24-05-2026

5401CMD303001260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) What happens, when we multiply a vector by 2 ?

(1) direction reverses and unit changes

(2) direction remains same and magnitude is doubled
(3) direction remains unchanged and unit changes
(4) none of these

2) The unit vector along is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If a unit vector is represented by , then the value of 'c' is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors and is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If and . Find a vector which is parallel to but has magnitude three

times that of .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) Five forces 2N, , 5N, and 2N respectively act at a particle P as shown in the figure.

The resultant force on the particle P is.

(1) 10 N making angle 60° with x-axis

(2) 10 N making angle 60° with y-axis
(3) 20 N along y-axis
(4) None of these

7) The angle that the vector makes with x-axis is :

(1) tan–1 (3/2)

(2) tan–1 (2/3)
(3) sin–1 (2/3)
(4) cos–1 (3/2)

8) The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If vectors and are such that , then may be equated to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) If is a unit vector along x-axis and , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) If 3 sinθ + 4 cosθ = A sin(θ + α), then values of A and α are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12)

The maximum value of y = sin(x) cos(x) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Vector sum of two forces of 10N and 6N cannot be :

(1) 4N
(2) 8N
(3) 12N
(4) 2N

14) The unit vector along a vector is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Vectors and are shown in figure, Then diagram of is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

16) If vectors and are equal vectors, then the value of a is ?

(1) –5
(2) 2
(3) –3
(4) 4

17) If and then =

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) If vectors and have an angle θ between, them, then value of will be :-

2 cos
(1)

(2)
2 tan
(3)
2 sin
(4) None of these

19) If and the magnitudes of , and are 5, 4 and 3 units, then the angle between
and is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) 50 coplanar forces each equal to 20N act on a body. Each force makes angle with the
preceding force. What is the resultant of the forces ?

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

21) Four vectors and are represented as shown in figure. Which of the following is

true?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) A vector is represented by Its length in XY plane is :-

(1) 2
(2)
(3)
(4)
23) For the given vector triangle find the angle between and :-

(1) 150°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°

24) If a unit vector is represented by , then the value of ‘c’ is :-

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Resultant of two opposite vectors is :-

(1) Null vector

(2) Unit vector
(3) Polar vector
(4) Axial vector

26) Select correct option.

(1) Angle between and is 120°

(2) Angle between and is 60°
(3) Angle between and is 120°
(4) Angle between and is 120°.

27) (sin 120°) = ............

(1) cos 120°

(2) 120 cos 120°
(3) 0
(4) None of these

28) The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is

(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 3/5

29) If y = then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Find the sum of a series 1 + + + + ......∞

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)

If tan θ = then value of θ are :-

(1) 30°, 150°

(2) 60°, 120°
(3) 150°, 210°
(4) 150°, 330°

32) Find the value of sin(–30° ) + cos (–30°) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33)

Value of cos(106°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34)

Which of following is possible :-

(1) sin θ >1

(2) sin θ ≥ –1
(3) tan θ > ∞
(4) None

35) If y = sin2x + cos2x, then is :-

(1) 2sin x + 2cos x

(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2sin x – 2cos x

36)

Value of cos(106°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Using small angle approximation find value of (tan 3°)(cos 4°) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) is equal to -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

39) The resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) cos equals to

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

41) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) sin (2θ) = 2 sin θ. cos θ

(2) cos (2θ) = cos2 θ – sin2θ

(3)
sin (θ) = 2 sin
(4) All of the above
42) Equation for y-x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The equation of straight line shown in figure is :

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

44)

When x changes from 0 to then the area bounded by the curve y = sinx and the x-axis will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2

(4)

45) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

CHEMISTRY
1) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched :

(1) Isotopes ,
(2) Isotones

(3) Isobars

(4) Isoelectronic

2)

Choose the false statement about deuterium :-

(1) It is an isotope of hydrogen

(2) It contains [(1 e) + (1 p) + (1 n)]
(3) It contains only [(1 p) + (1 n)]
(4) D2O is called as heavy water

3)

Atoms and are related to each other as:-

(1) Isotones
(2) Isoelectronic
(3) Isodiaphers
(4) Isosters

4)

In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled & the mass attributed to protons were halved,
the atomic mass would become approximately :-

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

5) Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom ?

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –2, s = –1/2

(2) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = –1/2
(3) n = 5, ℓ = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –3, s = –1/2

6) Angular momentum in second Bohr orbit of H-atom is x. Then find out angular momentum in Ist
excited state of Li+2 ion :

(1) 3x
(2) 9x

(3)

(4) x

7)

Multiplication of electron velocity and radius for a orbit in an atom is :-

(1) Proportional to mass of electron

(2) Proportional to square of mass of electron
(3) Inversely proportional to mass of electron
(4) Does not depend upon mass of electron

8) According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give
rise to the least energetic photon ?

(1) n = 5 to n = 3
(2) n = 6 to n = 1
(3) n = 5 to n = 4
(4) n = 6 to n = 5

9)

The radius of a shell for H-atom is 4.761A°. The value of n is :-

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 5
(4) 4

10) In Bohr's atomic model radius of Ist orbit of Hydrogen is 0.053 nm then radius of 3rd orbit of Li+2 is
:

(1) 0.159 nm
(2) 0.053 nm
(3) 0.023 nm
(4) 0.026 nm

11) Hydrogen atoms are excited to n = 4 state. In the spectrum of emitted radiation, number of lines
in the ultravoilet and visible regions are respectively :-

(1) 3, 1
(2) 1, 3
(3) 2, 3
(4) 3, 2
12) If uncertainties in the measurement of position and momentum are equal, uncertainty in the
measurement of velocity.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

13) Find out the number of waves made by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its fourth
orbit.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

14) The ionization energy of hydrgen atom is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of Li2+ would be :-

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 122.4 eV

15) A photon having wavelength 700 nm has energy :-

(1) 1.77 eV
(2) 2.47 eV
(3) 700 eV
(4) 3.57 eV

16) Which of the following statement (regarding an atom of H) is correct -

(1) Kinetic energy of the electron is maximum in the first orbit

(2) Potential energy of the electron is maximum in the first orbit
(3) Radius of the second orbit is two times the radius of the first orbit
(4) Various energy levels are equally spaced

17) If the value of principal quantum number is 4, the possible values for magnetic quantum number
will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 9

18) The I.P. of an atom is 16 eV. What is the value of first excitation potential :–

(1) 10·2 eV
(2) 12 eV
(3) 14 eV
(4) 16 eV

19) An atom has 35 nucleons and has atomic number equal to 17. The number of electrons with n =
2, m = 0 in it is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

20) The maximum number of electrons in p-orbital with n = 6, m = 0 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 14

21)

The orbital with maximum energy is :-

(1) 3d
(2) 5p
(3) 4s
(4) 6d

22)

An electron is in one of 4d orbital. Which of the following orbital quantum number value is not
possible :-

(1) n = 4
(2) ℓ = 1
(3) m = 1
(4) m = 2

23) A subshell n = 5, l = 3 can accommodate

(1) 10 electrons
(2) 14 electrons
(3) 18 electrons
(4) 6 electrons

24)

Number of orbitals in h sub-shell is

(1) 11
(2) 15
(3) 17
(4) 19

25)

What is the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and 50
volts :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3

26)

If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 4Å, the circumference of
the orbit will be :-

(1) 4Å
(2) 4 nm
(3) 16 Å
(4) 16 nm

27)

If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, the no. of spectral lines emitted is equal to :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

28) The figure indicates the energy level diagram for the origin of six spectral lines in emission
spectrum(e.g. line no. 5 arises from the transition from level B to X) which of the following spectral

lines will not occur in the absorption spectrum :–

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 3, 2
(3) 4, 5, 6
(4) 3, 2, 1

29) The spectrum of He is expected to be similar to that of :-

(1) H
(2) Na
(3) He+
(4) Li+

30) Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :-

(1) Principal quantum number

(2) Magnetic quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number
(4) Spin quantum number

31) For Li+2 ion, r2 : r5 will be :-

(1) 9 : 25
(2) 4 : 25
(3) 25 : 4
(4) 25 : 9

32) If the radius of 3rd Bohr's orbit of H is x, then radius of 4th orbit of Li2+ ion would be :-

(1)
x

(2)
x

(3)

(4) None of these

33) Which of the following order of energies of subshell is correct :-

(1) 2s < 3s < 3p < 2p

(2) 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p
(3) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
(4) 3s < 3d < 3p < 4s

34) Which one is a wrong statement?

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.
 An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated
(2)
by four quantum numbers.
The electronic configuration of N atom is
(3)

(4) The value of m for dz is zero.

2

35) The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

36) What is the total number of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number n = 3 ?

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 6

37) Third line of Balmer series is produced by which transition in spectrum of H-atom

(1) n = 5 to n = 2
(2) n = 5 to n = 1
(3) n = 4 to n = 2
(4) n = 4 to n = 1

38) In spectral series of hydrogen. The series which does not come in infrared region is :-

(1) P fund
(2) Brackett
(3) Paschen
(4) Lyman

39) Electronic configuration has violated :-

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Pauli's principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) (n + ℓ) rule

40) Find the radius of nucleus of an atom having mass number equal to 125. (R0 = 1.3 × 10–15 m)

(1) 6.5 × 10–15 m

(2) 2 × 10–2 m
(3) 3 × 10–8 m
(4) 6 × 10–3 m

41) In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, the number of electrons with m = 0; s = are

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 13

42)

Going from K–shell to N–shell in case of H– atom :-

(1) Kinetic energy decreases

(2) Total energy decreases
(3) Potential energy decreases
(4) None of these

43) is isodiapher with . The value of Z is.

(1) 90
(2) 88
(3) 92
(4) 86

44) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

45) If proton, electron and α-particle are moving with same kinetic energy then the order of their de-
Broglie's wavelength is

(1) λp > λe > λα

(2) λα > λp > λe
(3) λα < λp < λe
(4) λe = λp < λα

BIOLOGY
1) Which of the following is/are double membrane bound ?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) All the above

2) Cisternae are found in :

(1) Only mitochondria

(2) Only endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgibodies
(4) Only in golgi bodies

3) Give below are two statements

Statement-I: Membrane-bound organelles of the endomembrane system coordinate cellular
functions.
Statement-II: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered a part of the endomembrane
system.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

4) Cilia and flagella have:-

(1) Dissimilar internal structure and are of unequal size

(2) Similar internal structure & are of equal size
(3) Similar internal structure and are of dissimilar size
(4) Dissimilar internal structure and are of similar size

5) Mesosomes are formed by

(1) Infoldings of cell wall into the cell

(2) Infoldings of cell membrane into the cell
(3) Infolding of capsule into the cell
(4) Attachment of several ribosomes to single mRNA

6) Which one of the following is not considered as part of the endomembrane system?

(1) Golgi complex

(2) Peroxisome
(3) Vacuole
(4) Lysosome

7) Which of the following will determines the shape of the cells and provides a strong structural
support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing?

(1) Plasmids
(2) Cell wall
(3) Mesosome
(4) Cell membrane

8) Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in

(1) Cilia
(2) Flagella
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Centriole

9) Plastids storing fat are called

(1) Elaioplasts
(2) Sphaerosomes
(3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Pyrenoids

10)

Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a
eukaryotic cell?

(1) Mitochondrion
(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

11) Why the hydrophobic tails of phospholipid molecules are towards inner side of the cell
membrane.

(1) protect the tails from the aqueous environment

(2) to form strong bonds
(3) to make the cell membrane a compact structure
(4) to protect the head of phospholipid molecule from water

12) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Anything less then a complete structure of all cells does not ensure independent living
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell
(3) Robert Brown discovered cell
(4) Cell is the basic structur and functional unit of all organisms

13) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which
helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called :

(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Plasmalcmma
(3) Cytoskelcton
(4) Thylakoid

14) What is common for plasmids and mesosomes?

(1) Both of these are made of nucleotides

(2) Both of these are concerned with molecular respiration
(3) Both of these are found in prokaryotes
(4) Both of these are found in eukaryotes

15) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) It has 80 'S' type of ribosome present in the mitochondria

(2) It has 80 'S' type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present

16) Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell ?

(1) Protein synthesis

(2) Motility
(3) Transpiration
(4) Chromosome formation

17) Who reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the plasma membrane :-

(1) Robert brown

(2) Rudolf virchow
(3) Matthias schleiden
(4) Theodore schwann

18) Aerobic respiration is performed by :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

19) Plastids which store fats and oils are called:-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Amyloplast
(3) Chromoplast
(4) Elaioplastes

20) A flat membranous tubule which connect two granum in the stroma called.

(1) Stroma protein

(2) Stroma membrane
(3) Stroma lamellae
(4) Intra-granal thylakoid

21) Inner mitochondrial membrane forms infoldings called :-

(1) Thylakoid
(2) Cisternae
(3) Tubules
(4) Cristae

22) Which of the following are living structures but lack nucleus ?

(1) Erythrocytes of many mammals

(2) Sieve tube cells of vascular plants
(3) Companion cells of vascular plants
(4) (1) and (2) both

23) The part of chromosome beyond the secondary constriction is known as :-

(1) Primary constriction

(2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

24) Each chromosome essentially has :-

(1) Secondary constriction

(2) Two equal arm
(3) Primary constriction
(4) Satellite

25) Which part of chromatin fibre is transcriptionally more active part :-

(1) Heterochromatin
(2) Euchromatin
(3) Both of them
(4) Nucleolus
26) Some of the features regarding a cell organelle are given below:
– Core is called axoneme and possesses a number of microtubules
– Arise from centriole like basal body
These features are true for

(1) Pili
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella
(4) Microfilament

27) Ribosomes are found in/on all of the given, except–

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Lysosome

28) Which of the following is false for nucleolous / Nucleoli ?

(1) not membrane bounded structure

(2) site for active r-RNA synthesis
(3) Nucleoli are spherical structures present in nucleoplasm
(4) Larger nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out lipid synthesis

29) Which of the following cell organelles is bounded by a single membrane?

(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Mitochondria
(3) ER
(4) Nucleus

30)

Suicidal bags of cells are:-

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosomes
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Vacuoles

31) Identify A, B, C respectively

(1) Central sheath, Inter doublet bridge, Plasma membrane
(2) Inter doublet bridge, Central sheath, Radial spoke
(3) Central sheath, Inter doublet bridge, Radial spoke
(4) Central sheath, Inter doublet bridge, Central micro tubule

32) In plant cells how much volume of cell can be occupied by vacuole ?

(1) 10%
(2) 50%
(3) 90%
(4) 80%

33) Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one of the following features. Select the right
answer.

(1) The presence of two layers of membrane

(2) The presence of two layers of membrane
(3) The presence of thylakoids
(4) The presence of DNA

34) Which of the following is membraneless ?

(1) Ribosome
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Centriole
(4) All of these

35) Which statement is correct?

(1) Chromoplast water soluble pigments are present.

(2) Elaioplast stores starch.
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are arranged on thylakoids
(4) Chloroplast outer membrane in less permeable.

36) Double stranded, circular, naked GC rich DNA found in :-

(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Prokaryotes
(4) (1) and (3) Both

37) Cell is the structural and functional unit of life in :

(1) Bacteria
(2) Plants
(3) Animals
(4) All of the above

38) The inner compartment of mitochondria is filled with homogenous substance called as;

(1) Matrix
(2) Stroma
(3) Cytosol
(4) Lumen

39) Which of the following does not occur in mitochondria?

(1) Aerobic respiration

(2) Protein synthesis
(3) ATP synthesis
(4) Photophosphorylation

40) NOR is the region where the Nucleolus is attached to the

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Chromosomes
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Nuclear membrane

41) Which of the following cell doesn't contain a cell wall?

(1) Plant cell

(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Animal cell

42) The ribosomes of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and plastids are respectively:

(1) 80S, 70S and 70S

(2) 70S, 70S and 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S

43) Which of the following statements is not correct for the vacuoles ?
(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in excretion
(2) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into the cytoplasm
(3) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles
(4) Sap vacuole is bound by a single membrane

44) Which of the following statements are not correct ?

(A) Microbodies are present in both plant and animal cells.
(B) All chromosomes have a staining secondary constriction at constant location.
(C) Each centriole has an organisation like cartwheel in longitudinal section.
(D) Matrix of mitochondria contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrate only.

(1) A only
(2) B and C
(3) B,C and D
(4) A, B, C, & D

45) The protein network that line the inner side of nuclear membrane is called :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Nuclear matrix
(3) Nuclear lamina
(4) Both (1) & (2)

46) Which of the following is not true for squamous epithelium ?

(1) Squamus epithelium is made up of only multiple layers of cell

(2) Cells are flattened with irregular boundaries
(3) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and airsacs of lungs
(4) They form a diffusion boundary

47) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) are given below which represent four different types of animal
tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given along with its correct location

and function ?

Tissue Location Function

 Simple
Diffusion
(1) (A) squamous Trachea
Boundary
epithelium

Unicellular Alimentary
(2) (B) Secretion
gland canal

(3) (C) Bone In larynx Support

Compound
(4) (D) Skin Protection
epithelium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) The connective tissue which mainly consists of yellow elastic fibres binds the bones together is
known as

(1) Ligament
(2) Tendon
(3) Recticular fibres
(4) none of these

49) Demosomes are concerned with -

(1) cell division

(2) cellular excretion
(3) cytolysis
(4) cell adherence

50) Most abundant connective tissue is -

(1) Adipose
(2) Areolar
(3) Ligament
(4) Tendon

51) Microvilli are -

(1) Group of tissues

(2) Group of cells
(3) Group of cell inclusions
(4) Finger like processes of plasma membrane

52) The cell of connective tissue which help on bringing about the formation of fibres and helping in
the repair of damaged tissues are -
(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Histiocytes
(3) Mechanocytes
(4) Lymphoidal cells

53)

Which is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body ?

(1) White fibrous connective tissue

(2) Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(3) Fluid connective tissue
(4) Bones

54) Which epithelium consist of cells having nucleus towards base?

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) 1 and 3 both

55) In frog during aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Gills
(4) Buccal cavity

56) Ciliated epithelium is present in -

(1) Blood vessels

(2) Air sacs of lungs
(3) Stomach
(4) Bronchioles

57) How many statements are correct in given below :

(1) Simple epithelium is composed of multilayer of cells.
(2) Ciliated epithelium are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs.
(3) Columnar epithelium cells nuclei located at the base.
(4) Tight junctions help to leaking substances across the tissue.

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

58) In all connective tissue except ___A___ the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar Tissue
(4) Cartilage

59) How many of the following statements are related to bone ?

(A) It is specialised connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in Ca+2 salts
(B) It is the main tissue that provide structural frame to the body.
(C) It support and protects softer tissues and organs.
(D) The bone cells, osteocyte are present in the spaces called lacunae
(E) They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

60) The type of epithelium which forms the endothelium as well as lines the walls of alveoli is

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

61) Select the correct statement about the given diagram

(1) In B-collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres
(2) In A-fibroblast and many fibres are oriented differently
(3) Example of A is Tendon
(4) B is an example of specialised C.T.
62) Find out the correct match for labelling shown in the figure

(1) A-Gall bladder - Secretion of bile

(2) B-Liver - secretion of bile.
(3) D - Kidneys-Ducts from it opens in urinary bladder.
(4) D-Kidneys - posses uriniferous tubules

63) Statement-I :- In frog internal fertilization takes place.

Statement-II :- frog is an amphibian

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

64) Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes
given:

Column I Column II

A. Vocal Sac P Sexual dimorphism

In hibernation, frog
B. Q Present on 1st digit of hind limbs
respires

C. Renal portal system R Through skin

D. Bidder's canal S. Through lungs

T. Through buccal cavity

U. Joins kidneys and lower parts of body

W. Join liver and Intestine

X. Receives sperm from vasa efferentia

Codes:

A B C D

1. P R X W
 2. P R U X

3. R P T X

4. Q S T W

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Which of the following is correct for circulatory system of heart of frog ?

(1) 3-chambered heart, open circulation, sinus-venosus

(2) 3-chambered heart, close-circulation, 2-ventricles
(3) 3-chambered heart, open-circulation, 2-Atria
(4) 3-chambered heart, close-circulation, sinus-venosus

66) Which of the following is incorrect about frog ?

(1) Cold blooded

(2) Vocal-sac in male
(3) Bidders canal in female
(4) Cutaneous respiration

67) Assertion (A) :- Brush-border simple cuboidal epithelium present in P.C.T. of nephron
Reason (R) :- Maximum reabsorption is done in P.C.T. nephron.

(1) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is false.

68) Which of the following is related with Adhering junctions?

(1) Allow leakage of substances

(2) Prevent leakage of substances
(3) Perform cementing
(4) Rapid transfer of ions

69) Which of the following is an exocrine gland ?

(1) Mammary gland

(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Pituitary gland
70) Maximum amount of matrix is produced by :-

(1) Mast cells

(2) Fibroblast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) Lymphocytes

71) Which of the following tissue serve as support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Adipose connective-tissue

(2) Areolar connective-tissue
(3) Skeletal connective-tissue
(4) Fluid connective-tissue

72) Dense connective tissue is :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Ligament
(4) Areolar tissue

73) Ground substance of connective tissue accumulate between cells is formed by :-

(1) Collagen protein

(2) Elastin protein
(3) Hyaluronic acid (modified polysaccharide)
(4) Keratin protein

74) Which is correct about areolar connective tissue ?

(1) Cells and fibres are loosely arranged.

(2) Act as support frame work for epithelium
(3) It is present beneath skin.
(4) All of the above

75) Which of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Ligaments

76) Which of the following is incorrect about bone ?

(1) Hard and non-pliable ground substance

(2) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) Present in the tip of nose
(4) Osteocyte ae present in lacunae

77) Assertion : Main functions of simple cuboidal epithelium are secretion and absorption.
Reason : The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles in a specific direction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) incorrect
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

78) Which of the following is correct statement?

A. Tight junctions help to allow substances from leaking.
B. Main function of compound epithelium is protection against chemical and mechanical stress.
C. Exocrine glands do not have duct and release mucus.
D. Epithelial cells are compactly packed with large intercellular matrix.

(1) B and C
(2) C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) Only B

79) Which of the following epithelium is not present in nephron ?

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

80) Frog is not :-

(1) Cold blooded

(2) Poikilotherms
(3) Endothermal
(4) Ectothermal

81) Truncus arteriosus is present on _____ side of heart of frog :-

(1) Dorsal
(2) Lateral
(3) Ventral
(4) Dorso-lateral

82)

In frog the ventricle opens into a sac-like structure on the ventral side of the heart
(1) Hepatic portal vessel
(2) Renal portal vessel
(3) Sinus venosus
(4) Conus arteriosus

83) Identify the incorrect statement about frogs :-

(1) Frogs have ability to change their body colour

(2) Frogs have a constant body temperature
(3) Frogs can live in water as well as on land
(4) Frogs don’t have an exoskeleton

84) In water respiratory organ of frog is :-

(1) Book gills

(2) Book lungs
(3) Skin
(4) All of these

85) Which of the following acts as an respiratory organ in frog on land ?

(1) Skin
(2) Buccal cavity
(3) Lungs
(4) All of these

86) Air enters into the lungs through the :-

(1) Skin
(2) Buccal cavity
(3) Mouth
(4) Cloaca

87) Conus arteriosus is present on ______ side of heart of frog ?

(1) Dorsal
(2) Lateral
(3) Ventral
(4) Dorso lateral

88) The skin of frog is smooth & slippery due to the presence of ?

(1) Sebaceous gland

(2) Mucus gland
(3) Poisonous gland
(4) Mammary gland
89) During hibernation gaseous exchange take place through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Nostril
(4) Buccal cavity

90) What is the function of tympanum in frog?

(1) Excretion
(2) Hearing
(3) Digestion
(4) Respiration
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 1 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question:
In this question, we are asked that if a vector is multiplied by 2, what happens to its direction
and magnitude.

Concept:
Multiplication of a vector by scalar

Solution:
Multiplying a vector by a positive scalar changes only the magnitude, not the direction.

Magnitude becomes double

Direction remains same (because scalar is +2)

Final Answer: Option (2)

2) Explain Question:
In this question we have to find the unit vector along .

Concept:
Unit vector for a given vector.

Solution:
Let
The unit vector along is

Final Answer: Option (1)

3) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find the value of 'C' if a unit vector is
represented by

Concept: Unit vector

Solution: Let the unit vector be

Since it is a unit vector, therefore its magnitude equal to '1'
Final answer: Option (1)

4) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to find a unit vector in the direction in
parallel to the resultant of the given vectors.

Concept: Unit vector for a given vector.

Solution:

Resultant,

Unit vector in the direction of is

Final Answer: Option (2)

5) Question Explanation:
In this question we have to find a vector ' ' having direction as that of and having magnitude
'3' 'as that of vector .

Concept:
Unit vector for a given vector.

Solution:
The vector is having having direction as that of or is parellel to Therefore direction of

can be find by unit vector of i.e

Also magnitude of vector is wire of vector

(magnitude of direction)

Final Answer: Option (2)

6) Question Explanation : In this question, five forces are aching at different direction at
point P as shown in the figure we have to find the resultant force at point 'P'.

Concept: Resultant of the vector.

Solution: If two vector have equal magnitude their resultant passes through their angle
bisector and given by the formula

where a = Magnitude of the vector

θ = angle between the vector

(1) Resultant of 2N and 2N force, angle between vectors θ = 120°

(2) Resultant of angle between vectors θ = 60°

Both resultant vector line along 5 N vector.

Net resultant force on the particle 'P' = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10 N

and the net resultant vector is at an angle 60° with the x-axis

So net resultant = 10 N moving 60° with the x-axis

Final Answer: Option (1)

7) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to tell the angle which the given vector
makes with the x-axis

Concept: Resolution of vector into its components.

Solution:
Ax (Horizontal component) = 2
Ay (Vertical component) = 3
Note: It can also be solved by the formula of direction cosines of a vector

Final Answer: Option (1)

8) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find the direction cosines for a given
vector.

Concept: Direction cosines of a vector

Solution:
let
, ,

Direction cosines

Final Answer: Option (1)

9) Explain Question:

In this question, we told that . Using this condition, we must find the

possible value of .

Concept:
Addition & subtraction of vectors.

Solution:
Given:
Magnitude of Resultant is given as R=

Given:

So:

Divide by A2:

So:

Now find

Substitute cos 120° =

Final answer: Option (4)

10)

Explain Question : In this question, we are told that is a unit vector along the x-axis,
and we must find vector .

Concept : Addition & Subtraction of vectors.

Solution :
Unit vector along x-axis is:

So,

Given:

Using:
Substitute:

Final Answer : option (2)

11)

Therefore A = 5 and

12) Question Explanation : In this question we need to tell the maximum value of the given
function y = sin(x) cos(x)
Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Solution :
y = sin(x) cos(x)

(dividing and multiplying by 2)

∴ ymax =
Final Answer : Option (1)

13)

14)

By theory

15) Explanation Question : Question asks diagram of is.

Concept: Subtraction of vectors.

Solution:
Final answer: Option (4)

16)

Explaining : Compare two vectors to final value of a.

Concept : This question is based on If two vectors are equal they need to be same.
Solution :

–a = 5
a = –5
Final Answer : (1)

17) Explain Question:

We have to calculate

Concept:
Subtraction of vectors.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

18) = 2 × 1 sin θ/2 = 2 sin

19)
B2 = A2 + C2 – 2AC cosθ.

cosθ = .

θ= .
20) Question Explanation :
50 coplanar forces, each of same magnitude, are acting at a point. (each force makes 2π/50
angle with preceding force). We need to find the resultant of all the forces.

Concept :
This question is based on addition of vectors.

Solution :
The 50 vectors will form a closed figure (where terminus of 50th vector will be at tail of first
vector) ⇒

If N equal coplanar vectors are separated by an angle , then their resultant will be zero.

Final answer : (4)

21) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to find the relation between four vectors
, , , with the help of given vector diagram.

Concept: Addition of vectors.

Solution: In the given vector diagram, we can write

Final Answer: Option (3)

22)
∴ Length in XY plane

23) Angle between = 180°–30° = 150°

24) Magnitude of unit vector = 1

By solving we get c =
25)

Null vector

26) Angle between and is 120°.

27) For minimum value of y, sin x + cosx must be maximum

ymin = =

28)

Given y = 5x2 – 2x + 1

= 10x – 2 + 0 = 0

For minima

29)

30) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to determine the sum of the provided
infinite G.P.

Concept: Sum of an infinite geometric progression

Solution:

(First term)

(common ratio)
Sum of an infinite geometric progression is given by
 Final answer: Option (2)

31) Explanation :- We are asked to find the value of sin 15° using trigonometric identities.
This requires using the angle subtraction identity to simplify the expression.
Concept :- trigonometric identities
Formula used :- sin(A – B) = sin A cos B – cos A sin B
For A = 45° and B = 30°, the formula becomes:
sin(15°) = sin(45° – 30°)

Calculation :- we know the values:

Substitude into the formula :- sin(45°) =

simplify:
Thus, the correct answer is Option 1

32)

Question explanation: We need to find the value of given trignometric function.

Concept: Properties of trignometric function

Formula:
sin( -θ) = - sin (θ)
cos(-θ) = cos(θ)

Solution

sin(-30°) = -sin (30°) = .

cos(-30°) = cos(30°) =

sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =

sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =

Final Answer: Option(2)

33) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of cos(106º)
Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Formula : cos(2θ) = 2cos2(θ) – 1
Solution :
cos(106º) = cos(2 × 53º)
cos(106º) = 2cos2(53º) – 1

cos(106º) =

cos(106º) = –1

cos(106º) =
Final Answer : Option (2)

34) Question Explanation:

Identifying possible values for trigonometric functions.
Concept:
Range of Trigonometric Functions.
Solution:
The sine of an angle is a ratio that always stays within a specific numerical range. While sine
cannot exceed 1, it can certainly be greater than or equal to -1.
Constraint: The range of .
Option 1: is impossible.
Option 2: is always true for any real angle .
Option 3: is mathematically undefined.
Final Answer:
Option (2)

35) Question Explanation : To find if y =

Concept : Differentiation
Solution :

= =0
Final Answer : Option (3)

36) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of cos(106º)
Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Formula : cos(2θ) = 2cos2(θ) – 1
Solution :
cos(106º) = cos(2 × 53º)
cos(106º) = 2cos2(53º) – 1
cos(106º) =

cos(106º) = –1

cos(106º) =
Final Answer : Option (2)

37)

38)

39)

40) Question Explanation : The question asks for the value of . We need to
simplify the angle using properties of the cosine function and then find its value.

Concept : Value of Trigonometric Functions.

Solution:
Trigonometric Periodicity: Cosine is a periodic function with period 2π, meaning
for any integer n.

8π is a multiple of 2π,

so . can be written as →
Comparing with above form, we get

Final Answer : Option (2)

41)
and

42) Explain Question:

Determine the equation of the ellipse shown in the Y – x graph.
Concept:

Standard equation of an ellipse

Solution:
From the graph, the x-intercepts are at so semi-major axis a = 3
The y-intercepts are at so semi-minor axis b = 2

The equation is

Final answer: Option (3)

43) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to determine the equation of the
straight line shown in the provided graph.

Concept: Intercept form of a straight line

Solution:
Intercept form of a straight line is given by

From the given graph, we can see

x-intercept , a = 6
y-intercept, b = 8
∴ Equation for the given straight line will be

⇒
⇒ 4x + 3y = 24

Final Answer: Option (4)

44)

Since your question trailed off, I've outlined the calculations for this interval, as well as for
another common interval
Correct answer is 1

45)
10P2 = 4P2 + 2P2 +
CHEMISTRY

46) Explain question : We need to check which option satisfies the correct definition
(isotopes, isotones, isobars, isoelectronic).
Concept : This question is based on
Isotopes: same Z, different A
Isotones : same neutrons
Isobars : same A, different Z
Isoelectronic: same number of electrons
Solution :
1. Isotopes → Ca (Z = 20, A = 40) and K (Z = 19, A = 40); same mass, different atomic number
→ these are isobars, not isotopes.
2. Isotones → Si (14p, 16n), P(15p, 16n), S (16p, 16n) → all have 16 neutrons → correct
3. Isobars → O-16, O-17, O-18 have same Z = 8, different A → isotopes, not isobars.
4. Isoelectronic → N3– (10e–), O2–(10e–), Cr3+(24 – 3 = 21 e–) → not all same
Final Answer : 2

47)

Explanation Question:
Identify the false statement about deuterium from given options regarding its composition and
properties.
Concept:
This question is based on Deuterium is hydrogen isotope with one proton, one neutron, one
electron
Solution:
Option 1:
True.
Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen, represented as .
Option 2:
True.
Deuterium contains:
–1 proton (p)
–1 neutron (n)
–1 electron (e)
Option 3:
False.
An atom always contains electrons. So, [(1 p) + (1 n)] alone is incomplete for a neutral atom.
A deuterium atom has: (1 proton) + (1 neutron) + (1 electron).
Option 4:
True.
D2O is called heavy water, because deuterium replaces regular hydrogen.
Final Answer: (3)

48)

Question Explanation : This question asks for the relationship between the atoms Carbon-13
and Oxygen-17.
 Concept : Compare number of protons, neutrons, and electrons to determine relationship.
Solution :
For ₆¹³C: Protons (Z) = 6, Neutrons (N) = 13 – 6 = 7

For ₈¹⁷O: Protons (Z) = 8, Neutrons (N) = 17 – 8 = 9

Neutrons are not same → Not isotones

Electrons are not same (6 vs 8) → Not isoelectronic
Difference (A – 2Z):
For C → 13 – 12 = 1
For O → 17 – 16 = 1
Since (A – 2Z) is same → They are Isodiaphers.

Final Answer : Option (3)

49)

Question Explanation: Calculate new atomic mass of Nitrogen-14 after changing proton and
electron masses.
Concept : Atomic mass ≈ sum of proton, neutron, and electron masses; electron mass
negligible.
Solution:

% change = Reduces.
Final Answer : option (3)

50)

n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –3, s =
3d ⇒ m = –2 to +2 so m = –3 is not possible.

51)

mvr = = x (given) [for H–atom]

mvr = = [for Ist exited state of Li+2 Ion]

52)

Question Explanation: We need to check how product (v × r) depends on electron mass

using Bohr's model.
Concept : This question is based on Bohr's postulates, mvr = nh/2π
Solution :
mvr = nh/2π → v × r = (nh)/(2πm).
v × r ∝ 1/m.
Final answer : Option 3

53)

In transition, away from nucleus, will give rise to the least energetic photon.

54)

r = 0.529 × A°

n2 = =9
n=3

55)

rH = 0.053 nm = 0.053 ×

rLi+2 = 0.053 ×
rLi+2 = 0.0159 nm

56)

57) Δx × Δp ≃

Since Δx = Δp therefore, (Δp)2 =

or Δp = mΔν = and Δv =

58)

Circumference of 4th orbit = 2pr4 and angular momentum mνr4 = ...(i)

de-broglie wavelength λ= & mν = ...(ii)
therefore from eq.(1) and (ii)

r4 = or 2πr4 = 4λ
and circumference of 4th orbit is equal to 4 times to wavelength of electron.

59) Ionization Energy = 13.6 × z2

= 122.4 eV

60)

61)
n = orbit number
1st orbit has maximum K.E.

62)

Number of orbital (n) = 4

Possible values of Magnetic Quantum
Number = n2

63)

(I.P.)x = (–E1)x
16 = –(E1)x

E2 = ?
From ratio

E2 = –4 eV
Now first Excitation Potential = E2 – E1
= –4 – (–16)
= 12 eV

64)
 Z = 17
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
n = 2, m = 0
Number of electron = 4

65)

n = 6, m = 0
Any orbital can have maximum two electron with opposite spin.

66)

Explanation Question :
We are asked which orbital among 3d, 5p, 4s, and 6d has maximum energy.
Concept :
This question is based on use (n + ℓ) rule
Solution
Higher the value of (n + ℓ), higher the energy. If (n + ℓ) is same, then orbital with higher n has
more energy.
For 3d → n + ℓ = 3 + 2 = 5
For 5p → n + ℓ = 5 + 1 = 6
For 4s → n + ℓ = 4 + 0 = 4
For 6d → n + ℓ = 6 + 2 = 8
So, 6d has the highest energy.
Final Answer : Option 4

67)

4d → n = 4
ℓ=2
m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2

s=
ℓ = 1 is not possible----

68)

Question Explanation: We are asked: A subshell with quantum numbers n = 5, l = 3 can

accommodate how many electrons?

Concept: Quantum numbers

Solution:

Here, n = 5, l = 3 → this is 5f subshell.

The maximum number of electrons in a subshell = 2(2l + 1).

2(2×3 + 1) = 14 electrons.
Final Answer: Option 2

69)

Explain Question : We need orbitals in a given sub–shell (here, h).

Concept : This question is based Quantum numbers
Solution :
For a given sub–shell : ℓ = 0 → s, ℓ = 1 → p, ℓ = 2 → d, ℓ = 3 → f, ℓ = 4 → g, ℓ = 5 → h.
For h sub–shell, ℓ = 5.
Number of orbitals in a sub shell = 2ℓ + 1.
Number of orbitals = 2(5) + 1 = 11.
Final answer : Option 1

70)

71)

n = 4, λ = 4 A°
Circumference = 2πr = nλ
Circumference = nλ
Circumference = 4 × 4 A°
Circumference = 16 A°

72)

Question Explanation :
H atom in ground state supplied 9.9 eV — how many spectral lines emitted?

Concept :
Bohr energy levels (discrete excitation energies).

Solution :
E₁ = −13.6 eV. Energy needed for n=1→n=2 = 10.2 eV. Given 9.9 eV < 10.2 eV, electron
cannot reach any excited stationary level, so no de-excitation lines.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

73) Explain the question : Which emission transitions are not possible in a absorption
spectrum?
Concept : This question is based on absorption starts from the lowest available energy level,
usually A.
Solution : Absorption occurs when an electron jumps from a lower to a higher energy level. If
level A is the ground state, only transitions starting from A (lines 1, 2, 3) can occur in the
absorption spectrum. Transitions starting from higher levels (B, X, C) which are lines 4, 5, 6
will not occur from the ground state.
Final answer : 3

74)

Explain the Question : Determine which species has an electronic spectrum pattern similar
to neutral Helium (He).
Concept : This question is based on spectra are similar for isoelectronic species (those having
the same number of electrons). The pattern complexity is driven by the number of electrons.
Solution : Li+ has 2 electrons, making it isoelectronic with He.
Final answer : 4

75) Question Explanation:

The question asks how tow electrons occupying the same orbital can be distinguish form each
other .

Concept:
According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle no two electrons in an atom can have the same set
of all four quantum numbers Electrons in the same orbital will have the same values for the
principal quantum number (n) magnetic quantum number (m1) and azimuthal quantum number
(l) the only way to distinguish them is by their spin quantum number.

Solution:
The spin quantum number (m8) has two possible values +1/2 or 1/2. Electrons in the same
orbital will have opposite spins meaning one will have m8 = +1/2 and the other will have m8 =
– 1/2.

Hence,
Correct option: (4) Spin quantum number

76)

r2 : r5

0.529 × : 0.529 ×
4 : 25

77) Question Explanation :

Find the radius of the 4th Bohr orbit of Li2+ given the radius of the 3rd Bohr orbit of H is x.
Given :
• Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of H (Z = 1, n = 3) = x

Concept : For a hydrogen like species:

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (2)

78)

Asking for: Identify the correct order of energies of subshells.

Concept:

A. (n+l) rule: The subshell with the lower (n+l) value has lower energy. If two subshells
have the same (n+l) value, the subshell with the lower 'n' value has lower energy.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Option 1: 2s < 3s < 3p < 2p

A. 2s: n+l = 2+0 = 2

B. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

C. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

D. 2p: n+l = 2+1 = 3

E. The order should be 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

B. Option 2: 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p

A. 2s: n+l = 2+0 = 2

B. 2p: n+l = 2+1 = 3

C. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

D. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

E. Since 2p and 3s both have n+l = 3, the one with the lower n value is lower in
energy, therefore 2p<3s.

F. This option correctly follows the (n+l) rule.

 C. Option 3: 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s

A. 3s: n+l = 3+0 = 3

B. 3p: n+l = 3+1 = 4

C. 3d: n+l = 3+2 = 5

D. 4s: n+l = 4+0 = 4

E. Since 3p and 4s both have n+l = 4, the one with the lower n value is lower in
energy, therefore 3p<4s.

F. This option is incorrect.

D. Option 4: 3s < 3d < 3p < 4s

A. As shown in option 3, 3p has a lower energy than 3d. Therefore this option is
incorrect.

Answer:
Hence, option (2) is correct

79) Explain Question :

We need to find wrong statement.
Concept : This question is based on Electronic configuration and Hund's Maximum
multiplicity principle.

Solution :
Electronic Configuration of N-atom is-

Final Answer : option (3)

80)

For 3p : n = 3, ℓ = 1
Number of radial node = n – ℓ – 1
=3–1–1=1
81) NCERT XI, Page No. # 53, Q. No. 2.17

82) Question Explanation :

Identify the electron transition for the third line of the Balmer series in a hydrogen atom.

Concept :
This question is based on Hydrogen spectrum.

Solution :
The Balmer series involves transitions to nf = 2. The lines are numbered sequentially from the
lowest initial n :
• First line : ni = 3 → nf = 2
• Second line : ni = 4 → nf = 2
• Third line : ni = 5 → nf = 2
Following the Balmer series definition, the third line corresponds to an electron transition
from n = 5 to n = 2.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

83) Lyman Series come under UV region.

84)

Question Explanation
Given electronic configuration shows electrons paired in orbitals before occupying all orbitals
singly, which is a violation.

Concept
Hund’s rule – electrons occupy degenerate orbitals singly with parallel spins before pairing.

Solution

In the diagram,

Unpaired electrons in p subshell are filled with opposite spin which violates Hund’s rule.

Final Answer
Violated rule = Hund’s rule → Option (1)

85) Question Explanation :

We need to find radius of nucleus if mass number and R0 value are given

Concept :
This question is based on RN =

Solution :
RN = 1.3 × 10–15 × 5
RN = 6.5 × 10–15 m

Final Answer : (1)

86)

s= one electron from each orbital

= 6 electron

87)

Explanation Question :
We are asked about how the energies change when an electron in H–atom goes from K–shell (n
= 1) to N–shell (n = 4).
Concept : This question is based on Bohr’s model
Solution :
Total Energy, E ∝ –1/n2 → increases (becomes less negative) as n increases.
Kinetic Energy = –E → decreases as n increases.
Potential Energy = 2E → also increases (less negative), not decreases.

From n = 1 to n = 4 :
K.E. decreases (option 1 is correct)
T.E. increases (becomes less negative, so option 2 is wrong).
P.E. increases, not decreases (so option 3 is wrong).

Final Answer : Option 1

88)

Explain the Question : Find atomic number of isodiapher nuclide with uranium-238
Concept : This question is based on isodiapher.
Solution :
is isodiapher with .

neutron (n) = A – P = 238 – 92 = 146

n – p = 146 – 92 = 54
Isodiapher means (n – p) remain same.
For
n – p = 54
n + p = 234
+ ___________
2n = 288
n = 144
 n – p = 54
144 – p = 54
p = 144 – 54 = 90
Final answer : Option (1)

89)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking about anergy ratio of wave length 3000 Å &
6000 Å

Concept:- This question is based on planck's quantum theory

Solution :-

=2:1
Final Answer :- The correct option is (3)

90)

If K.E. is same

BIOLOGY

91) Hint :- % Order in Cell Membrane Protein > Lipid > Carbohydrates.

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

93) Allen Module 1 Page No. 208

94) Allen Module 1 Page No. 198

95) NCERT Page No. 90

96) NCERT Pg. # 95

97) Ncert Page 128.

 98) Ncert Page 137.

99)

Ncert Page 135.

100)

Ncert Page 138.

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93

102)

Explain question: This question asks which statement about the cell and its discovery is
incorrect

Concept: What is a cell

Solution:
Incorrect → Robert Brown discovered the nucleus, not the cell (Hooke discovered the cell).
Robert Brown (1831) discovered the nucleus, not the cell. The cell was discovered by
Robert Hooke (1665).

Final answer: option (3)

Robert Brown discovered cell

103)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the network of protein filaments in the cytoplasm that maintains cell
shape

Concept :
This question is based on Cytoskeleton.

Explanation :

A. Cytoskeleton is a network of microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and

microtubules.
B. It provides structural support, maintains cell shape, and assists in intracellular
transport.

Final answer (3) : Cytoskeleton.

 104)

Explain the Question : This question asks which feature is shared by both plasmids and
mesosomes.
Concept : This question is based on prokaryotic cells.
Solution : Both plasmids (extra-chromosomal DNA) and mesosomes (membrane infoldings)
are structures found only in prokaryotic cells such as bacteria.
Final answer : 3

105) Question Explanation:

Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

Solution:

A. Eukaryotic cells have 70S ribosomes in the mitochondria, not 80S. The 80S ribosomes are
found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
B. 70S ribosomes are also found in prolaryotes, and mitochondria are thought to have evolved
from prokaryotic cells, which is why they still contain 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
C. The other statements are true:

80S ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

Mitochondria do indeed contain circular DNA.
Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles like the nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic
reticulum.

Hence,
Correct Option: 1

106)

Explain Question : The question asks which cellular function is performed by the
cytoskeleton.

Concept : The Cell - Structure and Function: Cytoskeleton and its functions

Solution :

The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments that maintains cell shape and plays an
important role in cell movement, including amoeboid movement, cilia and flagella movement.

Final answer : Option (2)

107)

Question Explanation-The question is asking who reported that cells had a thin outer layer,
which is today known as the plasma membrane.

Concept-Discovery of plasma membrane.

Solution-It was Theodore Schwann who reported that animal cells are covered by a thin outer layer,
which is now recognized as the plasma membrane.
Final Answer-Option 4
 108) Asking About: The organelle that perform aerobic respiration.
Solution/Explanation: Aerobic respiration is performed by mitochondria to produce energy
(ATP).
So (1) option is correct.

109) 1. Asking About: The type of plastid which store fats of oils.
2. Concept: Types of plastid.
3. Solution/Explanation: Elaioplast store fats and oils.
So (4) option is correct.

110) Asking About: A flat membranous tubule which Connect two granum in stroma of
chloroplast.
Concept: chloroplast
Solution/Explanation: A flat membranous tubule which connect two granum in stroma
called stroma lamellae.
So, (3) option is correct.

111) Asking About: Inner mitochondrial membrane infoldings.

Concept: Structure of mitochondria.

Solution/Explanation: Infoldings of inner mitochondrial membrane is called Cristal.

So, (4) option is correct.

112)

Question Explanation: The question asks which living structures do not have a nucleus.
Concept: Nucleus
Solution:

A. Erythrocytes (RBCs) of mammals: Mature mammalian RBCs are living for a short duration but
lack a nucleus (for more space to carry hemoglobin).
B. Sieve tube cells (phloem): These are living but enucleated; they depend on companion cells for
their functions.

Final Answer: (4)

113) 1. Asking About: The part of chromosome beyond secondary constriction.

2. Concept: Structure of chromosome.
3. Solution/Explanation: Satellite is the part of chromosome beyond the secondary
constriction.
So, (2) option is correct

114) 1. Asking About: The structure/part chromosome essentially contains.

2. Concept: Structure of chromosomes.
3. Solution/Explanation: Each chromosomes essentially has primary Constriction.
So, (3) option is correct.

115) Asking About: The part of chromatin fibre that is transcriptionally active part.

Solution/Explanation: Euchromatin is the part of chromatin fibre that is transcriptionally

active part.
So, option (2) is correct.

116)
The correct answer is: 3. Flagella
Explanation:
The features described in the question correspond to flagella, which are cellular appendages
responsible for motility in many eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. Here's how the features
match:
1. Core is called axoneme and possesses a number of microtubules:
• In eukaryotic flagella, the core structure is called the axoneme, which has a 9+2
arrangement of microtubules (9 doublet microtubules arranged in a ring with 2 single
microtubules in the center).
2. Arise from centriole-like basal body:
• The basal body anchors the flagellum to the cell and is derived from centrioles. It organizes
the assembly of microtubules in the flagellum.
Why the other options are incorrect:
• Pili: These are hair-like structures in prokaryotes used for attachment, not motility. They do
not have an axoneme or microtubule structure.
• Fimbriae: Similar to pili, they are used for adhesion in prokaryotic cells and lack axonemes.
• Microfilament: These are part of the cytoskeleton made of actin filaments, not associated
with the axoneme or basal body.
Thus, the features provided are specific to flagella.

117) Question Explain:The question asks which organelle lacks ribosomes.

Concept : Ribosome

Solution :

Lysosomes (contain digestive enzymes, no ribosomes)

Final answer : Lysosome

118) NCERT-XII Pg#138

119)

All others are bound by double membrane.

120)
 Allen module page 196.

121) NCERT11 PG 137, 2021-22

122) NCERT Page no. 96

123)

Question Explanation: The question asks which feature differentiates plastids from
mitochondria.

Concept : Cell – Organelles (Plastids vs. Mitochondria).

Solution : The distinguishing feature is thylakoids, present only in plastids.

Final Answer : Option 3

124) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanantion:
Ribosome - Made of RNA and protein: not surrounded by a membrane.
Nucleolus - A dense region within tghe nucleus involved in ribosome synthesis: no membrane
surrounds it.
Centriole - A cylindrical structure involved in cell division; also lacks a membrane.
The correct answer is - (4) All of these

125) NCERT Page # 135; Para 8.5.5

126) Question Explanation: Identify where double-stranded, circular, naked, GC-rich DNA is
present.
Concept: Prokaryotic DNA & Organelle DNA
Solution:

A. Prokaryotes have double-stranded, circular, naked, GC-rich DNA.

B. Chloroplasts also have double-stranded, circular, naked DNA (endosymbiotic

origin).
So both match the description.

Final Answer: Option 4

127)

Explain the Question :- The question is asking about the in which organisms the cell is
considered the structural and functional unit of life.
Concept :-This question is based on based on the cell
Solution :- since bacteria, plants and animals all consist of cells, the correct option is all of
 the above
Final answer :- 4

128) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 97

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

130)

Explain Question:
The question asks about the Nucleolar Organizer Region (NOR) and where the nucleolus is
attached.

Concept:
Chromosome

Solution:
Chromosome→ correct, nucleolus attaches to NORs on chromosomes.

Final answer: Option (2)

131)

NCERT Page no 92

132) Allen Module

133)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Statement 1: Contractile vacuoles are indeed involved in excretion, particularly in

protists like amoeba and paramecium, where they help in osmoregulation by expelling
excess water.
B. Statement 2 (Incorrect): The tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds the vacuole in
plant cells. It primarily helps in the transport of ions and other molecules into the vacuole,
not into the cytoplasm. The tonoplast helps maintain turgor pressure and ion storage
inside the vacuole. It does not transport ions into the cytoplasm.
C. Statement 3: Food vacuoles are formed by the engulfment of food particles via
phagocytosis in organisms like amoeba, which is correct.
D. Statement 4: The sap vacuole in plant cells is surrounded by a single membrane, the
tonoplast, which is correct.

The correct answer is : (2)

 134)

NCERT, Pg. # 97, 99, 102

135)

Explain Question : The question asks for the protein network lining the inner side of the
nuclear membrane.

Concept : This question is based on Nucleus.

Solution : The protein Network that line inner side of the nuclear membrane is nuclear
lamina.

Final Answer : option (3)

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

137)

Explain Question: Which tissue is correctly identified with its location and function?
Concept: This question is based on Animal Tissues – Epithelial Tissue
Solution: Figure (D) represents compound epithelium (many-layered cells).
Location: Found in the skin (epidermis).
Function: Provides protection against mechanical injury, dehydration, and pathogens.
Other options show mismatch between tissue type, location, or function.
NCERT-XI- 101, 102, 104
Final answer: Option 4

138)

Question explanation: Identify the connective tissue rich in yellow elastic fibres that binds
bones together.
Concept: Connective tissue

Solution: The correct answer is option 1

A. Ligament mainly consists of yellow elastic fibres and connects bone to bone, providing
flexibility and strength.

Final answer: Option 1

139) Page No. # 102 ; Line no. 33

140) Page No. # 103 ; Line no. 12

141) Page No. # 101 ; Line no. 22

 142) Page No. # 103 ; Line no. 15

143) NCERT Pg # 104

144) NCERT 101

145)

Question Explanation: Gas exchange during dormancy in frogs.

Concept: Frog Respiration
Solution: During both aestivation (summer sleep) and hibernation (winter sleep), the frog's
metabolic processes slow down significantly. In this dormant state, gas exchange occurs solely
through the skin.
Final Answer: Option (2)

146) NEERT Page No. # 101

147) NCERT XI Pg. # 101, 102

(2) and (3) are correct

148) NCERT Page No. # 103 (E/H)

149)

Question explanation: Identify how many given statements correctly describe bone.

Concept : This question is based on specialized connective tissue

Solution :

A. (A) It is specialised connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in Ca+2
salts → Incorrect, The ground substance of bone is hard and non-pliable, not pliable. This
statement is incorrect due to the term "pliable"

B. (B) It is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body → Correct, bones
form the skeletal framework.

C. (C) It supports and protects softer tissues and organs → Correct, bones protect organs
(e.g., skull protects brain, ribs protect heart/lungs).

D. (D) The bone cells, osteocytes, are present in the spaces called lacunae → Correct,
osteocytes reside in lacunae.

E. (E) They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements
→ Incorrect, bones interact with skeletal muscles, not smooth muscles.
Final answer : Option 2

150)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 101

151)

Explain Question : This question is asking about identifying the type of connective tissue
shown in diagram (A) and choosing the correct related statement.

Concept : Structural Organisation in Animals – Connective Tissues (Dense Regular & Dense
Irregular C.T.)

Explanation : Diagram (A) shows dense regular connective tissue in which collagen fibres are
arranged parallel, typical of tendons. Hence, the correct statement is that A is an example of a
tendon.

Final answer :

Option 3

152)

Question Explanation: We must find the correct tissue–function/organ match.

Concept: Frog - digestive and respiratory system

Solution:

(1) A-Gall bladder → Production of bile (Incorrect; gall bladder stores bile, does not produce it)

(2) B-Liver→ Incorrect (they are lungs not liver)

(3) D-Kidneys → Ducts from it opens in rectum (Incorrect; frog’s ureters open into cloaca, not
directly into rectum)

(4) D-Kidneys → Possess uriniferous tubules (Correct; kidneys of frog have uriniferous tubules
for urine formation)

Final answer: D-Kidneys - posses uriniferous tubules

153)

Question Explanation: We need to check whether both statements about frog are true or
false.
Concept: Frog
Solution:

A. Statement-I is incorrect (because fertilization is external in frogs).

B. Statement-II is correct (frog is an amphibian).

Final answer: Option 2

154)

Question Explanation: The question is asking to correctly match frog-related structures in

Column I with the appropriate descriptions in Column II.

Concept: Frog anatomy and physiology.

Solution

A. Vocal sac is a feature of males, so it shows sexual dimorphism → P.

B. During hibernation, frog respires through skin → R.
C. Renal portal system joins kidneys and lower parts of body → U.
D. Bidder’s canal receives sperm from vasa efferentia → X.
Thus the correct code is A–P, B–R, C–U, D–X.

Final Answer: Option 2

155) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 82

156) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 83

157)

Question Explanation: Analyze the assertion–reason statements.

Concept: Types of epithelium

Solution:

A. Assertion (A): Brush-border simple cuboidal epithelium is present in P.C.T. of

[Link], because microvilli increase surface area for reabsorption.

B. Reason (R): Maximum reabsorption is done in P.C.T. of [Link], most water and
solutes are reabsorbed here.
 Both A and R are correct, and R explains A.

Final answer: Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

158)

Question Explanation: Which of the following is related with Adhering junctions ?

Concept: Cell junctions
Solution: Adhering junctions Perform cementing
Final answer: option (3)

159) Question Explanation: Identifying an exocrine gland.

Concept: Glandular Epithelium
Solution: Exocrine glands secrete substances through ducts. The mammary gland secretes
milk through ducts. Endocrine glands, like the thyroid, thymus, and pituitary, secrete
hormones directly into the bloodstream without using ducts.
Final Answer: (1)Mammary gland

160)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which cell type produces the maximum amount
of matrix in connective tissue.

Concept: Cells of connective tissue.

Solution: Fibroblast cells are responsible for secreting most of the extracellular matrix
components such as fibres and ground substance. Therefore, they produce the maximum
amount of matrix.

Final Answer: Option 2

161)

Question Explanation: The question is asking about which tissue provides a supportive
framework beneath epithelial tissue.

Concept: Types of connective tissue.

Solution: Areolar connective tissue lies just beneath epithelium and provides support,
binding, and nourishment. Other tissues do not serve this specific supportive role for
epithelium.

Final Answer: Option 2

162)

Question Explanation: example of dense connective tissue

Concept: dense connective tissue
Solution: ligament is an example of dense connective tissue.
Final answer: 3

163)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which substance forms the ground substance
that accumulates between cells in connective tissue.

Concept: Connective tissue.

Solution: The ground substance is mainly composed of glycosaminoglycans such as

hyaluronic acid, which is a modified polysaccharide. It fills spaces between cells and fibres.

Final Answer: Option 3

164)

Question explanation: The question is asking about the correct characteristics and location
of areolar connective tissue.

Concept: Structural organization in animals.

Solution: Areolar connective tissue has loosely arranged cells and fibers, it supports the
epithelium, and it is located beneath the skin. All statements are correct.

Final answer: Option 4

165)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which tissue among the options is classified as
a fluid connective tissue.

Concept: Types of connective tissue.

Solution: Blood is the only fluid connective tissue because its matrix (plasma) is liquid.

Final answer
option 3

166)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 104

167) Question explanation: Assertion and reason based

Concept: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Solution: Assertion : Main functions of simple cuboidal epithelium are secretion and
absorption.-correct
 Reason : The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles in a specific direction.-correct

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Final answer: 2

168)

Question Explanation: We need to identify which given statement(s) about epithelial tissue
are correct.
Concept: Animal tissues
Solution:

A. A. Tight junctions help to prevent leakage between cells ,not allow→ False

B. B. Compound epithelium mainly provides protection against mechanical and chemical

stress → True

C. C. Exocrine glands do have ducts, so this statement is False

D. D. Epithelial cells are compactly packed with little or no intercellular matrix,not large, so
this is False

Final answer: Option 4

169) Explanation:

A. Squamous epithelium → Present in Bowman's capsule and thin segment of Loop of Henle.
B. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium → Present in proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) for
absorption.
C. Cuboidal epithelium → Present in distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and thick segment of Loop of
Henle.
D. Ciliated columnar epithelium → Not found in nephron, it is found in respiratory tract and
fallopian tubes.

Correct Answer : Option (3) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

170) Module Pg # 156

171) NCERT Pg. # 118

172)

Old NCERT Pg. 118 - Edition 2022-23

173) NCERT(XI) Pg#116 Para:7.5

174) NCERT-I Pg # 117

In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration)

175) NCERT- Eng- Page # - 118

176) NCERT- Eng- Page # - 118

177) NCERT Pg.#118

178) NCERT Pg. # 116

179) NCERT Pg. # 118

180) NCERT Pg. # 116