03-06-2026

7601CMD303001260003 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Value of cos(106°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

Which of following is possible :-

(1) sin θ >1

(2) sin θ ≥ –1
(3) tan θ > ∞
(4) None

3) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

4) Value of sin 15° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)
Which of the following graph shows the correct representation of given equation ?

3y = –4x + 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) =

(1)

(2)
+C

(3)
+C

(4)
+C

7) Approximate value of tan 4° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the given graph maximum magnitude of slope will be at :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

9) The sum of a series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Area under curve enclosed by y = 3x2 from x = 1 to x = 2 is equal to :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

11) If y = 2x2 – 12x then minimum value of y is:-

(1) –18
(2) 3
(3) –3
(4) 18

12) =

(1) 2
1– + sec x

(2)
1 + + sec2x

(3)
1+ + + sec2x

(4)
1– + + sec2x

13) ?

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

14)

(1) e + 1/e
(2) e2 + 1/e2
(3) e – 1/e
(4) e3 + 1/e3

15) For the quadartic equation 10x2– 27x+5 = 0 possible roots are

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) 1

16)

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) Can't be determined

17) Calculate = ?

(1) 1.01
(2) 1.02
(3) 0.99
(4) 0.999

18) log10(1000)1/3 = ?

(1) 3

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

19) Equation for y-x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A body is in equilibrium under the action of three coplanar forces A, B and C as shown in the

figure. Select the correct statement :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In the triangle shown in figure, the angle between vectors and is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 45°
22) What is the angle between and ?

(1) Zero
(2) π/2
(3) π/4
(4) π

23) If is a unit vector, then c is:

(1)
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.3
(4)

24) Angle between and is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 240°
(4) 30°

25) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) If PR = RQ, then :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Which of the following is correct regarding these four vectors?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Which statement is true ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29)

If and then find angle between & :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

30) The resultant of two vectors and is . If is doubled then the new resultant vector is
perpendicular to . Then magnitude of is :–

(1)

(2) Q

(3)

(4)
31) If the direction cosines of the vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If the system is in equilibrium then calculate F1 and F2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

34) are two vectors given by and . The magnitude of the component of
along is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) Find the torque of a force acting at the point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Find a unit vector perpendicular to both the vectors and :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

38) Two equal forces (P each) act at a point inclined to each other at an angle of 120°. The
magnitude of their resultant is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) P
(4) 2P

39) For vectors and , will be :-

(1) A2B2
(2) (A + B) (AB)
(3) zero
(4)

40) is equal to :-
(1) Zero
(2) A2B2
(3) AB
(4)

41)

If = 2 unit, = 5 unit and = 8unit then :-

(1) zero
(2) 2 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) 6 unit

42) Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are ( ) and ( ) will be :

(1) 14 unit
(2) unit
(3) unit
(4) unit

43) A quantity Q varies with time(t) as Q = 10 sint find rate of change of Q w.r.t time at

(1) 5

(2)

(3)
(4) 0

44) Two force vectors of same magnitude are arranged in the following manner :-

Magnitude of resultant force is maximum for :-

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) II and III

45) Find a vector having magnitude double of and direction same as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

CHEMISTRY

1) A container of volume V, contains 0.28g of N2 gas. If same volume of an unknown gas under
similar condition of temperature and pressure weighs, 0.44g, the molecular mass of the gas is

(1) 22
(2) 44
(3) 66
(4) 88

2) Which of the following pairs of gases contains the same numbers of molecules

(1) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2

(2) 8g of O2 and 22g of CO2
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2
(4) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2

3) Choose the wrong statement

(1) 1 mole means 6.022 × 1023 particles

(2) gram molar mass is the mass of one molecule
(3) gram molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance
(4) Gram molar mass is molar mass expressed in grams.

4) Assertion: 16 g each of O2 and O3 contains atoms respectively

Reason: 16 g O2 and O3 contains same no. of molecules.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

5)

The total no. of protons in 10 g of calcium carbonate is (No = 6.023 × 1023)

(1) 1.5 × 1024

(2) 2.04 × 1024
(3) 3.0 × 1024
(4) 4.09 × 1024

6) What volume of NH3 gas at STP will be required to be dissolved in 100 ml 0.5 M H2SO4 solution to
decrease its concentration to 2.45%w/V.

(1) 250 ml
(2) 560 ml
(3) 1135 ml
(4) 2270 ml

7) Calculate molarity of nitric acid in moles per litre having density 1.41 g ml–1 and has mass
percentage of 69%?

(1) 18.4 M
(2) 15.4 M
(3) 14.1 M
(4) 6.9 M

8) How many mL of 0.1 M NaOH contains 0.4 g NaOH ?

(1) 1000 mL
(2) 10 mL
(3) 100 mL
(4) 104 mL

9) The number of atoms of C and O are 1.2 × 1010 and 2.4 × 1010 respectively. It's empirical formula
is :-

(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) C3O4
(4) C2O3

10) A compound contains two elements 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio of 50% each by mass. Atomic mass of
'X' is 20 and 'Y' is 40. What can be its simplest formula :-

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY2
(4) X2Y3

11)

Find total number of neutrons present in 1.6 g of CH4

(1) NA
(2) 0.6 NA
(3) 10 NA
(4) 5 NA

12)

For preparing 0.4 M solution of KOH in 800 ml volume we need KOH:

(1) 179.2g
(2) 17.92 g
(3) 1.792 g
(4) None of the above

13) If 5 mL of hydrogen gas remains after its reacts with 10 mL oxygen gas. How much volume of
H2 gas was taken initially?

(1) 20 mL
(2) 5 mL
(3) 10 mL
(4) 25 mL

14) How much volume of reactant will be left when 200 mL of acetylene combines with 1000 mL of
O2 gas at STP ?

(1) 200 mL
(2) 300 mL
(3) 500 mL
(4) 1000 mL

15) The mole fraction of glucose in aqueous solution is 0.2, then molality of solution will be (in
mol/kg)

(1) 13.89
(2) 55.56
(3) 2
(4) 12

16) Which of the following species are isotopic as well as isoelectronic

(1) 40Ca+2, 40Ar

(2) 39K+, 40K+
(3) 24Mg+2, 25Mg
(4) 23Na, 24Na+

17) The highest probability of finding the electron in an orbital having values of quantum numbers n
=3, ℓ = 1 and m = –1.

(1) In between any two axis out of three.

(2) On any two axis simultaneously, perpendicular to each other.
(3) On any one axis out of the three at a time.
(4) On all the three axis simultaneously at a time.

18) is isodiapher with . The value of Z is.

(1) 90
(2) 88
(3) 92
(4) 86

19) Which of the following electronic configuration belongs to the representative elements ?

0
(1) [Xe] 4f7, 5d , 6s2
(2) [Kr] 5s2
(3) [Ar] 3d10, 4s1
(4) [Kr] 4d10, 5s2

20) Which of the following set of quantum number is not correct.

n l mℓ ms

(1) 3 0 0

(2) 5 2 –1

(3) 4 0 –2

(4) 7 0 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Wave function of an orbital is plotted against the distance from nucleus. The graphical

representation belongs to

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s
(4) 2p

22) A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then re-emits two photons. One re-emitted photon
has wavelength 496 nm, the wavelength of second re-emitted photon is

(1) 759 nm
(2) 857 nm
(3) 957 nm
(4) 657 nm

23) A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of
wavelength λ1 & λ2 respectively. The wavelength is related with λ1 & λ2 as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If wavelength of last line of Balmer series of He⊕ ion is x Å, then calculate maximum wavelength
for Lyman series of H-atom :-

(1) x Å

(2)
xÅ

(3)
xÅ
(4) None

25) Mole fraction of urea in its 0.5 molal aqueous solution is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1, respectively.
The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties in their
positions?

(1) 2
(2) 0.25
(3) 4
(4) 1

27)

Among all the following particles moving with same speed, which one have maximum de-broglie's
wavelength

(1) alpha particle

(2) electron
(3) proton
(4) all have same de-broglie's wavelength

28) Given
(a)

(b)
The maximum number of electron(s) in an atom that can have the quantum numbers as given in (a)
and (b) are respectively

(1) 8 and 1
(2) 25 and 1
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 4 and 1

29) Spin angular momentum for electron :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

30) Which of the following doesn't follow Aufbau principle/(n +ℓ) rule ?

(1) [Kr]4d45s1
(2) [Ar]3d104s1
0
(3) [Kr]4d105s
(4) All of these
31)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

32) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(P) (A) 3s

(Q) (B) 2s

(R) (C) 2p

(S) (D) 1s

(1) (P) - D, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - A

(2) (P) - A, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - D
(3) (P) - D, (Q) - C, (R) - B, (S) - A
(4) (P) - A, (Q) - B, (R) - C, (S) - D

33) Which of the following EM waves have maximum frequency :-

(1) U.V. waves

(2) I.R. waves
(3) Radio waves
(4) Green-light

34) p block elements of 6th period are represented as :-

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6p1–6
(2) [Xe] 5f14 6d10 6p1–6
(3) [Kr] 5f14 5d10 6p1–6
0
(4) [Xe] 4f 5d10 6p1–6

35) An enzyme peroxidase has 5% by weight of sulphur (S = 32) its minimum molecular weight will
be–

(1) 320
(2) 640
(3) 1280
(4) 480

36) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/sec is :-

(1) 6.63 × 10–33 m

(2) 6.63 × 10–34 m
(3) 6.63 × 10–35 m
(4) 6.65 × 10–35 m

37) If ionization energy of unielectronic species is 960 eV and energy of electron in nth orbit is –60
eV. then find out the value of n :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

38)

Number of waves made by an electron in one complete revolution in the 2nd orbit of H-atom is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) can not be determined

39) The velocity of particle A is 0.1 ms-1 and that of particle B is 0.05 ms-1. If the mass of particle B is
three times that of particle A, then the ratio of de Broglie wavelengths associated with the particles
A and B is

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 . 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
40) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 4s

41) 500 mL of a glucose solution contains 6.02 × 1022 molecules. The concentration of the solution is
–

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 2.0 M

42) An aqueous solution of ethanol (C2H5OH) has density 1.025 g/mL and molarity is 2M, what will
be molality of solution.

(1) 1.79
(2) 2.152
(3) 1.951
(4) 3.762

43)

The number of liters of oxygen required to burn 8 liters of C2H2 is approximately-

(1) 20 L
(2) 60 L
(3) 80 L
(4) 100 L

44)

Equal volume of H2 and O2 react to form water vapour under suitable conditions, then the limiting
reagent will be

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) H2O(g)
(4) No one is limiting reagent

45) One litre of CO2 is passed over hot coke. The volume becomes 1.4 litre. The composition of final
mixture will be : CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)

(1) 0.6 litre CO

(2) 0.6 litre CO2
(3) 0.6 litre CO2 and 0.8 litre CO
(4) 0.6 litre CO and 0.8 litre CO2

BIOLOGY

1) The interphase nucleus has highly extended nucleoprotein fibres called :-

(1) Chromosomes
(2) Chromatin
(3) Chromatid
(4) Satellite

2) The small disc shaped structure present on surface of centromere through which spindle fibre
attaches is called

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Centrosome
(3) Centriole
(4) Chromatid

3) In which of the following tubulin protein is not present:–

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Cilia
(3) Flagella
(4) Microtubules

4) Nucleus as a "Cell organelle" was first described by......... as early as ................

(1) Robert Hooke, 1665

(2) Robert Brown, 1831
(3) Darwin, 1859
(4) Strasburger, 1831

5) Which cell organelle divide the intracellular space in two distinct compartments luminal and extra
luminal ?

(1) ER
(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Plasma membrane

6) Depending upon ease of extraction membrane protein can be classified as :-

(1) Saturated and unsaturated

(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(3) Integral and peripheral
(4) Acidic and basic

7) The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of :-

(1) DNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) t-RNA

8) In case of ______ chromosome the centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely
short arm and one very long arm

(1) Metacentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Submetacentric

9) What structures, found in chromosome :-

(1) Cisternae
(2) Cristae
(3) Centriole
(4) Centromere

10) Sometimes, a few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constriction at a constant location.
This gives the appearance of a small fragment beyond the secondary constriction called :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Centromere
(3) Satellite
(4) Both (2) & (3)

11) The chromatin material which takes darker stain in interphase is called:

(1) Euchromatin
(2) Heterochromatin
(3) Primary constriction
(4) Satellite body

12)

A single human cell has approximately __________ long thread of DNA.

(1) 2 meter
(2) 2 meter
(3) .2 meter
(4) .1 meter

13) Chromatin contains all of the following except-

(1) DNA
(2) Histone protein
(3) RNA
(4) Cholesterol

14) Actively protein synthesizing cells have :-

(1) Larger and numerous lysosomes

(2) Larger and numerous chloroplasts
(3) Smaller and fewer nucleoli
(4) Larger and numerous nucleoli

15) In a human cell the entire long thread of DNA is distributed in :-

(1) One chromosome

(2) 23 Chromosomes
(3) 44 Chromosomes
(4) 46 Chromosomes

16) Nucleus is absent in :-

(1) Mature RBC

(2) Mature sieve tube
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) All mature cells

17) Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is:-

(1) Vacuole
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Plastid
(4) Lysosome

18) Which event is not associated with prophase I?

(1) Formation of chiasmata

(2) Synapsis
(3) Centromere division
(4) Terminalization of chiasmata

19) In oocytes of some vertebrates, ........can last for months, or years.

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytne
(4) Diplotene

20) Identify the incorrect statement about meiosis

(1) Pairing of homologous chromosome occurs

(2) Four haploid cells are formed.
(3) Chromosome number gets half
(4) Two cycles of DNA replication occur

21) Tetrad, Crossing over and Chiasmata formation, these events occur in:

(1) Zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

22) Correct order of cell cycle phases is:

(1) G1 → S → G2 → M
(2) S → G1 → G2 → M
(3) G1 → G2 → S → M
(4) M → G1 → S → G0

23) Cells which do not divide further enter in :

(1) Quiescent stage

(2) G0– phase
(3) G1– phase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

24) Which one of the following stage of meiosis begins with the spliting of centromere?

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase II

25) In which phase of meiosis the chromosomes do undergo some dispersion but they do not reach
the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus:-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) metaphase-I
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Prophase-II

26) Dyad of cells is associated with :-

(1) Prophase I
(2) Telophase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Anaphase I

27) Phase characterized by the alignment of chromosomes at the equator is :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

28) If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ______ during S-phase :-

(1) 2C
(2) 4C
(3) 8C
(4) 16C

29) Pairing of Homologous chromosomes occurs in:-

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene

30) Centromere of each chromosome is toward the pole and arms of chromosome trailing behind it.
This statement is related with :

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophast

31) Significance of meiosis lies in the

(1) Reduction of chromosome number to half

(2) Maintaining the consistency of chromosomes number during sexual reproduction
(3) Production of genetic variability
(4) All of the above
32) Longest phase of meiosis is :-

(1) Prophase I
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Telophase II

33) During _______, the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes becomes distinct and clearly
appears as tetrads.

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Diplotene

34) Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about -

(1) 60 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 120 minutes
(4) 90 minutes

35) Cytokinesis in animal and plant cell respectively is :

(1) Plate & furrow formation

(2) Furrow formation & plate formation
(3) Plate formation in both
(4) Furrow formation in both

36) A root tip cell of onion has 16 chromosomes. After mitosis, how many chromosomes will each
daughter cell have?

(1) 32
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 4

37) "X-shaped structures" occurs during which phase of meiotic division ?

(1) Prophase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase I

38) In which phase of mitosis, chromosomes lose their individuality ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

39) Centriole undergone duplication during _____ phase of Interphase :

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) M

40) This diagram represents-

(1) Prophase–II
(2) Telophase–I
(3) Prophase–I
(4) Telophase–II

41) The movement of centrioles occurs towards the opposite poles in:-

(1) Anaphase
(2) G1-phase
(3) Prophase
(4) S-phase

42) If the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell is 24, then find out the number of chromosomes
during anaphase :-

(1) 14
(2) 12
(3) 48
(4) 36

43) The number of bivalents are 20. What will be the number of chromosomes during anaphase-II at
each pole ?

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 10
(4) 20

44) In which phase the two daughter chromatids are now referred to as daughter chromosomes of
the future daughter nuclei ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

45) When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, it results in the formation of multinucleate
condition can be seen in

(1) Onion root

(2) Social insect
(3) Liquid endosperm in coconut
(4) Honey bee

46) Identify the incorrect statement about the given organism :-

(1) Body in divided into proboscis, collar & trunk

(2) It is commonly called as Acorn worm
(3) Circulatory system is of closed type
(4) External fertilisation is observed.

47) Limbless amphibian among the following is :-

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Rana
(3) Bufo
(4) Hyla

48) Epidermal scales are characteristic of ?

(1) Reptilia
(2) Amphibia
(3) Mammals
(4) Echinoderms

49) An animal having coelom, radial symmetry in adult but bilateral symmetry in larva is member of
:-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Annelida

50) Which of the following is not true about chondrichthyes ?

(1) Mouth is located ventrally.

(2) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(3) Teeth are modified placoid scales.
(4) Air bladder is present.

51) In which phylum body is unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump ?

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Annelida

52) In which animal excretory organ is found as proboscis gland ?

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Dentalium
(3) Antedon
(4) Pinctada

53) The second largest animal plylum is :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Mollusca
(4) Porifera
54) Select the correct option to identify A, B and C in given chart :-

(1) A-Pisces, B-Tetrapoda, C-Cyclostomata

(2) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces, C-Tetrapoda
(3) A-Tetrapoda, B-Pisces, C-Cyclostomata
(4) A-Pisces, B-Cyclostomata, C-Tetrapoda

55) Which of the following character is correctly matched with its general character ?

(1) Cyclostomata : cranium and vertebral column are bony

(2) Chondrichthyes : Gill slits without operculum
(3) Amphibia : they shed their scales as their skin casting
(4) Mammalia : Long bones hollow with air cavities

56) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora

57) The unique character of animals beloning to class-Mammalia is :-

(1) Bipedal locomotion

(2) Completely four-chambered heart
(3) The presence of mammary glands
(4) Fertilisation is internal

58) Salamandra belongs to which class :-

(1) Tetrapoda
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptiles
(4) Pisces

59)

Which is not the feature of Aves ?

(1) Pneumatic bones
(2) Homeothermous
(3) Viviparous
(4) Direct development

60) The digestive tract of which animal has additional chambers, the crop and gizzard :-

(1) Frog
(2) Crocodile
(3) Pigeon
(4) Camel

61) Which animals shed their scales as skin cast ?

(1) Snakes and frog

(2) Snakes and lizard
(3) Toad and frog
(4) Lizard and toad

62) The characteristic feature of Aves are

(1) Presence of feathers

(2) Presence of beak
(3) Skin is dry without glands except the oil glands at the base of tail
(4) All of the above

63) Chelone is the scientific name of ?

(1) Krait
(2) Gardenlizard
(3) Turtle
(4) Tree lizard

64) Which of the following snakes is non-poisonous :

(1) Cobra
(2) Krait
(3) Viper
(4) Python

65) Which among the following is called "flying fox"?

(1) Protopterus
(2) Pteropus
(3) Pavo
(4) Psittacula
66) In birds, the following helps in supplementing respiration :-

(1) Alveoli
(2) Air sacs
(3) Air cavities
(4) Gills

67) Which one of the following is a flightless bird

(1) Passer
(2) Corvus
(3) Aptenodytes
(4) Pavo cristatus

68) Pneumatic bones are the features of :-

(1) Pisces
(2) Reptiles
(3) Aves
(4) Mammals

69) Which one of the following mammals is oviparous :-

(1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Pteropus
(3) Camelus
(4) Balaenoptera

70) In amphibian cloaca is common chamber for :-

(1) Alimentary canal + urinary tract

(2) Alimentary canal + Reproductive tract
(3) Alimentary canal + Respiratory tract
(4) Alimentary canal + urinary tract + Reproductive tract

71) Psittacula is the scientific name of :-

(1) Pigeon
(2) Parrot
(3) Peacock
(4) Ostrich

72) First successful terrestrial vertebrates are :-

(1) Pisces
(2) Amphibians
(3) Reptiles
(4) Aves

73) What is the zoological name of Indian peacock, our national bird :-

(1) Passer domesticus

(2) Pavo cristatus
(3) Columba livia
(4) Psittacula eupatria

74) The amphibians are characterized by :-

(1) Only aquatic habit

(2) Monocondylic skull
(3) Scaleless, smooth moist and glandular skin
(4) Claws present at the tip of digits

75) How many statements are correct for class Reptilia?

(i) Body is covered by epidermal scales
(ii) Fertilization is internal and animals are oviparous
(iii) Lung with air sac
(iv) Animals are poikilothermous

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) In amphibians, respiration occurs through

(1) gills
(2) lungs
(3) skin
(4) all of these

77) Read the following statement and choose the correct characteristic feature of Aves.

(1) Skin of birds have glands

(2) Air sacs help in excretion
(3) Heart is having three auricle and one ventricle
(4) Preen gland is present at the base of tail

78) Agnatha is represented by the class –

(1) Placodermi
(2) Cyclostomata
(3) Urochordata
(4) Cephalochordata

79) All living members of which class is ectoparasite on fishes?

(1) Turbellaria
(2) Chondrichthyes
(3) Cephalopoda
(4) Cyclostomata

80) After spawning, within a few days, they die. Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to ocean.
Which of the following are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water?

(1) Petromyzon (Lamprey)

(2) Scoliodon
(3) Trygon
(4) Torpedo

81) Which one of the following pairs of animals are 'jawless fishes' ?

(1) Sawfish and hag fishes

(2) Lampreys and Catla
(3) Scoliodon and Rohu
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes

82) Identify the animal with 6-15 pair of gill slits?

(1) Myxine
(2) Pterophyllum
(3) Exocoetus
(4) Betta

83) Which of the following is not an Osteichthyes?

(1) Exocoetus
(2) Pterophyllum
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Carcharodon

84) Circular, sucking mouth, devoid of scales is found in :-

(1) Cartilaginous fishes

(2) Urochordates
(3) Cyclostomates
(4) Cephalochordates
85) In animals of phylum mollusca a space present between the hump and mantle is called the A
in which B are present. Fill A & B by choosing given below options :-

(1) A-Head, B-Book gills

(2) A-Visceral hump, B-Pulmonary sac
(3) A-Mantle cavity, B-Feather like gills
(4) A-Radula, B-Visceral hump

86) Molluscs are :-

(1) Soft bodied and segmented animals

(2) Unsegmented, diploblastic, aquatic animals
(3) Soft bodied and unsegmented animals
(4) Unsegmented, hard bodied animals

87) The organ found in the buccal cavity of some mollusc for rasping the food is called :-

(1) Radula
(2) Teeth
(3) Tongue
(4) Pecten

88) Water vascular system is the most distinctive feature of phylum :-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Porifera
(4) Arthropoda

89)

Which of the following is incorrect match w.r.t. scientific names of the given animals?

(1) Pearl oyster - Pinctada

(2) Sea hare - Aplysia
(3) Brittle star - Antedon
(4) Apple snail - Pila

90) Absence of excretory organs, great power of regeneration and exclusively marine animals
belongs to the phylum :-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Arthropods
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Annelida
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 3 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of cos(106º)

Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Formula : cos(2θ) = 2cos2(θ) – 1
Solution :
cos(106º) = cos(2 × 53º)
cos(106º) = 2cos2(53º) – 1

cos(106º) =

cos(106º) = –1

cos(106º) =
Final Answer : Option (2)

2) Question Explanation:
Identifying possible values for trigonometric functions.
Concept:
Range of Trigonometric Functions.
Solution:
The sine of an angle is a ratio that always stays within a specific numerical range. While sine
cannot exceed 1, it can certainly be greater than or equal to -1.
Constraint: The range of .
Option 1: is impossible.
Option 2: is always true for any real angle .
Option 3: is mathematically undefined.
Final Answer:
Option (2)

3) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12
cos θ .
Concept : Maximum value of a trigonometric function.
Solution : Let y = 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ
Comparing with the y = asinθ + bcosθ
ymax =
∴ In above equation a = 5, b = –12

∴ ymax = =
ymax = = 13
Final Answer : Option (1)

4) Question Explanation : We are supposed to calculate the value of sin 15º.

Concept : Trigonometric formula
Formula : sin(A – B) = sin(A) cos(B) – cos(A) sin(B)
Solution :
sin(15°) = sin(45° – 30°)
Comparing with the identity mentioned above

sin(15°) = sin(45º) cos(30°) – cos(45°) sin(30°) sin(15º) =

sin(15º) =

sin(15º) =
Final Answer : Option (3)

5)

Explain Question : Correct graph for the given equation is.

Concept : This question is based on Straight line equation.

Solution :
3y = – 4x + 1

y = mx + C

(Slope is –ve)

(+ve)
Only option (1) has –ve (m) and +ve (C)

Final Answer : option (1)

6)

Explain the Question : Find .

Concept : This question is based on use power rule : .

Solution : =
Final answer : 2

7)

Question Explanation: In this question we have to find the value of tan 4°.
Concept : Trigonometry (small angle approximation)
Solution :
If θ is very small
tan θ θ ('θ' must be in radian)
⇒ 4º = 4 × radian

⇒ 4º = radian

∴ tan
Final Answer: Option (3)

8) Explain the question : A curve is shown below -

Out of the given points A, B, C & D; at which point the magnitude of slope is maximum?
Concept : This question is based on steepness (magnitude of slope) of a curve
Formula :
Solution : If θ = 0° ⇒ m = 0
θ = obtuse ⇒ m = –ive
In moving from point A to point D.
θ↓ ⇒ atn (θ) ↓ ⇒ m↓ ⇒ |m|↑ (as m is negative)
Hence, θA > θB > θC > θD,
tan(θA) > tan(θB) > tan(θC) > tan(θD)
mA > mB > mC > mD
|mA| < |mB| < |mC| < |mD|
Thus steepness (magnitude of slope) at point D is maximum out of point A, B, C, D.
Final answer : 4

9) Sum =

a=1 r=

Sum =

10) Area =

⇒ 8–1=7
11) Question Explanation :
To find out the minimum value of y if y = 2x2 – 12

Concept :
Question is based on Maxima and minima (application of diffrentation)

Formula :

For Minima

Solution:
y = 2x2 – 12x

= 4x – 12 = 0 ⇒ x = +3

=4>0
so, minimum value of y = 2(3)2 – 12 × 3 = –18

Final Answer :
Option (1)

12)

=1– + + sec2x

13)

14)
= e – 1/e

15) Explain Question:Find the roots of the given quadratic equation 10x2 – 27x + 5 = 0.
Concept:Quadratic equation.
Solution:
10x2 – 27x + 5 = 0
10x2 – 25x – 2x + 5 = 0
5x(2x –5) –1(2x –5) = 0
(5x – 1) (2x –5) = 0
5x – 1 = 0 or 2x – 5 = 0

and
Final Answer: option(3)

16) Explaining : Find sum of ∞ G.P. series.

Concept : This question is based on S∞ =

Solution :

a=

r=

Final Answer : (1)

17)

Correct answer is option (1)

18)

Question Explanation: In this question, we have to find the value of given Logarithmic
function.
Concept: Logarithmic function

Formula: logb(b)x = x [where 'b' is the base of Logarithmic function]

Solution:
Evaluating log10(1000)1/3 → log10(1000)1/3 = log10 [(10)3]1/3 = log10 (10)1 = 1 (since 103 = 1000)

Final Answer: option (3)

19) Explain Question:

Determine the equation of the ellipse shown in the Y – x graph.

Concept:

Standard equation of an ellipse

Solution:
From the graph, the x-intercepts are at so semi-major axis a = 3
The y-intercepts are at so semi-minor axis b = 2

The equation is
Final answer: Option (3)

20)

Explain Question : Asking about the correct relation among the given options, for the
equilibrium under the three coplaner forces as shown

Concept : This question is based on Lami's Theorem .

Solution : According to the lami's theorem (sine law for a triangle) , the relation among the
forces & angle is given by

Final Answer : option (4)

21) Explain the Question : In this question we have to find the angle between the
vectors and .
Concept : This question is based on angle between two vectors.
Solution : Angle between vectors is angle formed by either joining their heads or tails (≤180°)
in the given figure.

On parallely shifting the vector , we can see that the angle between the vectors and .
θ = 180° – 30° = 150°
Final Answer : 3

22) Question Explanation : Find angle between & .

Concept : This question is based on application of cross product.
Solution :
lies in the plane formed by and ​. is perpendicular to this plane.
Hence
Final Answer : Option (2)

23)
Hence c =

24)

By theory
 25)

Question Explanation :
We need to find the unit vector along .
Concept :

Unit vector along a vector R is

Solution :

Unit Vector along

Final Answer : Option (2)

26)

Explanation :- In the given diagram we have to see which relation satisfy the given relation in
options -
Concept :- Addition - subtraction of vectors
Solution :-

.....(i)
....(ii)
(i) - (ii)

Final answer : Option (1)

27) (according to pollygon law)

28)

Conceptual

29)
 ⇒ θ = 90°

30)

R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cosθ

tan α = tan 90° =

P + 2Q cos θ = 0

cosθ =
From (1) & (2)

R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
R=Q

31) cos α = , cos β = ; cos γ =

32)

Explain Question:
Calculate the magnitudes of forces for a system in static equilibrium.

Concept:
Equilibrium of concurrent forces and

Solution:

Final answer: Option (3)

33) Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero because they are perpendicular.
 ∴ ⇒ 8α = –4 ⇒ α = –1/2

34)

35)

36)

Explain Question:
Find a unit vector that is perpendicular to two given vectors.

Concept:
Cross product and normalization for unit vectors

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (3)

37)

Correct answer is option (4)

38) R = 2a cos

R = 2P cos =P

39) is perpendicular to the plane of and i.e., .

40) = A2B2sin2θ + A2B2cos2θ

= A2B2

41)

Question Explanation : In this question, we are asked to find the dot product of
vectors and given their magnitudes and the magnitude of their cross product.
Concept : Cross product and dot product of two vectors
Solution : Given here

= 2 unit, = 5 unit and = 8 unit

By cross product

Final answer : Option (4)

42) Area of parallelogram =

and are diagonals.

43) Question Explanation :

If θ = sin t than find rate of charge of θ w. r. t. T at T = π/4

Concept :
differentiation

Solution :
As Q = 10 sin t

⇒ = 10 cos t
at t = π/4

⇒ = 10 cos π/4
=

Final Answer :
Option (3)

44) Calculation :

(i) θ = 90° R = 2F cos

(ii) θ = 120°

(iii) θ = 60°
Answer :
Magnitude of resultant force is maximum when θ = 60° so Answer will be option (3)
 45) Explain the Question : In this question, we need a vector whose magnitude is twice that
of and whose direction is same as .

Concept : This question is based on vector magnitude and unit vector.

Solution : For a given vector its unit vector is given by

⇒ Magnitude of

⇒ Direction of
unit vector along is

⇒
⇒ Required vector :

Final Answer : Option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Correct answer is option (2)

47)

16g of O2 and 14g of N2

48)

gram molar mass is the mass of one molecule

49)

Correct answer is option (4)

50)

Correct answer is option (3)

51)

52) M =

= = 15.4 M

53)

Vml = 100 ml

54)

C : O = 1.2 × 1010 : 14 × 1010

=1:2

55)

Correct answer is option (2)

56)

Question Explanation: Calculate neutrons per molecule and multiply by number of

molecules.

Concept:

· Number of moles = mass / molar mass

· Total particles = moles × NA

Solution:
Molar mass of CH₄ = 16 g mol⁻¹

Moles = 1.6 / 16 = 0.1 mol

Number of molecules = 0.1 NA

Neutrons per molecule = 6

Total neutrons = 0.1 × 6 NA = 0.6 NA

 Final Answer: Option (2)

57)

Correct answer is option (2)

58)

Correct answer is option (4)

59)

Correct answer is option (3)

60) 0.2 moles of glucose present in 1 mole solution

Moles of solvent = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8

Molality = = 13.89

61)

Explain the question: Identify the pair that is both isotopic (same element) and isoelectronic
(same electron count).

Concept: Isotopes (Same Z ) & Isoelectronic (Same ).

Solution:

A. Isotopes: Must be the same element. Options 2, 3, 4 satisfy this.

B. Isoelectronic: Since isotopes have the same atomic number (Z), they must have the same
charge to have the same number of electrons charge).
C. Check Option 2: Both are Potassium ions ( K+). Both have 18 electrons ( ). Matches.

Final Answer: Option .

62)

Explain the question: Find the region of highest electron density for a 3p orbital ( l=1 ).
Concept: Shape & Orientation of p-orbitals.
Solution:

A. Identify: The quantum number l=1 defines a p-orbital.

B. Geometry: Unlike d-orbitals which often lie between axes, p-orbitals are dumbbellshaped with
lobes oriented along a single axis ( x,y, or z ).
C. Conclusion: The electron is most likely found along that specific axis.

Final Answer: Option 3 (On any one axis out of the three at a time).

63)
 Explain the Question : Find atomic number of isodiapher nuclide with uranium-238
Concept : This question is based on isodiapher.
Solution :
is isodiapher with .

neutron (n) = A – P = 238 – 92 = 146

n – p = 146 – 92 = 54
Isodiapher means (n – p) remain same.
For
n – p = 54
n + p = 234
+ ___________
2n = 288
n = 144
n – p = 54
144 – p = 54
p = 144 – 54 = 90
Final answer : Option (1)

64) Explain Question:

Identify Representative Element.

Concept:
Representative Element.

Solution:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Final Answer: Option (2)

65)

concept : n = 1,2,3______
ℓ = 0 to n − 1 [Integer value]
mℓ = −ℓ to +ℓ including zero

(1) correct
(2) correct
(3) incorrect
for ℓ = 0 me = −2 not possible
(4) correct
Final Answer: Option (3)
66) Question Explanation: Choose correct statement for graph.
Concept : This question is based on Schrodinger wave equation.
Solution:

n–ℓ–1=2
For S ⇒ (ℓ = 0)
n–0–1=2

∴ 3s
The correct option is (3)

67) E = E1 + E2

= 759 nm

68)

Question Explanation: Find the relation between the wavelength (λ) of the absorbed photon
and the wavelengths (λ₁ and λ₂) of the two emitted photons, given that the total energy
remains the same.

Concept: Energy of Photon (Planck’s Quantum Theory)

Solution: Energy of a photon is given by: E = hc/lambda

Energy absorbed by the dye: Eabsorbed = hc/lambda

Energy emitted as two photons: Eemitted = hc/lambda1 + hc/lambda2

Since energy is conserved: hc/lambda = hc/lambda1 + hc/lambda2

Cancel (hc) from both sides: 1/lambda = 1/lambda1 + 1/lambda2

Taking LCM: 1/lambda = lambda1 + lambda2 /lambda1 lambda2

Hence, lambda = lambda1 lambda2 /lambda1 + lambda2
Final answer: Option (2)

69)

for H–atom

70) Explain the question : Calculate urea's mole fraction in a 0.5 molal aqueous solution.
Concept : This question is based on molality relates moles of solute to kg of solvent mass.
Solution : A 0.5 molal solution means 0.5 moles of urea are present in 1 kg (1000 g) of water.

nwater = = 55.55 mol

Xurea =

Xurea ≈
Final answer : 1

71)

Explantion: Uncertainties
Concept : Heisenberg uncertaintiy principle
Solution : Given data
ΔVA = o.s. & ΔVB = 0.2

mB = 5mA or

we know

Final Answer: 2

72)

Correct answer is option (2)

 73)

Question Explanation
Asked the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the given sets of quantum
numbers.

Concept
Quantum numbers and electron capacity

Solution
(a) n = 5, mℓ = +1

A. Possible ℓ values = 0 to 4

B. For each ℓ, orbital with mℓ = +1 exists (except ℓ = 0).

C. Total orbitals = 4, each holds 2 e⁻,so total 8 e⁻

(b) n = 2, ℓ = 1, mℓ = –1, ms = –1/2

A. Refers to one specific orbital and spin → only 1 e⁻ possible

Final Answer: Option (1)

74)

Explain Question : The problem asks for the formula to calculate the magnitude of the spin
angular momentum of an electron.
Concept : This question is based on spin angular momentum
Solution :

The magnitude of spin angular momentum is

S=

Final answer : Option(1)

75) Question Explanation:-

The question asks us to identify which of the given electron configurations does not follow
the Aufbau principle or the (n + ℓ) rule.

Concept:- Aufbau principle & rule

Solution:
 A. The (n + ℓ) rule:
For example, 4s (n = 4, ℓ = 0) has a smaller sum (4) compared to 3d (n = 3, ℓ = 2) which
has a sum of 5. So, 4s is filled before 3d.

B. The Aufbau principle is simply the filling of orbitals in order of increasing energy,
which follows the (n + ℓ) rule.

A. [Kr] 4d⁴ 5s¹:

A. This configuration suggests that 4d (n = 4, ℓ = 2) has 4 electrons and 5s (n = 5, ℓ

= 0) has 1 electron.

B. Thus it is not correct

2 [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹:

A. In this case, 4s (n = 4, ℓ = 0) is filled before 3d (n = 3, ℓ = 2), which do not

follows the (n + ℓ) rule and the Aufbau principle. This configuration is not correct.

3 [Kr] 4d¹⁰ 5s⁰:

A. Here, 5s is completely empty, and 4d has 10 electrons.

B. According to the (n + ℓ) rule, 5s should be filled before 4d. This configuration

violates the Aufbau principle because 5s should have at least one electron before
4d is filled.

Final Answer:- Option 4. All of these.

76)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

77)

Question Explanation: Each figure represents either a radial wavefunction or an orbital

shape. We match them with correct atomic orbitals.

Concept: Schrodinger wave equation and wave function

Solution:

(P) ψ(r) decreases smoothly with no node → 1s (Q) ψ²(r) shows one radial node → 2s (R) Dumbbell
shape along axis → 2p (S) Spherical with two radial nodes → 3s
 Correct match - (P) D, (Q) B, (R) C, (S) A

Final Answer: Option (1)

78) Question Explanation : We are asked which electromagnetic wave among the given
options has maximum frequency

Concept : Electromagnetic spectrum.

Solution :

A. Radio waves → lowest frequency.

B. Infrared (IR) → higher than radio, but lower than visible.
C. Green light → visible spectrum, frequency around 5.5 × 1014 Hz.
D. Ultraviolet (UV) → higher frequency than visible light, around 7.5 × 1014 Hz and above.

Thus, UV waves have the maximum frequency.

Final Answer : Option (1)

79) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about general electronic configuration of p-block elements.

Concept :
This question is based on electron configuration.

Solution :
ns(n–2)f (n-1)d np
n = 6, 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
[Xe]6s24f145d106p1–6

Final Answer :
Option (1)

80) Explanation the Question :

We are asked to find the minimum molecular weight of peroxidase containing 5% sulphur
using the minimum molecular formula method.
Concept :

This question is based on % of element =

For minimum molecular mass, n = 1
Solution :
Let minimum molecular weight = M

% of element =
5 = (1 × 32 ÷ M) × 100
M = 32 × 100 ÷ 5 = 640 g/mol
Final Answer : 2

81)
Question Explanation: You are given the mass and velocity of a particle and asked to
calculate its de-Broglie wavelength.
Concept:
de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by: λ = h / (m v)

Solution:
Given:
m = 1 g = 10⁻³ kg
v = 100 m s⁻¹
h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s

λ = h / (m v)
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / (10⁻³ × 100)
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / 10⁻¹
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³³ m
Final Answer: Option 1

82)

Question Explanation: Use relation between ionization energy and energy of nth orbit.

Concept: Eₙ = − (Ionization energy) / n²

Solution:

Given:
Ionization energy = 960 eV
Eₙ = −60 eV

So,
−60 = −960 / n²

⇒ 60 = 960 / n²
⇒ n² = 960 / 60 = 16
⇒n=4

Final Answer: Option (2)

83)

Correct answer is option (1)

84)

Correct answer is option (3)

85)

Correct answer is option (1)

 86)

Correct answer is option (3)

87) m =

m= = 2.152 m

88)

Correct answer is option (1)

89)

Correct answer is option (1)

90)

0.6 litre CO2 and 0.8 litre CO

BIOLOGY

91)

92) Explanation : You're being asked to identify the specific structure that Is located on the
centromere of a chromosome Serves as the attachment site for spindle fibres during cell
division
Concept : Chromosome and Spindle Apparatus
Solution : Kinetochore - Disc-shaped protein structure on centromere; binds spindle fibers
Final Answer : Kinetochore

93) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Plasma membrane: This structure consists mainly of a lipid bilayer with proteins embedded in
it, but it does not contain tubulin proteins.
B. Cilia: These are hair-like structures on the surface of cells that are composed of microtubules,
specifically a "9+2" arrangement of microtubules (nine doublet microtubules surrounding two
central microtubules).
C. Flagella: Similar to cilia, flagella also contain microtubules arranged in a "9+2" pattern and
are responsible for the movement of certain cells.
D. Microtubules: These are cylindrical structures composed of tubulin protein dimers (alpha and
beta tubulin) and are part of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells.

Therefore, tubulin protein is not present in the plasma membrane, making

1. Plasma membrane the correct [Link]:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

94) Question Explanation: Identifying the discoverer of the nucleus.

Concept: Discovery of the Nucleus
Solution: The cell nucleus was first described by Scottish botanist Robert Brown in 1831.
He observed a prominent, opaque structure within the cells of orchids and other plants and
named it the nucleus, a term derived from the Latin word for a kernel.
Final Answer: Robert Brown, 1831

95) NCERT page 133

96) NCERT XI Pg # 93

97)

Explain Question: Question asking about function of nucleolus

Concept: This question is based on Nucleolus.

Solution:

Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

Final answer: 3

98)

NCERT XI page no.# 139, 8.5.10

99) NCERT, Page No. # 137

100)

NCERT Pg. # 140

101)

102)

NCERT page no. 139

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. #139

 104)

Explain Question : Actively protein synthesizing cells have.

Concept : This question is based on nucleus.
Explanation : Nucleolus = site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly.
Cells with high protein synthesis activity (e.g., plasma cells, pancreatic acinar cells,
meristematic plant cells) need large numbers of ribosomes, hence they have large and multiple
nucleoli.
Final answer : 4

105) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 139, para-8.5.10

106)

Explain Question : Nucleus is absent in.

Concept : This question is based on nucleus.
Explanation : Nucleus is the control center of the cell, present in most eukaryotic cells.
Mature RBCs (mammalian) → lose nucleus to provide more space for hemoglobin and enhance
oxygen transport.
Mature sieve tube elements (phloem) → also lose nucleus to allow easy flow of food
(translocation). Their functions are supported by companion cells (which are nucleated).
Not all mature cells lose their nucleus.
Final answer : 3

107)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the cell organelle responsible for the formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids, which are essential for cell membrane structure and function.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting and packaging proteins and lipids.
B. It adds carbohydrate groups to proteins (forming glycoproteins) and lipids (forming
glycolipids).
C. These molecules are important for cell recognition, signaling and membrane structure.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

108) NCERT (XI) Pg. No. 126

109)

110) NCERT-XI; Page No. # 167

111) Solution : Crossing over occurs in pachytene.
Final Answer : (2)

112) Solution : G1 → S → G2 → M
Final Answer : (1)

113)

Both (1) and (2)

114) NCERT, Pg. # 127,128

115) NCERT Pg # 169

116) NCERT XI Pg.# 169

117) NCERT Pg. # 165

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 163

119)

NCERT Pg. # 168

120)

NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.3

121) NCERT XI Page No. 170

122) NCERT Pg. # 164

123) NCERT Page No-168

124) NCERT Pg. # 121

125)

Question Explanation: Identify the mode of cytokinesis in animal and plant cells.
Concept: Cytokinesis

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. Animal cells: Cytokinesis occurs by cleavage furrow formation, where the cell membrane
pinches inward.

B. Plant cells: Cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation, where a new cell wall forms
between the daughter cells due to the rigid cell wall.

Final Answer: Option 2

126) Correct Answer (3)

127) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Prophase-I: Prophase of the first meiotic division is typically longer and more complex when
compared to prophase of mitosis. It has been further subdivided into the following five phases
based on chromosomal behaviour, i.e., Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and
Diakinesis.
The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and
the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from
each other except at the sites of crossovers. These X-shaped structures, are called chiasmata.
In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
So correct answer will be deplotene of prophase-I.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

128) Solution/Explanation:Telophase At the beginning of the final stage of karyokinesis, i.e.,

telophase, the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose
their individuality. The individual chromosomes can no longer be seen and each set of
chromatin material tends to collect at each of the two poles (Figure 10.2 d). This is the stage
which shows the following key events Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their
identity is lost as discrete elements. Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome
clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei. Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.

129) NCERT Page No. # 164

130)

Question Explanation: Identification of a cell division stage from a diagram.

Concept: Meiosis, Prophase I.

Solution: The diagram shows homologous chromosomes paired up and undergoing crossing
over. This pairing, known as synapsis, and the subsequent exchange of genetic material are
key events that occur during Prophase I of meiosis, making the diagram representative of this
specific stage.
Final Answer: Prophase-I

131)

Explain Question : You are asked to identify the shortest phase of mitosis, the process of
cell division.

Concept : This question is based on Cell Cycle and division : Mitosis

Solution : Anaphase is the shortest phase where sister chromatids are rapidly pulled to
opposite poles by spindle fibers.

Final Answer : option (3) Anaphase

132)

Question Explanation
The question is asking for the number of chromosomes present during anaphase if a diploid
cell has 24 chromosomes.

Concept
anaphase

Solution
In anaphase of mitosis, the centromeres split and sister chromatids separate. Each chromatid
is now considered an independent chromosome. Therefore, the chromosome number
temporarily becomes double the diploid number.

Final answer: Option 3

133)

Correct answer is option (4)

134) NCERT Pg. # 165

135) NCERT pg: 124

136)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect characteristic of the
animal shown, a hemichordate.
Concept: Hemichordata - Open circulation
Solution: The correct answer is option 3. The circulatory system of hemichordates is an
open type, where blood flows through sinuses, not a closed type confined to blood vessels.
Final Answer: 3
 137)

NCERT Pg. No. 48

138) Question Explanation:

This question is asking about identifying the animal group in which epidermal scales are a
characteristic feature.

Concept:
Animal Kingdom – Reptilia

Explanation:
Reptiles possess dry, cornified skin with epidermal scales, which help prevent water loss.
Amphibians have moist skin, mammals have hair, and echinoderms have endoskeletal ossicles.

Final Answer: Option 1

139)

The correct answer is option [Link].

A. Echinoderms, such as starfish and sea urchins, exhibit radial symmetry as adults and bilateral
symmetry during their larval stages.
B. They also possess a coelom (a body cavity), which is characteristic of the phylum.

140) NCERT-XI, Pg#56, 57

141)

Identify the phylum whose members have an unsegmented body with a distinct
Explain Question:
head, muscular foot, and visceral hump.
Concept: Phylum- Mollusca
Organisms of phylum Mollusca have a soft, unsegmented body divided into
three main parts — head, muscular foot (for movement), and visceral hump
(containing internal organs). These features are characteristic of molluscs like
Solution: Pila and Unio.
These body features — head, foot, and visceral hump — are found only in
Mollusca.

Final answer: 1

142)

Question explanation: The question asks to identify the animal in which the proboscis gland
functions as the excretory organ.
 Concept: phylum Hemichordata

Solution: The proboscis gland is characteristic of Balanoglossus and functions as its excretory
organ.

Final answer: Option – 1 → Balanoglossus

143)

Explain Question: Identify the second largest animal phylum after Arthropoda.
•
Concept:
Phylum : Mollusca
After Arthropoda, Mollusca is the second largest phylum in the animal
Solution:
kingdom.
Final answer: Option: 3

144) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 56

145) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 57

146) Question Explanation: Identifying the phylum with distinct sexes.

Concept: Sexual Dimorphism.
Solution: Sexual dimorphism (distinguishable male and female individuals) is clearly observed
in Phylum Aschelminthes (Nematodes/Roundworms), where females are typically longer than
the males (e.g., in Ascaris). Platyhelminthes, Porifera, and Ctenophora are generally
hermaphroditic (bisexual) or lack clear external sexual differences.

Final Answer: Aschelminthes

147) Explain Question: Identify the feature unique to mammals.

Concept: Mammalia
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. The presence of mammary glands – Correct. Mammary glands are unique to mammals for
feeding their young.
B. Bipedal locomotion – [Link] humans are bipedal; not all mammals.
C. Completely four-chambered heart – Incorrect. Some other animals like birds also have a four-
chambered heart.
D. Fertilisation is internal – Incorrect. Many other animals (reptiles, birds) also show internal
fertilization.

Final answer: 3

148)

Question Explanation : It asks the taxonomic class of Salamandra (salamander).

Concept : This question is based on Amphibia
Solution : Salamandra is an amphibian (tailed amphibian, order Urodela).
Final answer : 2

149) NCERT(XI) Pg # 58

150) NCERT Pg.# 58

151) NCERT Pg.# 58

152) NCERT XIth Pg.#58

153) NCERT XIth Pg.#58

154) Question Explanation: Identifying a non-poisonous snake.

Concept: Snake classification.
Solution: Vipera, Naja (Cobra), and Bangarus (Krait) are poisonous snakes. Python is a non-
poisonous constrictor snake.
Final Answer: 4

155) NCERT Pg. # 60

156) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 59

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 58

158) NCERT-XI, Page No. 58, (AD-41) Birds

159) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 600

160) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 58, Ist para

161)

Question Explanation: Identifying the animal by its genus.

Concept: Binomial Nomenclature

Solution: The scientific name of an organism consists of a genus and a species.

The genus Psittacula belongs to a group of birds commonly known as parrots.

Final Answer: Option (2)

162)

Question Explanation: This question asks which group of animals were the first successful
vertebrates to live on land.

Concept: The question is based on reptilia.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Reptiles were the first successful terrestrial vertebrates because they evolved
adaptations like dry, scaly skin and cleidoic (shelled) eggs, which prevented desiccation
and allowed them to live and reproduce entirely on land.

Final Answer: Option (3)

163)

Question Explanation: Naming the Indian national bird.

Concept: Binomial Nomenclature.

Solution: Binomial nomenclature is a system of naming organisms with two parts: the genus
and the species.
The correct scientific name for the Indian peacock is Pavo cristatus.

Final Answer: Option (2)

164) Question Explanation: Identify the key characteristics of amphibians.

Concept: Amphibia
Solution: The correct answer is scaleless, smooth, moist and glandular skin. These features
help them in cutaneous respiration and are a defining characteristic of amphibians.
Final Answer: 3

165)

Question Explanation: Count the correct statements about Reptilia

Concept: Reptilia characteristics

Solution: Statements (i) epidermal scales, (ii) internal fertilization, oviparous, and (iv)
poikilothermous are correct for Reptilia.
Statement (iii) lungs with air sacs is a feature of Aves, not Reptilia.

Final Answer: Option-3

166)
 In amphibia, respiration occurs through gills, lungs and skins. With the exception of a few
frog species that lay eggs on land, all amphibians begin life as completely aquatic larvae.
Respiratory gas exchange is conducted through thin, gas-permeable skin and the gills. As
amphibian larvae develop, the gills (and in frogs, the tail fin) degenerate, paired lungs develop,
and the metamorphosing larvae begin making excursions to the water surface to take air
breaths.

167) Skin in Aves is dry and without glands, except oil gland and spleen gland at base of tail
for lubrication of feathers. Air sacs in Aves help in respiration and excretory function in Aves is
mediated by kidneys. Heart is completely four chambered in birds.

168) NCERT-XI Pg. # 61

169) 4. Cyclostomata
Cyclostomata is the class that includes all living jawless fishes, which are ectoparasites on
fishes. They attach themselves to the bodies of fish and feed on their blood and tissues.

170) 1. Petromyzon (Lamprey)

Lampreys exhibit a unique life cycle where they spend most of their lives in marine
environments. However, during their breeding season, they migrate to freshwater streams and
rivers to spawn. After spawning, both male and female lampreys die within a few days. Their
larvae, known as ammocoetes, hatch in freshwater and live there for several years before
undergoing metamorphosis and migrating back to the sea.

171)

Lampreys and hagfishes are both jawless fishes belonging to the class Agnatha in the phylum
Chordata. They are characterized by the absence of true jaws, and instead, they have circular,
sucker-like mouths.

A. Lampreys: They have a round mouth that functions like a sucker, and they are parasitic in
many cases.
B. Hagfishes: They are also jawless and have a similar mouth structure, used for scavenging.

172) NCERT Page No. 56

173)

Explain Question : It asks to identify which animal does not belong to Osteichthyes (bony
fishes).
Concept : This question is based on Pisces classification
Solution : The correct answer is option 4. Carcharodon (the great white shark) belongs to the
class Chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish), whereas the other options are all bony fishes
(Osteichthyes).
Final answer : 4
174) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 47

175) NCERT XI Pg. # 53

176) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

177) Question Explanation: Name of the rasping organ found in the buccal cavity of some
molluscs.
Concept: Phylum : Mollusca
Solution:
The radula is a toothed, chitinous ribbon used for rasping and scraping food particles before
ingestion
Final Answer: Option (1)

178) NCERT Pg. # 54 Para 4.2.9

179)

Ncert Page 54.

180)

Solution/Explanation:

The phylum that exhibits absence of excretory organs, great power of regeneration, and
exclusively marine animals is Echinodermata.