11-06-2026

0000OMD303029250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) A long straight wire of radius 'a' carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The

ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance and 2a respectively, from the axis of the
wire is :-

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

2) Magnetic field at point 'P' due to both infinite long current carrying wires is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation : ϕ = 5t3 – 100t + 300
The magnitude of emf induced in the coil at 3s is :

(1) 10V
(2) 20V
(3) 35V
(4) 70V

4) Graph shows voltage (V) and current (I) against time for an AC circuit where all elements are in
series. Circuit may contain :-

(1) L, C only
(2) L only
(3) L,R only
(4) R, C only

5) A parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a battery as shown in the figure. If two circular

amperian loop x and y are drawn, then will be zero along :-

(1) x only
(2) y only
(3) Both x and y
(4) Neither x, nor y

6) The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with frequency f in a series L,C,R circuit. Then, for

what frequency point, the circuit is inductive ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All points

7) A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each other at 45°. The intensity of polarised light
emerging from the analyser is I. The intensity of unpolarized light incident on the polariser is :

(1)

(2) 2I
(3) 4I
(4) I
8) If in Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is halved and the distance
between slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width will become -

(1) half
(2) double
(3) four times
(4) unchanged

9) Statement-1 : A concave mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of
the object.
Statement-2 : An object placed between the pole and focus of concave mirror produces a virtual
and enlarged image.

(1) Statement-1 is right and statement-2 wrong.

(2) Statemnent-1 is wrong and statement-2 right.
(3) Statement-1 is right and statement-2 right.
(4) Both are wrong

10) A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the
principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, then the power of a cut lens will be :-

(1) 2D
(2) 3D
(3) 4D
(4) 5D

11)

A light ray incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism and emerges out grazingly at the
other face. The refractive index of the prism is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) Find current in 5Ω resistance

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Three initially uncharged capacitor of capacitance C1 = 3µF, C2 = 2µF and C3 = 1µF are
connected to each other between point A, B and D as shown in figure. Potential at point A, B and D

are respectively 10V, 25V and 20 V. Find potential at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A cell E1 of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ω is arranged with another cell E2 of emf 6V and
internal resistance 1Ω as shown in the diagram. The potential difference between points A and B is :

(1) 3 V
(2) 4 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 7 V
16)

Output for the following Boolean circuit is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The number of photons per sec on an average emitted by the source of light of wavelength 400
nm. When it delivers the power of 1MW will be :-

(1) 1018
(2) 2 × 1024
(3) 2 × 1026
(4) 2 × 1021

18) The number of electron hole pair in a pure silicon crystal at 300 K is 6 × 1015 m–3. When it is
doped by indium the electron concentration becomes 1.2 × 109 m–3. The number of indium atoms
mixed per cubic meter is (approx) :-

(1) 1.2 × 109

(2) 6 × 1015
(3) 3 × 1022
(4) 5 × 106

19) According to de-Broglie, the de-Broglie wavelength for electron in an orbit of (radius 5.3 × 10–11
m) hydrogen atom is 1.1 × 10–10 m. The principle quantum number of this electron is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) The minimum intensity of light to be detected by human eye is 10–10 W/m2. The number of
photons of wavelength 5.6 × 10–7 m entering the eye, with pupil area 10–6 m2, per second for vision
will be nearly :-

(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 400
21) Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :-

(1) 48 × 103 J
(2) 10 × 103 J
(3) 12 × 103 J
(4) 24 × 103 J

22) A diatomic gas does 200 J of work when it expands isobarically. The heat given to gas in the
process is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 700 J

23) The pressure (P) and absolute temperature (T) of an ideal gas are related to each other as

P∝ . If temperature of gas is 300 K and its volume changes from V to 8 V, then find the final
temperature of gas.

(1) 600 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 373 K
(4) 273 K

24) This question has Statement-1, Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the Statement,
choose the one that best describes the two statement.
Statement-1 : In the resonance tube experiment, if the tunning fork is replace by another identical
tuning fork but with its arm having been filed, the length of the air column should be increased to
obtain resonance again.
Statement-2 : On filing the arms, the frequency of a tuning fork increases.

Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(3)
Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.

25) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier
scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm
26) Two particle A and B are projected as shown in figure. Maximum height is same for both the

particles. uA and uB are initial speeds of A and B respectively then :-

(1) uA < uB
(2) uA > uB
(3) uA = uB
(4) TB > TA

27) If relation between position x of any particle & time t is given as x = at2 – bt3; at what time
acceleration becomes zero?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

28) A particle moves with uniform speed in a circular path the angle between instantaneous velocity
and acceleration is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 90°
(4) 45°

29) In rotatory motion of a rigid body :–

(1) All the particles have same linear velocity and same angular velocity
(2) All the particles have same angular velocity but may have different linear velocity
(3) All the particles have same linear velocity but different angular velocity
(4) All the particles have different linear velocity as well as different angular velocity

30) The figure shows a graph between velocity and displacement (from mean position) of a particle

performing SHM. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) The time period of the particle is 1.57s

(2) The maximum acceleration will be 40cm/s2
(3) The velocity of particle is cm/s when it is at a distance 1 cm from the mean position.
(4) None of these
31) The graph shows the variation of displacement of a particle executing SHM with time. We say

from this graph, that :-

(1) The force is zero at time 3T/4

(2) The velocity is maximum at time T/2
(3) The acceleration is maximum at time T
(4) The P.E. is equal to half of total energy at time T/2

32) A wire increases by 10–3 of its length when a stress of 1 × 108 N/m2 is applied to it. Young's
modulus of material of wire is

(1) 1011 N/m2

(2) 1010 N/m2
(3) 108 N/m2
(4) 106 N/m2

33) A capillary tube is taken from the earth to the surface of moon. The rise of the liquid column on
moon, if acceleration due to gravity on earth is six times that on moon is:-

(1) Six times that on the earth's surface

(2) 1/6 that on the earth's surface
(3) Equal to that on the earth's surface
(4) Zero

34) Potential energy of mass m depends on position x as U(x) = here a & b are positive

constant, then dimensional formula of will be :-

(1) ML2T–2
(2) L
(3) M
(4) T

35) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is :-

(1) East-north direction

(2) West-north direction
(3) South-east direction
(4) None of these
36) A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He pulls on the rope which is attached to the
platform via the frictionless pulleys as shown in the fig. The platform moves upwards at a constant

velocity if the force with which the person pulls the rope is :-

(1) 500 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 25 N
(4) 50 N

37) Find magnitude of frictional force acting on the block :-

(1) 50 N
(2)
(3) 25 N
(4) 0

38) Six identical balls are lined in a straight groove made on a horizontal frictionless surface as
shown. Two similar balls each moving with a velocity v collide elastically with the row of 6 balls from

left. What will happen then ?

(1) One ball from the right rolls out with a speed 2v and the remaining balls will remain at rest
Two balls from the right roll out with speed v each and the remaining balls will remain
(2)
stationary
All the six balls in the row will roll out with speed v/6 each and the two colliding balls will come
(3)
to rest
(4) The colliding balls will come to rest and no ball rolls out from right

39) A ladder leans against a wall. If the ladder is not to slip, which one of the following statement

must be true?
(1) The coefficient of friction between the ladder and the wall must not be zero
(2) The coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor must not be zero
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

40) If a block of mass m in figure is released from rest when extension in the spring is x0. The

maximum downward displacement of the block from initial position. (assume )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Find out mechanical advantage of given machine in diagram :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

42) If radius of earth is increase by 200% by keeping its mass constant then its acceleration due to
gravity at surface will become :

(1) 2g
(2) g/3
(3) g/2
(4) g/9

43) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/m2. To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a lake so
that its volume is decreased by 0.1 % ?
(1) 1 km
(2) 25 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 200 m

44) A wheel of moment of inertia 2.0 × 103 kgm2 is rotating at uniform angular speed of 4 rads–1.
What is the torque required to stop it in one second :-

(1) 0.5 × 103 Nm

(2) 8.0 × 103 Nm
(3) 2.0 × 103 Nm
(4) none of these

45) A sample of O2 is at a pressure of 1 atm when the volume is 100 ml and its temperature is 27°C.
What will be the temperature of the gas if the pressure becomes 2 atm and volume remains 100 ml.

(1) 327°C
(2) 300°C
(3) 600°C
(4) 427°C

CHEMISTRY

1) (A) B,
End product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) Which of following reaction does not involves carbocation intermediate ?

(1) Addition of HBr at alkene

(2) SN1 reaction at alkyl halide
(3) Friedal craft alkylation
(4) Halogenation of alkane

3) A zero order reaction is 20% complete in 10 min. The time for 45% completion is :

(1) 20 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 45 min
(4) 22.5 min

4) Which of the following is not Δsol H° reaction ?

(1) CuSO4(s) + aq → CuSO4 (aq)

(2) CuSO4(s) + 100 H2O(ℓ) → CuSO4.100 H2O (aq)
(3) CuSO4(s) + 200 aq → CuSO4.200 H2O (aq)
(4) CuSO4(s) + 5H2O(ℓ) → CuSO4.5H2O(s)

5) When two mole of an ideal gas (Cp,m = ) heated from 300 K to 600 K at constant pressure. The
change in entropy of gas (ΔS) is :-

(1)
R ℓn 2

(2)
– R ℓn 2
(3) 5R ℓn 2

(4)
ℓn 2

6) Which of the following is incorrect statement

+ +
(1) [Ag(NH3)2] is linear with sp hybridised Ag ion
2– 3– –
(2) NiCl4 , VO4 and MnO4 have tetrahedral geometry
2+ 2+ 2– 3
(3) [Cu(NH3)4] , [Pt(NH3)4] and [Ni(CN)4] have sp hybridisation of the metal ion
(4) has tetrahedral geometry

7) An alloy which does not contain copper ?

(1) Bronze
(2) Misch metal
(3) Brass
(4) UK copper

8) Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of lanthanides?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If degree of hydrolysis of certain anions is

A– < B– < C– < D– , then which acid will have maximum pKa value.

(1) HA
(2) HB
(3) HC
(4) HD

10) The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10 mm Hg when a non-volatile solute was added
to the solvent. The mole fraction of solute in solution is 0.2. What would be the mole fraction of the
solvent if decrease in vapour pressure is 20 mm of Hg :-

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.2

11) Assertion : Negatively charged As2S3 colloidal sol is obtained by double decomposition method
using As2O3 and H2S.
As2O3 + 3H2S → As2S3 + 3H2O
Reason : Adsorption of As3+ ions take place on As2S3 when As2O3 solution is saturated with H2S.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

12) Select the correct statement :-

(1) NaHCO3(s) & KHCO3(s) has the same crystalline structure.

(2) Cl has higher ionisation energy than F
(3) Cl2 has higher bond energy than F2
(4) Fe3O4 is not a mixed oxide

13) Which of the following oxy acid gives peroxymonosulphuric acid on hydrolysis ?

(1) H2SO5
(2) H2S2O7
(3) H2S2O8
(4) None

14) (3E) – 4-Chloropenta-1,3-diene is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Arrange the following in order of their stability :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > IV > III > I
(4) III > II > I > IV
16) Which of the following reaction does not give primary amine as a product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Number of compound which can be oxidised by Tollen's reagent

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(vii)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

18) Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) 6 electrons are present in Mg for which m = 0
(b) 6 electron are present in one p-orbital of Mg
(c) Maximum 18 electrons are present in M shell

(d) 3–electrons are present in phosphorous for which, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s =

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b c
(3) a, c, d
(4) c, d

19) Which of the following disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin K ?

(1) Beri-beri
(2) Rickets
(3) Scurvy
(4) Increases blood clotting time
20) d-orbitals participating in the hybridisation of cationic part of PCl5 (solid) ?

(1) dxy, dyz

(2)
(3) only
(4) None

21) Value of bond angle α ?

(1) 120° < α > 109.5°

(2) 117° < α > 134°
(3) α = 180°
(4) Can't predict

22)

The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of area 100 cm2
separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001 Ω–1. If volume enclosed between two electrode contain
0.1 mole of salt, what is the molar conductivity (Scm2mol–1) of salt at same concentration :-

(1) 10
(2) 0.1
(3) 1
(4) 0.01

23) Which pair of elements has highest difference of first ionisation enthalpy ?

(1) Na, K
(2) Ar, Cs
(3) Kr, Xe
(4) H, F

24) Which product is not formed in given reaction :-

(1) Ph–NH2
(2)
(3) Ph – OH
(4)

25) Most reactive hydrogen in free radical substitution is:-

(1) Hα
(2) Hβ
(3) Hγ
(4) Hδ

26) Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) CFSE in weak ligand field for d configuration is –0.6 Δ0

4

2–
(2) Effective atomic number of Pt in [PtCl6] is 84 (Z of Pt = 78)
–
(3) Br is a weak field ligand than H2O
(4) [Cr(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 shows linkage isomerism

28)
B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Three lanthanides which also show +2 oxidation state also :

(1) Sm, Tb, Gd

(2) Sm, Eu, Yb
(3) La, Gd, Lu
(4) Yb, Pm, Sm

30) We have three aqueous solutions of KCl labelled as A, B, C with concentrations of 0.1 M, 0.01M,
0.001 M respectively. The value of van't Hoff factor for these solution will be in the order.

(1) iA < iB < iC

(2) iA > iB > iC
(3) iA = iB = iC
(4) iA < iC < iB

31)
Reagent is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) DIBAL–H
⊕
(4) NaBH4, H /H2O

32) Which cell will measure standard electrode potential of copper electrode?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Match the columns :

List-II
List-I
(Nature of
(Reaction)
Products)

(A) (i) Alkane

(B) (ii) Ketone

Tertiary
(C) (iii)
alcohol

Secondary
(D) (iv)
alcohol

(1) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(iii)

(2) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(iii), (D)→(i)
(3) (A)→(iv), (B)→(ii), (C)→(i), (D)→(iii)
(4) (A)→(iv), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iii), (D)→(i)

34) Match the column :

 Compound B.P./K

(A) n-C4H9NH2 (P) 390°

(B) C2H5N(CH3)2 (Q) 300.8°

(C) C2H5CH(CH3)2 (R) 310.5°

(D) n-C4H9OH (S) 350.8°

(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(2) A→P, B→R, C→Q, D→S
(3) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(4) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P

35) Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the recently discovered element of carbon
family :

(1) Unnilquadium
(2) Ununquadium
(3) Ununseptium
(4) Unniloctium

36) Match the column ?

Column
Column II
I
(Hybridisation)
(species)
–
A I3 P sp3

B XeO3F2 Q sp

C SiO2 R sp3d

D BeCl2 S sp3d2

T sp2
(1) A - R, B - R, C - Q, D - Q
(2) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q
(3) A - P, B - S, C - T, D - S
(4) A - R, B - R, C - P, D - Q

37)

In which of the following molecules both removal and addition of electrons leads to a decrease in
bond order ?

(1) F2
(2) O2
(3) N2
(4) B2

38) The correct order of the strength of H bonds is

(1) HF > H2O > NH3

(2) NH3 > H2O > HF
(3) H2O > NH3 > HF
(4) HF > NH3 > H2O

39) Assertion : [CoCl3(NH3)3] does not give white precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
Reason : [CoCl3(NH3)3] complex is optically inactive.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

40) Identify incorrect statement :-

(1) Butane 2,3-diol shows optical isomerism

(2)
is a meso compound
Ortho nitrophenol has more boiling point than para nitrophenol due to intermolecular H-
(3)
bonding
(4) Cis pent-2-ene has more dipole moment than trans pent-2-ene

41) For the given reaction

P4 + 3O2 → P4O6
If 62 g of P4 is reacted with excess of oxygen the percentage yield is 80%. Then the amount of
product formed is :

(1) 42.6 g
(2) 110 g
(3) 88 g
(4) 28.4 g

42) If the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+ is 9X/5 cm. then the shortest wavelength of H-
atom in Lyman series is :

(1) X/4 cm
(2) X/2 cm
(3) 5X/3 cm
(4) X cm

43) Solubility of Al(OH)3 in decimolar KOH solution is (Ksp of Al(OH)3 = 1.90 × 10–33)
(1) 1.90 × 10–32 M
(2) 1.90 × 10–30 M
(3) 1.48 × 10–8 M
(4) 1.48 × 10–30 M

44) Ammonium carbamate decomposes as

NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
For this reaction, Kp = 108 × 10–6 atm3. If we start with 1 mole of the ammonium carbamate, then the
total pressure at equilibrium would be :

(1) 0.058 atm

(2) 0.048 atm
(3) 0.09 atm
(4) 0.03 atm

45) A first order reaction is 90% complete in 40 min calculate the half life of the reaction :

(1) 13.03 min

(2) 12.03 min
(3) 11.03 min
(4) 10.03 min

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct statements ?
(A) All living members of the class cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(B) Closed type of circulation is present in cyclostomata.
(C) In chondrichthyes notochord persists throughout the life.
(D) Chondrichthyes have circular and sucking mouth without jaw.

(1) A and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only A
(4) A, B and C

2) Excretory product of Tadpole larva of Frog.

(1) Ammonia
(2) Urea
(3) Uric acid
(4) (1) and (2) both

3) Which of the following situation is responsible for the closure of cuspid valve (Bicuspid and
tricuspid) ?

(1) Increasing the atrial pressure than ventricular pressure.

(2) Decreasing of atrial pressure than vena cava
(3) Increasing the ventricular pressure than Atrial Pressure.
(4) Increasing the ventricular Pressure than Aortic Pressure

4) Match the Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct option -

Column - I Column - II

(a) AB+ Blood group (i) Universal Donor

(b) Basophils (ii) Most abundant Blood cell

(c) Erythrocytes (iii) Least in Blood

(d) O– ve blood (iv) Universal receipient

(1) a-(i); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(i)
(3) a-(iv); b-(iii); c-(ii); d-(i)
(4) a-(iv); b-(i); c-(ii); d-(iii)

5) How many given parts of respiratory tract are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings ?
Trachea, Tertiary bronchi, Terminal bronchioles, Secondary bronchi, Alveoli, initial bronchioles.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

6) Glomerular filtrate formed by the glomerulus can be described as -

(1) Blood - formed elements only

(2) Plasma + WBC
(3) Blood - (formed elements + Plasma Proteins)
(4) Plasma + Platelets

7) Which part of the brain controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes ?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

8) Assertion : Electrical synapses are faster than chemical synapses.

Reason : In electrical synapse, impulse transmission occurs through neurotransmitter.

(1) Assertion and Reason both false.

(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion and Reason both true.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

9) Which part of the muscle stores Ca+2 ions ?

(1) Sarcolemma
(2) Myofibrils
(3) Z-line
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

10) Which of the following is the disorder related to skeletal system ?

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Tetany

11) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I : PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases the surface
area for reabsorption.
Statement-II : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ & water takes place in DCT.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

12) Given below the diagram. Identify these muscles (A, B and C) :-

(1) A - Smooth muscle, B - striated muscles, C - cardiac muscle

(2) A - Striated muscle, B - smooth muscle, C - cardiac muscle
(3) A - Involuntary muscle, B - voluntary muscle, C - cardiac muscle
(4) A - Cardiac muscle, B - smooth muscle, C - Striated muscle

13) Match the List-I with List-II related to digestive system of cockroach.

List-I List-II

(A) Structures used for grinding of food (I) Pharynx

 (B) Located at the junction of foregut and midgut (II) Hepatic caeca

(C) Located at the junction of midgut and hindgut (III) Malpighian tubules

(D) Mouth opens into (IV) Mandibles

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

14) In male cockroach a pair of unjointed filamentous structure called anal style are present on

(1) 5th segment

(2) 9th segment
(3) 8th and 9th segment
(4) 11th segment

15) Which of the following factors are favourable for dissociation of O2 from oxyhaemoglobin in
tissues ?

(1) High pO2 and High pCO2

+
(2) High pCO2 and More H concentration
+
(3) Low pCO2 and High H concentration
(4) Low pCO2 and Low temperature

16) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Tidal volume (TV) (I) 1000-1100 ml

(B) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) (II) 500 ml

(C) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) (III) 1100-1200 ml

(D) Residual volume (RV) (IV) 2500-3000 ml

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

17) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?

(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagon
(3) Cortisol
(4) Epinephrine
18) Which of the following is an auto-immune disorder?

(1) Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Gout
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Tetany

19) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Datura (I) Erythroxylum coca

(B) Smack (II) Cannabis sativa

(C) Crack (III) Hallucinogenic properties

(D) Hashish (IV) Papaver somniferum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

20) Match the list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

(A) Non-medicated IUD (I) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation

(B) Copper releasing IUD (II) Block gamete transport

(C) Hormone releasing IUD (III) Suppress sperm motility

(D) Sterlisation (IV) Phagocytosis of sperm

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

21) Which of the following is a Natural/traditional contraceptive method ?

(1) Condom
(2) Copper-T
(3) Vaults
(4) Periodic abstinence

22) Which of the following is not a component of vulva ?

(1) Penile urethra

(2) Labia Majora
(3) Labia Minora
(4) Clitoris

23) Identify the correct option (A),(B),(C),(D) with respect to role of Hormones in female.

(1) FSH, LH, Progesterone, Relaxin

(2) FSH, LH, Progesterone, oestrogen
(3) FSH, LH, Progesterone, oxytocin
(4) FSH, LH, oestrogen, Relaxin

24) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as a
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) :- The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during Pregnancy
Reason (R) :- Level of Progesterone hormone are very high during Pregnancy.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

25) Which of the following factors will affect the Hardy-weinberg equilibrium ?

(1) Large population

(2) Random mating
(3) Constant gene pool
(4) Mutation

26) Eyes of an octopus and of mammals are examples of the -

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Natural selection
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Divergent evolution
27) Given below are two statements :-
Statement-I : Bone marrow is the secondary lymphoid organ where all blood cells including
lymphocytes are produced.
Statement-II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of B-Lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the optionsgiven
below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II arecorrect.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II isincorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II iscorrect.

28) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Zygotene (I) Crossing over

(B) Diplotene (II) Synapsis

(C) Pachytene (III) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(D) Diakinesis (IV) Chiasmata formation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A–IV), (B–II), (C–III), (D–I)
(2) (A–I), (B–II), (C–IV), (D–III)
(3) (A–II), (B–IV), (C–I), (D–III)
(4) (A–II), (B–I), (C–III), (D–IV)

29) Following are the stages of cell division?

(A) Synthetic phase
(B) Anaphase
(C) Cytokinesis
(D) Metaphase
(E) G2 – Phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below-

(1) C–E–D–A–B
(2) A–E–D–B–C
(3) B–C–A–D–E
(4) D–E–C–B–A

30) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : Mitochondria and chloroplast both have 70s ribosome.
Statement-II : The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

31) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : Compaction of chromosomes continues throughout leptotene.
Statement-II : 'X' shaped structure are called chiasmata which is visible in diplotene.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

32) At which stage all chromosomes coming to lie at the equator with one chromatid of each
chromosome is connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibre from one pole and its sister chromatid
connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibre from the opposite pole -

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

33) Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destind to form shoot when the seed

germinates :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

34) Which of the following is not an example of actinomorphic flower ?

(1) Datura
(2) Sesbania
(3) Mustard
(4) Brinjal

35) Bulliform cells are responsible for :-

(1) Maintain pressure gradiant in guard cell.
(2) Increased photosynthesis in dicots.
(3) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
(4) Opening of stomata

36) Lecithin, found in cell membrane, is an example of : -

(1) Proteins
(2) Polysaccharides
(3) Glycerol
(4) Phospholipid

37) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In C3-plants, some O2 binds to PEPcase hence CO2 fixation is decreased.
Statement-II : In C3-plants, bundle sheath cells show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both Statements are true.

(2) Both Statements are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement -I is false but Statement-II is true.

38) Spraying juvenile conifers with which of the following plant growth regulators to promote early
seed production ?

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin

39) Read the following statements regarding the members of ascomycetes :-

(A) Motile asexual spores are produced exogenously.
(B) Immotile sexual spores are produced endogenously.
(C) Edible members are commonly known as Agaricus.
(D) Mycelium is branched and aseptate.
Choose the incorrect statement from the options given below :

(1) B only
(2) B and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, C and D only

40) Formation of tracheary elements from the cells of shoot apical meristems is an example for

(1) Differentiation
(2) Redifferentiation
(3) Dedifferentiation
(4) Elongation

41) Identify the step in aerobic respiration, which does not involve decarboxylation of substrate ?

(1) Citric acid → α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) Pyruvic acid → acetyl-CoA
(3) Succinic acid → malic acid
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid → succinic acid

42) Which bonds are formed between metal ions and side chains at active site of enzymes ?

(1) Ionic bonds

(2) Covalent bonds
(3) Coordination bonds
(4) Peptide Bonds

43) Choose the correct sequence for the enzyme action :-

(1) E + S → ES ⇄ EP → E + P
(2) E + S ⇄ ES ⇄ EP → E + P
(3) E + P ⇄ EP → ES → E + S
(4) E + S ⇄ ES → EP → E + P

44) When the incisions of the lamina reach upto the mid rib breaking it into number of leaflets are
called :-

(1) Petiole
(2) Phyllotaxy
(3) Simple leaf
(4) Compound leaf

45) When xylem and phloem within vascular bundle are arranged in alternate manner along the
different radii, the arrangement is called as :

(1) Conjoint closed

(2) Radial
(3) Conjoint open
(4) 1 & 3 both

46) What is common among Spirogyra, Laminaria and Polysiphonia?

(1) All have immotile gametes.

(2) All have glycogen as stored food.
(3) All have chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
(4) All are autotrophic organisms.
47) Which of the following basis was used by Carolus Linnaeus for two kingdom system of
classification ?

(1) Cell structure

(2) Presence or absence of cell wall
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
(4) Stored food

48) Which of the following shows isogamy ?

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Cedrus

49) Select the correct statement :

(1) Biological names are separately underlined when they printed.

(2) Artifical system of classification is based on all observable characters
(3) Numerical taxonomy gives equal weightage to each character
(4) Always a genus have only one specific epithet

50) The primary acceptor of CO2 in maize plant is :-

(1) MA
(2) PEP
(3) OAA
(4) PGAL

51) Select the group of aromatic amino acids :

(1) Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, tryptophan

(2) Glutamic acid, Phenylalanine, tryptophan
(3) Valine, Glutamic acid, glycine
(4) Lysin, Valine, glycine

52) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles.
(2) Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms
(3) Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification
Taxonomic groups/categories are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological
(4)
aggregates

53) Which one is colonial form of algae ?

(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Volvox
(3) Chara
(4) Spirogyra

54) The strobili bearing microsporophylls and microsporangia are called :-

(1) Microsporangiate strobili

(2) Male strobili
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Female strobili

55) Identify the stage of mitosis shown in given figure

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

56) Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults especially in middle age can result in severe
disfigurement (especially of the face) called:

(1) Acromegaly
(2) Cretinism
(3) Dwarfism
(4) Addison’s disease

57) Identify the correct statement related to the development of transgenic animals for study of
diseases :-

(1) Transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of role of genes in diseases
(2) Animals are developed as models for human diseases to investigate new methods of treatments
(3) Models exist for alzheimer's and cystic fibrosis
(4) All of these

58) Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin by
genetic engineering :

(1) Splitting A and B polypeptide chains

(2) Addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin
(3) Obtainment of insulin into mature form
(4) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
59) Select odd one out with respect to function of cell wall -

(1) Protect the cell from mechanical damage

(2) Help in cell to cell interaction
(3) Provide barrier to desirable micromolecules
(4) Provide shape to the plant cell

60) Due to the one citric acid cycle, how many ATPwill be produced by oxidative phosphorylation ?

(1) Fourteen
(2) Fifteen
(3) Twelve
(4) Eleven

61) Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on ability of _A_ to
regulate _B_ population ?

(1) A - Parasite; B - Predator

(2) A - Prey; B - Predator
(3) A - Predator; B - Parasite
(4) A - Predator; B-Prey

62) Which among the given age pyramids of human population represents stable population -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances, this process is
called -

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Catabolism
(4) Humification
64) Select the correct statement -

(1) Small standing crop of phytoplankton can support large standing crop of zooplankton.
(2) In grassland ecosystem pyramid of energy is always upright.
(3) In grassland ecosystem pyramid of biomass is upright
(4) All of the above

65) India has more than 50000 different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango, this can be
explained by -

(1) Genetic diversity

(2) Species diversity
(3) Ecological diversity
(4) Community diversity

66) Match column-I with column-II.

Species % of species facing threat of extinction

a. Mammal species i. 12%

b. Bird species ii. 31%

c. Gymnosperm species iii. 23%

d. Amphibian species iv. 32%

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

67) Assuming that fur colour of an animal is dark, range of colour shade and white. A cross is made
between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour and female (aabbcc) with white fur colour. What
would be the fur colour of F1 generation ?

(1) All intermediate colour

(2) All dark colour
(3) All white colour
(4) Range of colour shade

68) When modified allele produces a non functional enzyme then the phenotype or trait will only be
dependent on the functioning of :

(1) Modified allele

(2) Unmodified allele
(3) Both modified allele and unmodified allele
(4) Not dependent on any type of allele

69) Which of the following statements are correct about Down's syndrome ? (a) The cause of this
genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome no. 18. (Trisomy of 18)
(b) This disorder was first described by Langdon Down.
(c) The affected individual is short statured with large round head.
(d) Furrowed tongue and partially open month.

(1) All a, b, c, d are correct

(2) only a and b are correct
(3) only b and c are correct
(4) only b and d are correct

70) Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II
(Type of cross) (Phenotypic ratio)

(a) Monohybrid cross (i) 1:1:1:1

(b) Dihybrid cross (ii) 1:1

(c) Incomplete Dominance (iii) 1:2:1

(d) Monohybrid test cross (iv) 9:3:3:1

(e) Dihybrid test cross (v) 3:1

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v

71) Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column I Column II

Saccharomyces Production of product for removal

(A) (i)
cerevisiae of clot

Production of immunosuppressive
(B) Monascus purpureus (ii)
agents

Trichoderma Production of blood cholesterol

(C) (iii)
polysporum lowering agent

(D) Streptococcus (iv) Commercial production of ethanol

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

72) Baculoviruses are employed as :-

(1) Biogas production

(2) Biocontrol agents
(3) Sewage treatment agents
(4) Biofertilizer

73) Nitrogen base of RNA are-

(1) TCGU
(2) AGCT
(3) AGCU
(4) CTAU

74) Chargaff's equivalency rule is valid for-

(1) dsRNA and ssDNA

(2) dsDNA
(3) ssRNA and ssDNA
(4) ssRNA and dsDNA

75) Assertion : The repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
density gradient centrifugation. Reason : The bulk DNA forms a minor peak.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

76) The body of ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called ___A__ .

(1) A-Placenta
(2) A-Micropyle
(3) A-Leaf base
(4) A-Hilum

77) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Embryo develops at chalazal end of the anther.

(2) The residual, persistant nucellus is known as embryosac.
The seed of Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000 years
(3)
of dormancy.
(4) In some cereals such as rice and wheat, seed lose viability with in 10 sec of their release.

78) During maturation of insulin in human :-

(1) C peptide is removed

(2) A and B peptides are removed
(3) C peptide is added
(4) Only A peptide is removed
79) Why do non-recombinant transforment bacteria grow on a medium containing both ampicillin
and tetra cyclin?

(1) Because they don't contain any plasmid

(2) Because they carry both antibiotic resistance gene intact.
(3) Because they have "Ori site".
(4) Because they do not have "Ori site".

80) In the given diagram identify A, B and C respectively ?

(1) H1 histone ; Histone octamer ; DNA

(2) DNA ; H1 histone ; Histone octamer
(3) Histone octamer ; DNA ; H1 histone
(4) DNA ; Histone octamer ; H1 histone

81) Capping is process in which :-

(1) Methyl guanosine is added at 3' end of mRNA.

(2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to 5' end of hnRNA.
(3) Adenylate residues are added at 5' end of mRNA.
(4) Adenylate residues are added at 3' end of mRNA.

82) A colourblind man marry with normal woman whose father is colourblind. Find out the
probability of Ist normal daughter ?

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 0%

83) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Rauwolfia vomitoria is a medicinal plant

(2) Rauwolfia vomitoria is growing in different Himalayan ranges
(3) India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice
(4) In India 10,000 varieties of mango are found

84) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : According to Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle, two species occupying the
same niche can coexist indefinitely in a stable environment.
Statement II : If two species compete for exactly the same resources, one can be excluded due to
competitive exclusion.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

85) The diagram below shows restriction enzyme sites in the [Link] cloning vector pBR322.

Determine the function of the gene marked as P and Q.

The gene 'P' provides resistance to antibiotic while 'Q' is involved in the replication of the
(1)
plasmid.
The gene 'P' is required for initiating replication and 'Q' code for the protein involved in the
(2)
replication of plasmid.
(3) 'P' is responsible for restriction site recognition and 'Q' for resistance to antibiotics.
(4) 'P' is responsible for maintaining plasmid stability and 'Q' for resistance to antibiotic.

86) Identify the correct statement regarding bioreactors :

(1) Bioreactors are primarily used in Laboratories for small experimental cultures.
(2) Sparger in bioreactor is used for sterilization
Bioreactor maintain suitable conditions for microbial or cell growth to maximize product
(3)
formation.
(4) Bioreactors are not equipped with systems to regulate temperature, pH and oxygen level.

87) Match List-I with List-II.

(A) Down's syndrome (I) 16th chromosome

(B) Klinefelter's syndrome (II) Trisomy in Autosome

(C) β Thalassemia (III) Trisomy of sex chromosome

(D) α Thalassemia (IV) 11th chromosome

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

88) As per ABO blood grouping system. The blood group of father is B+ and mother is AB+ and child
is B+. Their respective genotype is :-

(1) IBi/IAIB/IBi
(2) IBi/IAi/IBi
(3) IAIB/IBi/IBIB
(4) IBIB/IAIB/IAi

89) Which is related to latitude gradient in species diversity :-

(A) Columbia has nearly 1400 species of bird while New York at 41°N has 105 species of bird.
(B) New York at 71°N has 105 species of bird while Green land at 41°N has 56 species of bird.
(C) Amazon rain forest have more mammal species than amphibian species.
(D) Tropics harbour more species than temperate.
(E) India has more species of bird than Green land.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, B, C & E
(2) B, C & D
(3) C, D & E only
(4) Only A, D & E

90) Both epipetalous condition and axile placentation are together present in which family.

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Liliaceae
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 2 1 3 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Magnetic field due to wire (1)

B1 =
Magnetic field due to wire (2)

B2 =

Net magnetic field at point 'P' due to both wires

Bp = B1 + B2 =

= =

3)

ϕ = 5t3 – 100t + 300

E(at t = 3s) = – [15(3)2 – 100]

= –35 Volt
Magnitude of emf at t = 3s
= 35 V

4) In an AC circuit, voltage leads current when the circuit is inductive.

A pure inductor produces a 90° lead, but the graph shows a smaller phase angle, indicating a
combination of inductance (L) and resistance (R).
A capacitor would make current lead voltage, which is not observed.
Therefore, the circuit must contain L and R only.
Final Answer Option 3

5) During charging magnetic field is induced inside and outside the capacitor
6) At A : XC > XL
At B : XC = XL
At C : XC < XL

7) Say intensity of unpolarized light is I0

Then,

output from polariser =

Output from analyser

= cos2 45° = = I (given)

Therefore,
I0 = 4I

8)

9) Statement 1 False → A concave mirror produce, different types of images based on

obj. position
Statement 2 True,
between P & F → image nature is virtual, erect, enlarged

10)

11)
i = 0, A = 60°, e = 90°
if i = 0 then r1 = 0
A = r1 + r2
A = r2 = 60°
μ × sin r2 = 1 × sin e

12)

or

13)

14) Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 0
C1(VA – V0) + C2(VB – V0) + C3(VD – V0) = 0
3µ(10 – V0) + 2µ(25 – V0) + 1µ(20 – V0) = 0
3(10 – V0) + 2(25 – V0) + 1(20 – V0) = 0
30 – 3V0 + 50 – 2V0 + 20 – V0 = 0
100 – 6V0 = 0

0 0
V = ⇒V =

15) Simplified circuit

Applying KVL between A and B

VB – 6 – (1×1) = VA
VB – VA = 7 V.

16) = (A + B).
= .
=

17) = 5 × 1024 × pλ
n = 5 × 1024 × 106 × 400 × 10–9
n = 2 × 1024

18) nenh=ni2

= 3×1022m–3

19)

2πr = nλ ⇒ n = = =3

20) (A)

⇒ n = 300

21) ⇒ =
= 24 × 103 J

22) W = nRΔT

Q = nCPΔT =n

23) ....(1)
PV = nRT

....(2)
Using (1) and (2)

⇒
⇒ T3 ∝ V

24)

For resonant tube

on filing the arm of tuning fork frequency ↑ ⇒ length of tube ↓

25)

1 MSD = 1mm

1 VSD =
L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2 mm

26) TA = TB
uAsinθA = uBsinθB
θA > θa
uA < uB

27) x = at2 – bt3

v=

a= =0

⇒
 28)

In uniform circular motion

29)

Linear vel.

v = rω depends on 'r' but angular velocity ω remain same for every particle on rigid body.

30)

Vmax = Aω
⇒ 10 = 2.5 ω (∵ A = 2.5 cm, Vmax = 10 cm/s)

⇒
amax = Aω2 = 2.5 × 42 = 40 cm/s2
At x = 1cm,

31) At mean position of SHM velocity of particle is maximum

32)

33) Explain question : Capillary tube is shifted from earth to moon, where gravity is one-
sixth, find the capillary rise on moon.
Concept : This question is based on capillary rise is inversely proportional to gravity.
Solution :

The height of liquid column in a capillary tube is given by h = . Since h ∝ 1/g, when

the tube is moved to the moon, where gmoon = , the rise will increase by a factor of 6.
Therefore, liquid rise on the moon will be six times that on earth.
Final answer : option (1)

34)

U=
35)

36)

T + 2T = 50 g + 25 g
T = 25 g = 250 N

37)

Net force on block in verticle direction = 5g – 100 sin 30° = 0

so, frictional force = 0

38) Momentum and kinetic energy is conserved only in this case.

39)

To balance N from wall, friction force between the ladder and the floor must not be zero.

40)

41)
3F = W
 42) If radius is increase by 200%
then new radius will be '3Re'

g=

g' =

g' = g/9

43)

B=
ΔP = B (–ΔV/V)
hρg = B(–ΔV/V)
h × 103 × 9.8 = (9.8 × 108) × (0.1 × 10–2)
h = 100 m

44)

Question Explanation :
Find the torque needed to stop a rotating wheel. wheel's moment of inertia, its initial angular
speed, and the time within which it must be brought to a stop are given.
Concept:
This question is based on Rotational Dynamics
Formula :

Solution:

τ = Iα = 2 × 103 × 4 = 8 × 103 N
Final Answer: Option (2)

45) P1V1 = nRT1 ......(1)

P2V2 = nRT2 ......(2)
(1) ➗ (2)

T2 = 600 K
or 327°C

CHEMISTRY
 46)
Final Answer: Option (2)

47)

Given reaction Intermediates

1 Addition of HBr at alkene Carbocation.
2 SN1 reaction at alkyl halide Carbocation.
3 Freidal craft alkylation Carbocation.
4 Halogenation of alkane Free radical.
Final answer: option (4)

48) Explaining the Question :-Given a zero – order reaction and time for 20% completion,
find the time required for 45% complete.
Concept:-Zero – order kinetics
Solution :- Let initial concentration = C0
For 20 % completion:
x = 0.20C0, t = 10min

For 45% completion :x = 0.45C0

Final Answer :- Option 4

49) The enthalpy of solution (Δsot H°) is the enthalpy change when one mole of a solute (solid)
dissolves in a solvent (like water, 'Aq' or 'H2O(ℓ)') to form an aqueous solution (aq).
CuSO4(s) + 5H2O(ℓ) → CuSO4.5H2O(s): This reaction shows an anhydrous solid reacting with
liquid water to form a new solid hydrate. The final state is solid (s), not aqueous (aq). This
represents the enthalpy of hydration of the solid salt, not the enthalpy of solution.
Therefore, the last reaction is not an enthalpy of solution reaction.

50)

ΔS = nCp ln

=2×
= 5R ln 2

51)
Strong field ligand generaly form inner orbital complex

52) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify which of the listed alloys
does not have copper (Cu) as one of its constituent metals.
Concept : Alloys
Solution :
Bronze: Cu + Sn.
Magnalium : Al + Mg often with small amounts of other metals like silicon or zinc.
Brass: Cu + Zn
Bell metal: A type of bronze with a higher tin content

53) Lelt to right atomic size, decrease in a period

54)
h = max., Ka = min., pKa = max.

55)

p° = 50 mm Hg

Xsolvant =

56) If solution of As2O3 solution is saturated with H2S then adsorption of S2– ion take place on
As2S3 sol.

57)

B.E. order Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

Fe3O4 is a mixed oxide

58)

H2S2O8 + H2O → H2SO5 + H2SO4

59)
(3E)-4-chloro penta-1,3-diene
60)

Carbanion ∝ –M, – H, –I

61) Option 1: R–CN + Na/C2H5OH → Reduction to R–CH2–NH2 (primary amine). Correct

Option 2: R–CONH2 + LiAlH4 → Reduction to R–CH2–NH2 (primary amine). Correct
Option 3: R–CONH2 + Br2/KOH (Δ) → Hofmann bromamide rearrangement → R–NH2 (primary
amine with one less carbon). Correct

Option 4:
Final answer : option (4)

62) Aldehydes, formic acid and hemiacetals can give a positive tollen's test.
Hint : Hemi acetals are oxidised because they can easily revert to aldehydes.
Ex.

Final answer : 2

63)

(a) Mg – 1s2, 2s2sp6, 3s2

12
number of electrons with m = 0 ⇒ 8
(b) number of electron in one p-orbital = 2
(c) for m shell n = 3
maximum number of electrons = 2n2
= 18
2 2 6 3 3
(d) p – 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
l.s ℓ = 0 ℓ = 0 ℓ=0
m=0 m=0 m=0

number of electrons with ℓ = 0, m = 0 and S = + ⇒ 3

64) Vitamin K increases blood clotting time

65)

PCl5(s) → PCl4+ + PCl6–

sp3 sp3d2
66)

Cr–O–Cr = 126°

67)

Conductivity (k) =

M=

∧M =

68) Ar = inert gas, Cs = Metal

69)

Let's trace the reaction pathway step-by-step: Overall Reaction:

Final Answer: option (4)

70) After removal of Hγ most stable

Carbon free radical will be obtained so least amount of energy will be required to break C
—Hγ bond.

71)

On the basis of stability of carbocation.

72) Explain Question: Asking about incorrect statements among CFSE, EAN, ligand
strength, and isomerism.
Concept: CFSE depends on d-electron configuration and ligand field strength; EAN = metal
electrons + ligand electrons; ligand field strength affects high/low spin; linkage isomerism
occurs if ligands can bind through multiple atoms.
Solution:
1. D4 weak-field octahedral → CFSE = – 0.6 Δ0 correct
2. [PtCl6]2– Pt2+ → EAN = 86 not 84
[PtCl6]2–
↓
at. no. = 78, O. S. (Pt) = +4
EAN = 78 – 4 + 2 × 6
 74 + 12 = 86
3. Br– is weaker field than H2O correct
4. [Cr(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 → NO2 can bind through N or O → linkage isomerism correct
Final answer: Option (2)

73)

74) Eu, Sm, Yb = + 2

75) On dilution i value increases.

76)

77) Standard hydrogen electrode is used as reference electrode

78)

(A)
Ketone

(B)
2° alcohol

(C)

(D)
79) B.P. (order) → Alcohol > 1°-Amine > 2°-Amine > 3°-Amine > Alkane

80)

Atomic number 114 = Ununquadium

81) Explain Question: Match species with hybridisation.

Concept : Hybridization.
Solution :
A) I₃⁻ → 2σ + 3lp = 5 → sp³d (R)
B) XeO₃F₂ → 5σ + 0 lp = 5 → sp³d (R)
C) SiO₂ → 4σ + 0 lp = 2 → sp³ (Q)
D) BeCl₂ → 2σ + 0 lp = 2 → sp (Q)
Final Answer : Option (4)

82)

Explain the Question : Determine the correct trend of atomic size for group 13.
Concept : This question is based on d-block contraction.
Solution : Atomic radius generally increases down the group. Gallium is slightly smaller then
Aluminium due to poor shielding by 3d electrons, so the correct order is B < Ga < Al < In < Tl.
Final answer : 4

83)

Explain Question: Arrange HF, H2O, and NH3 in order of hydrogen bond strength.
Concept: This question is based on Hydrogen bonding strength ∝ electronegativity & number
of H-bonds per molecule
Solution: HF forms the strongest individual H-bond (highest electronegativity of F),
followed by H2O, then NH3 (least electronegative N).
Final Answer: Option (1)

84) Question Explain:

Check properties of complex [COCl3 (NH3)3] according to given statement.

Concept:
Structural and optical isomerism.

Solution:
• The assertion is true: [CoCl3(NH3)3] ] has all Cl- inside, so it doesn't precipitate AgCl with
AgNO3.
• The reason is true: both fac and mer isomers of [CoCl3(NH3)3] are optically inactive due to
planes of symmetry.

Final Answer: Option (2)

85) B.P. of para nitrophenol is higher than ortho nitrophenol

86)

P4 + 3O2 P4O6

↓ = 0.4
Mass of P4O6 = 0.4 × 220
= 88 g

87) Given : Longest Balmer wavelength of He+ : = 9X/5cm

Balmer series : n1 = 2, n2 = 3, Z = 2
Lyman series (shortest line of H) : n1 = 1, n2 → ∞, Z = 1

Rydberg formula :
Calculate :

Calculate :
Take ratio of wavelengths :

Substitute = 9X/5 :
Final answer : 4

88)

Explanation the Question :

We are asked to find the solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.1 M KOH (common ion effect).
Concept : This question is based on
For Al(OH)3: Al(OH)3 ⇌ Al3+ + 3OH–
Solubility in presence of OH⁻: s = Ksp / [OH–]3
Al(OH)3 ⇌ Al+3 + 3OH–
S' 3S' + 0.1
+3 – 3
Ksp = (Al ) (OH )
1.9 × 10–33 = (s') (3s' + 0.1)3

1.9 × 10–33 = S' × 10–3

S' = 1.9 × 10–30
Final answer : 2

89) Question Explanation: For

NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), let total equilibrium pressure be P.

Concept: Use and total pressure relation for gaseous products from
 solid Decomposition.
NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
2p p

4p3 = 108 × 10–6

p3 = 27 × 10–6
p = 0.03 atm
Pt = 3p = 0.09 atm
Final Answer: option (3)

90) Question Explanation : Half-life is to be found using the time required for 90%
completion of a first-order reaction.
Concept: This question is based on the first-order integrated rate equation.
Solution: Let x = fraction of reaction completed.

For 90% completion: x = 0.90

First-order equation:

Given:

Thus,

Half- life:

Final Answer: Option (2)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII Pg#47

92) NCERT-XII Pg # 82

93) NCERT Page No. # 199/200

94) NCERT Pg. No. 194/195

95) NCERT Pg. No. 184

96) NCERT Pg. No. # 208

97) NCERT Pg. No. # 236

98) NCERT Pg. No. # 234

99) NCERT Pg. No. # 219

100) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

101)

Question Explanation: Determine whether the given statements about nephron structure
and function are true or false.

Concept: Nephron

Solution: The correct answer is option 1

A. Statement-I – True
The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is lined by simple cuboidal epithelium with a
brush border (microvilli), which increases the surface area for maximum reabsorption.

B. Statement-II – True
In the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT), conditional reabsorption of sodium ions (Na⁺)
and water occurs under hormonal control (like aldosterone and ADH).

Final Answer: Option 1

102) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 105

103) NCERT Old Pg. No. : 113

104)

NCERT Old Pg. No. : 112

105) NCERT Pg. No. : 189

106) NCERT Pg. No.: 186, 187

107)

NCERT Pg. # 248

108) NCERT XII, Pg. # 137

109) NCERT Pg. # 142, 143

110)

NCERT XII Pg. # 44

111)

NCERT XII Pg. # 44

112)

NCERT XII Pg. # 30

113)

Question Explanation : Identify hormones (A), (B), (C), (D) based on their roles in female
reproduction.
Concept : The question is based on hormonal control of menstrual cycle and pregnancy.
Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

A. (A) → Growth of follicle → FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

FSH stimulates development of ovarian follicles.

B. (B) → Corpus luteum formation → LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

LH triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum.

C. (C) → Prepares endometrium for implantation → Progesterone

Secreted by corpus luteum, it maintains uterine lining.

D. (D) → Flexibility of pubic symphysis → Relaxin

Relaxin helps in loosening pelvic ligaments during childbirth.

Final Answer : Option 1

114) Explain Question : To evaluate Assertion and Reason.
Concept : This question is based on Mammary glands
Solution :
Assertion (A) : The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during Pregnancy
(CORRECT)
Reason (R) : Level of Progesterone hormone is very high during Pregnancy. (CORRECT)
Progesterone help in alveologenesis during pregnancy
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Final Answer : option (1)

115) NCERT Page No. : 120,121 - 131,132

116) NCERT Page No. : 115, 126 (H)

117) NCERT Pg. # 138

118) NCERT XI Pg # 126

119) NCERT Pg # 121, 123, 124

120) NCERT XII Pg. # 97-98

121) NCERT (XI) Pg # 126

122) NCERT (XI) Pg # 123

123) NCERT XII Pg. # 21

124) NCERT XI, Pg. # 62

125)

NCERT XI Pg. # 76

126) NCERT XI Page No. : 106

127) NCERT XI Pg. No. : 145-147

128) NCERT XI Pg. No. : 176

129) NCERT XII Pg. # 17,18

130) NCERT XI Pg. No. : 172

131) NCERT XI Pg. No. : 159

132) NCERT XI Pg. No. : 118

133)

NCERT XI Pg. # 115

134) NCERT Pg. No. # 59

135)

NCERT XII Pg. # 72

136) NCERT XI Page No. 26, 27, 28

137) NCERT XI, Page No. 10

138) NCERT XI, Page No. 24

139) NCERT XI, Page No. 4, 7, 23, 24

140) NCERT XI Pg # 146

141) NCERT-XI Pg # 106

142) NCERT XI, Pg # 6,11

143) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 24

Explanation : The question asks which of the following is a colonial form of algae.
Concept : Algae
Solution : Volvox - This is a green algae known for forming spherical colonies, where many
individual cells work together.
Final Answer : Volvox

144) NCERT XI, Pg # 33

145)
NCERT XII Pg. # 123

146) NCERT Page No. #241

147) Question Explanation – The question asks which statement correctly describes the
purpose and applications of transgenic animals in studying human diseases.
Concept – Transgenic animals in disease research
Solution – Transgenic animals help understand gene functions in diseases, serve as models to
test new treatments, and models exist for diseases like Alzheimer’s and cystic fibrosis. All
statements are correct.
Final Answer – Option 4

148) NCERT, Pg # 181,182

149) NCERT XI Page No. # 94

150) NCERT-XI Eng. Pg # 232 [Fig. 14.3] 233

[One citric acid cycle produces 3NADH + 3H+ and 1 FADH. In ETS each NADH + H+ gives rise
to 3ATP and each FADH2 to 2 ATP]

151) NCERT Page No. 197

152) NCERT Page No. 192

153) NCERT Page No. 207

154) NCERT Page No. 212

155) NCERT Page No. 217

156) NCERT Page No. 222

157) NCERT-XII, Pg#69

158) NCERT-XII, Pg#61

159) NCERT-XII, Pg#76

160) NCERT-XII, Pg#55,56,57,59

161) NCERT XII Pg # 152, 153

162) NCERT XII Pg # 157

163) NCERT Pg # 81

164) NCERT Pg # 81

165) NCERT Pg # 105

166) NCERT(XII) ; Pg # 9

167) NCERT XII Pg # 8, 19, 20, 22

168) NCERT-XII Pg#182(E)

169) NCERT-XII Pg# 169,170(E)

170) NCERT XII Pg # 83

171) NCERT XII Pg # 94

172)

Explain Question: What is the probability of Ist normal daughter if a colourblind man
marries with normal woman whose father is colourblind.

Concept: Colourblindness.

Solution:

XCY ( Man ) marries a XCX ( Carrier woman)

XC X

XC XC XC XCX

Y XC Y XCY
So, 50% of daughters will be normal.

Final answer: 2.

173) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 250(E), 285((H)

174)

NCERT XII Pg. # 198,199

175) NCERT Page No. : 169

176) NCERT Page No. : 174

177) NCERT XI, Pg. # 76

178) NCERT XI, Pg. # 61

179) NCERT Pg. # 219

180) NCERT XI Page No. # 69