11-05-2025

9610ZMD801895250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two spherical conductors of radii 4 cm and 5 cm are charged to the same potential. If σ1 and σ2 be
respective value of surface density of charge on both the conductors, then the ratio of σ1/σ2 will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude
of the force on the charge at B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Three concentric metallic spherical shell A, B and C or radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities – , + , and – respectively. The potential of shell A is :-

(1) [a + b – c]
(2) [a – b + c]
(3) [b – a – c]
(4) none

4) If and potential at origin is 20 V then find potential at (2, 2)

(1) 12 V
(2) –32 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 32 V

5) Figure shows a cube of side 'ℓ' with edges parallel to the axes. The electric field is in positive y-
direction but its magnitude changes such that it is at the bottom face and at the top face

in S.I. unit. Find the charge enclosed by the cube :-

(1) 5 C
(2) 10 C
(3) –10 C
(4) Zero

6) A rod containing charge +Q is brought near an initially uncharged isolated conducting rod as
shown. Regions with total surface charge +Q and –Q are induced in the conductor as shown in the
figure. The only regions where the net charge in this configuration is non–zero are indicated by the
"+" and "–" signs. Let us denote the total flux of electric field outward through closed surface S1 as

ϕ1, through S2 as ϕ2, etc. Which of the following is necessarily false.

(1) ϕ1 > 0
(2) ϕ2 = ϕ1
(3) ϕ3= ϕ1
(4) ϕ4=0

7) A glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth. The glass rod acquires a charge of +19.2×10–19 C. Find the
number of electrons lost by glass rod :-

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 12

8) Two charged identical metal sphere repel each other with force F. Now they bring in contact then

separated by same distance. If new force between them is F then find ratio of initial charges in two
spheres :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) Inside a spherical uncharged conducting shell centered at O, a point charge ‘q’ is kept such
that OA = d. The radius of the inner and outer surface of the shell is ‘r’ and R. The potential of point

B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

11)

Two equal point charges are fixed at x = – a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is
placed at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a
small distance x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to :

(1) x
(2) x2
(3) x3
(4) 1/x

12)
An electron falls through a small distance in a uniform electric field of magnitude . The
direction of the field is reversed keeping the magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through the
same distance. The time of fall will be

(1) Same in both cases

(2) More in the case of an electron
(3) More in the case of proton
(4) Independent of charge

13) A charged particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest in a uniform electric field E.
Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time ‘t’ seconds is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) There is a uniform electric field in X-direction. If the work done by external agent in moving a
charge of 0.2 C through a distance of 2 metre slowly along the line making an angle of 60° with X-
direction is 4 joule, then the magnitude of E is :

(1) N/C
(2) 4 N/C
(3) 5 N/C
(4) 20 N/C

15) A point charge q is situated at a distance d from one end of a thin non - conducting rod of length
L having a charge Q(uniformly distributed along its length) as shown in [Link] the magnitude of

electric force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two charge particles are shown in the diagram. Where should a third charge particle q0 be
placed so q0 will be in equilibrium :-
(1) x = 10 a
(2) x = 8 a
(3) x = 11 a
(4) x = 12 a

17) Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells. Q1:Q2:Q3, is :-

(1) 1:2:3
(2) 1:3:5
(3) 1:4:9
(4) 1:8:18

18) Two spheres of radius R & 2R having charge Q & 2Q respectively are placed far away from each

other. How much charge will flow when key 'k' is pressed ?

(1) Q

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

19) A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work done in taking a small charge of –2
× 10–8 C from a point P(0, 0, 3cm) to a point Q (0, 4cm, 0), via a point R(0, 6cm, 9cm).

(1) 12 J
(2) 1.2 J
(3) 0.12 J
(4) 120 J

20) A proton is projected with a velocity v towards another free proton at rest from distant point,
then distance of closest approach will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the
centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P a distance R/2 from the centre of the shell
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) An electric dipole is placed at origin and is directed along x-axis. At a point P, far away from the
dipole, the electric field is parallel to y axis OP makes an angle q with x axis :-

(1)
(2)
(3) θ = 45°

(4)

23) The electric field intensity inside a charged conductor surface is :-

(1) Constant and zero

(2) Directed normally to the surface
(3) Directed tangentially to the surface
(4) Directed along 45° to the surface

24) Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate is :-

(1) x = –2Q, x' = 0

(2) x = +2Q, x' = 0
(3) x = –2Q, x' = +4Q
(4) x = –4Q, x' = +2Q

25) A spherical charged conductor has surface charge density σ. The potential at centre is V. If the
radius of sphere is doubled keeping σ constant then potential at centre of sphere becomes.

(1) Unchanged
(2) Half
(3) Doubled
(4) One fourth

26) is a unit vector then c = ?

(1) 0.15
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) If two vectors and are parallel to each other then value of will be :

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

28) which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2 N?

(1) 2N and 2N
(2) 1N and 1N
(3) 1N and 3N
(4) 1N and 4N

29) Forces 7N, 24N, 25N act at a point in mutually perpendicular directions. The magnitude of the
resultant force is :

(1) 19 N
(2) 13 N
(3) 26 N
(4)

30) In the diagram shown in figure :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct

31) will be :

(1)
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) None of these

32) The X and Y components of a force F acting at 30° to x-axis are respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) The component of a vector :

(1) is always less than vector

(2) May be less than or equal to vector
(3) may be greater than vector
(4) Both (2) and (3) options

35) The sides of a parallelogram are represented by vectors and . Then

the area of the parallelogram is :

(1) sq. units

(2) sq. units
(3) 171 sq. units
(4) 72 sq. units

36) (ex cosx) = ?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)

(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None of these

37)

If y = 2x3–15x2+36x+11 then which of following is correct :-

(1) There is a maxima at x = 3

(2) There is a maxima at x = 2
(3) The maximum value of y is 49
(4) The minimum value of y is 35

38)

Evaluate =

(1) –5 sin (5x – 3) + C

(2) 5 sin (5x – 3) + C

(3)
– sin (5x – 3) + C

(4)
sin (5x – 3) + C
39) For the given (y – x) graph Find the value of .

(1) 170
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 120

40) Which is correct :-

(1) sin 300° = 1/2

(2) tan (180° + θ) = – tanθ
(3) cos (270° – θ) = – sinθ
(4) All of the above

41) Magnitude of slope of curve shown :-

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases, then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

42) Value of sin 15° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) log10(1000)1/3 = ?

(1) 3

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

44) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

45) Equation for y-x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

Consider the chemical reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivatives of conc. of N2(g), H2(g) or
NH3(g) identify the correct relationship amongst rate expressions:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For a reaction 2A ⟶ 3B ; The correct statement is :-

(1)
Rate of dissappearance of A is of rate of formation of B

(2)
Rate of Appearance of A is rd of rate of dissappearance of B
(3) Rate of dissappearance of A is 1.5 of rate of appearance of B
(4) 2 × Rate of dissapearance of A = 3 × Rate appearance of B

3)

Collision theory of chemical reaction explains

(1) Rate of reactions

(2) Order of Reaction
(3) Molecularity of reaction
(4) All of above

4) For A(g) + B(g) → C(g); rate = k[A]1/2 [B]2,

If initial concentration of A and B are increased by factors 4 and 2 respectively, then the initial rate
is changed by the factor :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) None of these

5) For a reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by R = K[A]–1 [B]2. The order of reaction is :

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 7

6) A first order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303 ×10–3 s–1. The time required for 40g of this
reactant to reduce to 10 g will be-
[Given that log 2 = 0.3010]

(1) 230.3 s
(2) 301 s
(3) 2000 s
(4) 602 s

7) For an elementary process 2X + Y → Z + W, the molecularity is –

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) Unpredictable

8) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) V. P. of pure A pºA = 100 torr

V. P. of pure B pºB = 150 torr
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately

(1) 135 torr

(2) 130 torr
(3) 140 torr
(4) 145 torr

10) Raoult's law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater thean those between unlike
(1)
molecules
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different

11) The value of molal elevation constant (Kb) depend upon

(1) Solution
(2) Nature of solvent
(3) Nature of solute
(4) Freezing point of solution

12) The vapour pressure of a given liquid will decrease if :

(1) surface area of liquid is decreased

(2) the volume of liquid in the container is decreased
(3) the volume of the vapour phase is increased
(4) the temperature is decreased

13) Which are colligative properties

(1) Boiling point, osmotic pressure

(2) Freezing point and osmosis
(3) Elevation in boiling point and osmotic pressure
(4) Vapour pressure and depression in freezing point

14)

For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one litre, we need H2SO4 :

(1) 0.98 g
(2) 4.9 g
(3) 49.0 g
(4) 9.8 g

15)

Which of the following concentration term is/are independent of temperature?

(1) Molarity
(2) Molarity and mole fraction
(3) Mole fraction and molality
(4) Molality and normality

16)

The relative lowering of vapour pressure in case of dilute solutions is directly propotional to:

(1) Surface area

(2) Size of container
(3) Mole fraction of solute
(4) All of these
0
17) The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose in 100 g of solvent is 0.1 C.
The molal elevation constant of the liquid is

(1) 0.01 K/m

(2) 0.1 K/m
(3) 1 K/m
(4) 10 K/m

18) 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea
solution is :

(1) 0.001 M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.02 M
(4) 0.1 M

19) If 5.85 gm of NaCl in dissolved in 90 gm of water, the mole fraction of solute is :-

(1) 0.0196
(2) 0.03
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

20) Which of the following is colligative properties -

(1) Vapour pressure
(2) Evaporation
(3) Boiling point
(4) Elevation in boiling point

21) What is the molarity of 1N H3PO3 solution?

(1) 1 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 0.5 M
(4) 3 M

22) The molal depression constant for water is 1.86°C mole–1. If 342 gm of canesugar (C12H22O11) are
dissolved in 1000gm of water, the solution will freeze at

(1) –1.86° C
(2) 1.86° C
(3) –3.92° C
(4) 2.42° C

23) Mole fraction of the solute in 1.00 molar aqueous solution is :

(1) 1.77
(2) 0.177
(3) 0.0177
(4) 0.0344

24) The vapour pressure of a solution

(1) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent

(2) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.
(3) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute.
(4) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

25) When the depression in freezing point is carried out, the equilibrium exist between :-

(1) Liquid solvent and solid solvent

(2) Liquid solute and solid solvent
(3) Liquid solute and solid solute
(4) Liquid solvent and solid solute

26)

Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute solution is 0.2. What is the mole fraction of the non-
volatile solute ?
(1) 0.8
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.2

27) 2.5 g acetic acid is dissolved in 75 g benzene then molality of solution is :

(1) 0.55 m
(2) 0.43 m
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 0.4 m

28) The molarity of pure water is :

(1) 55.5
(2) 5.56
(3) 100
(4) 18

29) The osmotic pressure of 1 M solution at 27°C is :

(1) 2.46 atm

(2) 24.6 atm
(3) 1.21 atm
(4) 12.1 atm

30) The normality of 0.3 M phosphorous acid (H3PO3) is :

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.9
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.6

31) What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5g of sodium hydroxide in 250 mL solution ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 1.0
(3) 2.0
(4) 0.1

32) Which property is shown by an ideal solution ?

(1) It follows Raoult’s law

(2) ΔHmix = 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0
(4) All of these

33) Arrhenius equation is represented as :

The activation energy Ea of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

(1) k against T

(2)
k against
(3) log k against 1/T

(4)
log k against

34) Assertion :- Order of reaction can never be fractional for an elementary reaction.
Reason :- Elementary reaction take place by multi step mechanism.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) The half life peroid of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be :-

(1) 460.6 min

(2) 46.06 min
(3) 23.03 min
(4) 230.3 min

36) The accompanying figure depicts the change in concentration of species X and Y for the reaction
X → Y as a function of time the point of intersection of the two curves represents.

(1) t1/2
(2) t3/4
(3) t2/3
(4) Data are insufficient to predict

37) Mechanism of reaction 2O3(g) → 3O2(g) can be given as

(fast)
(slow)
Which of the following is correct rate law :-

(1) r = K [O3] [O]

2 –1
(2) r = K [O3] [O2]
(3) r = K1K2 [O3] [O2]

(4)
r= [O2]2 [O3]–1

38) A reaction proceeds by first order, 75% of this reaction was completed in 32 min. The time
required for 50% completion is

(1) 8 min
(2) 16 min
(3) 20 min
(4) 24 min

39) Two liquids A and B have and in the ratio of number of moles of A and B in liquid phase
are 1 : 3. Then mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase in equilibrium with the solution is equal to :

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.0

40) The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a non volatile solute is 100.15 °C. What is the
freezing point of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting the above solution with an equal volume of
water ?
The values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512 and 1.86 K molality–1 :

(1) –0.544 °C
(2) –0.512 °C
(3) –0.272 °C
(4) –1.86 °C

41) An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186°C (Kf = 1.86°, Kb = 0.512°), what is the elevation in
boiling point :-

(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512

(3)

(4) 0.0512

42) If 45 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is dissolved in 600 g of water, then the depression in freezing
point is = 1.86 kg mol–1)
(1) 2.2 K
(2) 1.1 K
(3) 3.3 K
(4) 4.4 K

43) 20 ml of 0.5 M HCl is mixed with 30 ml of 0.3 M HCl the molarity of resulting solution is

(1) 0.8 M
(2) 0.53 M
(3) 0.38 M
(4) 0.83 M

44)

Mole fraction of sugar in water is 0.3. Molality of solution is

(1) 0.042
(2) 23.8
(3) 2.38
(4) 0.42

45) The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is

(1) 4.8
(2) 5.2
(3) 8.8
(4) 8.4

BIOLOGY

1) Cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by ______ which connect the ______ of neighbouring
cells ?

(1) Plasmalemma, protoplasm

(2) Plasmodesmata, cytoplasm
(3) Desmosomes, ER
(4) Protoplast, plasma membrane

2) Assertion : The cristae increase the surface area.

Reason : The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called cristae.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
3) Assertion : Centrioles helps in cell division.
Reason : Centrioles are absent in almost all plant cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) How many cellular components in the list given below are non membrane bound cytoplasmic
components of cell ?
Nucleolus, Lysosome, Centrioles, Plastids, Ribosomes, Vacuole

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

5) Flat membranous tubules connecting the thylakoids in chloroplast is known as:-

(1) Granal thylakoid

(2) Grana
(3) Stroma thylakoid / lamellae
(4) All of the above

6) In cell membrane, lipids are arranged in a-

(1) Bilayer
(2) Monolayer
(3) Multilayer
(4) Unilayer at some place and bilayers at other places

7) In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately :-

(1) 52 % Protein and 40 % Lipids

(2) 80 % Protein and 20% Lipids
(3) 40% Protein and 52% Lipids
(4) 52% Carbohydrate and 20% Protein

8) Spindle fibres attach on to :-

(1) Telomere of the chromosome

(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(3) Centromere of the chromosome
(4) Kinetosome of the chromosome

9) Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?

(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) It takes part in spindle formation.
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

10) Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Vacuole

11) Polysome is formed by :-

(1) A ribosome with several subunits

(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

12) Steroidal hormones are synthesized by which organelle?

(1) Golgi complex

(2) Smooth ER
(3) Rough ER
(4) Lysosomes

13) Assertion(A): Lysosomes are able to digest carbohydrate, proteins and fats.
Reason (R): Lysosomes are rich in carbohydrases, proteases and lipases.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false statements.

14) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following in an ascending order of their size.
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBC
(iv) Bacteria

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iii, ii, i, iv
15) Identify the A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

A B C D

(1) Centriole Mitochondria Nucleus SER

(2) Golgi apparatus Centriole Nuclear envelope RER

(3) Centriole Mitochondria Nuclear envelope RER

(4) Microtubules Centriole Nucleus Golgi apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Enzymes for dark reaction are found in :

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Matrix of mitochnodria
(3) Nucleoplasm
(4) Peri-mitochondrial space

17)

Which of the following is correct regarding the structure of a section of cilia or flagella ?

Peripheral Central
Radial
microtubules microtubules
spokes
(doublets) (singlets)
(1) 9 2 9
(2) 9+2 9+0 9
(3) 9+0 2 8
(4) 2 8 9
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Mitochondria divide by :-

(1) Fission
(2) Fusion
(3) Mitosis
(4) Meiosis

19) The ribosomes of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and plastids are respectively :

(1) 80S, 70S and 70S

(2) 70S, 70S and 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S

20) Cell organelle which exhibit cart wheel structure:

(A) Have 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(B) Covered by a unit membrane.
(C) Central part is proteinaceous called HUB.
(D) It helpful in cell division in higher plant cells.
(E) Form the basal body of Cilia.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) B, C and E
(2) A, B and E
(3) C, D, E
(4) C, E

21) At which stage of meiosis, do these events occurs ?

Formation of
Bivalents more Terminalisation
synaptonemal
clearly visible of chiasmata
complex

(1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene

(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis

(3) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis

(4) Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Following diagrams A and B showing the phases of a cell division :-

Choose the correct option from the following regarding identification of above diagrams :-
(1) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-I
(2) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-II
(3) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-II
(4) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-I

23) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence:

I. Terminalization
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction or segregation
The correct sequence is:

(1) IV, III, II, I

(2) III, II, I, IV
(3) II, I, IV, III
(4) I, IV, III, II

24) If n = 28 in a plant cell then what is possible in Metaphase-I of meiosis ?

(1) 28 Bivalents, 56 centromere, 112 chromatids

(2) 56 Bivalents, 112 centromere, 224 chromatids
(3) 28 Bivalents, 28 centromere, 112 chromatids
(4) 14 Bivalents, 28 centromere, 56 chromatids

25) Meiosis-I has a long prophase, which is divided further into five phases. The correct sequence of
these phases is :-

(1) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Pachytene → Diakinesis
(3) Zygotene → Leptotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis

26) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between :-

(1) Sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes.

(2) Sister chromatids of two non-homologous chromosomes.
(3) Non-sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes.
(4) Non-sister chromatids of two non-homologous chromosomes.

27) Statement-I : In plant cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma
membrane.
Statement-II : Liquid endosperm in coconut represent syncytium conditions.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

28) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows :

(1) Splitting of centromeres

(2) Synthesis of tubulin protein
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

29) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct identification

together with the correct event:

(1) C-Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters

(2) B-Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(3) A-Prophase-Chromosomes undergo decondensation
(4) C-Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to chromosome

30) If the n = 8 in a diploid plant cell then what is possible in pachytene of meiosis :

Tetrad Chromatids

(1) 16 16

(2) 8 32

(3) 8 16

(4) 16 32
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) In onion root tip cell, there are 14 chromosomes and DNA content is 2C after M-phase. What will
be the number of chromosome and amount of DNA at G1, after S and G2 phases respectively :-

Number of Amount of
chromosomes DNA

(1) 14, 14, 28 4C, 4C, 4C

(2) 14, 28, 28 2C, 2C, 4C

(3) 14, 14, 14 2C, 4C, 4C

 (4) 28, 14, 14 4C, 2C, 2C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) How much duration is required for the formation of 8 cells from a single yeast cell?

(1) 90 minutes
(2) 180 minutes
(3) 270 minutes
(4) 720 minutes

33) How many meiotic (meiosis) divisions are required in rose plant to produce 500 pollen grains?

(1) 250
(2) 125
(3) 100
(4) 500

34) Chiasmata appears during :-

(1) Diakenesis
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

35) About 95% time of cell cycle is taken by :-

(1) G1 – phase
(2) S–phase
(3) M–phase
(4) Interphase

36) Given below the diagram of male reproductive system of cockroach in which various parts are
labelled by A, B, C and D. Select the option in which labelled part is correctly identified along with
their property or function ?

(1) A = Ejaculatory duct opens into anus

(2) B = Phallic gland and it secretes the outer most layer of the wall of spermatophore.
(3) C = Right phallomere and ejaculatory duct opens on it.
(4) D = Anal style and helps in receiving the sound waves.

37) Identify the labelled A, B, C and D and select the correct option about them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) How many pairs of cranial nerves are found in frog?

(1) 9 pairs
(2) 31 pairs
(3) 10 pairs
(4) 33 pairs

39) Select the incorrect statement for frog :-

(1) Frog has the ability to change its body colour

(2) Internal fertilization takes place in frog
(3) Sexual dimorphism is present in frog
(4) Frog shows indirect development

40) Go through the following figure indicating the male reproductive system of frog. Identify A to D.
(1) A-Bidder's canal; B-Adrenal gland; C-Urinogenital duct; D-Rectum
(2) A-Bidder's canal; B-Adrenal gland; C-Urinogenital duct; D-Cloaca
(3) A-Vasa efferentia; B-Adrenal gland; C-Urinogenital duct; D-Cloaca
(4) Vasa efferentia; B-Thyroid gland; C-Urinogenital duct; D-Cloaca

41) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

42) Match list I with list II and find the correct option :-

List I List II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)
A Cuboidal 1. Epidermis of skin
B Ciliated 2. Inner lining of blood vessels
C Columnar 3. Inner surface of gall bladder
D Squamous 4. Inner lining of Fallopian tube
Keratinized
E 5. Lining of pancreatic duct
squamous
(1) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(2), (D)–(3), (E)–(1)
(2) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(3) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(3), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(4) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(1), (E)–(2)

43) Find out correct matching :-

Column-I Column-II
Gap Connect bone to
(a) (i)
junction bone
Tight Connect bone to
(b) (ii)
junction muscle
 Stop leaking of
(c) Ligament (iii)
substances
Help in
(d) Tendon (iv) communication
with each other
(1) a–iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a–iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a–iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a–iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

44) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

45) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

46) How many statements from given below are related with above
figure ?
(a) Made up of more than one layer of cells.
(b) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(c) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(d) They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(e) Basement membrane is absent.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

47) Which one of the following is correctly labelled ?

(1) Collagen fibres and Fibroblast

(2) Fibroblast and mast cell
(3) Macrophage and collagen fibres
(4) Mast cell and macrophage

48) Select the correct statement regarding Periplaneta americana -

(1) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut.
(2) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.
Nervous system is located ventrally and consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a
(3)
pair of longitudinal connectives.
(4) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal styles.

49) Read the following statements and answer the question.

(i) It is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
(ii) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(iii) They are involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
Which of the following characteristics of tissue is being described by the above statements ?

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

50) Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ?

(i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells.
(ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
(iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense regular connective tissue.
(iv) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of specialized connective tissue.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (ii) and (iv)
(3) Both (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

51) Which of the follwing statement(s) is/are correct ?

(i) Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are included in class insecta of phylum
arthropoda.
(ii) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females.
(iii) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and
abdomen.
(iv) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.

(1) Only (i)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) All of the above

52) The intercellular material of the given figure is solid and resists compression. Identify the figure
and the label marked as A & B.

Figure A B

(1) Cartilage Collagen Chondrocyte

(2) Cartilage Collagen Chondroclast

(3) Bone Microtubule Chondroclast

(4) Bone Collagen fibres Osteoblast

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes and concludes the following characters.
(i) The cells are composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
(ii) Their nuclei are located at the base.
(iii) Free surface may have microvilli.
(iv) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
(v) They help in secretion and absorption.
Based on the above features identify the epithelium.

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar Epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

54) In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by :-

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna

(2) 7th sternum, and 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th and 10th terga, and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum

55) Supra oesophageal ganglia in cockroach supply nerve to :-

(1) Labrum and labium

(2) Compound eye and Labium
(3) Compound eye and Antennae
(4) Labium and Antennae

56)

Find out correct option for the respiration in Rana tigrina in different modes :-

During Hibernation
In Water On Land
and Aestivation

(1) Pulmonary Skin Lungs

Buccopharyngeal
(2) Cutaneous Pulmonary
cavity

Skin, Buccopharyngeal
(3) Skin Cutaneous
Cavity, Lungs

Buccopharyngeal
(4) Cutaneous Pulmonary
Cavity and lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Tendon and Ligament

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage and bone
58) Collagen fibres are not found in :-

(1) Dense regular connective tissue

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Areolar connective tissue
(4) Vascular connective tissue

59) The kind of tissue contain solid, pliable and Hard, Non pliable nature respectively :-

(1) Bone and cartilage

(2) Cartilage and bone
(3) Periosteum and endosteum
(4) Endosteum and periosteum

60) Study of tissues is known as :

(1) Cytology
(2) Histology
(3) Anatomy
(4) Physiology

61) _______ is the most abundant protein in animal world and _______ is the most abundant protein in
the whole biosphere.

(1) RuBisCO, Collagen

(2) Antibodies, RuBisCO
(3) Carbonic anhydrase, Cellulose
(4) Collagen, RuBisCO

62) ________ are nucleic acids with catalytic power.

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Ribozymes
(4) Plasmid DNA

63) Chitin present in the exoskeleton of arthropods is :-

(1) Protein
(2) Polysaccharide
(3) Lipid
(4) Monosaccharides

64) Statement-I : Cofactor of an enzyme may be a prosthetic group.

Statement-II : NAD derived from niacin is a coenzyme.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

65) The difference in average energy content of 'S' from that of transition state is called.

(1) Chemical energy

(2) Potential energy
(3) Kinetic energy
(4) Activation energy

66) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :-

only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate group is
(1)
also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate
(2)
group is also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a
(3)
glycerol molecule
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycol molecule to, which a phosphate group is also
(4)
attached

67) Name the amino acids A-C correctly.

(1) A-Glycine, B-Serine, C-Alanine

(2) A-Alanine, B-Glycine, C-Serine
(3) A-Serine, B-Glycine, C-Alanine
(4) A-Serine, B-Alanine, C-Glycine

68) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Dietary proteins are the source of non-essential amino acids

(2) Non-essential amino acids are synthesised in our body
(3) A homopolymer has only one type of monomers repeating 'n' number of times
Some proteins are enzymes, some are hormones, some transport nutrients across cell
(4)
membrane

69) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Acidic amino acid (1) Valine
 (b) Basic amino acid (2) Glutamic acid
(c) Neutral amino acid (3) Phenylalanine
(d) Aromatic amino acid (4) Lysine
(1) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(2) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(3) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(4) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–2

70) If molecular weight of x, y & z monosaccharide is respectively 200, 150, 180, then calculate the
molecular weight of the trisaccharide which is made up by them :-

(1) 512
(2) 494
(3) 530
(4) 548

71) (A) Metal ions are co-factor which form coordination bonds with side chains at the active site
and at the same time form one or more coordination bonds with the substrate
(B) Co-enzymes are organic compounds and their association with the apoenzyme is permanent.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
(3) Only (A) is correct
(4) Only (B) is correct

72) Following are the steps of the catalytic cycle of an enzyme action :-
(i) Enzyme releases the products and is ready to bind to another molecule of the substrate.
(ii) Binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the
substrate.
(iii) The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate, breaks the chemical bonds
of the substrate.
(iv) The substrate bind to the active site of the enzyme.
Choose the correct sequence of the steps.

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) iv, iii, ii, i
(3) iv, ii, iii, i
(4) iv, iii, i, ii

73) Which is true:

(1) Coenzyme = Holoenzyme + Apoenzyme

(2) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Apoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Exoenzyme
(4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Endoenzyme

74) Which one of the following plots best represents the relationship between the velocity of an
enzyme catalysed reaction (V) and substrate concentration (S)?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

75) Read the following statement (1–4)

(A) Fatty acid are saturated or unsaturated
(One or more than one C = C bond)
(B) Lecithin is a phospholipid which is present in plasma membrane
(C) M.P. of oils are high (Gingely oil). Hence they remain liquid in winter
(D) The molecular weight of lipid do not exceed 800 dalton but they are present in acid insoluble
pool.
How many statement are correct?

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D
(3) C, B
(4) A, C

76) Fatty acids are :-

(1) Constituent of lipid

(2) They may be saturated & unsaturated
(3) Unit of carbohydrate
(4) Both (1) and (2)

77) Number of fatty acids present in a molecule of phospholipid is :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) one
(4) none of these

78) Non protein part which cannot be easily separated from apoenzyme is :-

(1) Prosthetic group

(2) Coenzyme
(3) Activator
(4) Holoenzyme (conjugated enzyme)

79) How many of the following compounds are monosaccharides :-

Glycerol, Lecithin, Cholesterol, Triglyceride, Glucose.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cotton Fiber (i) Glycogen

(B) Exoskeleton of cockroach (ii) Chitin

(C) Liver (iii) Inulin

(D) Peeled potato (iv) Cellulose

(E) Root of Dahlia (v) Starch

A B C D E
(1) ii i iv iii v
(2) iv ii i v iii
(3) v iii ii i iv
(4) iv iii ii v i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81)

Fill in the blanks :-

1. Based on the nature of a there are 20 amino acids.
2. Based on number of b and c groups, there are acidic, basic and neutral amino acids.

3. The R group in serine is d .

(1) a–amino, b–R group, c–carboxyl, d–methyl
(2) a–carboxyl, b–amino, c–R group, d–hydroxy methyl
(3) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–hydroxy methyl
(4) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–methyl

82) Substrate concentration at which an enzyme attains half of its max velocity is ?

(1) Half life of enzyme

(2) Km-constant of enzyme
(3) Concentration ratio
(4) Competitive inhibition

83) Nitrogen containing homopolysaccharide is:–

(1) Chitin
(2) Starch
(3) Glycogen
(4) Cellulose

84) Statement-I : Cofactors are non-protein constituents which make enzyme catalytically active.
Statement-II : Competitive inhibitors are often used to control bacterial pathogens.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

85) Read the following :-

(a) Low temperature preserves the enzyme.
(b) Enzymes activity increases above optimum temperature.
(c) Enzymes get denatured at high temperature.
(d) Competitive inhibitor competes with the product formed.
Which of the following statement are true?

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (b) & (d)
(3) (c) & (d)
(4) (a) & (b)

86) A competitive inhibitor of Succinic dehydrogenase is :-

(1) Malate
(2) Malonate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) Succinate

87) __________ inhibitors are after used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(1) Competitive reversible
(2) Non-competitive reversible
(3) Competitive irreversible
(4) Non-competitive irreversible

88) Choose the correct combination :-

1. Carbohydrate a. Trypsin

2. Protein b. Cholesterol

3. Nucleic acid c. Inulin

4. Lipid d. Adenylic acid

(1) 1–c, 2–a, 3–d, 4–b
(2) 1–b, 2–c, 3–d, 4–a
(3) 1–c, 2–d, 3–a, 4–b
(4) 1–d, 2–a, 3–b, 4–c

89) Which one is di amino mono carboxylic amino acid?

(1) Glutamic acid

(2) Lysine
(3) Alanine
(4) Valine

90) The biomolecule whose weight is less than ________ dalton (Da) is referred to as
biomicromolecule:

(1) 800
(2) 18
(3) 1000
(4) 10,000
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 4 1 4 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 1 1 1 4 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) V ∝ or V ∝ σR
V1 = V2
∴ σ1R1 = σ2R2

2)
Total force on charge at B is

is along

so

3) Potential due to shell

4)

V2 = 32 V
5)

Flux enclosed by the loop

=
so Qin = – 10C

6) Use gauss theorem = Number of electric field lines

7) 1. Explanation: When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, it acquires a positive charge
by losing electrons. The problem asks to find the number of electrons lost by the glass rod.
2. Concept: The number of electrons lost can be found by dividing the charge on the glass rod
by the charge of one electron.
3. Formula: Number of electrons Total charge Charge of one electron Number of electrons Q
e=
4. Calculation:
Given:
Q 19.2 × 10–19C, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C

Number of electrons
Answer: 4) 12

8)

F= ...(1)

= ...(2)

From eq(1) & (2) =

⇒ =

2x + +4=9

Let
2x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 ⇒ (x = 2, 1/2)

9)

10)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

11)

Ui =

and Uf = kQq

Here, k=
ΔU = Uf – Ui

or |ΔU| = (for x << a)

∴ ΔU ∝ x2

12)

The time required to fall through distance d is or Since a

proton takes more time

13) Force on charge q in electric field E ⇒ F = qE ⇒ a =

∴ Distance travelled ⇒

Also, kinetic energy K.E = Work done by electric field E is WE = qE.

14) W = Fr cos θ ⇒ ∴ 4 = (0.2) E (2) cos 60°

∴ E = 20 N/C.

15)
16)
For q0 to be in equilibrium

taking square root both sides

72a – 4r = 5r
8a = r
x = 10a

17)
After apply induction charge on outer surface
σ1 = σ2 = σ3

⇒
Q2 = 3Q1
and

⇒ Q3 = 5Q1
Q1 : Q2 : Q3
1:3:5

18)

Potential of both spheres are same, so no charge will flow.

19)
Wext = q(VQ – VP)

Wext = q
Wext =

20)
Using COME

⇒ rmin =

21) Electric potential at P;

22)

θ + α = 90°

θ + tan–1 tanθ = 90°

= tan(90 – θ)
tan θ = 2
2

tanθ =
θ=

23) Electric field inside a conductor is zero & constant.

24)

QTotal = 3Q + Q – 2Q = 2Q charge on outer surfaces of first and third plates

=
25)

vcentre = vsurface = ⇒ V ∝ R ⇒ V2=2V

26)
magnitude of unit vector is one.

27) and
and are parallel to each other

i.e.,

28) If two vectors A and B are given then range of their resultant can be written as (A – B)
(A+B) i.e.,
and .
If B = 1 and A = 4 then their resultant will lies in between 3 N and 5 N. It can never be 2 N.
If these three vectors are represented by three sides of triangle then they form equilateral
triangle.

29)

30) Apply polygon law,

We get and

31) Angle between and is 120°.

32) The X and Y components of a force F is

and Y component of force F is

33)

34) By theory

35) Area of a parallelogram =

where, a and b are sides of parallelogram
Given,
and

= (4 - 6) - (-5 - 9) + (10 + 12)

=

Thus area,
sq. units

36) (ex cosx)

= ex (cosx) + cosx. (ex)

= ex (–sinx) + cosx(ex)
= ex (cosx – sinx)
37)

y = 2x3–15x2+36x+11

x = 2,3

at x = 2; Maxima

at x= 3; =+6 > 0 ; Minima

max value ;
at x = 2 y = 2×8-(15×4)+72+11
y = 39
min. value
at x = 3; y = 2×27-15×9+36×3+11
y = 38

38) Formula Used :

Calculation :
Comparing with the standard from :
Here a = 5, b = –3
Applying the formula:

39)
= 120

40) sin 300° = sin (360° – 60°) = – sin 60° = –

tan (180° + θ) = tan θ
cos (270° – θ) = -sin θ
 41)
tanθ decreases initially then becomes zero. After C tanθ increases

42)

sin 15° = sin(45° – 30°)

= sin45° cos30° – cos45° sin30°

43)

=1

44)

45)

In graph a = 3, b = 2

thus ⇒

CHEMISTRY

46)

Fact

47)

49)
A(g) + B(g) → C(g)
Rate1 = k[A]1/2 [B]2
A → 4A
B → 2B
R2 = k[4A]1/2 [2B]2
R2 = (4)1/2 k[A]1/2 4[B]2
R2 = 2 × 4 k[A]1/2 [B]2
R2 = 8R1

51)

52)

molecularity = Sum of balancing coefficients of reactants.

54)

torr.

55) Raoult's law is applicable for ideal solution.

57) , Kp = Vp of liq, ΔrH = + ve

T↓, Vp↓

58)

Total 4 colligative properties

(1) Relative lowering in V.P
(2) Elevation in Bpt
(3) Depression in fpt
(4) Osmotic pressure

59)

62)

ΔTb = Kb × m; 0.1 = Kb ×

63)
64)

66)

N=M×n
1=M×2

67) (1) ; ∴ Tf = –1.86° C.

68)

72)

73)

Molarity of pure water = = 55.5 M

74)

π = CRT, where C = 1 M
∴ π = CRT = 1 × 0.0821 × 300 = 24.6 atm

75)

Basicity of H3PO3 is 2.
∴ 0.3 M H3PO3 = 0.6 N
N=M×n

76)

78)

Fact

80) then
 82) R = K3[O3] [O] (slow) ....(i)

(fast)

...(ii)
Replace [O] from (ii) to equation (i)

83)

84)

85)

Addition of equal volume of water means molality becomes half.

ΔTf = 0.272

86)

87)

88) M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3

⇒ 0.5 × 20 + 0.3 × 30 = M3[V1 + V2]

⇒ 10 + 9 = M3[20 + 30], ∴ M3 = = 0.38

89)

90) V.S. = N × 5.6

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT XI, Page # 94

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Chromosome number remain same and DNA contents get double in S-Phase due to DNA
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