catabolism = ____________ Metabolism
66. Artificial classification many superficial morphological False
characters like habit, colour, number and shape of leaves
67. Natural phylogenetic in this classification, only gross False
morphology is considered.
68. The taxonomic studies of various species of plants and animals True
are useful in agriculture, forestry, industry and in general for
knowing our bio-resources and their diversity.

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Diversity in The Living World

Biological Classification
[Link]. Question Answer
1. Who gave two kingdom system ? Carolus Linnaeus
2. Two kingdom system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and True
prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular organisms and
photosynthetic (Autotrophs) and non-photosynthetic (Heterotrophs)
organisms. These are demerits of two kingdom system. (True/False)
3. Aristotle used simple morphological characters to classify plants into A-trees, B-shrubs,
___A___, ___B___ and ___C___. C-herbs
4. Though ___A___ and ___B___ kingdoms have been a constant under all A-Plantae
different systems, the und erstanding of what group/organisms be B-Animalia
included under these kingdoms have been changing. The ___C___ and C-Number
___D___ of other kingdom have also been understood differently by D-Nature
different scientists over time.
Five Kingdom
Characters
Monera Protista A Plantae Animalia

Cell type Prokaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic

Noncellulosic Present in some Present Present
Cell wall (Polysaccharide + (cellulose) (without (cellulose) Absent
amino acid) cellulose)
Nuclear
Absent Present Present Present B
membrane
Body Multiceullar Tissue/ organ/
Cellular C Tissue/organ
Organisation /loose tissue organ system
Autotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic
(chemosynthetic (Photosynthetic) (Saprophytic/ (Photosynthetic) (Holozoic-
and and Parasitic) /Saprophytic
photosynthetic) Heterotrophic etc.)
D
and
Heterotrophic
(saprophyte-
/parasite)

Observe the above table and answer the following questions (5

to 9).
5. Identify the A, B, C and D. A-Fungi, B-Present,
C-Cellular,
D-Mode of nutrition
6. How many kingdoms include producers and name these kingdoms ? Three; Monera,
Protista, Plantae
7. In which kingdom unicellular, eukaryotic autotrophic organisms are Protista
placed ?
8. In how many kingdom cellulosic cell walled organisms are present ? Two– Protista, Plantae
9. From above table, how many characters are uncommon between Nature of cell wall,
fungi and plantae ? Mode of Nutrition,
Body organisation
10. On the basis of shape, how many groups of bacteria are formed and Four
what are their names ? Coccus, Bacillus,
Vibrium, Spirillum

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11. The criteria for classification are changing over time. Why ? Because the
improvement in our
understanding of
characters
12. All __A__ organisms are grouped under kingdom monera and A-Prokaryotic
unicellular eukaryotes are placed in kingdom __B__. B-Protista
13. Chlamydomonas and Amoeba are classified in kingdom protista True
according to Whittaker's classification system but by earlier
classification system both these organisms are classified in different
kingdoms. (True/False)
14. Identify the following figures (A, B, C and D). A-Cocci
B-Bacilli
C-Spirillia
D-Vibrio

AA B
B CC DD
15. Identify the following figure with structure __A__ and __B__ and write A-Nostoc, Heterocyst
their functions :- Function - Nitrogen
fixation
A
A
BB B-Mucilagenous sheath
Function - Protection
from drying

16. The bacterial structure is very _A_ , they are very complex in _ B_ . A-Simple, B-Behaviour
17. The vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs. (True/False) True
18. Read the following statements :- Methanogens
(A) Found in the gut of ruminants
(B) Complex cell wall structure
(C) Survive in marshy habitats
Above statements are related to which type of Archaebacteria.
19. Compared to many other organisms, which group shows the most Bacteria
extensive metabolic diversity ?
20. Which organism are the smallest living cells known and can survive Mycoplasma
without oxygen ?
21. Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Citrus canker are well known diseases Bacteria
caused by :-
22. In which kingdom, Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime Protista
moulds and Protozoans are included ?
23. Which Chrysophytes are the chief producers in the ocean? Diatoms

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24. A
A
B
B
Process : Binary
Fission
CC

A-Cell wall
B-Cell membrane
Identify the above process in bacteria and identify part A, B & C : C-DNA
25.
.

Euglena
Identify the above organism :-
26. Which protist possesses two flagella one lies longitudinal and other Dinoflagellates
transversely ?
27. Read the following points regarding Protista :- Slime moulds
(A) Saprophytic nature
(B) Spores with true wall
(C) Wall less vegetative phase
Above organism should be :-
28. Euglenoids have a protein rich layer called ________ which makes their Pellicle
body flexible.
29. _______ are primitive relatives of animals. Protozoans
30. Which organisms are used to make bread and beer ? Yeasts
31. Some hyphae are continuous tubes filled with multinucleated Coenocytic hyphae
cytoplasm, these are called:-
32. The cell walls of fungi are composed of :- Chitin and
Polysaccharides
33. Fungi prefer to grow :- Warm & Humid places
34. Write the name of three steps of sexual reproduction in fungi :- 1-Plasmogamy
2-Karyogamy
3-Meiosis
35. Identify the following figure :- Agaricus

36. By which basis kingdom-Fungi is divided into various classes ? Morphology of

mycelium
Mode of spore
formation and fruiting
bodies

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37. Identify the A, B and C in the given line diagram :- A-Dikaryon
n
n n
n B-Synkaryon
Plasmogamy
Plasmogamy C-Spores
n n n n n+n
n+n A
A
C
C Karyogamy
Karyogamy
Meiosis
Meiosis 2n
2n B
B
.

38. Members of which fungal class are found in aquatic habitats and on Phycomycetes
decaying wood in moist and damp places or as obligate parasites.
39. Which fungus is used extensively in bio-chemical & genetic works? Neurospora
40. The basidiospores are A produced on the B . A-exogenously
B-Basidium
41. Identify the A, B and C in the following table :- A-Claviceps
Class Member Disease B-Rust
Ascomycetes A Ergot C-Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes Puccinia B
C Alternaria Blight
42. Mushroom, Bracket fungi & smut fungi belong to which fungal class? Basidiomycetes
43. Most of the members of fungal class ____ are decomposers of litter and Deuteromycetes
help in mineral cycling.
44. Life cycle of plants has two distinct phases - the diploid _ A_ and the A-Sporophyte,
__ B_ gametophyte. B-Haploid
45. All of us have suffered the ill effects of common cold or 'flu'. Viruses
It is caused by :-
46. Which kingdom is characterized by heterotrophic, eukaryotic Kingdom - Animalia
organisms that are multicellular and their cells lack cell wall?
47. Bladderwort and venus fly trap are examples of A plants and Cuscuta A-Insectivorous
is a B plant. B-Parasitic
48. Identify the following figure with A, B, C and D :- Bacteriophage
A-Head
A B-Collar
C-Sheath
B D-Tail fibres
C

49. Who called contagium vivum fluidum and what does it stand for ? M.W. Beijerinck
Infectious living fluid

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50. Read the following symptoms :- Viruses
• Mosaic formation
• Leaf rolling and curling
• Yellowing and vein clearing
• Dwarfing
Above symptoms are due to infection of.
51. Identify the following figure and A & B :- Tobacco mosaic virus
(TMV)

A-RNA
B-Capsid

A
A B
B
52. Who said that viruses are smaller than bacteria ? D.J. Ivanowsky
53. In lichens, the algal component is known as A and the fungal A-Phycobiont
component as __B__. B-Mycobiont
54. Identify the infectious agent on the basis of given information’s :- Viroids
• Discoverer T.O. Diener
• Smaller than viruses
• Low molecular weight RNA
• Absence of protein coat
55. The causative agent of potato spindle tuber disease is composed of Only RNA
56. Identify the group of organisms, on the basis of given information’s :- Lichen
• Show symbiotic association
• Very good pollution indicator
• Pioneer to barren rocks
57. In lichens, A prepare food for B and fungi provide shelter and A-Algae
absorb C for its partner. B-Fungi
C-Water and mineral
58. _____________ (1969) proposed a Five Kingdom Classification. R.H. Whittaker
59. Kingdom Protista has brought together_____________, _____________ Chlamydomonas,
(earlier placed in Algae within Plants and both having cell walls) with Chlorella, Amoeba
Paramecium and _____________ (which were earlier placed in the animal
kingdom which lack cell wall).
60. _____________ are the sole members of the Kingdom Monera. Bacteria
61. Though the bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex Behaviour
in _____________.
62. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their_____________, Shape, Bacillus
the spherical Coccus, the rod-shaped _____________ the comma-shaped
Vibrium and the spiral Spirillum.

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63. In Linnaeus' time a _____________ system of classification with Plantae Two Kingdom
and Animalia kingdoms was developed that included all plants and
animals respectively.
64. The _____________ system has also been proposed that divides the Three-domain
Kingdom Monera into two domains, leaving the remaining eukaryotic
kingdoms in the third domain and there by a six kingdom
classification.
65. The vast majority of bacteria are_____________, i.e., they depend on other Heterotrophs
organisms or on dead organic matter for food.
66. _____________ differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall Archaebacteria
structure and this feature is responsible for their survival in extreme
conditions.
67. _____________ are present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as Methanogens
cows and buffaloes and they are responsible for the production of
methane (biogas) from the dung of these animals.
68. These bacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh Salty areas, hot springs
habitats such as extreme _____________ (halophiles), _____________
(thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas (methanogens).
69. The_____________ (also referred to as blue-green algae) have chlorophyll cyanobacteria
a similar to green plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs.
70. They often form _____________ in polluted water bodies. Blooms
71. Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised Heterocysts,
cells called _____________ e.g., Nostoc and Anabaena.
72. _____________ autotrophic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances Chemosynthetic
such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for
their ATP production.
73. Chemoautotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like Nitrogen, phosphorous,
_____________. iron and sulphur
74. _____________bacteria are most abundant in nature. The majority are Heterotrophic
important decomposers.
75. They are helpful in making curd from milk, production of _____________, Antibiotics, fixing
_____________ in legume roots, etc. nitrogen
76. Cholera, typhoid, tetanus, citrus canker are well known diseases Bacteria.
caused by different _____________
77. Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission. Sometimes, under _____________ Unfavourable
conditions, they produce spores.
78. They also reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a Bacterium
primitive type of DNA transfer from one _____________ to the other.
79. The _____________ are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. Mycoplasma

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80. They are the smallest living cells known and can survive _____________. Without oxygen
81. Many mycoplasma are _____________ in animals and plants. Pathogenic
82. All single-celled eukaryotes are placed under _____________ but the Protista,
boundaries of this kingdom are not well defined.
83. What may be ‘a _____________’ to one biologist may be ‘a plant’ to Photosynthetic
another. protistan
84. In this book we include _____________, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime Chrysophytes
moulds and Protozoans under Protista.
85. Members of Protista are _____________. Primarily aquatic.
86. This kingdom forms a link with the others dealing with plants, animals fungi.
and _____________.
87. Being eukaryotes, the _____________ cell body contains a well defined Protistan
nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Some have flagella or
cilia.
88. _____________ reproduce asexually and sexually by a process involving Protists
cell fusion and zygote formation.
89. This group includes diatoms and _____________(desmids). Golden algae
90. They are microscopic and float passively in _____________ (plankton). Water currents,
Most of them are _____________. photosynthetic
91. In diatoms the cell walls form two thin _____________, which fit together Overlapping shells,
as in a soap box. The walls are embedded with _____________ and thus silica
the walls are indestructible.
92. Thus, diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in diatomaceous earth,
their habitat; this accumulation over billions of years is referred to as producers
‘_____________’. Being gritty this soil is used in polishing, filtration of oils
and syrups. Diatoms are the chief ‘_____________’ in the oceans
93. These organisms are mostly _____________ and_____________. They appear Marine, photosynthetic
yellow, green, brown, blue or red depending on the main pigments
present in their cells.
94. The cell wall has stiff _____________ plates on the outer surface. cellulose
95. Most of them have_____________one lies longitudinally and the other Two flagella
transversely in a furrow between the wall plates.
96. Very often, red dinoflagellates (Example: Gonyaulax) undergo such Red tides
rapid multiplication that they make the sea appear red (_____________).
97. _____________ released by such large numbers may even kill other Toxins
marine animals such as fishes.
98. Majority of them are fresh water organisms found in _____________. Stagnant water
99. Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein rich layer called _____________ Pellicle
which makes their body flexible

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100. Though they are _____________ in the presence of sunlight, when Photosynthetic,
deprived of sunlight they behave like _____________ by predating on heterotrophs
other smaller organisms.
101. Interestingly, the pigments of euglenoids are identical to those Higher plants
present in _____________. Example: Euglena
102. Slime moulds are _____________ protists. Saprophytic
103. The body moves along _____________ and leaves engulfing organic Decaying twigs
material.
104. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called Plasmodium
_____________ which may grow and spread over several feet.
105. During _____________ conditions, the _____________ differentiates and Unfavourable,
forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips. plasmodium
106. The spores possess _____________. They are extremely resistant and True walls, air currents
survive for many years, even under adverse conditions. The spores
are dispersed by _____________.
107. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes plasmogamy
called _____________.
108. Fusion of two nuclei called_____________. Meiosis in zygote resulting in Karyogamy
haploid spores.
109. In other fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes), an intervening Dikaryotic stage
_____________ (n + n, i.e., two nuclei per cell) occurs; such a condition is
called a dikaryon and the phase is called dikaryophase of fungus.
110. The morphology of the mycelium, _____________ and fruiting bodies Mode of spore
form the basis for the division of the kingdom into various classes. formation
111. _____________ is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work. Neurospora
112. Many members like _____________ are edible and are considered Morels and
delicacies. truffles
113. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium producing Four basidiospores,
_____________. The basidiospores are _____________ produced on the exogenously
basidium (pl.: basidia).
114. Commonly known as _____________because only the _____________ or Imperfect fungi,
vegetative phases of these fungi are known. asexual
115. _____________ (1892) recognised certain microbes as causal organism of Dmitri Ivanowsky
the mosaic disease of tobacco.
116. _____________ (1935) showed that viruses could be crystallised and W.M. Stanley
crystals consist largely of proteins. They are inert outside their
specific host cell.
117. In plants, the symptoms can be mosaic formation, leaf rolling and True
curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth.

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118. In 1971, Stanley, discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller False
than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease.
119. In modern medicine certain infectious neurological diseases were True
found to be transmitted by an agent consisting of abnormally folded
protein. The agent was similar in size to viruses. These agents were
called prions.
120. The most notable diseases caused by Viroids are bovine spongiform False
encephalopathy (BSE) commonly called mad cow disease in cattle and
its analogous variant Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans.
121. Lichens are symbiotic associations i.e. mutually useful associations, True
between algae and fungi. The algal component is known as phycobiont
and fungal component as mycobiont, which are autotrophic and
heterotrophic, respectively.
122. The parasitic forms cause diseases such as sleeping sickness. True
Example: Trypanosoma.

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Plant Kingdom
[Link]. Question Answer
1. Which taxonomy is based on following points :- Cytotaxonomy
• chromosome number
• chromosome structure
• chromosome behaviour
2. Match the column I with column II :- A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
Column-I Column-II
(A) Unicellular (i) Spirogyra
(B) Colonial (ii) Kelps
(C) Filamentous (iii) Volvox
(D) Massive plant bodies (iv) Chlamydomonas
3. Identify A, B, C and D in given flow chart :- A-Asexual
B-Spirogyra
C-Eudorina
D-Oogamous

4. Numerical taxonomy which is now easily carried out using All observable
computers is based on _________. characteristics
5. Which type of sexual reproduction is found in Fucus and red algae ? Oogamous
6. Identify the given figure with A, B, C & D :- Fucus
A-Air bladder
A
A B-Frond
B
B C-Mid rib
C
C
D-Holdfast

D
D

7. Identify the given figures (A and B) :- A-Volvox

B-Ulothrix

(A)
(A) (B)
(B)

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8. Write down the algal class of following figures :-
A-Chlorophyceae
B-Phaeophyceae
C-Rhodophyceae

(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C)
9. Study the following table and identify (i) (ii) & (iii) :- (i) Laminaria
Figure Algal Group Name (ii) Red algae
(iii) Ulothrix
.

Brown algae (i)

(ii) Polysiphonia

Green algae (iii)

10. Porphyra & Dictyota are belong which algal class respectively Rhodophyceae,
Phaeophyceae
11. Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from A and A-Gelidium
Gracilaria are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-
creams and jellies.
12. Which are the pigments found in phaeophyceae ? Chlorophyll-a, c,
Fucoxanthin
13. Write the name of eukaryotic unicellular algae which is rich in Chlorella
proteins and used as food supplements :-
14. Most of the green algae have one or more storage bodies, which are Pyrenoids
located in the chloroplasts are called :-
15. Certain marine brown and red algae produce large amounts of A-Algin
hydrocolloids eg. A and B , respectively which are used B-Carrageen
commercially.
16. Identify A, B & C in given table :- A-Chlorophyll a, b
Class Major Pigments Stored Food B-Phaeophyceae
Chlorophyceae A Starch C-Floridean starch
Mannitol
B Chl. a, c
Laminarian
Rhodophyceae Chl. a, d C
.

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17. In phaeophyceae, the vegetative cells have a cellulosic cell wall Algin
usually covered on the outside by a gelatinous coating of ________.
18. Why are the members of Rhodophyceae commonly called red algae? Due to pre-dominance of
r-phycoerythrin
19. Floridean starch is similar to A and glycogen in structure. A-Amylopectin
20. In which class of algae, gametes are pyriform (pear-shaped) and Phaeophyceae
bear two unequal laterally attached flagella ?
21. In which class of algae sexual reproduction is oogamous and Rhodophyceae
accompanied by complex post fertilization developments ?
22. Identify the given figure with A, B, C & D :- Funaria
A-Gametophyte
C
C
B-Sporophyte
B
B C-Capsule
D-Leaves

D
D

A
A

23. Gracilaria and Porphyra are the members of which class of algae ? Rhodophyceae
24. Identify the given figure and also identify the part which produce Marchantia, Gemma cup
specialised asexual reproductive structures ?

25. Identify the plants in figures (A & B). A-Marchantia (Dioecious)

B-Sphagnum
(Monoecious)

(A)
A (B)
B
26. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom. Why ? Because they can live in
the moist soil but depend
on water for sexual
reproduction

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Diversity in The Living World
27. Study the given flow chart and identify A, B, C & D :- A-Archegonia
Gametophyte B-Antherozoids
C-Mitosis
D-Spores
Antheridia
D
A
B
Sporophyte Egg

C Zygote

28. In liverworts, ___A___ are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which A-Gemmae
develop in small receptacles called ___B___ located on thallus :- B-Gemma cups
29. In bryophytes, zygotes do not undergo reduction division True
immediately. (True/False)
30. Find the ploidy level of followings with respect to bryophytes :-
A-Gametophyte B-Sporophyte A-n B-2n
C-Spore D-Antherozoids C-n D-n
E-Gemmae F-Rhizoids E-n F-n
31. The moss gametophyte consists of two predominant stages, what
.

Stages Develop
are these, and they develop from ?
from
Protonema Spore
Leafy Bud
gametophyte
.

32. In bryophytes, the dominant phase in the life cycle is the ________ Gametophytic
plant body but in pteridophytes, the main plant body is _______. Sporophytic
33. Which of the following terms are not related with mosses ? Prothallus
Capsule, Buds, Prothallus, Rhizoids, Archegonia, Protonema
34. Which part of gametophytic plant body of a moss bears sex organs- At the apex of the leafy
antheridia & archegonia? shoots
35. Identify the following figure :- Selaginella

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
36. Label the A, B, C & D in given figure :- A-Strobilus
B-Node
A
A
C-Internode
BB D-Rhizome
C
C

D
D
37. Identify the following figures (A & B) :- A-Equisetum
B-Salvinia

(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
38. Match the column I with column II :- A-iii
Column I Column II B-i
(Figure) (Class) C-ii
.

(A) (i) Sphenopsida

(B) (ii) Pteropsida

(C) (iii) Lycopsida

39. How many of the following have heterosporous nature ? Two

Selaginella, Equisetum, Salvinia (Selaginella, Salvinia)

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Diversity in The Living World
40. Study the following life cycle of Pteridophytes :- Gametophytic structures
Sporophyte = Six [Spore,
Embryo Sporophylls Gametophyte, antheridia,
Zygote archegonia, male gamete
Sporangia
and female gamete]
Fertilization
Spore mother Sporophytic structures =
Female male
gamete gamete cells Six [Zygote, embryo,
Meiosis sporophyte, sporophylls,
Archegonia Antheridia Spores sporangia and spore
mother cells]
Germination
Gametophyte
How many structures represent gametophytic & sporophytic
generations, respectively ?
41. Read the following information’s and identify the genus having Cycas
them :-
• Coralloid roots are with BGA
• Unbranched stem
• Lack ovary wall
• Pinnate leaves
42. Match the column I with column II :- A-iii, B-ii, C-i
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pinus (i) Precursor of seed habit
(B) Cycas (ii) Coralloid roots
(C) Selaginella (iii) Mycorrhizal association
.

43. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to because they need water
narrow geographical regions. why ? for fertilization
44. Female cone → Mega sporophylls → Megasporangia → Megaspores Female cone
For ab?r cell ⎯⎯
A
→ Microspore ⎯⎯B
→ Male gametophyte B-Germination

46. In gymnosperms, the male and the female gametophytes do not True
have an independent free-living existence. (True/False)
47. In gymnosperms, the nucellus is protected by envelops and the Ovule
composite structure is called ?
48. How many of the following cells are present in the typical
angiospermic embryo sac:
A - Egg cell A-One
B - Synergids B-Two
C - Antipodals C-Three
D - Central cell D-One

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
49. Write the names of male and female sex organs of angiosperms Stamen
respectively :- Carpel or Pistil
50. In how many classes angiosperms are divided ? Two (Dicotyledonae and
monocotyledonae)
51. Ovules, stamen, ovary, carpel, anther, antipodals, synergids, pollen Three :- these are
grains Stamen
How many structures are NOT produced by female plant of Anther
angiosperm ? Pollen grains
52. Angiosperms range in size from tiny, almost microspic e.g. ___A___ A-Wolfia
to tall trees of e.g. ___B___. B-Eucalyptus
53. How many nuclei are involved in double fertilization ? Five [2 male nuclei, 2
polar nuclei, 1 egg
nucleus]
54. Write down the ploidy level of followings regarding typical A-3n, B-n, C-2n, D-n, E-n
angiosperm :-
(A) Endosperm (B) Synergids (C) Embryo (D) Pollen grain
(E) Embryosac
55. After fertilization, what is the future of the following :-
(A) Ovule A-Seed
(B) Synergieds B-Degenerate
(C) Ovary C-Fruit
(D) Antipodals D-Degenerate
56. Identify the A, B, C, D & E in given life cycle of an angiosperm :- A-Ovary
Anther Microspore B-Microspore
mother cell C-Male gametes
Stigma

Filament
D-Embryo
Style Microsporangium E-Sporophyte
Megaspore
A mother cell

Flower Megasporangium B
(ovule)

GAMETOPHYTIC
SPOROPHYTI
E (n)
(2n)
GENERATION
GENERATION

Microspore
(pollen grain)
D

Male
gametophyte
Zygote
Egg C

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Diversity in The Living World
57. Many algae such as Volvox, Spirogyra and some species of Haplontic
Chlamydomonas represent ________ pattern of life cycle.
58. Which kind of life cycle pattern is shown by all seed-bearing plants? Diplontic
59. The life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant, there is an A-Gametes
alternation of generation between ___A___ producing by haploid B-Spore
gametophyte and ___B___ producing by diploid Sporophyte.
60. Which processes are essential for alternation of generation in plant
.

Haploid
Meiosis Fusion
life cycle ?
Diploid

Meiosis and fusion of

gametes
61. In bryophytes, what is the dominant phase of life cycle ? Gametophytic phase
62. "The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, Pteridophyta
independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. It alternates with
multicellular saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived
haploid gametophytes".
Above pattern of life cycle is represented by which group of plants?
63. "The short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially Bryophyta
dependent on the gametophyte".
Above statement is related to which group of kingdom plantae ?
64. Which type of life cycle is found in Fucus ? Diplontic
65. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by A , asexually by formation A-Fragmentation
of B and sexually by fusion of C . B-Spores
C-Gametes
66. Match the column-I (Process) with column II (Result)
Column I (Process) Column II (Result)
(A) Fusion of male & female gametes (i) Spores A-ii
B-iv
(B) Mitosis in zygote (ii) Zygote
C-i
(C) Meiosis in sporophyte (iii) Gametophyte
D-iii
(D) Germination of spores (iv) Embryo
67. The main plant body of a bryophyte is __________ and produce ________. Gametophyte, Gamete
68. The predominant stage in the life cycle of a moss is gametophyte Protonema stage,
which consists of two stages. The first stage is the___________, which Spore,
develops directly from a__________. Leafy,
The second stage is the__________ stage, which develops from the Secondary protonema
____________.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
69. Classes Stored Cell Wall Flagella A. Mannitol, laminarin
Food Number and B. Cellulose and algin
Position of C. 2-8, equal, apical
Insertion D. 2, unequal lateral
Chlorophyceae Starch Cellulose C
E. Absent
Phaeophyceae A B D
Rhodophyceae Floridean Cellulose, pectin E
Starch and poly sulphate
esters
.

70. A. Polysiphonia
B. Ulothrix
C. Gemma cup
(C) D. Seta
E. Node

(A) (B)

(E)
(D)

Identify A, B, C, D and E in above given diagrams?

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals

Morphology of Flowering Plants

nn

[Link]. Question Answer

1. Direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of ______ root. primary.
2. Lateral roots includes ____(a)____ and ____(b)____ roots (a) secondary
(b) tertiary
3. The primary root and its branches constitute the _________. Tap root system
4. When the primary root is short lived and replaced by large number of Fibrous root system
thin roots which orginates from base of the stem and constitutes the
5. The roots which arise from the parts of the plant other than the Adventitious roots
radicle are called.
6. The root apex is covered by thimble like structure called Root cap
7. The region of meristematic activity is situated few millimeters above True
root cap. True or false?
8. Match the following :
1. Tap root a. Monstera 1-c
2. Fibrous root system b. Wheat 2-b
3. Adventitious root c. Mustard 3-a

9. Which region of the root-tip have very small cells, thin walled and Meristematic zone
with dense protoplasm?
10. Which part of root-tip is responsible for the growth of the root in Region of elongation
length?
11. Region of elongation is present ____(a)____ to the region of meristem a - Proximal
and region of maturation is present ____(b)____ to the region of b - Proximal
elongation.
12. Match the following root modifications :
1. For storage a. Maize 1 - c, d
2. Prop root b. Sugarcane 2-e
3. Stilt root c. Sweet potato 3 - a, b
4. For respiration d. Turnip 4-f
e. Banyan
f. Rhizophora

13. Stilt roots arise from Lower node of the stem

14. Hanging structures which provide support to branches of banyan Prop roots
trees are called
15. In Rhizophora, pneumatophores help in Respiration

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
16. Shoot develops from the ____(a)____ of the embryo a - plumule
17. Part of the plant which bears nodes and internodes is known as Stem
18. Stem is generally ____(a)____ when young and later often becomes a - Green
woody and dark ____(b)____. b - Brown
19. Match the following :-
1. Organ of perennation a. Opuntia 1-e
2. Stem tendril b. Citrus 2-f
3. Stem thorn c. Euphorbia 3 - b, d
4. Phylloclade d. Bougainvillea 4 - a, c
e. Zaminkand
f. Cucumber
.

20. Stem modified into flattened structure in ____(a)____ or fleshy a - Opuntia

cylindrical green structure in ____(b)____ and perform photosynthesis. b- Euphorbia/Casuarina
21. In which plants each node bears a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots? Pistia and Eichhornia
22. Which type of sub-aerial modification occur in Jasmine. Stolon
23. In banana, the growing lateral branch come out ......................... giving Obliquely upward
rise to leafy shoots.
24. aa a - Lamina
cc b - Petiole
c - Stipule
bb

Recognise a, b and c.
25. Leaves originate from ................ meristem. Shoot apical
26. Leaf develops at the ____(a)____ and bears a ____(b)____ in its axil. a - Node, b - Bud
27. The axillary bud later develops into a Branch or flower
28. The leaves are arranged in _______ manner on stem. Acropetal
29. Leaf may bear two lateral small leaf like structures which are known Stipules
as.
30. Sheathing leaf base is found in monocots, true or false. True
31. In some ____(a)____ plants the leaf base may become swollen which is a - leguminous
known as ____(b)____. b - pulvinus
32. Vein provide ____(a)____ to the leaf blade and act as a - Rigidity
channels of ____(b)____ for water minerals and food materials b - Transport
33. The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed Venation
as __________.
34. When the veinlets form a network, the venation is known as Reticulate venation
35. When the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina the Parallel venation
venation is termed as

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
36. In a leaf, when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incisions do Simple leaf
not touch the midrib then this type of leaf is known as
37. When the incisions of leaf lamina reach upto the midrib the leaf is Compound leaf
known as
38. A _________ is present in the axil of petiole in both simple and Bud
compound leaves but not in the axil of leaflets.
39. Rachis is found in ________ leaf. Pinnately compound
40. In neem plant, which type of leaf is present Pinnately compound
leaf
41. In palmately compound leaf, the leaflets are attached at the ____(a)____ a - Common point
as in silk cotton. i.e. tip of Petiole
42. Match the following :
1. Alternate phyllotaxy a. Alstonia 1-b
2. Opposite phyllotaxy b. Mustard, Chinarose 2-c
3. Whorled phyllotaxy c. Guava, Calotropis 3-a

43. Match the following :

1. Leaf tendril a. Venus fly trap 1-b
2. Leaf spine b. Pea 2-c
3. Insectivorous plant c. Cactus 3-a

44. Name the plant in which, the leaves are small and short lived and Australian acacia
petiole modify in leafy structure and perform photosynthesis.
45. Flower is a modified Shoot
46. The arrangement of flower on floral axis is known as Inflorescence
47. In ____(a)____ inflorescence the main axis continuous to grow. a - Racemose
Whereas in ___(b)___ inflorescence main axis terminates in a flower. b - Cymose
48. In racemose type of inflorescence the flowers are arranged in Acropetal manner
49. In a typical flower, calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are Thalamus
attached on
50. Calyx and corolla are ____(a)____ whorls while androecium, and a - Accessory
gynoecium are ____(b)____ whorls of organs. b - Reproductive
or essential
51. When calyx and corolla are not distinct then they are known as Perianth
52. If a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is a _______ flower. Bisexual
53. If a flower having either only stamens or only carpels then it Unisexual
is a ________ flower.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
54. Match the following :
1. Actinomorphic flower a. Mustard, Datura 1 - a, c
2. Zygomorphic flower b. Canna 2 - d, e
3. Asymmetric flower c. Chilli 3-b
d. Cassia
e. Pea, Bean
.

55. Given figure represents which type of inflorescence. Cymose inflorescence

56. Given figure represents which type of flower. Perigynous flower

57. Match the following :-

1. Hypogynous flower a. Cucumber 1 - b, c
2. Perigynous flower b. Mustard 2-d
3. Epigynous flower c. Chinarose 3 - a, e
d. Plum
e. Guava
.

58. In case of perigynous flower, the ovary is Half inferior

59. When the sepals are united then condition is known as Gamosepalous
condition
60. When the petals are free then condition is known as Polypetalous condition
61. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect Aestivation
to other members of the same whorl is
62. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any Imbricate aestivation
particular direction, then this type of aestivation is known as

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
63. Recognise the type of aestivation in a, b, c and d. a - Valvate
b - Twisted
c - Imbricate
d - Vexillary
a b c d
64. Match the following with respect to aestivation in petals –
1. Valvate a. Cassia 1-c
2. Twisted b. Pea 2 - d, e
3. Imbricate c. Calotropis 3 - a, f
4. Vexillary d. China rose 4-b
e. Lady finger
f. Gulmohar

65. The pollen grains are produced in (Pollensac / Ovule) Pollen sac
66. A sterile stamen is known as Staminode
67. When the stamens are attached to the petals, they are known as Epipetalous
68. Match the following :-
1. Epitepalous stamen a. Citrus 1-d
2. Monoadelphous stamen b. Pea 2-c
3. Diadelphous stamen c. China rose 3-b
4. Polyadelphous stamen d. Lily 4-a
.

69. In rose and lotus, the condition of carpels is Apocarpous

(Apocarpous/Syncarpous)
70. After fertilisation, the ovules develop into ____(a)____ and the ovary a - Seeds
matures into a ____(b)____. b – Fruit
71. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as Placentation
72. Ripened or mature ovary is known as Fruit
73. If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of ovary, it is called Parthenocarpic fruit
74. Which of the following is not correct ? 1
1. Axile placentation - Primrose (Note : Primrose has free
2. Parietal placentation - Mustard, Argemone central placentation)
3. Free central placentation - Dianthus
4. Basal placentation - Sunflower, Marigold
75. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to (a) Mustard
formation of the false septum in ____(a)____ and ____(b)____. (b) Argemone
76. Generally, the fruit is consist of ____(a)____ and ____(b)____. a - Pericarp, b - Seeds
77. In mango and coconut the fruit is known as Drupe
78. The drupe fruits are developed from ....... and superior ovary. Monocarpellary
gynoecium

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
79. The edible part of mango is Mesocarp
80. The mesocarp of coconut is Fibrous
81. A seed is generally made up of Seed coat and an
embryo
82. The seed coat has two layers, the outer ____(a)____ and the inner a - Testa
____(b)____. b - Tegmen
83. a
b
a - Cotyledon
b - Plumule
c c - Radicle
Recognise the a, b and c in the above diagram.
84. Orchid seed is (non endospermic or endospermic) Non-endospermic
85. In the seeds of cereal the seed coat and fruit wall are (Fused/Free) Fused
86. In maize, the outer covering of endosperm separates Aleurone layer
the embryo by a proteinous layer called
87. In monocots, one large and shield shaped cotyledon is known as Scutellum
88. The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are ____(a)____ a - Coleoptile
and ____(b)____, respectively b - Coleorhiza
89. Recognise a, b and c in the given diagram :- a - Endosperm
b - Embryo
a

90. Recognise a, b and c in the given diagram :- a - Scutellum

b - Aleurone layer
b
c - Endosperm
c

91. Floral formula of mustard is  K2+2C4 A2+4 G(2)

92. Papilionatae is a subfamily of Leguminosae

93. Which structure of petals encloses the stamen and pistil. Keel
94. Floral formula of Pea is  K(5)C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
95. In fabaceae family, the gynoecium is monocarpellary, unilocular with True
many ovules, single style and superior ovary. (True/False)
96. How many of the plants given below are comes under fabaceae family All
- Moong, Soyabean, Indigofera, Sunhemp, Sesbania, Lupinus, Mulaithi
97. Solanaceae family commonly known as Potato family
98. The floral formula of Petunia is  K(5)C(5) A5 G(2)
99. Persistent calyx is found in the members of (Solanaceae/Liliaceae) Solanaceae
100. How many of the plants given below are comes under solanaceae All
family :- Tobacco, Tomato, Chilli, Belladona, Ashwagandha, Petunia,
Makoi
101. Family Liliaceae is commonly called Lily family
102. Epitepalous condition is found in (Fabaceae/Liliaceae) Liliaceae
103. In the members of family Liliaceae the gynoecium is tricarpellary, True
syncarpous, trilocular with many ovules and superior ovary.
(True/False)
104. Floral formula of onion is Br P(3+3) A3+3 G(3)

105. How many of the plants given below are comes under family All
Liliaceae :- Aloe, Asparagus, Tulip, Gloriosa, Colchicum
106. In vexillary aestivation, posterior petal is known as Standard or Vexillum
107. Underground modification of stem i.e. bulbs, corms and rhizomes Liliaceae
comes under.... family.
108. Fruit of Liliaceae family is Capsule, rarely berry
Solanaceae family
.

109.

Rocognise the family which is related to above floral diagram.

110. Match the following :-
1. Fabaceae i. Swollen placenta 1 - ii
2. Solanaceae ii. Diadelphous stamens 2-i
3. Liliaceae iii. Epitepalous condition 3 - iii

111. The underground part of the flowering plant is the ____________while Root system,
the portion above the ground forms the ____________. Shoot system.
112. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called _________ while Nodes and internodes
____________are the portions between two nodes.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
113. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two Stipules
lateral small leaf like structures called______________.
114. In ________________, the leaf base expands into a sheath covering the Monocots
stem partially or wholly.
115. _______________ provide rigidity to the leaf blade and act as channels of Veins
transport for water, minerals and food materials.
116. A bud is not present in the axil of ___________ of the compound leaf. Leaflet
117. Most of dicotyledonous plants leaves possess reticulate venation. True
118. In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common True
point, at the tip of petiole.
119. Parallel venation is the characteristic of some monocotyledons. False
120. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaflets on the stem or False
branch.
.

121. .

(a) – Opposite- e.g.

Guava
(b) – Whorled- e.g.
Alstonia
(c) – Alternate- e.g.
China rose

(a) (b) (c)

Identify the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem in above
given diagram and give one example of each phyllotaxy?
Racemose inflorescence
.

122. .

Identify the above given diagram.

123. A flower is a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem True
changes to floral meristem.
124. The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a Aleurone layer
proteinous layer called _______________ in monocot seed.
125. When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any Actinomorphic
radial plane passing through the centre, it is said to be ______________.

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
126. In Canna flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one False
particular vertical plane.
127. Flowers with bracts-reduced leaf found at the base of the pedicel are Bracteate
called ____________.
128. B and C
.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Which of the above given figure are related with rose, plum and peach?
129. Identify given below diagram and what is the name of its unit. Androecium
Unit - Stamen

130. _________ are usually brightly coloured to attract insects for pollination. Petals
131
.

(a) Twisted – e.g.

China rose and lady’s
finger
(b) Vexillary – e.g. Pea
and Bean
(a) (b)
Identify the above given aestivation and given two examples of each?
132. A ____________ stamens is called staminode. Sterile
133. When stamens are attached to the petals, they are called as ____________ Epipetalous, Brinjal
and find in ___________.
134.
.

Replum
In the above given placentation, initially ovary is one chambered but
due to formation of false septum it becomes two chambered.
What is the name of this false septum ?
135. In seeds such as castor, the endosperm is formed as a result of ________. Double fertilization

[Link] [ 131 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]

Anatomy of Flowering Plants

[Link]. Question Answer
1. Study of internal structure of plants is called _________. Plant Anatomy
2. A group of cells having a common ___(A)___ and usually performing a (A) Origin
common function, called ___(B)___. (B) Tissue
3. ___(A)___ in plants is largely restricted to specialised regions of active (A) Growth
cell division, called ___(B)___. (B) Meristem
4. The term meristem is derived from ___(A)___ word meristos, which (A) Greek
means ___(B)___. (B) Divided
5. The meristem which occurs at the tips of roots and shoots and Apical meristems
produce primary tissues are called
6. The meristem that occurs in the mature region of roots and shoots Secondary meristem
of many plants particularly those that produce woody axis and
appear later than primary meristem is called.
7. The structure(s) which is derived from shoot apical meristem and Axillary bud
present in axil (s) of leaf (leaves) and are capable of forming a branch
or a flower, called .............(s).
8. The meristem which occur in grasses between mature tissues and Intercalary meristem
regenerate parts removed by grazing herbivores is known as______.

9. Both ___(A)___ and intercalary meristems are ___(B)___ meristems (A) Apical meristem
and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body. (B) Primary
10. Which simple permanent tissue forms the major component with in Parenchyma
plant organs ?
11. Cells are generally isodiametric. Parenchyma
Cells may be spherical, oval, rounded, polygonal or elongated in
shape.
The cell wall is thin and made up of cellulose.
The cells may either be closely packed or have intercellular spaces.
Above characters of cells related to which type of simple permanent
tissue?
12. Which simple tissue performs various functions like photosynthesis, Parenchyma
secretion and storage ?
13. Which tissue occurs as a homogenous layers or in patches below the Collenchyma
epidermis in stem of dicotyledonous plants ?

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
14. ___(A)___ consists of cells which are much thick ended at the corners A-Collenchyma
due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and ___(B)___. B-Pectin
15. Which simple permanent tissue provides mechanical support to the Collenchyma
growing parts of plant such as young stem and petiole of a leaf.
16. Which simple permanent tissue consists of long narrow cells with Sclerenchyma
thick and lignified walls having a few or numerous pits.
17. Permanent tissues which are made up of more than one type of cells Complex tissues
and these cells work together as a unit.
18. The presence of vessels in xylem is characteristics feature of A-Angiosperms
___(A)___.
19. Which xylem element has highly thickened walls and obliterated Xylem fibre
central lumen?
20. Which xylem element stores food material in the form of starch or Xylem Parenchyma
fats and other substances like tannin?
21. Plant group in which phloem is composed of sieve tube elements, Angiosperms
companion cells, phloem parenchyma & Phloem fibres.
22. Spermatophytes in which phloem have albuminous cells and sieve Gymnosperms
cells
23. Phloem elements which are long, tube-like structures, arranged Sieve tube elements.
longitudinally and are associated with the companion cells.
24. A mature sieve tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and (A)-Vacuole
a large ___(A)___ but lacks a ___(B)___. (B)-Nucleus
25. The functions of ___(A)___ are controlled by the ___(B)__ of companion (A)-Sieve tubes
cells. (B)-Nucleus.
26. Match the column-I with column-II A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Column-I Column-II
(A) Xylem ray (I) Store food material and other
parenchyma substances like resin, latex & mucilage
(B) Companion (II) Devoid of protoplasm at maturity
cells
(C) Phloem (III) Radial conduction of water
fibres
(D) Phloem (IV) Help in maintaining the pressure
parenchyma gradient in the sieve tubes

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
27. On the basis of their ___(A)___ and ___(B)___, there are three types of A-Structure/morphology
tissue systems. B-Location/Position
28. Phloem fibre are made up of ___(A)___ cells. These are generally A-Sclerenchymatous
absent in the ___(B)___. B-Primary Phloem
29. Epidermal cells are ___(A)___ with a small amount of ___(B)___ and A-Parenchymatous
large vacuole. B-Cytoplasm
30. In dicots, guard cells are ___(A)___ shaped whereas in grasses guard A-bean
cells are ___(B)___ shaped. B-dumb-bell
31. The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the surrounding subsidiary A-Stomatal apparatus
cells are together called ___(A)___.
32. The root hairs are ___(A)___ elongations of the ___(B)___ cells and help A-Unicellular
absorb water and minerals from the soil. B-Epidermal
33. All tissues except ___(A)___ and Vascular bundles constitute the A-Epidermis
ground tissue system.
34. In ___(A)___., the ground tissue consists of thin walled chloroplast A-Leaves
containing cells and is called ___(B)___. B-Mesophyll
35. Given figure represents which type of vascular bundle ? Radial
Phloem
Phloem
Xylem
Xylem

36. Given figure represents which type of vascular bundle ? Conjoint, collateral &
Phloem
Phloem closed

Xylem
Xylem

37. Given figure represents which type of vascular bundle? Conjoint, collateral &
open
Phloem
Phloem
Cambium
Cambium

Xylem
Xylem

38. Which type of vascular bundles are found in roots ? Radial

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
39. Some of the terms are given below :- Medullary rays
Pericycle, Pith, vascular bundles and medullary rays
Which is not a part of stele in the primary internal structure of Dicot
and Monocot roots but part of stele in the primary internal structure
of Dicot stem.
40. The cross section of a plant material shows the following anatomical Monocotyledonous root
features under microscope:-
(a) usually more than six xylem bundles with exarch xylem
(b) pith is large and well developed
(c) Radial arrangement of xylem and phloem bundles.
The plant material should be :-
41. In the internal structure of roots, casparian strips are present in :- Endodermis
42. The cross section of a plant material shows the following anatomical
features under microscope.
(a) usually two to four xylem and phloem patches with exarch xylem. Dicotyledonous root
(b) pith in small or inconspicuous.
(c) Radial arrangement of xylem & phloem bundle. The plant
material should be.
43. In flowering plants, lateral roots are endogenous in origin and A-Pericycle
originates from the cells of ...(A)....
44. In dicotyledonous stem, which layer is also termed as starch sheath? Endodermis
45. List of some of the plant materials is given below :- Dicotyledonous stem
• Dicotyledonous root
• Monocotyledonous root
• Dicotyledonae stem
• Monocotyledonous stem
Which plant material have sclerenchymatous pericycle in patches,
located just above phloem bundles in the primary internal structure.
46. List of some the plant materials is given below :- Dicotyledonous stem
• Dicotyledonous root
• Dicotyledonous stem
• Monocotyledonous root
Which plant material have bundle cap in the primary internal
structure ?

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
47. In the internal structure of sunflower stem, in between the vascular A-Parenchymatous
bundles there are a few layers of radially placed ___(A)___ cells, which B-Medullary rays
constitute ___(B)___.

48. Which type of vascular bundles are found in the primary internal Conjoint, collateral &
structure of dicotyledonous stem (e.g. Sunflower stem) ? open

49. The cross section of a plant material shows the following anatomical Monocotyledonous stem
features under microscope:-
(a) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
(b) Many vascular bundles are scattered in parenchymatous
ground tissue, each vascular bundle is surrounded by
sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
(c) Vascular bundles are usually oval shaped.
(d) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral & closed and xylem is
endarch
(e) Phloem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities are
present within the vascular bundles
The plant material should be :-

50. Look at the given figure and find the position (Adaxial or abaxial) of Adaxial
xylem in the vascular bundle.

51. In a dorsiventral leaf, palisade parenchyma lies towards ...(A)... (A) Adaxial
epidermis and spongy parenchyma lies towards ...(B)... epidermis. (B) Abaxial

52. In grasses, certain ___(A)___ epidermal cells along the veins modify (A) Adaxial
themselves into large, empty, colourless cells. These cells are called (B) Bulliform
___(B)___ cells.

53. The ___(A)___ venation in monocot leaves is reflected in the near (A) Parallel
similar sizes of vascular bundles (except in main veins) as seen in
vertical section of the leaves.

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
54. In a isobilateral leaf, two distinct patches of ___(A)___ are present (A) Sclerenchyma
above and below of each large ___(B)___ which extend towards upper (B) Vascular bundle
and lower epidermis, respectively.

55. Name the lateral meristem which is responsible for the formation of Vascular cambium
secondary xylem, secondary phloem and secondary medullary rays.

56. The protective layer that surrounds the vascular bundles in a dicot Bundle sheath
leaf is called as _____________.

57. The vascular bundle in dicot stems is typically arranged in a _________ Conjoint
pattern.

58. The innermost layer of the root cortex, associated with the storage Endodermis
of food is called ________.

59. On the stem the epidermal hairs are called ________ and these are Trichomes, multicellular
usually __________ in the shoot system.

60. Secondary growth in plants is typically found in monocots. False

61. The Pericycle is a single layered tissue that gives rise to the lateral False
roots & cork cambium.

62. Which tissues provides flexibility & mechanical support to young Collenchyma
growing parts of the plant?

63. The primary function of trichomes in plants is to - Protect against

herbivores & excessive
transpiration

64. Sieve tube elements lack nuclei at maturity. True

65. Xylem parenchyma cells have thick secondary walls that provide False
structural support.

66. What is the primary function of the endodermis in plant roots? Regulation of solute
movement into the stele

67. Vessel elements are shorter and wider than tracheids, allowing for True
more efficient water conduction.

68. Sieve tubes, which are responsible for translocation in plants, False
contain nucleus & other organelles.

69. In monocot roots, pith is large and well developed. True

[Link] [ 137 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
70. The oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma is False
situated above the palisade cells and extends to the upper epidermis.
71. The root hairs are usually unicellular whereas trichomes are True
multicellular.
72. The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem & the Conjunctive tissue
phloem are called __________.
73. All tissues on the inner side of the endodermis such as pericycle, Stele
vascular bundles and pith constitute the ____________.
74. These are usually more than __________ xylem bundles in the monocot Six, Polyarch
root and is known as ___________.
75. Mesophyll has two types of cells __________ and _________. Palisade parenchyma,
Spongy parenchyma
76. In monocot stem, Peripheral vascular bundles are generally __________ Smaller
than the centrally located ones.
77. Look at the given figures and identify: a–dicot root,
b–monocot root

(a) (b)
78. Look at the given figures and identify: a–dicot stem,
b–monocot stem

(a) (b)

[ 138 ] [Link]
Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
79. Match the column-I with column-II. a-ii
Column-I Column-II b-iv
(a) Monocot stem (i) Few xylem bundles c-iii
(b) Dicot stem (ii) Scattered vascular bundles d-i
(c) Monocot root (iii) Many xylem bundles
(d) Dicot root (iv) Radical vascular bundles
.

80. Match the column-I with column-II. a-iii

Column-I Column-II b-iv
(a) Cuticle (i) Guard cells c-i
(b) Bulliform cells (ii) Single layer d-ii
(c) Stomata (iii) Waxy layer
(d) Epidermis (iv) Empty colourless cell
.

81. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to - Epidermis

82. A piece of wood having no vessels must be belong to: Gymnosperm

83. Identify the plant part whose transverse section shows the following Dicot stem
features:-
I. Innermost layer of cortex has casparian strips.
II. Pericycle has parenchymatous cells.
III. Radially arranged two to four xylem & phloem patches.
84. Match the column-I with column-II. a-iii
Column-I Column-II b-iv
(a) Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of c-i
monocots
d-ii
(b) Vessel (ii) Fruit walls of nut
(c) Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food & tannins
(d) Sclereids (iv) Long cylindrical tube-like
structure
.

85. Select incorrect statement with respect to the anatomy of monocot (2)
stem :–
(1) Parenchymatous ground tissue is extended from hypodermis to
centre.
(2) Hypodermis is made of thick walled living mechanical tissue.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral & closed with endarch
xylem.
(4) Pith is absent.

[Link] [ 139 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
86. Fibre (longest plant cell), belongs to which tissue? Sclerenchyma
87. Leaves of some grasses shows rolling & unrolling. It occurs due to - Bulliform cells
88. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because Xylem vessels
they lack -
89. Collenchyma occurs in the stem & petioles of - Dicots

[ 140 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions

Cell The Unit of Life

[Link]. Question Answer
1. Who discovered the first living cell ? Anton Von leeuwenhoek
2. Who formulated the cell theory ? Schleiden and Schwann
3. Who gave the cell theory a final shape ? Rudolf Virchow
4. "Omnis cellula -e- cellula" phrase was given by :- Rudolf Virchow
5. Main arena of various cellular activities of the cell is :- Cytoplasm
6. Which non-membranous organelle is found in both prokaryotic and Ribosome
eukaryotic cell ?
7. Who first explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from Rudolf Virchow
pre-existing cells ?
8. Which non-membranous cell organelle is found in animal cell and Centriole
helps in cell division ?
9. Who is responsible for extensive compartmentalisation of Membrane bound cell
cytoplasm in eukaryotic cell ? organelles
Fill in the Blanks Answer
1. Some organisms are composed of a single cell and are called "A" A - unicellular,
organisms while other organisms are composed of many cells are B - multicellular
called "B" organisms.
2. __________, a British Zoologist, studied different types of animal cells Theodore Schwann
and reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known (1839)
as the plasma membrane.
3. Cell that has membrane bound nucleus is called "A" whereas cell A-eukaryotic,
that lack membrane bound nucleus is called "B" . B-prokaryotic
4. The largest isolated single cell is the __________. egg of an Ostrich
True/False Answer
1. Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure True
independent living
2. Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of living True
organism
3. Various chemical reactions occur in the cytoplasm to keep the cell True
in the living state
4. All living organisms have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane False (absent in Animals)
5. All eukaryotic cells have similar shape False
(Vary in shape and size)
6. Shape of the cell may vary with the function they perform True

[Link] [ 149 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
CELL WALL
[Link]. Question Answer
1. Middle lamella is mainly composed of :- Ca-Pectate
(some Mg pectate also)
2. In plants other than algae, cell wall is composed of :- Cellulose, Hemi cellulose,
Pectin, Protein
3. In algae cell wall is composed of :- Cellulose, galactans,
mannan, CaCO3
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by ______ which plasmodesmata
connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
2. The cell wall of a young plant cell, the "A" is capable of growth, A- primary wall,
which gradually diminish as the cell matures and the "B" is formed B- secondary wall
on the inner side of the cell.
True/False Answer
1. Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell, but it protect the cell from True
mechanical damage & infection
2. As cell mature the secondary wall is formed on the inner (toward True
membrane ) side of the cell
3. Middle lamella holds or glues the different neighbouring animal False (plant cells)
cells together
4. Cell wall is a living quasifluid structure forms an outer covering for False (dead and rigid)
the plasma membrane of fungi and plants
5. All eukaryotic cells are not identical True

CELL MEMBRANE
[Link]. Question Answer
1. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by :- S.J. Singer & G.L. Nicolson
2. Na+/K+ pump is an example of :- Active transport
3. The ability of protein to move within the membrane is measured as Fluidity
its :-
4. Movement of water across the membrane by diffusion is :- Osmosis
5. The detailed structural study of cell membrane was possible after 1950
the year:-
6. The cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in :- Bilayer
7. In the membrane of human RBC the percentage of lipid is 40%
approximately.
8. The lipid component of cell membrane mainly consists of :- Phosphoglycerides
9. Cell membrane proteins can classified as integral or peripheral on Ease of extraction
the basis of :-

[ 150 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. According to 'Fluid Mosaic Model', the quasi-fluid nature of ___a___ a-lipids, b-proteins
enables the lateral movement of ___b___ within the bilayer.
2. Transport of molecules across the membrane without any passive transport
requirement of energy is called ________.
3. Neutral solutes can move across the membrane by the process of Simple diffusion
________.
4. As a can not pass through the non polar lipid bilayer, they a-polar molecules,
require b to facilitate their transport across the membrane. b-carrier proteins
TRUE/FALSE Answer
1. The fluid nature of cell membrane is helpful in functions like :-
(A) Formation of intercellular junctions True
(B) Cell growth True
(C) Cell division True
(D) DNA replication False
(E) Secretion True
(F) Ribosome synthesis False
2. The ratio of proteins and lipids is same in all cell membranes False
3. The integral proteins are partially or totally burried in the True
membrane
4. The lipids are arranged in the membrane with the polar heads False
towards the inner side

ER AND GOLGI BODY

[Link]. Question Answer
1. The network of tiny tubular structures scattered in the ER
cytoplasm is called :-
2. The endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on its surface is RER
called :-
3. In 1898 densely stained reticular structure near the nucleus in Camillo Golgi
the nerve cell of owl was first observed by :-
4. Which cell organelle is the major site for synthesis of lipid ? SER
5. Which cell organelle is the important site for synthesis of Golgi apparatus
glycoprotein and glycolipid ?
6. In animal cells lipid like steroid hormones are synthesised by SER
which cell organelle ?
7. Diameter of cisternae of Golgi apparatus is :- 0.5 µm - 1 µm
8. Which cellular structures are included in endomembrane ER, Golgi body, lysosome,
system ? vacuole

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse A-cis (forming/convex),
with "A" face of Golgi apparatus and move towards the "B" B-trans (maturing/concave)
face.
2. In the absence of ribosomes ER appear smooth and are called SER
______.
True/False Answer
1. The Golgi apparatus remain in close association with the True
endoplasmic reticulum
2. RER is extensive and continuous with the inner membrane of False
nucleus (Outer nuclear membrane)
3. ER divides the intracellular space into luminal and extra luminal True
part
4. Varied number of cisternae are present in Golgi apparatus True
5. Cis and trans face of Golgi apparatus are completely same False (Entirely different)
6. Golgi apparatus principally perform the function of packaging of True
materials to be delivered either to the intracellular targets or
secreted outside the cell
7. Chloroplast is the part of endomembrane system because its False
function is same as the mitochondria
8. ER, Golgibody, lysosome and vacuole is included in True
endomembrane system because their function are coordinated.

LYSOSOME/VACUOLE
[Link]. Questions Answer
1. Which cell organelle is formed by ER and Golgi apparatus and Lysosome
has hydrolytic enzymes.
2. Which cell structure stores water, sap, excretory product and Vacuole
other materials not useful for the cell ?
3. Which membrane is responsible for setting up higher Tonoplast
concentration of ions in the vacuole as compare to cytoplasm.
4. Which structure is responsible for excretion in Amoeba ? Contractile vacuole
True/False Answer
1. Lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all True
types of hydrolytic enzymes
2. Hydrolytic enzymes present in lysosomes are optimally active False (Acidic pH 5)
at basic pH
3. Hydrolytic enzymes are capable of digesting carbohydrates, True
proteins, lipids and nucleic acids

[ 152 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
4. In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy upto 90% of the volume True
of the cell
5. In many cells, as in protists, food vacuoles are formed by True
engulfing the food particles

MITOCHONDRIA AND CHLOROPLAST

[Link]. Questions Answer
1. The inner compartment of mitochondria is called :- matrix
2. Which organelle perform aerobic respiration in cell ? Mitochondria
3. Which type of leucoplast store oil and fat ? Elaioplast
4. Which membrane of chloroplast is more permeable ? Outer membrane
5. Arrangement of thylakoids like piles of coin is known as :- Grana
6. Which type of ribosomes are found in mitochondria ? 70S
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. The number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending on physiological
the _______ activity of cell.
2. Mitochondria is typically ______ shaped. sausage/cylindrical
3. Mitochondrial membranes divide its lumen into two ______ Aqueous
compartments.
4. Colour giving pigments are present in _______ type of plastid. Chromoplast
5. Chloroplast contain _____ type of ribosomes 70S
6. Folding’s of mitochondrial inner membrane are called ___a___ a-cristae, b-matrix
present towards ___b___.
7. Mitochondria divide by ________. Fission
8. Mitochondria's diameter is a and length is ___b___. a - 0.2-1.0 µm (average 0.5 m),
b - 1.0-4.1 µm
9. In chromoplast fat soluble ______ pigments are present. Carotenoids
True/False Answer
1. Mitochondria store food, waste materials and minerals False
2. Mitochondria does not produce ATP False
3. Mitochondria is a single membrane bound structure False (double)
4. The stroma lamellae connect the thylakoid of different grana True
5. The space limited by the inner membrane of chloroplast is True
called stroma
6. Mitochondria are the site of both aerobic and anaerobic False (only aerobic)
respiration
7. Plastids are found in plants True
8. Carotene and chlorophyll are fat soluble pigments True
9. Aleuroplast stores protein True
10. Chlamydomonas contains 20–40 chloroplasts in a cell False (one per cell)

[Link] [ 153 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
RIBOSOME
[Link]. Questions Answer
1. Ribosomes are the granular structures first observed under the George Palade (1953)
electron microscope as dense particles by :-
2. Which type of ribosomes are present in prokaryotic cells ? 70S
3. What is the function of ribosomes ? Protein synthesis
4. What is the size of prokaryotic ribosomes ? 15 nm to 20 nm.
5. Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form a chain, polyribosome or polysome
this chain is called :-
6. What are the two sub units of prokaryotic ribosomes? 50S and 30S
7. Ribosomes are composed of which components? r-RNA and protein
True/False Answer
1. Sedimentation coefficient is an indirect measurement of density True
and size
2. Microbodies are membrane bound vesicles, that contain various True
enzymes, are present in both plant and animal cells

CILIA AND FLAGELLA, CENTRIOLE

[Link]. Questions Answer
1. A network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the Cytoskeleton
cytoplasm is called :-
2. Which cell organelle is surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar Centriole
material ?
3. Cilia and flagella are emerge from centriole - like structure called:- basal bodies
4. Which small structures of cell work like oars ? Cilia
5. How many radial spokes are present in internal structure of cilia? 9
6. In axoneme of cilia how many radially arranged peripheral 9
doublet of microtubules are present ?
7. Which cellular structure organisation is like the cartwheel ? Centriole
8. Which cellular structure is responsible for rising of spindle Centriole
apparatus during cell division in animal cell ?
9. In centriole radial spoke is made of :- Protein
10. Arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia or flagella is :- 9+2
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. In cilia the central tubules are connected by __A__ and is also A - central bridge
enclosed by a __B__, which is connected to one of tubule of each B - central sheath
peripheral doublet by a __C__. C - radial spoke
2. Both the centrioles in a centrosomes lie _______ to each other. Perpendicular
3. In centriole each peripheral fibril is a _______. Triplet

[ 154 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
4. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is A-hub, B-radial spokes
proteinaceous and called the "A" , which is connected with
tubules of the peripheral triplet by "B" .
True/False Answer
1. Eukaryotic flagellum is comparatively smaller than cilia False
2. Bacteria possess flagella but these are structurally different from True
that of the eukaryotic flagella
3. The cytoskeleton in a cell is involved in mechanical support and True
motility
4. In cilia, peripheral doublets are interconnected by radial spoke False (Linkers)
5. The electron microscopic study of a eukaryotic cilium shows that True
they are covered with plasma membrane
6. Centriole is made of nine unevenly spaced peripheral fibrils of False (evenly spaced)
tubuline protein

NUCLEUS
[Link]. Question Answer
1. The interphase has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein Chromatin
fibres called :-
2. What is the name of basic protein present in chromatin ? Histone
3. What is the approximate length of DNA in a single human cell ? 2.2 metre
4. Which constriction is essentially present in every chromosome ? Primary constriction
5. Other name of primary constriction is Centromere
6. Sometimes a few chromosomes have non staining secondary Satellite
constriction at a constant location, this gives the appearance of a
small fragment called the :-
7. Nucleus was first described by :- Robert Brown
8. Chromatin name was given by :- Flemming
9. Space between the two parallel membranes of nucleus is called :- perinuclear space
10. The outer membrane of nucleus usually remains continuous with ER
which cell organelle ?
11. Nucleolus is a main site for synthesis of :- ribosomal RNA
12. Give the name of two mature eukaryotic cells that lack nucleus :- (i) RBC (Erythrocytes)
of many mammals
(ii) Sieve tube cells
13. Diameter of space between two parallel membranes of nucleus is:- 10 to 50 nm
14. The spherical structure present in the nucleoplasm is :- Nucleolus
15. Metacentric, submetacentric, telocentric and acrocentric position of centromere
chromosomes are classified on the basis of :-

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
16. Name the type of chromosome which has a terminal centromere :- Telocentric
17. In which chromosome the centromere is situated close to its end Acrocentric
forming one extremely short and one very long arm ?
18. In which chromosome, centromere is situated middle of Metacentric
chromosome and forming two equal arms ?
True/False Answer
1. Nucleus controls the activities of organelles and play a major role in True
heredity
2. Material of the nucleus is stained by only acidic dye False
3. Nuclear matrix contains chromatin and one or more spherical bodies True
called nucleoli
4. Nuclear pores are the passage through which movement of RNA and False (Both direction)
protein molecules take place in only one direction
5. The inner membrane of nucleus usually remain continuous with ER False
and also bears ribosomes on it
6. Each and every cell of human body contain nucleus False
7. The content of nucleolus is not continuous with the rest of False
nucleoplasm because it is bound by single membrane
8. Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively True
carrying out protein synthesis
9. Some mature eukaryotic cells lack nucleus but yet these cells True
consider as a living
10. In submetacentric chromosomes centromere is situated slightly True
away from the middle of the chromosome
11. Secondary constriction essentially present in every chromosome False
12. Chromatin contain DNA, some acidic protein called histones some False (histones = basic
non-histone protein and also RNA. proteins)
13. Nucleolus is a main site for ribosomal protein synthesis False
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. At a number of places the nuclear envelope is interrupted by minute A-pores, B-fusion
A , which are formed by the B of its two membranes.
2. During different stages of cell division, cells show structured ______ in Chromosome
place of the nucleus.
3. Every chromosome essentially has a "A" on the sides of which A-primary constriction
disc shaped structures called "B" are present. B-kinetochore

[ 156 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
Match the columns Answer
1. Match the Column-I with Column-II. A-iii, B-i, C-ii
Column-I Column-II
A Smallest cell i Nerve cell
B Longest cell ii Egg of an Ostrich
C Largest isolated single cell iii Mycoplasma
.

2.
.

Column-I Column-II A-iii, B-v, C-i,

A Schleiden & Schwann i Fluid mosaic model D-vi, E-iv, F-ii
B Anton Von Leeuwenhoek ii Golgi body
C Singer & Nicolson iii Cell theory
D Robert Brown iv Ribosome
E George Palade v First living cell
F Camillo Golgi vi Nucleus
.

3.
.

Column-I Column-II A-ii, B-i, C-iii

A Plasmodesmata i Holds the different neighbouring
cells together
B Middle lamella ii Connect the cytoplasm of
neighbouring cells.
C Primary cell wall iii Diminishes as the cell mature
.

4. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-v, E-i

.

Column-I Column-II
A Vacuole i Protein synthesis and secretion
B Lysosome ii Packaging of materials
C Golgi body iii Digestion
D SER iv Storage of water
E RER v Synthesis of steroidal hormones
.

5. Consider the cell membrane and match the column-I with column-II. A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
.

Column-I Column-II
A. Lipid i. 52%
B. Protein ii. 40%
C. Fluid mosaic model iii. Na+ /K+ pump
D. Active transport iv. 1972
.

6.
.

Column-I Column-II A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

A. Chromoplast i. Svedberg unit
B. Ribosome ii. Carotenoids
C. Food vacuole iii. Important for excretion
D. Contractile vacuole iv. Formed by engulfing the food
particles
.

[Link] [ 157 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
.

7. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

Column-I Column-II

A. Power house of cell i. Chlorophyll

B. Photosynthesis ii. Starch

C. Amyloplast iii. Proteins

D. Aleuroplast iv. Mitochondria

.

8. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

Column-I Column-II

A. Chromatin i Flat membranous sacs in stroma.

B. Cisternae ii Infoldings in mitochondria

C. Thylakoids iii Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

D. Cristae iv Highly extended and elaborate

nucleoprotein fibres
.

Diagram Based Questions Answer

1. Identify the following cells :- (A) Red Blood cells

(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (B) White blood cells
(C) Columner epithelial
cells
(D) Nerve cell
(E) Tracheid
(F) Mesophyll cells

(D)
(D) (E)
(E) (F)
(F)

2. Given below is the diagram of plasma membrane. Identify the parts A - Sugar
labelled A, B, C, D & E.
B - Protein
A B
C - Lipid bilayer
C D - Cholesterol
E - Integral Protein
E

[ 158 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
3. From the given figure identify the A, B, C and D. A - Nuclear pore

B - Ribosome (RER)
A

B C - SER

D – Cytoplasm

D
C

4. From the given figure identify the A, B, C, D, E and F. A - Plasma m embrace

B - Peripheral
A
B
C microtubule

D C - Central sheath

D - Radial spoke
(a) E
(b) F
E - Central bridge

F - Central microtubule

5. From the given figure identify A, B, C and D. A - Cristae

D B - Intermembrane
C
B
space

C - Inner membrane
A
D - Outer membrane

6. From the given figure identify A, B, C and D. A - Stroma

B - Outer membrane
B
D C - Stroma lamella

C
D - Thylakoid

[Link] [ 159 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
7. Identify the parts labelled in given diagrams :- X – Kinetochore

(A)
X

A A → Short arm,
C B → Long arm,
(B)
C → Centromere

A A → Satellite
B B → Secondary
Constriction
(C) C C → Centromere

[ 160 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions

Cell Cycle and Cell Division

[Link]. Questions Answer
1. Duration of cell cycle in yeast :- 90 minutes
2. The phase when the actual cell division occurs: - M-phase
3. The phase between two successive M-phase: - Interphase
4. The phase corresponding to the interval between mitosis and G1 phase
initiation of DNA replication: -
5. The phase which marks the period during which DNA synthesis or S-phase
replication takes place: -
6. The cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase and enter in an Quiescent / G0 stage
inactive stage called: -
7. In plant, mitotic cell division is seen in the: - Diploid cells and haploid
cells
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. ______ of cell cycle can vary from organism to organism and also from Duration
cell type to cell type.
2. The interphase lasts more than _____ of the duration of cell cycle: 95%
3. The M-phase starts with __(a)__ corresponding to separation of a- Karyokinesis,
daughter chromosomes and usually ends with division of cytoplasm b- cytokinesis
called ___(b)___
4. The interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for a- cell growth,
division by undergoing both _(a)_ and _(b)_ in an orderly manner: - b-DNA Replication
5. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ____ 4C
in S-phase :-
6. If the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1 then after Same (2n)
S-phase the number of chromosomes will be ____
7. In animal cells, during S-phase _(a)_ begins in the nucleus and _(b)_ a-DNA Replication,
duplicates in the cytoplasm b-Centriole
8. Cells in G0 stage remain ____ but no longer proliferate unless called metabolically active
on to do so
True or False Answer
1. Average duration of cell cycle of a human is 24-hour cell, cell division True
proper lasts for only about an hour.
2. Cell growth is a continuous process while DNA replication occurs True
only during one specific stage in the cell cycle.
3. During prophase, proteins are synthesized in preparation for False
mitosis.

[Link] [ 167 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
Mitosis
Questions Answer
1. Most dramatic period of cell cycle is - M-phase
2. Which stage of mitosis marked by initiation of condensation of Prophase
chromosomal materials?
3. In which stage of mitosis morphology of chromosome is most easily Metaphase
studied?
4. The stage of mitosis in which splitting of centromeres occurs - Anaphase
5. The stage in which nuclear envelope and nucleolus reforms - Telophase
6. What is the precurser of middle lamella? Cell plate
7. The type of division responsible for the growth of multicellular Mitosis
organisms -
8. At which phase of mitosis, chromatids move to opposite poles Anaphase
9. Give a suitable example of multinucleate condition (syncytium) in Liquid endosperm in
which karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis? coconut
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. The number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells are Mitosis
same in ________ division.
2. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator in _______ stage. Metaphase
3. Two sister chromatids are held together by the _______ of the Centromere
chromosome.
4. Each chromosome move away from the equatorial plate in _____ Anaphase
stage.
5. Mitosis is usually restricted to the _______ cells in animals. Diploid
6. Mitosis is also known as _______. Equational division
7. (a) attach to (b) of chromosomes in (c) stage. (a) Spindle fibres
(b) Kinetochores
(c) Metaphase
8. Nucleolus, Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum disappear during (a) Prophase
(a) stage and reform during (b) stage. (b) Telophase
True or False Answer
1. Mitosis is also called as reductional division. False
2. Centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell in False
anaphase.
3. Condensation of chromosomes is completed in metaphase. True
4. Small disc shaped structures at the surface of centromeres are called False
Chiasmata.
5. Each chromosome start to moves away from equatorial plate in False
telophase.

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Cell : Structure and Functions
6. M-phase is the longest phase of cell cycle because karyokinesis occur False
in this phase.
7. In telophase stage chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality.
individuality.

Meiosis
Questions Answer
1. In which stage of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate while Anaphase I
sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres: -
2. Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in :- Zygotene
3. Complex structure formed during synapsis is called: - Synaptonemal complex
4. Enzyme required for crossing over: - Recombinase
5. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occur in: - Diplotene
6. X-shaped structure (Chiasmata) appear in: - Diplotene
7. Terminalisation of chiasmata occur in: - Diakinesis
8. Which stage represent transition to metaphase in meiosis-I? Diakinesis
Fill in the blanks Answer
1. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between _______ Non-sister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
2. In oocytes of some vertebrates _______ stage can last for months or Diplotene
years.
3. During _______ stage nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear, Telophase-I
cytokinesis follows and two cells are formed called dyad of cells.
4. During _______ stage bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as a Pachytene
tetrad.
5. The stage between meiosis-I and meiosis-II is called _______ and is Interkinesis
generally short lived.
True or False Answer
1. Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of True
sexually reproducing organisms.
2. During interphase the chromosomes become gradually visible False
under the light microscope.
3. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by True
the end of pachytene.
4. Increase in the genetic variability in population of organisms from True
one generation to next occurs by meiosis.
5. At the end of meiosis-I, four haploid daughter cells are formed. False

[Link] [ 169 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
Match the column Answers
.

1. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

Column I Column II
1. Centriole duplication a. G2-phase
2. Quiescent stage b. S-phase
3. Interval between c. G0-phase
M-phase and S-phase
4. Second gap phase d. G1-phase
.
.

2.
Column I Column II
1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
1. Duration of M-phase a. S-phase
2. DNA replication b. 5%
3. Duration of Interphase c. G 0 -stage
4. Metabolically active cells but no d. 95%
longer proliferation
.
.

3.
Column I Column II
A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
A Interphase i. Condensation o f
chromosomal material
B Prophase ii. Chromatids move to opposite poles
C Anaphase iii. Spindle fibres attach to
kinetochores of chromosomes
D Metaphase iv. Resting phase
.
.

4. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

Column I Column II
A. Telophase i. Centriole move to opposite poles
B. Metaphase ii. Golgi complex and ER reform
C. Anaphase iii. Chromosome aligned at metaphase
plate
D. Prophase iv. Splitting of centromeres
.
.

5.
Column I Column II
1-a, 2-d, 3-e, 4-b, 5-c
1. Crossing over a. Pachytene
2. Synapsis b. Anaphase-II
3. Chiasmata appear c. Diakinesis
4. Division of centromere d. Zygotene
5. Terminalisation of chiasmata e. Diplotene
.

[ 170 ] [Link]
Cell : Structure and Functions
6. I – b, d, e
Column I Column II
II – a, c, f
I. Mitosis a. Evolution
II. Meiosis b. Cell repair
c. Genetic variability
d. Replacement of old cells
e. Growth of multicellular
organisms.
f. Conservation of specific
chromosome number of each
species
.

Diagram based Questions Answer

1. Match the following column-I and column II :-
Column I Column II
I. a. Metaphase I – (b)
II – (a)
III – (d)
IV – (e)
II. b. Late prophase V – (c)

III. c. Transition to metaphase

IV. d. Anaphase

V. e. Telophase

2. Identify the following figures :-

(A) Anaphase-I
(B) Metaphase-I
(C) Prophase-I

(C) (B) (A)

[Link] [ 171 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
Questions Answers
1. Electron micrographs of this stage indicate that chromosome synaptonemal complex
synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure
called ________________.
2. _____________ is marked by terminalization of chiasmata. Diakinesis
3. The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate in Metaphase–I
________________ stage.
4. Anaphase - I begin with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere False
of each chromosome.
5. Chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell by shortening True
of microtubules attached to kinetochores.
6. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division a - meiosis I,
called __(a)___ and __(b)___ but only a __(c)___ cycle of DNA b - meiosis II,
replication. c – single
7. Prophase I is divided into five phases based on chromosomal Leptotene, Zygotene,
behaviour namely: Pachytene, Diplotene
and Diakinesis.
8. There is no replication of DNA during interkinesis. True
9. These structures serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to Kinetochores
the chromosomes during cell division.
10. Chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense Telophase
and lose their individuality.

[ 172 ] [Link]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]

Plant Growth and Development

[Link]. QUESTIONS ANSWERS

1. An irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or it's parts or Growth
even of an individual cell is called.
2. Name the cells which have the capacity to divide & self-perpetuate. Meristematic cell
3. The form of growth where in new cells are always being added to the Open form of growth
plant body by the activity of the meristem is called.
4. Name the meristems which appear later in life of dicotyledonous and Lateral meristems
gymnosperm plants and causes increase in the girth of the organ in (Vascular cambium and
which they are active. cork cambium)
5. Write the variety of parameters by which growth can be measured. Fresh weight, dry
weight, length, area,
volume, cell number
etc.
6. Growth of a pollen tube is measured in terms of it's length
7. The period of growth is generally divided into three phases namely meristematic,
elongation and
maturation phase
8. Which phase of growth is represented by root apex & shoot apex? Meristematic phase
9. Write the characteristics of cells which are proximal to the Increased vacuolation
meristematic zone. Cell enlargement New
cell wall deposition
10. Cells of which phase attain maximum size in terms of wall thickening Phase of maturation
and protoplasmic modification?
11. The increased growth per unit time is termed as growth rate
12. Relative growth rate is the measure of the ability of the plant to efficiency index
produce new plant material so it is also referred as
13. All changes that an organism goes through during it's life cycle from development
germination of the seed to senescence is called
14. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or plasticity
phases of life to form different kinds of structures this ability is called
15. Sum of growth and differentiation is considered as development
16. Write the intrinsic and extrinsic growth factors. Intrinsic = Genetic
(intracellular)
PGR (intercellular)
Extrinsic = light,
temperature, water,
oxygen and nutrition

[ 190 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
17. Name the plant hormones which are involved in growth promoting Auxin, Gibberellin,
activities such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, Cytokinin
tropic growth, flowering, fruiting and seed formation.
18. Plant hormones, which responses to wounds and stresses of biotic & ethylene and abscisic
abiotic origin & are also involved in dormancy & abscission, are– acid
19. Name the hormone which influence the tip of coleoptile and bend it Auxin
towards light.
20. Inhibitor B, abscission II and dormin are related to which hormone ? Abscisic acid (ABA)
21. Name the volatile substance which was confirmed by H.H. Ethylene
Cousins from ripened oranges.
22. Miller, F. Skoog and his co-workers are concered to discovery of Kinetin (Cytokinin)
23. Name the hormone which is used extensively in agricultural and Auxin
horticultural practices and help to initiate rooting in stem cutting
during plant propagation.
24. In higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the apical dominance
lateral (axillary) buds, this phenomenon is called.
25. Write the process that results in the growth of lateral buds and widely Decapitation
applied in tea plantations and hedge making.
26. Write the hormone that induce parthenocarpy and also controls Auxin
xylem differentiation.
27. Write the hormone which increase the length of grapes, stalks Gibberellin
improves the shape of apple and speed up the malting process in
brewing industry.
28. Hormone which helps to produce new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, Cytokinin
lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation.
29. A simple gaseous PGR synthesised by senescence tissue and ripening Ethylene
fruits.
30. Hormone which enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the Ethylene
fruits (respiratory climactic).
31. Name the hormone which promotes root growth and root hair Ethylene
formation.
32. The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon
33. Hormone that promotes female flowers in cucumbers and increasing Ethylene
the yield.
34. Name the hormone which regulate abscission and dormancy. Abscisic acid
35. Hormone that inhibits the plant metabolism and seed germination. Abscisic acid
36. Flowering response of plants to periods of day/night is termed as Photoperiodism
37. If flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on Vernalisation
exposure to low temperature, this phenomenon is termed as.

[Link] [ 191 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWERS
1. __(A)__ is regarded as one of the most fundamental and conspicuous A = Growth
characteristics of a living being.
2. Growth at a cellular level is principally a consequence of increase in A = protoplasm
the amount of __(A)__.
3. Single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than __A__ A = 17,500
new cells per hour whereas cells in a watermelon may increase in B = 3,50,000
size by upto __B__ times.
4. During differentiation cells undergo few to major structural A = cell wall
changes both in their ____A____ and ____B____. B = protoplasm
5. In a plant, cell/tissues arising out of the same meristem have A = open differentiation
different structure at maturity it is known as ____A____.
6. Development in plants is under the control of ___A___ and ____B____ A = intrinsic
factors. B = extrinsic
7. Auxin was isolated by ____A____ from tips of coleoptiles of oat A = F.W. Went
seedlings.
8. The bakane (foolish seedling), a disease of rice seedlings was caused Gibberella fujikuroi
by a fungal pathogen ______.
9. Cytokinin’s help overcome the _____A_____. They promote _____B____ A = apical dominance
which helps in the delay of leaf senescence. B = nutrient mobilisation
10. Influence of ethylene on plant include ____A____ of seedlings, A = horizontal growth
_____B_____ and _____C____ in dicot seedlings. B = swelling of the axis
C = apical hook formation
11. Ethylene promotes _____A_____ and _____B_____ of plant organs A = senescence
especially of leaves and flowers. B = abscission
12. _____A_____ promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep A = Ethylene
water rice plants.
13. _____A_____ stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and A = ABA
increase the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
14. Abscisic acid acts as an antagonist to _________. gibberellic acid
15. The site of perception of light/dark duration are the ______. leaves
16. Hormonal substance migrates from leaves to shoot apices for inductive photo period
inducing flowering only when the plants are exposed to the
necessary _______.

[Link]. TRUE AND FALSE ANSWERS

1. All cells of a plant are descendents of the zygote. True
2. The leaves, flowers and fruits of the same tree not only have limited dimensions True
but also appear and fall periodically and sometime repeatedly.

[ 192 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
3. Development of a mature plant from a zygote (Fertilized egg) follow a precise and True
highly ordered succession of events.
4. Plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. True
5. Choose the correct or incorrect statement regarding given figure.

True
(a) Figure (A) shows more relative growth rate as compare to figure (B).
(b) Figure (A) and figure (B) shows the similar absolute growth rate. True
6. Water provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for growth while True
oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities.
7. Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source True
of energy.
8. Auxin was first isolated from human urine. True
9. Spraying juvenile conifers with GA hastens the maturity period thus leading to True
early seed production.
10. Kinetin occur naturally in plants. False
11. Natural cytokinin’s are synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs. True
12. Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in pineapples. True
13. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and accelerates True
abscission in flowers and fruits.
14. ABA plays an important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy. True
15. Events like vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed germination and plant False
movements are controlled only by extrinsic factors.
16. In certain plants relative duration of light and dark period plays a important role True
in flowering.
17. Vernalisation prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing True
season.
18. Spring variety is normally planted in winter and harvested in autumn. False
19. Biennials are monocarpic plants that normally flower and die in the second True
season.
20. Effect of vernalisation can not be seen in sugar beet, cabbages and carrots. False
21. Winter varieties of annual plants are planted in autumn, they germinate, and over True
winter come out as small seedlings, resume growth in spring and are harvested
around mid - summer.

[Link] [ 193 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS ANSWERS
1. Given figure shows the sequence of the development process in A = Plasmatic growth
a plant cell, identify labelled parts A, B, C and D. B = Differentiation
Cell division Death C = Expansion
D = Maturation
A B
Meristematic
cell
Mature
C D cell

2. Find the labelled parts in given figure which shows germination A = Cotyledon
and seedling development in bean. B = Hypocotyl
C = Epicotyl hook
D = Epicotyl

3. Name the labelled meristems in given diagram. A = shoot apical meristem

A
B and C = vascular combium
of shoot and root
respectively
Shoot D = root apical meristem
B

Root C

4. Identify the following diagrammatic representation of types of I = Arithmetic Lt = L0 + rt

growth and their mathematical expressions.

[ 194 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology

II = Geometric W1 = W0 ert

5. Identify the labelled parts A, B and C in given figure. A = Lag phase

B = Log phase or
of the organ
Size/weight

C
B exponential phase

A C = Stationary phase
Time

6. Identify the phenomena A and B :- A = Heterophylly due to

phases of life.

B = Environmental
heterophylly.

7. In the given figure identify the group of plant. A = Long day plant

B = Short day plant

C = Day neutral plant

[Link] [ 195 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]

[Link]. MATCH THE COLUMNS ANSWERS

1. Match these molecules to their chemical composition :- A = i, B - ii, C = iii,
Column I Column II D = iv, E = v
A Auxin (IAA) i indole compounds
B Cytokinin’s (kinetin) ii adenine derivatives
C Abscisic acid iii carotenoid derivatives
D Gibberellic acid iv terpene derivatives
E Ethylene v C2H4
.

2. Match the column-I and Column-II :- 1 = a, b

Column I Column II 2 = c, d
1 Natural auxin i Indole 3-acetic acid (IAA)
2 Synthetic auxin ii Indole butyric acid (IBA)
iii Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA)
iv 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(2,4D)
.

[Link]. Question Answer

1. In geometric growth, following mitotic cell division, only one False
daughter cell continues to divide while other differentiates and
matures.
2. A __________ is a characteristic of living organism growing in a Sigmoid curve
natural environment.
3. In W1=W0 ert, r is the absolute growth rate and is also the measure False
of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, referred
to as efficiency index.
4. __________ hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and Ethephon
accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton,
cherry, walnut).
5. Following experiment demonstrate about which plant growth Auxin
regulator :-
Direction of
unilateral light
source

Charles Darwin & Francis Darwin Experiment

[ 196 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology

Respiration in Plants

[Link]. QUESTIONS ANSWERS

1. Name the organism(s) that can prepare their own food by All green plants, cyanobacteria,
photosynthesis some protist and some other
eubacteria.
2. Name the site(s) where breakdown of complex molecules Cytoplasm & mitochondria
takes place to yield energy
3. The breakdown of the C–C bonds of complex compounds Respiration
through oxidation within the cells, leading to release of
considerable amount of energy is called.
4. Name the structures/organs in plants that are used for Stomata & lenticels
gaseous exchange.
5. Write the reaction for complex combustion of glucose C6H12O6 + 6O2 ⎯→
molecule. 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
6. All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to Glycolysis
partially oxidise glucose without the help of oxygen.
This breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is called.
7. Name the scientists who gave the scheme of glycolysis Gustav Embden
Otto Meyerhoff & J. Parnas
8. Name the site of glycolysis in the cell Cytoplasm
9. How many ATP are directly synthesised in glycolysis from 4ATP
one glucose.
10. Write the names of three major ways in which different cells Lactic acid fermentation
handle pyruvic acid. Alcoholic fermentation
Aerobic respiration
11. Write the enzymes which catalyse the conversion of pyruvic Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
acid to CO2 and ethanol. Alcohol dehydrogenase
12. How much amount of energy is released in lactic acid and Less than 7% of total energy in
alcoholic fermentation? glucose.
13. Write the enzyme & its coenzymes which catalyse the Pyruvate dehydrogenase,
following reaction: - NAD+, CoA, Mg2+,
Pyruvic acid + NAD+ ⎯→ Acetyl Co-A + CO2 + NADH TPP (Thiamine pyrophosphate),
LA (Lipoic acid)
14. Name the process by which ATP is formed in electron Oxidative phosphorylation
transport system (ETS) in mitochondria.
15. How many ATP are gained during aerobic respiration using 36 or 38 ATP
one glucose.

[Link] [ 183 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
16. The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2 Respiratory quotient (RQ) or
consumed in respiration is called. Respiratory ratio
17. Find the value of RQ when fats (e.g. Tripalmitin) are used in 0.7
respiration.
18. Find the value of RQ when respectively carbohydrates and 1.0 and 0.9
proteins are used in respiration.

FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWERS

1. Usually (A) are oxidised to release energy but (B) and A = carbohydrate
even (C) can be used as respiratory substances in some B = proteins, fats
plants. C = organic acids
2. During oxidation energy released in a series of slow stepwise A = enzymes
reactions controlled by (A) and is trapped as (B) in the B = chemical energy
form of (C) . C = ATP
3. The first cells on this planet lived in atmosphere that lacked A = oxygen
(A) .
4. Fermentation takes place under (A) conditions in many A = anaerobic
(B) and unicellular (C) . B = prokaryotes
C = eukaryotes
5. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration 13%
of alcohol reaches about _________.
6. In mitochondrial matrix pyruvate undergoes ___________. Oxidative decarboxylation
7. TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with A = oxaloacetic acid
(A) and (B)__ to yield citric acid. B = water
8. The metabolic pathway present in the inner mitochondrial electron transport system (ETS)
membrane through which the electron passes from one
carrier to another is called _________.
9. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to ____(A)____ A = three
molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of FADH2 B = two
produces ____(B)____ molecules of ATP.
10. If fatty acids were to be respired they would first be A = acetyl Co-A
degraded to ___(A)___ and enter the pathway. Glycerol would B = PGAL
enter the pathway after being converted to ____(B)_____.
11. Respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and amphibolic pathway
catabolism it would hence be better to consider the
respiratory pathway as an _______.

[ 184 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
[Link]. TRUE & FALSE ANSWERS
1. Energy released by oxidation in respiration is not used directly but is used True
to synthesise ATP.
2. ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell because it is broken down True
whenever (and wherever) energy needs to be utilised.
3. Carbon skeleton produced during respiration. True
(Eg. -ketoglutarate, OAA etc. intermediates) are used as precursor for
biosynthesis of other molecules in the cell.
4. Plants do not require O2 for respiration and they never give out CO2. False
5. Krebs cycle which is also called aerobic respiration requires O2 supply. True
6. In mitochondrial matrix complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in True
which all the hydrogen atoms are removed, leaving three molecules of CO2.
7. At inner membrane of mitochondria, passing on of the electrons removed True
as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with simultaneous synthesis
of ATP occurs.
8. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor in electron transport chain of True
mitochondria.
9. In respiration, energy of oxidation reduction is utilised for the production True
of proton gradient required for phosphorylation.
10. Cytochrome c (small protein) is attached to outer surface of the inner True
mitochondrial membrane.
11. Cytochrome c oxidase complex contains cyto-a & a3 and two copper True
centres.
12. When the electrons pass from one carrier to another via complex-I to IV in True
the electron transport chain, they are coupled to ATP synthase (complex-
V) for the production of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
13. Fermentation accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose whereas in True
aerobic respiration it is completely degraded to CO2 and H2O.
14. NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in fermentation, however the True

reaction is very vigorous in case of aerobic respiration.

[Link] [ 185 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS ANSWERS
1. Identify A, B and C: -
A = Fatty acid and glycerol
B = Carbohydrate
C = Amino acids

2. In the given figure observe the steps of glycolysis and find out X = ATP Y = ADP
labelled parts :- A = Glucose-6-phosphate
Glucose (6C) B = Glyceraldehyde-3-
X phosphate
Y
C = Dihydroxy acetone
A
phosphate
Fructose 6-phosphate D = 3-phosphoglyceric acid
X
Y E = Phosphoenolpyruvate
Fructose 1-6-bisphosphate

B C
P
Q
2 (1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid)
Y
X
2 D

2 2-phosphoglycerate

2 E P = NAD+
Y Q = NADH+H+
X
2 Pyruvic acid

[ 186 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
3. By observing following anaerobic respiratory pathway find the A = NAD+
labelled parts :-
B = NADH + H+
Glucose

Lactic acid
Glyceraldehyde
3phosphate X = Lactate dehydrogenase
A Enzyme=X

B
3 Phosphoglycerate Pyruvic acid
B

A
Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid Ethanol + CO2
4. Find the labelled parts in given cycle, that are summarized in
following equation.
Pyruvate (3C)
CoA A
B
X
Acetyl coenzyme A
(2C)

Citric acid
(6C)
Oxaloacetic acid X
(4C) A
B B
X = CO2,
A -ketoglutaric acid
Malic acid (5C) A = NAD+,
(4C) X
A B = NADH + H+,
F Succinic acid
C B C = GDP,
E (4C) D D = GTP,
Pyruvic acid + 4A + E + 3H2O + C + Pi ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Mitochondrial matrix
E = FAD,
3X + 4B + F + D F = FADH2
5. Identify the A, B, C and D :- A = Oxidation of NADH by
NADH dehydrogenase
(complex-I)
B = Transfer of electrons to
ubiquinone via
complex-I or
complex-II (FADH2)
C = Transfer of electrons to

[Link] [ 187 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
Inter
membrane
Inter
mitochondrial
cytoctrome c via
space space Matrix cytochrome bc1
NADH + H+ complex (complex-III)
A D = Oxidation of
2H+
NAD+ cytochrome c
2e
FeS FeS by cytochrome c
2e B oxidase (complex-IV)
2H+ UQH2 UQ 2H+

2e–
FeS

2H+ UQH 2e– C

2H+
UQ
2e–
2H+
Cyt C1
2e– ½O2
Cyt a-a3 D
Cyt C H2O

Electron Transport System (ETS)

[Link]. Question Answer

1. Energy released by oxidation in respiration is not used directly True
but is used to synthesize ATP.
2. Carbon skeleton produced during respiration, (e.g. -ketoglutarate, True
OAA etc.) intermediates are used as precursors for biosynthesis
of other molecules in the cell.
3. Krebs cycle which is also called aerobic respiration and requires True
O2 supply.
4. In mitochondrial matrix complete oxidation of pyruvate takes Three
place in which all the hydrogen atoms are removed, leaving
_________ molecules of CO2.
5. Identify A and B in given below diagram : A – GTP, B – FADH2

[ 188 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
6. Identify (I) and (II) with reference to given equation :- (I)–Pyruvic acid;
Mitochondrial
Matrix
(II)–FADH2
(I)+4 NAD+ + FAD+ + 2H2O + ADP + Pi 3CO2+4NADH + 4H+ + (II) + ATP

7. Identify (I) and (II) based of RQ value of tripalmitin. (I)–145, (II)–102

2(C51H98O6) + (I) O2 (II) CO2 + 98H2O+energy
8. Cytochrome c (small protein) is attached to outer surface of the True
inner mitochondrial membrane.
9. Cytochrome c oxidase complex contains ________ and two ________ cyt-a & cyt-a3, copper
centres.
10. Glycolysis occurs in the ________ and produces________, which in the cytosol; pyruvate;
presence of O2 enters the____________. mitochondrion

[Link] [ 189 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWERS
1. __(A)__ is regarded as one of the most fundamental and conspicuous A = Growth
characteristics of a living being.
2. Growth at a cellular level is principally a consequence of increase in A = protoplasm
the amount of __(A)__.
3. Single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than __A__ A = 17,500
new cells per hour whereas cells in a watermelon may increase in B = 3,50,000
size by upto __B__ times.
4. During differentiation cells undergo few to major structural A = cell wall
changes both in their ____A____ and ____B____. B = protoplasm
5. In a plant, cell/tissues arising out of the same meristem have A = open differentiation
different structure at maturity it is known as ____A____.
6. Development in plants is under the control of ___A___ and ____B____ A = intrinsic
factors. B = extrinsic
7. Auxin was isolated by ____A____ from tips of coleoptiles of oat A = F.W. Went
seedlings.
8. The bakane (foolish seedling), a disease of rice seedlings was caused Gibberella fujikuroi
by a fungal pathogen ______.
9. Cytokinin’s help overcome the _____A_____. They promote _____B____ A = apical dominance
which helps in the delay of leaf senescence. B = nutrient mobilisation
10. Influence of ethylene on plant include ____A____ of seedlings, A = horizontal growth
_____B_____ and _____C____ in dicot seedlings. B = swelling of the axis
C = apical hook formation
11. Ethylene promotes _____A_____ and _____B_____ of plant organs A = senescence
especially of leaves and flowers. B = abscission
12. _____A_____ promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep A = Ethylene
water rice plants.
13. _____A_____ stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and A = ABA
increase the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
14. Abscisic acid acts as an antagonist to _________. gibberellic acid
15. The site of perception of light/dark duration are the ______. leaves
16. Hormonal substance migrates from leaves to shoot apices for inductive photo period
inducing flowering only when the plants are exposed to the
necessary _______.

[Link]. TRUE AND FALSE ANSWERS

1. All cells of a plant are descendents of the zygote. True
2. The leaves, flowers and fruits of the same tree not only have limited dimensions True
but also appear and fall periodically and sometime repeatedly.

[ 192 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
3. Development of a mature plant from a zygote (Fertilized egg) follow a precise and True
highly ordered succession of events.
4. Plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. True
5. Choose the correct or incorrect statement regarding given figure.

True
(a) Figure (A) shows more relative growth rate as compare to figure (B).
(b) Figure (A) and figure (B) shows the similar absolute growth rate. True
6. Water provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for growth while True
oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities.
7. Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source True
of energy.
8. Auxin was first isolated from human urine. True
9. Spraying juvenile conifers with GA hastens the maturity period thus leading to True
early seed production.
10. Kinetin occur naturally in plants. False
11. Natural cytokinin’s are synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs. True
12. Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in pineapples. True
13. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and accelerates True
abscission in flowers and fruits.
14. ABA plays an important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy. True
15. Events like vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed germination and plant False
movements are controlled only by extrinsic factors.
16. In certain plants relative duration of light and dark period plays a important role True
in flowering.
17. Vernalisation prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing True
season.
18. Spring variety is normally planted in winter and harvested in autumn. False
19. Biennials are monocarpic plants that normally flower and die in the second True
season.
20. Effect of vernalisation can not be seen in sugar beet, cabbages and carrots. False
21. Winter varieties of annual plants are planted in autumn, they germinate, and over True
winter come out as small seedlings, resume growth in spring and are harvested
around mid - summer.

[Link] [ 193 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS ANSWERS
1. Given figure shows the sequence of the development process in A = Plasmatic growth
a plant cell, identify labelled parts A, B, C and D. B = Differentiation
Cell division Death C = Expansion
D = Maturation
A B
Meristematic
cell
Mature
C D cell

2. Find the labelled parts in given figure which shows germination A = Cotyledon
and seedling development in bean. B = Hypocotyl
C = Epicotyl hook
D = Epicotyl

3. Name the labelled meristems in given diagram. A = shoot apical meristem

A
B and C = vascular combium
of shoot and root
respectively
Shoot D = root apical meristem
B

Root C

4. Identify the following diagrammatic representation of types of I = Arithmetic Lt = L0 + rt

growth and their mathematical expressions.

[ 194 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology

II = Geometric W1 = W0 ert

5. Identify the labelled parts A, B and C in given figure. A = Lag phase

B = Log phase or
of the organ
Size/weight

C
B exponential phase

A C = Stationary phase
Time

6. Identify the phenomena A and B :- A = Heterophylly due to

phases of life.

B = Environmental
heterophylly.

7. In the given figure identify the group of plant. A = Long day plant

B = Short day plant

C = Day neutral plant

[Link] [ 195 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]

[Link]. MATCH THE COLUMNS ANSWERS

1. Match these molecules to their chemical composition :- A = i, B - ii, C = iii,
Column I Column II D = iv, E = v
A Auxin (IAA) i indole compounds
B Cytokinin’s (kinetin) ii adenine derivatives
C Abscisic acid iii carotenoid derivatives
D Gibberellic acid iv terpene derivatives
E Ethylene v C2H4
.

2. Match the column-I and Column-II :- 1 = a, b

Column I Column II 2 = c, d
1 Natural auxin i Indole 3-acetic acid (IAA)
2 Synthetic auxin ii Indole butyric acid (IBA)
iii Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA)
iv 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(2,4D)
.

[Link]. Question Answer

1. In geometric growth, following mitotic cell division, only one False
daughter cell continues to divide while other differentiates and
matures.
2. A __________ is a characteristic of living organism growing in a Sigmoid curve
natural environment.
3. In W1=W0 ert, r is the absolute growth rate and is also the measure False
of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, referred
to as efficiency index.
4. __________ hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and Ethephon
accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton,
cherry, walnut).
5. Following experiment demonstrate about which plant growth Auxin
regulator :-
Direction of
unilateral light
source

Charles Darwin & Francis Darwin Experiment

[ 196 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology

Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

[Link]. Question Answer
1. Process in which light energy is converted into chemical energy Physico-chemical process
(organic compounds) is called. e.g. Photosynthesis
2. An experimental setup to show that CO2 is essential for Moll's half leaf experiment
photosynthesis is
3. First of all who demonstrate that sunlight is essential for Jan Ingenhousz
photosynthesis in plants
4. Production of glucose takes place in green part of plant is J.V. Sachs
established by
5. A first action spectrum of photosynthesis was described by T.W. Engelmann
6. Name the algae which was used to describe action spectrum of Cladophora
photosynthesis
7. Who demonstrate that photosynthesis is a light dependent C.V. Niel
reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable oxidizable compound
reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrate
2H2O + CO2 ⎯⎯ ⎯
Light
→ 2A + CH2O + H2O
Also conclude O2 evolve during photosynthesis comes from
water not from carbon dioxide.
8. Name the pigment(s) which increases the absorption range for Chlorophyll b, xanthophylls
photosynthesis. and carotenoids
9. Where are the protons and O2, formed during splitting of water, In lumen of thylakoid
likely to be released.
10. Synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in presence Photophosphorylation
of light is known as
11. Identify the A in the given figure of light reaction: - A = Electron transport
system

12. Write the requirements for chemiosmotic ATP synthesis Membrane

Proton pump
Proton gradient
ATP synthase

[Link] [ 173 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
13. Name of the place where accumulation of protons occur during Thylakoid lumen and
chemiosmosis in chloroplast and mitochondria respectively. intermembrane space of
mitochondria
14. The phase that leads to synthesis of food (sugar) in Biosynthetic phase
photosynthesis is called.
15. The first stable product of Calvin cycle is. 3-PGA
16. The first stable product in C4 pathway is. OAA
17. How many Calvin cycles are required for formation of one 6 cycles
glucose?
18. How many ATP and NADPH will be required to make one glucose 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
through the Calvin pathway?
19. When in plant leaves, chloroplast containing bundle sheath cells Kranz anatomy (C4 Plants)
surrounds vascular bundles in several layers that anatomy is
known as.
20. Write the characteristics of bundle sheath cells of C4 plants. Large number of chloroplast
Thick walls impervious to
gaseous exchanges no
intercellular spaces
21. Give the example of C4 plants Sugarcane, Maize and
Sorghum
22. Write the enzyme which is present most abundantly in the world RuBisCO
23. For which substrate RuBisCO shows greater affinity? CO2
24. Name the products of photorespiration which are the result of O2 Phosphoglycerate and
binding to RuBP phosphoglycolate
25. Name the internal or plant factors that affect the rate of Number, size, age and
photosynthesis orientation of leaves,
mesophyll cells,
chloroplasts, internal CO2
concentration and the
amount of chlorophyll
26. Name the external factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis Availability of sunlight,
temperature, external CO2
concentration and water
27. Blackman's law of limiting factor states that if a chemical process Minimal value
is affected by more than one factor, then it's rate will be (at suboptimal level)
determined by the factor which is nearest to its –
28. For which plants light is a limiting factor Plants in shade
29. Write the concentration of CO2 at which C3 and C4 plants shows C3 = 450 lL–1
saturation respectively. C4 = 360 lL–1

[ 174 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
30. Among light and dark reaction which reaction is more Dark reaction
temperature affected? (more enzymatic)
31. Write the effect of water stress on plants Reducing the surface area
of leaves and metabolic
activity and causes stomatal
closure.

[Link]. FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWERS

1. In photosynthesis directly light driven reactions are called A = light reactions
___(A)___ while some reactions are depends on the products of B = dark reactions
light reaction (ATP and NADPH) conventionally called as
___(B)___.
2. Light reaction or the 'Photochemical' phase include ___(A)___, A = light absorption
___(B)___, ___(D)___ and formation of ___(D)___. B = water splitting
C = oxygen release
D = ATP and NADPH
3. In PS I the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak A = P700
at 700 nm, hence is called ___(A)___ while in PS II it has B = P
absorption maxima at 680 nm and is called ___(B)___.
4. C4 plants are special. They have special type of ___(A)___, they A = leaf anatomy
tolerate ___(B)___, they show a response to ___(C)___, they lack a B = higher temperature
process called ___(D)___ and have greater ___(E)___. C = high light intensities
D = photorespiration
E = productivity of biomass
5. In the photorespiratory pathway, there is neither synthesis of A = sugar
___(A)___ nor of ___(B)___. Rather it results in the release of B = ATP
___(C)___ with the utilization of ___(D)___. Therefore, C = CO2
photorespiration is a wasteful process. D = ATP
6. The plant or internal factors affecting photosynthesis are A = genetic predisposition
dependent on the ___(A)___ and the ___(B)___ of the plant. B = growth
7. ___(A)___ plants have a higher temperature optimum than the A = tropical
plants adapted to ___(B)___ climates. B = temperate
8. Water stress causes stomata to ___(A)___ hence reducing the A = close
___(B)___ availability. B = CO2

[Link] [ 175 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
[Link]. TRUE & FALSE ANSWERS
1. By observing given figure mark the statement true or false. True

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
By this experiment Priestley hypothesised that plant restore to
the air whatever breathing animal and burning candle remove.
2. Observe the following graphs carefully and select the true or
false statement regarding it :-

(i) Graph a indicates that chlorophyll a shows maximum True

absorption at wavelengths of blue and red colour
(ii) Graph b indicates that at wavelengths of blue and red True
colour, plants shows maximum rate of photosynthesis.
(iii) Graph c indicates complete one to one overlap between the False
absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and the action
spectrum of photosynthesis.
3. Photosystem I (PS I) and photosystem II (PS II) are named in the False
sequence in which they function during the light reaction.
4. The chlorophyll 'a' molecule forms the 'reaction centre' in True
photosystem.

[ 176 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
5. Calling the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis as the dark True
reaction is a misnomer.
6. Observe the given diagrammatic representation of the Hatch A = Fixation
and Slack pathway and find out labelled parts and also choose B = Decarboxylation
true & false statements. C = Regeneration

(i) In the diagram site of primary fixation lacks RuBisCO True

enzyme.
(ii) In mesophyll cell the transporting C4 acid may be malic True
acid or aspartic acid.
(iii) The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme RuBisCO but True
lack PEP case.

[Link]. DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS ANSWERS

1. Observe the given figure of ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis
and arrange the following events in correct sequence.

(a)→(b)→(c)→(d)→(e)

[Link] [ 177 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]

(a) Movement of e– through H carrier

(b) Shifting of protons from stroma to Lumen
(c) Facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane
(d) Conformational change in the F1 particle of the ATP synthase
(e) Formation of ATP molecule
2. Observe the given figure that represents the section of chloroplast
and identify the labelled parts according to their function.
A
B
C
D
E
H
F
G

(i) More permeable membrane

(ii) Less permeable membrane
(iii) Site containing only P.S. I
(iv) Site containing both P.S. I & P.S. II
(v) Site of dark reaction
(vi) Stored carbohydrate
(vii) Stored fat A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv,
(viii) Factory of protein E-v, F-vi, G-vii, H-viii
3. Observe the given figure of Calvin cycle and find the name of steps Steps ATP and NADPH
and number of ATP and NADPH utilised in them for one molecule A = Carboxylation Nil
of CO2. B = Reduction 2ATP and
2NADPH
C = Regeneration 1ATP

[ 178 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
4. Observe the given graph carefully and choose the correct All statements are correct
statements for labelled points (A to E).

Points :-
(A) There is a linear relationship between incident light and CO2
fixation rates.
(B) It is a transition point where limiting factor changes.
(C) At this region light intensity is not showing detrimental effect
on rate of photosynthesis.
(D) It shows light saturation point sunlight except for plants in
shade or in dense forests.
(E) This point show maximum rate of photosynthesis at optimum
presence of various parameters

[Link]. MATCH THE COLUMN ANSWERS

1. Match the column I with column II :-
Column I Column II
(Intensity of light) (Alignment of chloroplast)
(a) High (i) Along the walls of mesophyll
a–i, b–ii, c–iii
cells
(b) Low (ii) Perpendicular to light
(c) Moderate (iii) Dispersed throughout the
cytoplasm
.

2. Match the column I with column II :-

Column I Column II
(Pigment) (Colour)
(a) Chlorophyll a (i) Yellow to yellow orange a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(b) Chlorophyll b (ii) Bright or blue green
(c) Xanthophylls (iii) Yellow green
(d) Carotenoids (iv) Yellow
.

[Link] [ 179 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
3. Comparison of C3 and C4 plants :-
Characteristics C3 Plants C4 Plants Choose from
Cell type in which the Calvin cycle Mesophyll Bundle sheath Mesophyll/Bundle
takes place sheath/both
Cell type in which the initial Mesophyll Mesophyll Mesophyll/Bundle
carboxylation reaction occurs sheath/both
How many cell types does the leaf One Two One: Mesophyll
have that fix CO2? Two: Bundle sheath and
mesophyll
Three: Bundle sheath,
palisade, spongy mesophyll
Which is the primary CO2 acceptor? RuBP PEP RuBP/PEP/PGA
Number of carbons in the primary 5 3 5/4/3
CO2 acceptor
Which is the primary CO2 fixation PGA OAA PGA/OAA/RuBP/PEP
product?
No. of carbons in the primary CO2 3 4 3/4/5
fixation product
Does the plant have RuBisCO? Yes Yes Yes / No / Not Always
Does the plant have PEP Case? Yes Yes Yes / No / Not Always
Which cells in the plant have Mesophyll Bundle sheath Mesophyll/Bundle
Rubisco? sheath/none
CO2 fixation rate under high light Medium High Low/ high/ medium
conditions.
Whether photorespiration is present Negligible Negligible High/negligible/sometimes
at low light intensities?
Whether photorespiration is present High Negligible High/negligible/sometimes
at high light intensities?
Whether photorespiration would be High Negligible High/negligible/sometimes
present at low CO2 concentrations?
Whether photorespiration would be High Negligible High/negligible/sometimes
present at high CO2 concentrations?
Temperature optimum 20-25°C 30-40°C 30-40°C/20-25°C/
above 40°C
Examples Wheat / Rice Maize,
Sugarcane
Sorghum

[ 180 ] [Link]
Plant Physiology
[Link]. Question Answer
1. In PS II the reaction centre of chlorophyll a has an absorption peak
at 700 nm, hence is called P700, while in PS I it has absorption False
maxima at 680 nm, and is called P680.
2. The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of an oxidation-
True
reduction or redox potential scale in ETS.
3. The whole scheme of transfer of electrons in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation, starting from the PS II, uphill to the
acceptor, down the electron transport chain to PS I, excitation of False
electrons, transfer to another acceptor, and finally up hill to
NADP+ reducing it to NADPH + H+ is called the Z scheme.
4. The excited electron in PS I in cyclic photophosphorylation does
not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS I complex
True
through the electron transport chain. Hence, results only in the
synthesis of ATP, but not of NADPH + H+
5. _______________ occurs when only light of wavelengths beyond 680
Cyclic photophosphorylation
nm are available for excitation.
6. The use of radioactive 14C in algal photosynthesis studies led to first CO2 fixation product was
the discovery of : (3-carbon organic acid)
7. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle where O2
False
is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP.
8. The ____________ plants respond to higher temperatures while
C4, C3
_____________ plants have a much lower temperature optimum.
9. Identify A and B in given below diagram :

A - 3-phosphoglycerate
B - Regeneration

[Link] [ 181 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
10. Fill in the given space in given below table :
Characters C3 Plants C4 Plants
Fixation of No. of
6 18
CO2 (i)-18, (ii)-90,
No. of ATP (iii)-12, (iv)-36
(i) (ii)
required
No. NADPH2
(iii) (iv)
required

[ 182 ] [Link]
Reproduction

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
.

1. A B A-Stigma,
B-Anther,
C
C-Style,
D-Ovary,
E-Thalamus
D
E
Write down the name of A, B, C, D and E in given figure.
.

2. A-Anther,
B-Filament,
C-Pollen grain,
D-Pollen sacs

Write down the name of A, B, C and D in given figure.

.

3. A-Connective,
B-Epidermis,
A C-Endothecium,
B D-Sporogenous
C
D tissue
E-Middle layer,
F F-Tapetum
E
Write down the name of parts A, B, C, D, E and F in given figure.
.

4. A-Epidermis,
B-Middle layers,
C-Tapetum,
D-Microspore
mother cell

Write down the name of parts A, B, C, and D in given figure.

[Link] [ 99 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
5. A-Pollen grains

Write the name of labelled structures 'A'

FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWER
6. The microsporangium develops further and becomes _____. Pollen sac
7. The innermost wall layer of microsporangium is the _____. Tapetum
8. In the centre of each microsporangium a compactly arranged tissue is Sporogenous tissue
_____.
9. There are the two part of a typical ___, the long and slender stalk is called Stamen, Filament,
__ and the terminal generally bilobed structure is called ____. anther
10. A typical angiosperm anther is ____ with each lobe having two theca i.e. Bilobed, dithecous
they are called ____.
11. The hard outer layer of pollen grain, called exine is made up of ____. Sporopollenin
TRUE AND FALSE ANSWER
12. In pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where True
sporopollenin is absent.
13. The inner wall of pollen grain is called intine. True
14. In microsporogenesis, PMC undergo mitosis and form pollen grains. False
15. Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at –196°C. True
16. Wheat and rice pollen grains has pollen viability upto months. False
17. Match the following :- 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d
1. Proximal part of filament a. Tapetum
2. Inner most wall layer of pollen b. attached to the
sac thalamus
3. Sporopollenin c. most resistant
material
4. Ploidy of the cells of the tetrad d. Haploid
.

18. In a mature pollen, how many nuclei are present and write their name two nuclei, 1-
also. vegetative nucleus
1-generative
nucleus
19. Name any plant that causes pollen allergy. Parthenium
20. What is role of pollen tablets in athletes and race horses? to increase their
performance

[ 100 ] [Link]
Reproduction
21. Where is the use of pollen bank. Crop breeding
programmes
22. What is the diameter of pollen grain 25-50 micrometer
.

23. A-Stigma,
A B-Style
C-Ovary,
B D-thalamus

C
D
In the given figure pistil, identify the labelling’s A,B,C & D.
.

24. A-Micropyle,
A
B B-Micropylar end,
C
C-Outer
D
F integument,
E
D-Inner
integument,
E-Embryosac,
Identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the given figure of ovule. F-Nucellus
.

25. A-Chalazalend
B-Antipodal cell
C-Polar nuclei
D-Egg cell
E-Synergid cells
F-Filiform
apparatus
G-Micropylar end

Identify A, B, C, D, E, F and G
FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWER
26. The basal bulged part of the pistil is ______ Ovary
27. _____ serves as a landing platform for pollen grains Stigma
28. The mitotic divisions which occur during embryo sac formation from Strictly free nuclear
megaspore are _______. divisions

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TRUE AND FALSE ANSWER
29. An ovule has generally one embryo sac. True
30. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes, called exine and intine False
31. Hilum is the region where the body of ovule fuses with funiculus/ funicle. True
32. Nucellus is a mass of cells enclosed within integuments. True
33. Only the non-functional megaspore develops into female gametophyte. False
34. When a embryo sac develops from a single megaspore, it is called True
monosporic development.
35. Match the following :- 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C,
Column-A Column-B 5-E
1 Central cell A Egg apparatus
2 One egg cell and two synergids B Chalazal end
3 Antipodal cell C Meiosis
4 Megaspore mother cell D Polar nuclei
5 Female gametophyte E Embryosac
.

36. In flowering plants, female reproductive whorl is called. Gynoecium

37. What we say if a gynoecium of flower has many carpels. Multicarpellary
38. If a gynoecium of a flower has many carpels and they are fused, this Multicarpellary,
condition is called. syncarpous
39. The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell Megasporogenesis
by meiosis, called.
40. In a typical angiosperm, mature embryosac is ______ celled. 7/Seven
.

41. A-Chasmogamous
flower
B-Cleistogamous
flowers

Identify A and B in this figure.

FILL IN THE BLANKS
42. The transfer of pollen grains from ____ to ____ is known as ____. Anther, stigma,
pollination
43. Transfer of pollen grains from ____ to stigma of same flower is called _____. Anther, Autogamy

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Reproduction
44. For the formation of embryo sac the _____ undergoes one _____ division and Megaspore mother
three _____ divisions in megaspore nucleus. cell, Meiotic,
Mitotic
45. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant Geitonogamy
is called ____.
TRUE/FALSE ANSWER
46. Xenogamy is the only type of pollination in which genetically different True
pollens germinate on stigma.
47. Water is the most common pollinating agent in abiotic pollination. False
48. Wind - pollination is quite common in grasses. True
49. In Vallisneria the pollinating agent is water. True
50. Dioecious condition prevents autogamy and geitonogamy. True
51. Match the following :- 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
Column-A Column-B
1 Out breeding A Water Pollination
2 Chasmogamous and B Prevents self
cleistogamous pollination
3 Amorphophallus C Oxalis
4 Zostera D Tallest flower
.

52. Which genetic mechanism prevents the self-pollination Self incompatibility

53. Which type of pollination is found in cleistogamous flower Self pollination
54. How many cells are present in a mature pollen grain 2-cells
55. Which type of pollen grains germinate on the stigma Compatible pollen
grains.
.

56. D A-Pollen tube,

B-Embryosac
C-Egg cell,
D-Pollen grain
A

Identify A, B, C and D in this figure.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
57. A-Polar nuclei,
B-Synergid cell,
C-Filiform
apparatus,
D-Pollen tube,
E-male gametes

Identify A, B, C, D and E in this figure.

.

58. A-Degenerating
A
synergids
B B-Zygote
C-Primary
E endosperm nucleus
C (PEN)
D-Degenerating
antipodal cells
E-Primary
D
endosperm cell
(PEC)
Identify A, B, C, D and E in this figure of fertilized embryosac.
FILL IN THE BLANKS ANSWER
59. Removal of anthers from the flower bud is called ____. Emasculation
60. Two polar nuclei fuse together and form _____. Secondary nucleus
61. First male gamete fuses with egg cell nucleus and form ___. Zygote
62. Ploidy of the primary endosperm nucleus in typical angiosperms is _____. 3n (Triploid)
TRUE AND FALSE ANSWER
63. Endosperm is a nutritive tissue. True
64. In coconut the endosperm is free-nuclear endosperm. True
65. Ovary is a ripened ovule. False
66. The study of development of embryo is called embryology. True
67. Two-cotyledons are found in monocot seeds. False
68. In mango, the mesocarp is edible part. True
69. Seeds of pea and ground nut are non endospermic. True
70. Seeds of maize and wheat are endospermic. True
71. What is perisperm? residual, persistent
nucellus in seed
72. The term which is used for fruits which are developed without Parthenocarpic
fertilisation is ______. fruits

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Reproduction
73. A-Seed coat
B-Cotyledon
C-Shoot apical
meristem
D-Root tip

Identify A, B, C and D in figure of a seed.

74. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as :- Polyembryony
75. Pollen grains are well preserved due to the presence of ______________. Sporopollenin
76. ___________ forms the pollen tube. Intine
77. Nucellus is surrounded by protective covering called ____________. Integuments
78. The functional megaspore develops into ________________. Female
gametophyte
79. In groundnut and mustard, pericarp is ______________. Dry
TRUE AND FALSE ANSWER
80. Aleurone layer is triploid in nature. True
81. In grass family the cotyledon is called scutellum. True
82. Five nuclei and 2 gametes participates in double fertilization. False
83. A typical anther is bilobed and tetrasporangiate. True
84. Ploidy of pollen grain is haploid. True
85. Apomixis results in formation of seeds without fertilization. True
86. Only compatible pollen grain germinates on the stigma of pistil. True
87. Angiosperms exhibit : (3)
(1) Syngamy (2) Triple fusion
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
88. The period for which pollen grains remain viable depends on: (4)
(1) Temperature (2) Humidity
(3) Species (4) All of the above
89. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is: (2)
(1) Coloerhiza (2) Coleoptile
(3) Epicotyl (4) Hypocotyl
90. Assertion : Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm (4)
is formed.
Reason: This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the
developing embryo.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
91. Some plants such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis, and Commelina Chasmogamous
produce two types of flowers ______________. flowers
cleistogamous
flowers
92. The production of seed without fertilization is called __________. Apomixis
93. The tallest flower is _______________. Amorphophallus
94. Size of pollen grain is __________________. 25-50 micrometers
95. Removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces is Emasculation
called __________________.
96. Identify the diagram given below :- (3)

(1) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Papaver

(2) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver
(3) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia
(4) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Michelia
97. Assertion : Pollen tablets increase the performance of athletes and race (1)
horses .
Reason : Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
98. Match column A with column B. (2)
Column-A Column-B
(a) Zostera (i) Secondary nucleus and male
gamete
(b) Vallisneria (ii) Epihydrophily
(c) Primary endosperm nucleus (iii) Synergids and egg cell
(d) Egg apparatus (iv) Hypohydrophily
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

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Reproduction
99. Match column A with column B. (2)
Column-A Column-B
(a) Apple (i) Endosperm
(b) Grapes (ii) Pseudocarp
(c) Beet (iii) Parthenocarpic
(d) Castor (iv) Perisperm
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
.

100. Identify the following parts A, B, C and D :- (3)

(1) A-Seed coat, B- Cotyledon, C-Endosperm

(2) A-Seed coat, B-Hypocotyl, C- Cotyledon
(3) A-Endosperm, B-Cotyledon, C-Seed coat
(4) A-Cotyledon, B-Endosperm, C-Seed coat

[Link] [ 107 ]
Genetics and Evolution

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
1. Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene in case more more TRUE
than one phenotype is influences by the same gene.
2. Mendelian recombinants are due to crossing over. FALSE
3. Mendel Conducted Somatic Hybridization experiments on garden FALSE
pea.
4. Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on non FALSE
homologous chromosomes.
5. Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA TRUE
sequences.
6. Drosophila complete their life cycle in four weeks. FALSE
7. In Drosophila single mating could produce large number of progeny TRUE
flies.
8. Drosophila has many types of hereditary variations that can be seen TRUE
with low power microscopes.
9. A true breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous self TRUE
pollination, shows the stable trait inheritance and expression for
several generations.
10. Mendel selected seven visible characters each with two contrasting TRUE
traits.
11. The gene which affect more than one phenotype called pleiotropic TRUE
gene.
12. In a test cross. F1 hybrids are crossed with homozygous dominant FALSE
plants.
13. Inheritance of one character is always independent to the inheritance FALSE
of other character.
14. Pisum sativum reproduces asexually in nature. FALSE
15. Emasculation is the process of removal of pistils from unisexual FALSE
flowers.
16. Sickle cell anaemia follows the same inheritance pattern as that FALSE
Haemophilia.
17. Mendel experiments had a large sampling size. TRUE
18. In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates the TRUE
other.
19. Law of segregation is based on the fact that the alleles do not show TRUE
any blending
20. Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made. TRUE

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
21. Mendel widely publicised his work. FALSE
22. Mendel's approach of using mathematics to explain biological TRUE
phenomena was totally new.
23. Mendel could not provide any physical proof for the existence of TRUE
factor.
24. Chromosomes as well as genes occurs in pairs. TRUE
25. Gene for same character segregate at the time of ____________. Gamete formation
26. Genes and chromosomes are found in pairs in ________ cells. Diploid
27. Alleles are slightly different forms of the same ____________. Gene
28. When modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele it will Same phenotype
produce ____________.
29. Drosophila complete their life cycle in about....... weeks two
30. Grasshopper is an example of ____________ type of sex detamination XO
31. ____________ disease shows its transmission from unaffected carrier Sex linked recessive
female to some of the male progeny
32. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare haemophilic
because mother of such a female has to be at least carrier and the
father should be ____________.
33. In a monohybrid cross, we study ____________ character. One
34. Holandric genes are present on ____________. Y-chromosome
35. Behaviour of Chromosomes was parellel to the behaviour of genes Sutton and Boveri
explained by ____________.
36. During spermatogenesis in human males, ____________ type of gametes two
are produced.
37. The gene, which affects many phenotypes. Pleiotropic gene.
38. Mendelian recombinants are due to ____________. Independent
assortment
39. Genes present on same chromosome are inherited together called : Linked gene
40. Characters are controlled by discrete units called :- Factors
41. In which case F1 generation resembled either of the two parents? Dominance
42. In human beings 'ABO' Blood group is controlled by which gene? Gene I
43. How many phenotypes are possible in human 'ABO' Blood group? Four
44. Chromosomal theory of inheritence was proposed by. Sutton & Boveri
45. All genes on single chromosome forms :- Linkage group
46. Holandric genes are always transfer from father to .... Son
47. Sutton united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Chromosomal theory
Mendelian principles and called it the ____________. of Inheritance
48. The unmodified allele, which represents the original phenotype is the Recessive
dominant allele and the modified allele is generally....

[ 116 ] [Link]
Genetics and Evolution
49. Recessive trait is seen due to ____________. Non-functional
enzyme or no enzyme.
50. Match the columns :- A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Column-I Column-II
A Monohybrid cross 1. Codominance
B ‘AB’ Blood group 2. Correns
C Dihybrid Cross 3. Dominance
D Mirabilis jalapa 4. Independent assortment
.

51. Match the columns A-2, B-3, C-1

Column-I Column-II
A Hypertrichosis 1. Autosomal Recessive
B Colourblindness 2. Y-chromosome
C Sickle cell Anaemia 3. X-Linked
.

52. Match the column 1-(E), 2-(A), 3-(B),

Column-I Column-II 4-(C), 5-(D)
1 Sickle cell anaemia (A) Haemophilia
2 Bleeder’s disease (B) Hugo de vries
3 Mutation (C) ‘O’ Blood group
4 Universal donor (D) Mendel
5 Pisum sativum (E) Sickle shape RBCs
.

53. Column-I Column-II (A)-v, (B)-iv, (C)-iii,

.
(D)-ii, (E)-i
(A) (i) Death

(B) (ii) Five unaffected offsping

(C) (iii) Sex unspecified

(D) (iv) Female

5

(E) (v) male

54. Sahiwal cow is the result of __________. Artificial selection and

domestication
55. Mendel confirmed his inferences from experiments on successive True
generations of his test plants.
56. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs that False
were similar for all characters with contrasting traits

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
57. Unisexual flower

This process is not required in :

(A) Unisexual flower
(B) Bisexual flower
58. The proportion of plants that were dwarf was ________ of the F2 plants 1/4th
while 3/4th of the F2 plants were tall in Mendel’s monohybrid cross.
59. Based on the observations, Mendel proposed that something was Factors
being stably passed down, unchanged, from parent to offspring
through the gametes, over successive generations. He called these
things as ________.
60. Who worked on below mentioned organism. T. H. Morgan

61. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as ________. Alleles
62. By the process of mitosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or False
segregate from each other.
63. The segregation of alleles is a random process. True
64. By simply looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait, it is possible False
to know the genotypic composition.
65. In which cross an organism (pea plants here) showing a dominant Test cross
phenotype (and whose genotype is to be determined), is crossed with
the recessive parent?
66. The law of dominance is used to explain ______________________________. The expression of only
one of the parental
characters in a
monohybrid cross in
the F1 and the
expression of both in
the F2 generation.
67. Which law is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any Law of segregation
blending?
68. During ________, the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each Gamete formation
other.
69. Incomplete dominance can be shown in pea plants. True

[ 118 ] [Link]
Genetics and Evolution
70. When the F1 generation (showing incomplete dominance) was self- 1 Red: 2 Pink: 1 White
pollinated, the F2 generation resulted in the following ratio
___________ (in Dog flower).
71. In which case, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified When modified allele
allele? produces normal/less
efficient enzyme
72. If the allele produces a non-functional enzyme or no enzyme, the True
phenotype may be affected.
73. Which of the three alleles controlling ABO blood grouping, does not I0 or i
produce any sugar on the surface of RBC?
74. An example of ABO blood grouping also provides a good example of False
pleiotropy.
75. Starch synthesis in garden pea seeds is controlled by………. Gene One
(how many?)
76. Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it False
has information for.
77. Based upon observations on dihybrid crosses (crosses between Mendel’s Law of
plants differing in two traits) Mendel proposed a second set of Independent
generalisations that we call ___________. Assortment
78. When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of Mendel’s Law of
one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters. Independent
This law is called ___________. Assortment
79. Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological False
phenomena was widely accepted.
80. In which year, three Scientists (de Vries, Correns, and von 1900
Tschermak) independently rediscovered Mendel’s results on the
inheritance of characters.?
81. The structures in the nucleus, that appeared to double and divide Chromosomes
just before each cell division, were called ___________.
82. Who noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the Walter Sutton and
behaviour of genes? Theodore Boveri
83. The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites on True
homologous chromosomes.
84. ‘Independent pairs segregate independently of each other.’ This Genes and
statement is true for ___________. chromosomes both
85. During Anaphase of meiosis I, the two chromosome pairs can align Metaphase plate
at the ______________ independently of each other.
86. Who argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of Sutton and Boveri
chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they
carried.
87. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance Thomas Hunt Morgan
was done by ______________. and his colleagues
88. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study False
genes that were sex-linked. The crosses were totally different from
the dihybrid crosses carried out by Mendel in peas.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
89. Morgan coined the term ________ to describe this physical association linkage
of genes on a chromosome.
90. Who used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the Alfred Sturtevant
same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and
‘mapped’ their position on the chromosome?
91. The following diagram shows a genetic condition known as :: Down’s syndrome

92. An example of polygenic trait in humans is - Skin colour

93. Who could trace a specific nuclear structure all through Henking
spermatogenesis in a few insects, and it was also observed by him
that 50 per cent of the sperm received this structure after
spermatogenesis.
94. In humans eggs fertilised by sperm having an X-chromosome become Females
___________.
95. Example of male heterogamety in mammals. Humans
96. Male honeybees have half the number of chromosomes as female True
honeybee.
97. Alteration in chromosomes results in ___________. Abnormalities or
aberrations
98. ___________ are commonly observed in cancer cells. Chromosomal
aberrations
99. Mutation also arises due to changes in a single base pair of DNA. This
Sickle cell anaemia
is known as point mutation. A classical example of such a mutation is
___________.
100. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or True
mutation in the single gene.
101. Most common and prevalent Mendelian disorders are ______________. Haemophilia, Cystic
fibrosis, Sickle cell
anaemia, Colour
blindness,
Phenylketonuria,
Thalassemia
102. Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder due to defect in Either red or green
______________ resulting in failure to discriminate between red and cone of eye
green colour.
103. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive trait. True

[ 120 ] [Link]
Genetics and Evolution

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
1. In living world, most abundant genetic material is DNA
2. Which end of a polynucleotide chain has a free phosphate 5'–end
moiety ?
3. 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name for Thymine
4. The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed due to Sugars and phosphates
5. What generates approximately uniform distance between the Purine–pyrimidine
two strands of DNA double helix hydrogen bonding
6. Flow of information from RNA to DNA is called Reverse transcription
7. Histones are rich in which basic amino acids ? Lysine and Arginine
8. A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is called as Cistron
9. The RNA polymerase is only capable of catalysing the process Elongation
of
10. In eukaryotes, the hnRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase II
11. Which scientist suggested the code should be made up of three Geoge gamow
nucleotides ?
12. In their experiments, Hershey and Chase used radioative _______ P32, S35
labelled DNA and radioactive _______ labelled protein capsule.
13. The genetic material must have four qualities, These are : 1. Replicability
2. Stability
3. Mutability
4. Expressibility
14. Which centrifugation technique was used by Meselson and CsCl - density gradient
Stahl in their experiment which proved semi-conservative DNA Centrifugation
replication?
15. Most Prokaryotic genes are Polycistronic and Non-split
16. Most eukaryotic genes are Monocistronic and Split
17. Which scientist formed co-polymer of nucleotides H.G. Khurana
18. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the Degenerate
code is
19. A classical example of point mutation is Sickle cell anaemia
20. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading Frame-shift mutations
frame from the point of insertion or deletion. Such mutations
are referred to as
21. The t-RNA is a compact molecule which in 3-D looks like Inverted L
22. An m-RNA also have some additional sequences that are not Untranslated regions (UTR)
translated and are referred to as
23. In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expression could be Four levels
exerted at
24. In most cases the sequence of the operator is bound by Repressor protein

[Link] [ 121 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
25. Each operon has its specific operator and specific Repressor
26. The operon concept was given by Jacob and Monod
27. the i gene of lac operon codes for Repressor
28. The a gene of lac operon codes for Transacetylase enzyme
29. In lac operon, lactose acts as Inducer
30. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as Negative regulation
31. The repressor is inactivated by interaction with the Inducer
32. The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA F. Sanger
sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed
by
33. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some Repetitive DNA
specific regions in DNA sequence called as
34. The bulk DNA forms major peak and the other small peaks are Satellite DNA
referred to as
35. If inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high DNA polymorphism
frequency, it is referred to as
36. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys
37. VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as Mini-satellite
38. The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting technique has been Polymerase chain reaction
increased by the use of
39. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of new Bioinformatics
area in biology called

Fill in the blank. ANSWER

40. The process of translation requires transfer of genetic Nucleotides
information from polymer of ________ to polymer of amino acids.
41. Marshall Nirenberg's _________ for protein synthesis finally Cell free system
helped the code to be deciphered
42. AAA ⎯→ A A = Lys
CCC ⎯→ B B = Pro
GGG ⎯→ C C = Gly
UUU ⎯→ D D = Phe
AUG ⎯→ E E = Met and Start codon
UAA
UAG → F F = Stop codon
UGA

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Genetics and Evolution
43. Translation refers to process of polymerization of __________ to Amino acids
form a polypeptide.
44. The ribosome also act as ______ for the formation of peptide bond
Catalyst
45. A translational unit in A is the sequence of RNA that is flanked
A = m-RNA,
by the B and the C and codes for a polypeptide B = Start codon,
C = Stop codon
46. The UTRs are present at both A (Before start codon) and B A = 5' end, B = 3' end
(After stop codon)
47. At the end, a _______ binds to stop codon, terminating translation Release factor
and releasing the complete polypeptide from the ribosome
48. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ________ is predominant site Transcriptional initiation
for control of gene expression
49. The activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn Accessory protein
regulated by interaction with _______, which affect its ability to (Regulatory protein)
recognise start site
50. The (z) gene codes for A , which is primarily responsible for A = -glactosidase
hydrolysis of _______. B = lactose
51. The (y) gene codes for A , which increases permeability of cell A = Permease
to B . B = -galactosides (Lactose)
52. Human genome project was launched in 1990
53. The commonly used hosts for cloning in HGP were A and B A = Bacteria, B = Yeast,
and the vectors were called as C and D . C = BAC, D = YAC
54. The human genome contains ________ million nucleotide base 3164.7
pairs.
55. Less than ________ of the human genome codes for proteins 2 percent
56. Chromosome 1 has most genes A and y has the fewest B . A = 2968, B = 231
57. A typical nucleosome contains _______ bp of DNA 200
58. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ________ structure 'Beads-on-string'
when viewed under electron microscope.
59. Transcriptionally active chromatin is called as _______. Euchromatin
60. The biochemical nature of 'transforming principle' in Griffith's Avery, MacLeod and
experiment was determined by _______. McCarty
61. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came Alfred Hershey & Martha
from the experiments of _______. Chase
62. The first genetic material was _______. RNA
63. The DNA in chromosomes also replicates semiconservatively Taylor, thymidine
was proved by _______ through his experiments performed on
Vicia faba using radioactive _________.
64. In [Link], the average rate of polymerisation during DNA 2000 bp per second
replication is approximately _______.
65. In a transcription unit, the promoter is said to be located 5'–end (upstream)
towards _________ of the structural gene.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
66. During DNA replication, leading strand is synthesized _____ Continuously,
while lagging strand is synthesized _________ . Discontinuously
67. A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant Origin of replication
DNA procedures requires a vector because it provides______.
68. In bacteria, -factor helps in transcription ______ whereas - Initiation, termination
factor helps in transcription ___________.

True/False ANSWER
69. No complementarity exists between nucleotides and amino True
acids
70. Severo Ochoa enzyme (Polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also False
helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequence in a
template dependent manner.
71. The code is nearly universal True
72. The codon is read in m-RNA in contiguous fashion True
73. There is one t-RNA for stop codons False
74. Formation of peptide bond requires energy True
75. First phase of translation is charging of t-RNA or True
aminoacylation of t-RNA
76. For initiation, the ribosome binds to the m-RNA at the start True
codon that is recognised only by the initiator t-RNA
77. The development and differentiation of embryo into adult True
organism are also a result of the coordinated regulation of
expression of several sets of genes.
78. Regulatory proteins can act only positively False
79. In Lac operon, three structural genes are regulated by a True
common promoter and regulator gene
80. The genes present in the operon are needed together to True
function in same or related metabolic pathway
81. A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in True
cell all the time
82. The repressor of the lac operon is synthesized all the time True
83. Lac operon is under control of positive regulation as well True
84. Total number of genes in human genome is approximately True
30,000
85. The split-gene arrangements represent probably a modern False
feature of the genome.
86. The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity. True
87. Process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world. True
88. The process of transription and translation can be coupled in True
bacteria.
89. In DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve Substrate and energy source
dual purposes as ___________

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Genetics and Evolution
90. At the time of Mendel, the chemical nature of those ‘factors’ False
regulating the pattern of inheritance was clear.
91. ___________ is the genetic material, for the majority of organisms. DNA
92. RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, True
mostly functions as a messenger.
93. The length of DNA cannot be defined as the number of False
nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotides referred to as base pairs)
present in it.
94. A bacteriophage known as  ×174 has 5386 base pairs. False
95. A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C of pentose sugar N-glycosidic
through a ___________ linkage to form a nucleoside,
96. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group False
present at 3' -position of the deoxyribose sugar.
97. DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone False
is constituted by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project
outside.
98. The two chains of DNA are coiled in a right-handed fashion. True
99. Who proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology? Francis Crick
100. Purpose of reverse transcription? To form DNA from RNA
101. The packaging of chromatin at a higher level requires an Non-histone Chromosomal
additional set of proteins that collectively are referred to as (NHC) proteins.
___________.
102. Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally inactive chromatin. False
103. Previous discoveries by Gregor Mendel, Walter Sutton, Thomas True
Hunt Morgan and numerous other scientists had narrowed the
search of genetic material to the chromosomes located in the
nucleus of most cells.
104. In Griffith’s experiment, R strain bacteria had somehow been DNA
transformed by the heat-killed S strain bacteria. Some
‘transforming principle’, is transferred from the heat-killed S
strain. This transforming principle is ___________.
105. Name the following structure. Nucleosome

106. The bacterial cell treats the bacteriophage genetic material as if True
it was its own and subsequently manufactures more virus
particles.

[Link] [ 125 ]
 NEET : NCR [Biology]
107. In some viruses, RNA is the genetic material for example Tobacco Mosaic viruses, QB
___________. bacteriophage, etc.
108. Both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), have the ability to direct True
their duplications.
109. The genetic material should be able enough to change with False
different stages of life cycle.
110. The process shown in the following diagram, is known as - Translation

111. There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life metabolism, translation,
processes such as ______________________, evolved around RNA. splicing, etc.
112. The semiconservative scheme is related to __________. DNA replication
113. DNA replication time in E. coli is __________. 18 minutes
114. The mistakes that take place during DNA replication result into Mutations
__________.
115. For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA cannot be True
separated in its entire length during DNA replication process.
116. The DNA polymerases on their own can initiate the process of False
replication.
117. In prokaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at the S- False
phase of the cell cycle.
118. A transcription unit in DNA contains __________. (i) A Promoter
(ii) The Structural gene
(iii) A Terminator
119. The strand that has the polarity __________ acts as a template 3'→5'
during the transcription process.
120. There are additional regulatory sequences that may be present True
further upstream or downstream to the promoter.
121. A ___________ is defined as the functional unit of inheritance. gene
122. Define a cistron A segment of DNA coding for
a polypeptide
123. Sometimes the regulatory sequences are loosely defined as regulatory genes
___________.
124. How many types of DNA-dependent RNA polymerases catalyze One
transcription of RNA in bacteria?

[ 126 ] [Link]
Genetics and Evolution
125. RNA polymerase binds to ___________ site and initiates promoter
transcription (Initiation).
126. In bacteria, transcription and translation can take place in the True
same compartment.
127. Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are non-functional. True
128. In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at ___________ 3'
end.
129. A direct complementarity exists between nucleotides and False
amino acids.
130. If the number of amino acids taking part in protein synthesis 3
was 40, the number of nucleotides in a codon would be
131. Who prepared cell free protein synthesis system to decipher Nirenberg
the codons?
132. Some amino acids are coded by more than one code, this is Degeneracy
called ___________.
133. Mention the change of amino acids that cause the disease Sickle Glutamate to valine
cell anaemia.
134. Which loop of tRNA has the bases complementary to the codon? Anticodon loop
135. Amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to charging of tRNA or
their cognate tRNA – a process commonly called as __________. aminoacylation of tRNA
136. A = repressor mRNA,
B = inducer,
C = permease,
D = transacetylase,

Identify A, B, C, D :-
137. Lac operon is under the control of negative and positive True
regulation.
138. Two major approaches in methodology of the Human Genome Expressed sequence tags
Project are ___________. and sequence annotation.
139. Vectors used in Human Genome Project ___________. BAC and YAC

[Link] [ 127 ]
Biology in Human Welfare

Microbes in Human Welfare

[Link] QUESTION ANSWER
1. Which microorganism grows in milk and convert it to curd ? Lactic acid Bacteria
(LAB)
2. Which microorganism improves the nutritional quality of curd by LAB
increasing vitamin B12 ?
3. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 gas
4. The dough which is used for making bread is fermented by which Saccharomyces
microbe ? cerevisiae
(Baker's yeast)
5. Which traditional drink in some part of southern India is made by Toddy
fermenting sap of palms ?
6. Match the column. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Column-I Column-II
(1) Propionibacterium (a) Penicillin
Sharmanii
(2) Saccharomyces (b) Citric acid
(3) Aspergillus niger (c) Ethanol
(4) Penicillium notatum (d) Swiss cheese
.

7. Production on an industrial scale, requires growing microbes in very Fermentors

large vessels called :-
8. From given table choose that alcoholic drinks which are produced Wine, Beer
without distillation of fermented broth.
Whisky, Wine Brandy, Rum, Beer
9. Name of the first antibiotic to be discovered :- Penicillin
10. Match the column. 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a
Column-A Column-B
(1) Acetobacter aceti (a) Cyclosporin A
(2) Clostridium butylicum (b) Lactic acid
(3) Lactobacillus (c) Butyric acid
(4) Trichoderma Polysporum (d) Acetic acid
.

11. Which group of enzymes are used in detergent formulation and are Lipases
helpful in removing oily stains from the laundary.
12. Fill in the Blank
(i) ......A..... are the blood-chloesterol lowering agents which is produced (i) A-Statins
by the yeast .....B..... B-Monascus
(ii) .....A..... produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by purpureus
genetic engineering is used as a.....B.....for removing....C... from blood (ii) A-Streptokinase
vessel. B-Clot buster
C-Clots
13. In anaerobic sludge digesters during digestion, bacteria produce (i) Methane
mixture of gases called biogas. Give the three components of biogas. (ii) Hydrogen sulphide
(iii) Carbon dioxide

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
14. Give the name of pathogen which attack on insects and other Arthopods Baculoviruses
so used as biological control agents.
15. Majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents belong to Nucleopolyhedrovirus
which genus ?
16. The main sources of biofertilisers are.... Bacteria, fungi and
Cyanobacteria
17. In Paddy fields, which microorganism serve as important biofertiliser? Cyanobacteria
18. The biogas plant was developed in India by : Indian Agricultural
Research Institute
and Khadi & Village
Industries
Commission.
19. Microorganism such as ___________ and others commonly called Lactobacillus ; Lactic
___________ grow in milk and convert it to curd. Acid Bacteria (LAB)

20. In the dough used for making dosa and idli, the puffed-up appearance CO2 gas
of it is due to the production of___________
21. The dough used for making bread is fermented using ___________ Baker’s yeast
22. The scientific name of Baker’s yeast is ___________. Saccharomyces
cerevisiae
23. ___________ is a traditional drink in some parts of southern India that is Toddy
made by fermenting sap from palms.
24. The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount CO2; Propino-
of ___________ by a Bacterium named ___________. bacterium sharmanii
25. The ‘Rouefort cheese’ is ripened by growing specific ___________ on them Fungi
which gives them a particular flavor.
26. The alcoholic drink ___________ and beer are produced without Wine; whisky;
distillation whereas ___________,___________ and rum are produced by brandy
distillation of fermented broth.
27. ___________ was the first antibiotic to be discovered by ___________. Penicillin ; Alexander
Fleming
28. Alexander Fleming while working on ___________ observed that the Staphylococci ;
mould named___________ growing in unwashed plate produced penicillin Penicillium notatum
because of which bacteria was not able to grow around mould.
29. Fill the correct acid producer of respective acid: citric acid by ___________, Aspergillus niger;
acetic acid by ___________, butyric acid by ___________ , and lactic acid Acetobacter aceti;
by ___________ . Clostridium
butylicum;
Lactobacillus
30. Streptokinase is produced by bacterium ___________. Streptococcus
31. Cyclosporin A is used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant Trichoderma
patients is produced by fungus ___________. polysporum

[ 138 ] [Link]
Biology in Human Welfare
32. ___________ produced by the yeast ___________ have been commercialized Statins ; Monascus
as blood Cholesterol lowering agents. purpureus
33. In primary treatment of waste water, all the solids that settle form the Primary sludge
___________, and the supernatant forms effluent.
34. Secondary treatment of waste water is also known as ___________. Biological treatment
35. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh Flocs
like structures in Secondary treatment of waste water is called
___________.
36. ___________is the measure of organic matter present in water. The more BOD ; more
it is, ___________is its polluting potential of waste water.
37. In biological treatment of waste water, a small part of ___________is Activated sludge ;
pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculum and remaining anaerobic sludge
part is pumped into larger tanks called ___________. digester
38. During the digestion in anaerobic sludge digester, bacteria produce a Methane ; biogas
mixture of gases such as___________, hydrogen sulphide and carbon
dioxide. These gases forms ___________.
39. The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated ___________and Ganga Action Plan ;
___________to save the major rivers of our country from pollution. Yamuna Action Plan
40.
41. The microbial biocontrol agents used to control butterfly caterpillars is Bacillus thuringiensis;
the bacteria ___________. When insect eats spore of this bacterium, the gut
toxin is released in ___________of larva and larva is killed.
42. ___________are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The Baculoviruses ;
majority of them used as biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus
___________.
43. In paddy fields, ___________serve as an important biofertilizer. Cyanobacteria
44. Which gases are produced by anaerobic bacteria in sewage treatment Hydrogen sulphide,
plant? Carbon dioxide and
Methaane
45. How deep is the concrete tank used in biogas plant? 10-15 feet deep
46. Toddy a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is made by Palm
fermenting sap from
47. The holes in swiss cheese are due to the production of large amount of Propionibacterium
carbon dioxide by a bacterium named sharmanii
48. Are wine and beer distilled? No
49. Are whisky, brandy and rum distilled? Yes
50 Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin while working with which Staphylococcus
bacteria?
51. What is used as a clot buster for removing clots from the blood vessels Streptokinase
of patients who have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart
attack?

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
52. Cyclosporin A is produced by which organism? What is its function? Trichoderma
polysporum
Function-
immunosuppressive
agent
53. Given below diagram represents colonies of Bacteria

54. Ladybirds and dragonflies can be used to get rid of which insect pests Aphids and
respectively? mosquitoes
55. Name a free living fungus species very common in root ecosystem and Trichoderma
can act as an effective biocontrol agent?
56. In primary treatment of waste water, all the solids that settle form the Primary sludge
___________, and the supernatant forms effluent.
57. Secondary treatment of waste water is also known as ___________. Biological treatment

58. Match the following columns: a – ii

Column-I Column-II b – iii
(a) Cyclosporin A (i) Blood Cholesterol lowering agent c–i
(b) Streptokinase (ii) Immunosuppressive agent d - iv
(c) Statins (iii) Clot buster for removing clots
(d) Saccharomyces (iv) Production of ethanol
.

59. ___________is the measure of organic matter present in water. The more BOD ; more
it is, ___________is its polluting potential of waste water.
60. The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are formed by the Rhizobium
symbiotic association of ___________.
61. Microbes can also be used to kill harmful pests, a process called as Biocontrol
___________.
62. The symbiotic association form between some fungi and plants are Mycorrhiza
called ___________.
63. Many members of the genus ___________form mycorrhiza. Glomus

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Ecology

Organisms and Populations

[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
1. Match column-I with column-II 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a, 5-e
Column – I Column - II
1. Commensalism a. +, –
2. Amensalism b. 0, –
3. Competition c. 0, +
4. Predation d. –, –
5. Mutualism e. +, +
.

2. Mutualism is an x relation whereas proto-co-operation is a x = Obligatory

y relation in which both interacting species are benefitted. y = Non-obligatory
3. Interaction in which either one or both participating species are Detrimental or negative
harmed such interactions are called ________. interactions
4. Which organism shows the following properties in an ecosystem. Predators
• Act as conduit of energy transfer
• Maintain species diversity in community
• Regulate the population of prey species
• Prudent in nature
5. More than 10 species of invertebrates became extinct within a Interspecific competition
year from the American Pacific Coast when Pisaster starfish was
removed. This extinction was due to -
6. Some insects and frogs are cryptically coloured to avoid being Camouflage
detected by predators. This is called -
7. How much percentage of all insects are phytophagous which feeds  25%
on plant sap and other parts of plant?
8. Match the columns regarding defence mechanisms adopted by A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
prey species to be protected from predators.
Column – A Column - B
A. Cardiac glycosides i. Acacia, Cactus
B. Distasteful due to a ii. Insects
special chemical
C. Thorns iii. Calotropis
D. Camouflage iv. Monarch butterfly
.

9. When a species is introduced into new geographical area becomes Absence of its natural
invasive and causes havoc by spreading rapidly, due to _____. predator
10. When feeding efficiency of one species is reduced in presence of Interference competition
the other species even if the resources are abundant, it is called -

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
11. Match the following columns – 1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - B
Column – A Column - B
1. Resource partitioning A. Gause
2. Competitive exclusion B. Darwin
3. Struggle for existence C. Mac Arthur
.

12. Which organisms are more adversely affected by competition Plants and Herbivores
than carnivores?
13. To avoid competition species choose different feeding time and Resource partitioning
different foraging patterns this is called ______.
14. How many of the following statements are incorrect for parasites? Two (A and C are incorrect)
(A) Presence of un-neccessary sense organs
(B) Presence of adhesive organs & suckers
(C) Developed digestive system
(D) High biotic potential
15. Human liver fluke is a ___A___ which depends on two intermediate A = Trematode parasite
hosts ___B___. B = a snail and a fish
16. An organism reduces survival, growth and reproduction of other Parasite
organism, reduces its population density and makes it physically
weak, such organism is called ______.
17. How many of the following organisms are considered as Four
Ecto-parasites? (Lice, Ticks, Copepods,
Lice, Liver fluke, Ascaris, Ticks, Copepods, Taenia, Cuscuta Cuscuta)
18. How many of the following are specific properties of endo- Four (A, B, C, D)
parasites?
(A) More complex life cycle
(B) High reproductive potential
(C) Simple morphology
(D) Simplified anatomy
19. Interaction in which one organism lays its eggs in the nest of x = Brood parasitism
another organism is called x . For example y . y = Cuckoo bird and crow
20. Match the following organisms according to their commensal 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - B
relationship.
Column – A Column - B
1. Mango Branch A. Sea anemone
2. Clown fish B. Barnacles
3. Egret bird C. Cattle
4. Whale D. Orchid
.

21. The mutualistic relationship between fungus and cyanobacteria is Lichen

called _________.

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Ecology
22. In an interspecific interaction a filamentous eukaryotic organism Mycorrhiza
absorbs nutrients from the soil for the higher plant. In turn the
host provides some energy yielding carbohydrates, such
association is called _________.
23. Pollinators and seed dispersers are offered reward by plants in A = Pollen & nectar
form of ___A___ and ___B___ respectively. B = Juicy and nutritious fruits
24. In which of the following interaction both interacting species Mutualism
show co-evolution, co-extinction, co-existence?
(1) Competition (2) Predation
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
25. In symbiotic relationship between fig tree and wasp, the wasp x = Oviposition (egg laying)
uses fig fruit for ___x___ and developing seeds for ___y___. In turn y = Nourishing its larva
favours ___z___. z = Pollination of fig.
26. Select the correct option with respect to the related organisms
and interactions.
Interactions Related organism
A. Mutualism 1. Sparrow and seed A–8
B. Predation 2. Goat and Abingdon tortoise B – 1, 4
C. Parasitism 3. Flamingoes and fishes C – 5, 7
D. Competition 4. Monarch butterfly and bird D – 2, 3, 9
E. Commensalism 5. Hedge plant and Cuscuta E–6
6. Orchid and mango tree
7. Human and Ascaris
8. Orchid and Bee
9. Balanus and Chathamalus
27. True or False
(1) 99% of animals and nearly all plants are conformers. True
(2) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many
organisms. True
(3) Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. True
(4) All birds and mammals are regulators. True
28. Under unfavourable conditions, a stage of suspended Diapause
development is called ________.
29. Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalaya, have ________ red Higher
blood cell count than people living in the plains.
30. Symptoms of altitude sickness are _________. Nausea, Fatigue,
Heart palpitations

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
31. How does human body compensate to altitude sickness? Increasing RBC production,
Increasing breathing rate,
Decreasing binding affinity
of Hb
32. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and Allen's rule
limbs to minimise heat loss. This is called __________.
33. How does kangaroo rat fulfill its water requirements? By internal fat oxidation
34. How do Antarctic fish manage to keep their body fluids from They have antifreeze
freezing? proteins
35. Under normal conditions, _______ and _______ are the most Births, Deaths
important factors influencing population density.
36. Exponential growth of population is seen when resources are Unlimited
________.
37. Exponential growth equation is __________. dN
Nt = N0ert or = rN
dt
38. Logistic growth equation is __________. dN  K −N 
= rN  
dt  K 
39. Write some examples of organisms that breed only once in their Pacific salmon fish and
life time. Bamboo plant
40. Write equations for curves a and b in the graph given below. dN
a= = rN
dt
dN  K −N 
b= = rN  
Population density (N)

K a dt  K 

Time (t)

41. Identify A, B, C & D A – Immigration

A B – Natality
C – Emigration
+ D – Mortality

Population
+
B Density D
(N) –

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Ecology
42. Identify the growth status of the population from given age A – Expanding
pyramids :- B – Stable
Post-reproductive C – Declining
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
(A) (B) (C)

43. Identify A, B & C – A – Conformers

B – Regulators
A
C – Partial regulators
Internal level

External level

44. A group of individuals resulting from even asexual reproduction True

is also generally considered a population for the purpose of
ecological studies.
45. Population ecology is an important area because it links ecology True
to population genetics and evolution.
46. Declining population

This shape of pyramid represents which type of population?

47. ____________is the number of individuals of the same species that Immigration
have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period
under consideration.
48. If N is the population density at time t, then its density at time t +1 Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) – (D+E)]
is ______________.
49. Under normal conditions, ________and ________ are the most births, deaths
important factors influencing population density.
50. dN intrinsic rate of natural
In the equation = rN , r represents___________.
dt increase
51. A population growing in a habitat with limited resources show True
initially a lag phase, followed by phases of acceleration and
deceleration and finally an asymptote.
52. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime to maximise Pacific salmon fish,
their reproductive fitness, examples includes ________, _____________. bamboo
53. Intraspecific interactions arise from the interaction of False
populations of two different species.
54. _________ act as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across trophic levels. Predator

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
55. Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control False
are based on the ability of the prey to regulate predator
population.
56. Interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither Commensalism
harmed nor benefited.
57. The mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and the roots of Mutualism
higher plants comes under which type of interaction.
58. The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get True
pollination done by a species of bee.
59. The intrinsic rate of natural increase (r) is a measure of the True
inherent potential of a population to grow.
60. What type of interaction occurs when one organism benefits while Predation
the other is harmed?
(A) Mutualism
(B) Amensalism
(C) Predation
(D) Commensalism
61. Plants have evolved diverse _____A___ and ___B______ defenses A- morphological
against herbivory. B- chemical
62. Which principle states that two closely related species competing Gause’s ‘Competitive
for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the Exclusion Principle’
competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
63. If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid resource partitioning
competition by choosing, for instance, different times for feeding
or different foraging patterns through the mechanism of
___________.

[ 154 ] [Link]
Ecology

Ecosystem
[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
1. How many of the following can be categorised under man-made Cropland and Aquarium
ecosystem? (Pond may be natural or
Lake, Wetland, Pond, Cropland, River, Aquarium, Estuary man made)
2. Different species of plants occupy various levels in the forest Stratification or vertical
ecosystem. Such distribution is called ______. stratification
3. The basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain Constant solar input
is -
4. Production and productivity can be represented by x and y x = gm/m2
respectively. y = gm/m2/yr
5. Representation of production and productivity in terms of kcal/m2 (Production)
energy_____. kcal/m2/yr (Productivity)
6. A rabbit feeds on grass and gains 1 kg weight within two months, Secondary productivity.
this rate of biomass gain is termed as ______.
7. The NPP of whole biosphere is ___A___ out of which NPP of oceans A = 170 billion tons
is ___B___. B = 55 billion tons
8. Despite covering 70% of surface, oceans show very low Producers are micro-
productivity because _______. organisms
(Phytoplankton),
N2 deficiency, light limiting
factor in aquatic ecosystem
9. A Producers
A = Consumer
Detritus D B = Soil solution
C = Rock minerals
E
Uptake D = Litterfall
B
E = Decomposition
Run off
C

Identify A, B, C, D and E in above cycle.

10. How much amount of carbon is fixed in biosphere through 4 × 1013 kg
photosynthesis annually?
11. The price tag given to fundamental ecosystem services is US $33 trillion
approximately _______.
12. If 1,000,000 J of sunlight is provided to a food chain what is the10 J
amount of energy present at top consumer level if food chain have (Because only 1% of total
four trophic level. sunlight is available to
plants)
13. ____________is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter Primary production
produced per unit area over a time period by plants during
photosynthesis.

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14. Primary Productivity is expressed in terms of ___________or weight (gm–2),
____________. energy (kcal m–2).
15. _________________ of an ecosystem is the rate of production of Gross primary productivity
organic matter during photosynthesis.
16. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is 170 billion tons
approximately _____________ (dry weight) of organic matter.
17. Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead detritus
remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute:
(1) Detritus
(2) Duff
(3) Humus
(4) Productivity
18. Fragmentation, Leaching, Catabolism, Humification And decomposition
Mineralization
These steps are included in the process of______________
19. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller True
particles. This process is called fragmentation.
20. Catabolism leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous False
substance called humus.
21. Decomposition is largely an anaerobic process. False
22. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if A - lignin and chitin
detritus is rich in ____A____, and quicker, if detritus is rich in B - nitrogen and sugars
_____B_____.
23. Assertion: Temperature and soil moisture are the most Both assertion and reason
important climatic factors that regulate decomposition. are true but reason is not a
Reason: Warm and moist environment favour decomposition. correct explanation of
assertion.
24. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active
____________________. radiation
25. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the ISR and this small amount False
of energy sustains the entire living world.
26. Unidirectional flow of energy takes place from the sun to False
consumers and then to producers.
27. Ecosystems do not follow the Second Law of thermodynamics. False
28. Producers in an aquatic ecosystem are: Both (2) and (3)
(1) Woody trees
(2) Phytoplankton’s
(3) Algae
(4) Both (2) and (3)
29. Death of organism is the beginning of the detritus food True
chain/web.
30. Primary consumers will be ______________ herbivore

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Ecology
31. Primary carnivores are also known as Secondary consumers
32. Decomposers are heterotrophic organisms. True
33. ____________secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead and Saprotrophs
waste materials into simple, inorganic materials, which are
subsequently absorbed by them.
34. In an __________ecosystem, GFC is the major conduit for energy aquatic
flow.
35. Some of the organisms of GFC are prey to the DFC animals False
36. Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organisms occupy trophic level
a specific place in the food chain that is known as their ___________.
37. ______A____belong to the first trophic level, ____B_____ to the second A- Producers
and ____C________ to the third. B- Herbivores
C- carnivores
38. The standing state is measured as the mass of living organisms False
(biomass) or the number in a unit area.
39. The base of each pyramid represents the __________while the apex Producers, top level
represents _________. consumer
40. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is Upright
41. Inverted pyramid of biomass represents small standing crop of A- phytoplankton
_______A____ supports large standing crop of ____B_________. B- zooplankton
42. The trophic level represents a functional level, not a species as True
such.
43. Energy at a higher trophic level is always more than at a lower False
level.
44. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally __________ because the inverted
biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
45. Ecological pyramid does not consider the same species belonging True
to two or more trophic levels.
46. Match the following biotic components with their examples: A-2, B-1, C-3
A Producers 1 Herbivores,
carnivores,
omnivores
B Consumers 2 Green plants, algae.
C Decomposers 3 Fungi, bacteria
.

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
47. Match the following ecological productivity types with their A-1, B-2
descriptions:
A. Gross primary 1. The total amount of energy
productivity (GPP) produced by photosynthesis in
an ecosystem.
B. Net primary 2. The energy remaining after
productivity (NPP) respiration and used for the
growth and reproduction of
primary producers.
.

48. Nutrient cycling is of two types __________ and ____________. Gaseous, sedimentary
49. Ecosystem services includes purification of air and water by True
forests.
50. The number of trophic levels in the grazing food chain is True
restricted as the transfer of energy follows 10 per cent law.
51. The ______________ of an ecosystem represents the sum total of all Biotic component
the living organisms present in an area.
52. In an ecosystem, the ______________ represents the transfer of energy flow
energy from one trophic level to another.

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Ecology

Biodiversity and Conservation

[Link]. QUESTION ANSWER
1. Term biodiversity was popularised by - Edward Wilson
2. Biodiversity is the combined diversity at all levels of biological (i) Genetic diversity
organisation what are those levels? (ii) Species diversity
(iii) Ecological diversity
3. How many species of plants and animals are described according > 1.5 million
to IUCN (2004)?
4. How much percentage of recorded species are animals and Animals - > 70%
plants respectively? Plants - 22%
5. Other animals group A-Insects (v)
Mammals
Crustaceans B-Birds (iii)
Molluscs
C B C-Fishes (ii)
A
Repitles D-Angiosperm (i)
Amphibians E-Fungi (iv)
Mosses Ferns & allies

E D

Algae Lichens
Study the above pie charts and match the following
(i) Angiosperms (ii) Fishes (iii) Birds
(iv) Fungi (v) Insects
6. India has only x % of world's land area but have y % of global x = 2.4%
species diversity. y = 8.1%
7. The species diveristy ________ when we move towards the equator Increases
whereas it ________ when we move towards the poles. Decreases
8. x
y
Species richness

Area
Study the above graph and answer the following questions –
(i) Identify x and y (i) x = (S = CAz),
(ii) The relation between species richness and area can be y = (log S = log C + Z log A)
denoted as generally (ii) Rectangular hyperbola
(iii) The value of Z lies in range of ____, regardless of the
taxonomic group or the region (whether it is plants in (iii) Z = 0.1 to 0.2
Britain, birds in California or molluscs in New York state.)
(iv) On a log scale the relation between species richness and area
is (iv) Straight line

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 NEET : NCR [Biology]
9. According to rivet popper hypothesis, if ecosystem is considered Key stone species
as airplane then what does the rivets on wings represent.
10. Match the following organism according to their place of A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i)
extinctions :-
A. Dodo i. Australia
B. Steller's sea cow ii. Mauritius
C. Quagga iii. Africa
D. Thylacine iv. Russia
.

11. Loss of biodiversity in a region may result in A, B, C (All)

(A) Increased variability in plant productivity, water use, pests
and disease cycle.
(B) Decline in plant production
(C) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations
How many of the above statements are correct?
12. Select the terms which are related to loss of biodiversity and Four
considered under The Evil Quartet – (Co-extinction, Over
Co-extinction, Proto-cooperation, Over exploitation, Predation, exploitation, Alien - species
Endemism, Alien - species invasion, Habitat loss and invasion, Habitat loss and
fragmentation. fragmentation)
13. Which area on earth is also called lungs of planet? Why? Amazon rains forest
(It produces 20% of total O2
in earth atmosphere)
14. Select the species which are extincted due to over exploitation :- Two
Nile Perch, Water hyacinth, African catfish, Passenger pigeon, (Passenger pigeon, Steller's
Lantana, Cichlid fish, Steller's sea cow, Quagga, Dodo. sea cow)
15. Exploring molecular, genetic, species - level diversity for Bioprospecting
products of economic importance is termed as
16. Reasons of biodiversity conservation can be grouped into how (1) Narrowly utilitatian
many categories? (2) Broadly utilitatian
(3) Ethical
17. India has more than ____A____ genetically different strains of rice, A- 50,000
and ____B_____ varieties of mango. B- 1,000
18. Robert May places the global species diversity at about 7 million. True
19. India has only 8.1 per cent of the world’s land area, its share of False
the global species diversity is an impressive 2.4 per cent.

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Ecology
20. Species area relationship, on log scale the relationship becomes linear
________.
21. Which scientist found that plots with more species showed less David Tilman
year-to-year variation in total biomass and showed that in his
experiments, increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity.
22. Tropical rain forests once covering more than _________ of the 14 per cent, 6 per cent.
earth’s land surface, these rain forests now cover no more than
___________.
23. Many species extinctions in the last 500 years for example Steller’s sea cow, passenger
__________ and ___________were due to overexploitation by humans. pigeon
24. In which of the four evil quartet following situation is included- Alien species invasions
the recent illegal introduction of the African catfish Clarias
gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the
indigenous catfishes in our rivers.
25. _________ are the regions with very high levels of species richness Biodiversity hotspots
and high degree of endemism.
26. Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks are Ex-situ conservation
example of ____________.

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