31-05-2026

1001CJA101023260006 JA

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Let ƒ(x) = xcot–1(x); x ≠ 0 and ƒ(0) = 0

g(x) = and g(0) = 0

h(x) = x tan–1 ; x ≠ 0 and h(0) = 0

k(x) = xcot–1(x2); x ≠ 0 and k(0) = 0 , then
Number of given function(s) which are differentiable at x = 0 is -

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

2) is equal to -

(A) 0

(B)

(C)

(D) Does not exist

3) Let a, b ∈ R and f(x) = . If f(x) is continuous ∀ x ∈ R, then

(A) a = 6, b = 3
(B) a = 3, b = 6
(C) a = –3, b = –6
(D) a = –3, b = 6

4) If cos–1x – cos–1 = α, then 4x2 – 4xy cosα + y2 is equal to-

(A) 2 sin 2α
(B) 4
(C) 4sin2α
(D) – 4sin2α

SECTION-I (ii)

1)

Let such that and , then which of the following hold(s)

good ?

(A) a2 + b = –1
(B) a2 + b2 + c2 = 5
(C) a – 2b + c = 0

(D)

2) , where p > 0, q > 0, is -

(A) 0 if p < q
(B) 1 if p = q
(C) infinite if p > q
(D) 1 if p > q

3) Let is a continuous function, then n can be (where a > 0 and a ≠

1) -

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

4) Which of the following rule is/are function(s) ?

(A)

(B) f : {–3,–2,–1,0,1,2,3} → {1,4,9}, f(x) = x2

(C)

(D)

5) Range of ƒ(x) = sin–1x + cos–1x – tan–1x contains set

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) The number of solutions of the equation 3 cos2x = 8 sinx in [0, π] is -

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

SECTION-III

1) If the number of solution of the equation tan2θ – 4 tanθ + 1 = 0, for θ ∈ [0, 50π] is λ, then the

value of is

2) If then the value of is equal to

3) Number of integral value(s) of x in the domain of ƒ(x) = sin–1(x – 1) + logπ(2 – x) is

4) If , then value of is

5) The least integral value in the range of is

6) If , then the value of |a| is -

7) If find the value of k if ƒ (x) is continuous at x = 0.

8) Let 3ƒ(x) + 2ƒ = 10x + 30; x ≠ 1, then the value of ƒ(7) is

 PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Speed of a rotating particle in a circle of radius 4 m is v = t2, its acceleration after 2 s will be :-

(A) 4 m/s2
(B)
(C) 8 m/s2
(D)

2) A particle of mass 1kg is moving where potential energy varies with displacement U = 10 (1 – cos
2x), then the time period of small oscillation about origin will be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) A ray of light from a liquid (μ = √3) is incident on a system of two right angled prisms of refractive
indices √3 and √2 as shown. The ray suffers zero deviation when it emerges into air from CD. The

angle of incidence i is :-

(A) 45°
(B) 30°
(C) 20°
(D) 10°

4) A Thin glass rod is bent into a semicircular shape of radius R. A charge Q is uniformly distributed
along the upper half and a charge–Q is uniformly distributed along the lower half as shown in figure.
The electric field at the centre P is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-I (ii)

1) A particle rotating in x-y plane on a circle of radius 2 m as shown. At certain instant particle is at

point P and its acceleration is . Then at this moment:

(A) Angular acceleration =

(B) Velocity =
Angular velocity =
(C)

(D) Centripetal acceleration =

2) The deviation produced by a prism depends on

(A) The angle of incidence of light on its face

(B) The refracting angle of prism
(C) The refractive index of the prism
(D) The wavelength of the light used

3) A spherical mirror forms image of a real object as shown, choose the CORRECT option(s) :-
(A) Mirror is concave of radius 40 cm
(B) Mirror of convex of radius 40 cm
(C) Mirror is 30 cm from object along principal axis
(D) Mirror is 60 cm from image along principal axis

4) An electric dipole is placed in an electric field generated by an infinitely long uniformly charged
wire :-

(A) The net electric force on the dipole must be zero.

(B) The net electric force on the dipole may be zero.
(C) The torque on the dipole due to the field must be zero.
(D) The torque on the dipole due to the field may be zero.

5) Electric field in a region is given as . A charge particle of mass 5kg and charge Q (=
1C) is situated at origin and free to move in given electric field. Then choose the correct options
(Neglect gravity)

(A) Motion of charge particle is Oscillatory

(B) Maximum displacement of charge particle from origin is 4 SI units
(C) Maximum velocity gain by charge particle is 2 SI units
(D) The position of charge particle, when velocity gained by particle is maximum, is 2 SI units

6) The displacement-time graph of a particle executing S.H.M. is shown. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

(A) The velocity is maximum at t = T/2

(B) The acceleration is maximum at t = T
(C) The force is zero at t = 3T/4
The potential energy equals the total oscillation energy at t = T/2 (potential energy at y = 0 is
(D)
zero)
 SECTION-III

1) A 10 kg ball attached to the end of a rigid massless rod of length 1 m rotates at constant speed in
a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m and period π/2 sec as in fig. The horizontal force exerted by rod (in

N) on the ball is F. Fill F/16.

2) A block of mass m is attached with spring of spring constant K. There is a wall at distance from
the natural length of spring. Block is displaced such that compression produced in spring is A. If

then find the time period of this motion. All collision are elastic and spring is ideal. If

your answer is where m & n are lowest possible integer, fill value of (m + n)

3) Two charged balls are connected by an inextensible thread of length 3 m. Masses of balls are 2kg
and 1 kg, the charges are +20 μC and –100 μC. What minimum constant external force F (in N) must
be applied to the ball of mass 1 kg so that the thread does not slack? Neglect gravity and friction.

4) An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density 2 ×
10–8 Cm–1 in circular path under the influence of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure.
The velocity of electron with which it is revolving is_______× 106 ms–1. Given mass of electron = 9 ×

10–31 kg.

5) An ideal massless spring can be compressed by 1m by a force of 100 N. The same spring is placed
at the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane which makes an angle θ = 30° with the horizontal. A
10kg mass is released from rest at the top of the incline and is brought to rest momentarily after
compressing the spring 2 meters. Through what distance (in m) does the mass slide before coming
to rest ?

6) The ends of a spring are attached to blocks of mass 3 kg and 2 kg as shown in the figure. The 3 kg
block rests on a horizontal surface and the 2 kg block which is vertically above it is in equilibrium
producing a compression of 2mm of the spring. It is found that the 2 kg mass must be compressed
further by at least x (in mm) so that when it is released, the 3kg block may be lifted off the ground.

Find the value of x in mm.

7) A ray of light travelling in air is incident at angle of incident 30° on one surface of slab in which
refractive index varies with y. The light travels along the curve y = 4x2 (y and x are in metre) in the
slab. Find out the value of 2µ, µ is the refractive index of the slab at y = 1/2 m in the slab.

8) A homemade illuminator is a cylindrical tube of radius R = 10 mm with a black inner surface. A

point source of light is located on the tube axis at a distance d = 20 cm from the lens. The screen is
placed in front of illuminator at such a distance that a sharp image of the point source of light is
produced on it. Focal length of the lens is F = 15 cm. What will be the inner radius of circle of light
(in cm) directly from the source on the screen, if you remove the tube and just keep the remaining
arrangement as it is?

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

1) For ZnS structure correct statement is -

(A) Zn2+ are in tetrahedral void

(B) Zn2+ are in octahedral voids
(C) Zn2+ are at centre of fcc unit cell
(D) Zn2+ are at each edge centre

2) Which of the following order(s) is/are INCORRECT?

(A) AgCl < AgBr (Intensity of colour)

(B) NaCl < CuCl (Covalent character)
(C) BeO < BaO (Basic character)
(D) Li3N < Na3N (Thermal stability)

3) (I)

(II)
(III) CH3 – CH2 – I
Incorrect statement is :
(1) SN1 rate : I > II > III (2) SN2 rate : I < II < III
(3) E1 rate : I > II > III (4) E2 rate : I < II < III

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

4) Identify reaction correctly matched with their major product -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-I (ii)

1) An ionic solid consists of ions A+2 and B– and the radius ratio of is 0.8. Identify the incorrect
statement(s) regarding unit cell and location of ions.

(A) Simple cubic of B– ions and A+2 occupying all the body centered voids or cubic voids.
(B) Face centered cubic of B– ions and A+2 occupying all tetrahedral voids.
(C) Face centered cubic of B– ions and A+2 occupying 50% tetrahedral voids.
(D) Face centered cubic of A+2 ions and B– occupying all tetrahedral voids.

2)
Select correct option(s) :

Assume that there is no heat exchange & temperature of each container remains constant.

(A) Pressure in container I is 12.5 atm before opening the valve

(B) Pressure after opening the valve in 8.63 atm (in both compartments)
(C) Moles in compartment I after opening the valve = 2.18
(D) Pressure in compartment I will be greater than in compartment II after opening the valve

3) Which of the following bidentate ligand(s) has similar donor atoms ?

(A) py
(B) bn
(C) en
(D) gly¯

4) Which of the following are INCORRECT statements for coordination compounds.

(A) Haemoglobin → contains Fe

(B) Chlorophyll and vitamin B12 are coordination compounds of Co and Mg respectively.
[Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 is named as:
(C)
triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
+3 +1
(D) [Co(NH3)6] is hetero leptic complex while [Co(NH3)4Cl2] is homoleptic complex.

5) In which product formation takes place according to Hoffmann's rule

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) Which of the following elimination reactions will occur to give but-1-ene as the major product?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
 SECTION-III

1) If at 200 K & 500 atm density of CH4 gas sample is 0.246 gm/ml then nearest integer value of the
compressibility factor of gas is _______.

2) The number of pairs of the solution having the same value of the osmotic pressure from the
following is ________. (Assume 100% ionization of strong electrolytes)
A. 0.500 M C2H5OH (aq) and 0.25 M KBr (aq)
B. 0.100 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (aq) and 0.100 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4 (aq)
C. 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (aq) and 0.25 M NaCl (aq)
D. 0.15 M NaCl (aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2 (aq)
E. 0.02 M Al2 (SO4)3(aq) and 0.05 M HCl (aq)

3) If equal masses of A & B are present in a liquid solution having total vapour pressure of X torr

then value of is. [A = 80 gm/mol, B = 120 gm/mol]

4)

Find the no. of species having fractional bond order?

5) Find the number of chemical species, in which 2pπ–3dπ back bond is present
B(OH)3, N(SiH3)3, P(CH3)3, N(GeH3)3, BeCl2, O(SiH3)2, OCl2, BCl3

6) If number of fully filled gerade orbitals in N2 is "X" & number of fully filled ungerade orbitals in O2
is "Y" then |X – Y| is __________.

7)

How many ether(s) will undergo cleavage on reaction with [Link] ?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)
(v) (vi)

(vii) (viii)

(ix) (x) PhOC2H5

8) How many of the following compound will form immediate turbidity with (HCl / ZnCl2) :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(e) (f) (g)

 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 1 2 3 4
A. D B A C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 5 6 7 8 9 10
A. B,C A,B,C C,D A,C B,C B

SECTION-III

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
A. 2 5 2 8 2 3 1 4

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 19 20 21 22
A. B D A D

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 23 24 25 26 27 28
A. A,C,D A,B,C,D A,C,D B,D A,B,C,D B,C,D

SECTION-III

Q. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A. 5 5 3 8 4 5 3 4

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 37 38 39 40
A. A D D B

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46
A. A,B,C A,C B,C B,D A,C,D B,C
 SECTION-III

Q. 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
A. 2 4 6 5 3 1 7 3
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

1)

Differentiable at x = 0
g(x) is also differentiable at x = 0

h(x) is non differentiable at x = 0.

2) =

3) f(1) = f(1+) ⇒ a – b = 3
f(2–) = f(2) ⇒ 4b – a = 6
∴ a = 6, b = 3

4)
taking cosine on both sides we get

4x2 – 4xy cosα + y2 = 4sin2α

5)
⇒
6)
if p > q ⇒ L = infinite
if p = q ⇒ L = 1
if p < q ⇒ L = 0

7)

Solution :
Given

f(x) is continuous at x = 0,
L.H.L. = R.H.L. = f(0)
⇒ R.H.L. = f(0)

⇒
4
If n > 4, x → 0
If n < 4, xn → ∞
If n = 1, limit = 1
Since f(x) is continuous at x = 0
Limit = 0,
∴x>4
N = 5, 6

Final Answer: The correct option is (3) and (4).

8) Explain the question: To find which options are function.

Concept: This question is based on definition of function.
"Each element of first set is uniquely associated with some element of second set"
Solution:

(A) f(x) = sin x

As any x in the first set (domain), sin x gives a unique value which exist in second set (co-
domain).
So, option (A) is rule of function.
(B) f : {–3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3} {1, 4, 9}, f(x) = x2 for x = 0 in the domain , x2 = 0 does not
exist in codomain so
Option (B) is not a function

(C) , f(x) = cos x

As any x in the domain, cos x gives a unique value which exist in co-domain.
So, option (C) is function.

(D) , f(x) = cos x

For in the domain, , does not exit in co-domain.

So, option (D) is not a function.
Final Answer: Option (1), (3)

9)

Domain of ƒ(x) is [–1, 1]

so,
as x ∈ [–1, 1]

10) Question Explanation:

Solve trigonometric equation in given interval

Concept:
Types of trigonometry equation.

Solution:
Express cos2 x in terms of sin x.

–3 is invalid
sin x = 1/3 gives two solutions in [0, π]

Final Answer: Option (2)

11) tanθ = or tanθ =

for tanθ =
number of solution = 50
for tanθ =
number of solution = 50
total solution = 50 + 50
12)

Explain Question:
Calculate n for given limit

Concept:
Use Binomial limit at x=1

Solution:

⇒
⇒ 1 + 2 + ..... + n = 820
⇒ n(n + 1) = 2 × 820
⇒ n(n + 1) = 40 × 41
Since n ∈ N, so

Final answer: 40

13) Question Explanation: Find the number of integers in the intersection of two domains.
Concept: Domain of Inverse Trig and Logarithmic Functions.
Solution: The domain of the sum of two functions is the intersection of their individual
domains. We find the valid range of x for the arcsine function and the logarithm, then identify
the integers that satisfy both conditions.
For : The argument must be in [-1, 1].

For : The argument must be positive.

Intersection:
Integral values in [0, 2): 0, 1.
Total count: 2 values.
Final Answer: 2

14)

15)
Let (ex)2 + 1 = t

where t > 1
minimum value = 3 – 1 = 2
 16)
a4 = 81 ⇒ a = ±3

17)
LHL = RHL = value
1=0+k
k=1

18) 3ƒ(x) + 2ƒ .....(i)

Put x = 7
3ƒ (7) + 2ƒ (11) = 100 ....(ii)
Put x = 11
3ƒ (11) + 2ƒ (7) = 140 ....(iii)
solving (ii) & (iii)
ƒ (7) = 4

PART-2 : PHYSICS

19)

20) F = = –20 sin 2x

a = – 40 x for small 'x'

T=

21) At interface AC

...(i)
At interface CD

...(ii)

Squaring & adding equation (i) & (ii)

3 cos2i + sin2i = 2 (sin2r + cos2r)
∴ i = 45°

22)
Take PQ as the x - axis and PA as the y - axis. Consider two elements EF and E’F’ of width
dθ at angular distance θ at angular distance θ above and below PO, respectively The
magnitude of the filed at P due to either element is

Resolving the fields, we find that the components along PO sum up to zero and hence, the
resultant field is along PB.
Therefore, field at P due to pair of elements = 2d E sin θ

23)

⇒ ⇒v=4⇒

24) δ = 1 + e – A
25)

26) Since electric field due a uniformly charged wire is non-uniform so force and torque on a
dipole may or may not be zero.

27)
m = 5kg

(a) F ∝ – x
so motion of charge particle is oscillatory
(b) F = 0 at x = 2
oscillation about x = 2
so maximum displacement is 4
F = 10 – 5x

a=
a=2–x
a = – (x – 2)
so w2 = 1
w=1
(c) vmax = Aw
A=2
w=1
vmax = 2
(d) velocity at mean position
at x = 2

28) When displacement is max. velocity of particle zero and acceleration is maximum. If
equency of SHM is f then frequency of KE is 2f.
29)
N1 = mg
N2 = mω2r

;ω=4
∴ N2 = 10 × 16 × 0.5 N

⇒ 80 = F(N)

30) From phaser diagram the total angle covered by block is 90° + 30° +30° + 90° = 240°

time taken = =
m=2,n=3

31)
F = 3a

32)

= 8 × 106 m/s
33)
F = kx ⇒ 100 = k × 1 ⇒ k = 100 N/m
From work energy theorem

⇒ mgh = kx2 where h=2 ⇒ ℓ = 4m

34)
To left m2 in position 2, kh = m2g...(ii)
KE in position 1 = k1=0
KE in position 2 = k2=0
Work energy theorem

0 0
– m1g (x+x + h) + k (x+x )2 – kh2 =0

0 0
⇒ m1g(x+x +h) = k [(x + x )2 – h2]

0 0 0
⇒ m1g (x + x + h) = k (x+x + h) (x + x –h)
⇒ 2m1g = kx + kx0 – kh...(iii)

From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we how 2m1g = kx + m1g – m2g ⇒ x = ⇒ x = 5 mm

35) Let R.I. at y = y is µ and corresponding angle of refraction is θ.

= 1 sin30° ...(1) and ⇒ cotθ = 8x

⇒
cotθ = 4y1/2 at y = 1/2
 ⇒

⇒ ⇒ ⇒

36)

v = 60 cm

R = 4 cm

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

37)

The correct answer is option (A)

38)

The correct answer is option (D)

39) Question Explanation: Identifying trends in nucleophilic substitution and elimination

rates.
Concept: Reaction Rates of Alkyl Halides
Solution: Alkyl halides react via different mechanisms based on their structure.
highly substituted alkenes, making the statement that E2 rate is I < II < III incorrect.
Final Answer: Option (D)

40)

The correct answer is option (B)

41) Question Explanation: Select the incorrect statements.

Concept: Ionic crystal FCC type.
Solution: AB2 → A+2 + B–1
 It will be face centered cubic with A+2 ions at face centres and corners and B–1 occupying all
tetrahedral voids.
Final answer: The correct option is (1), (2), (3).

42)

The correct answer is option (A), (C)

43) Py :

44) Fact | Theory based.

45) Question Explanation: Identifying reactions that produce the less substituted alkene
(Hofmann product).

Concept: Hofmann's Rule in Elimination Reactions.

Solution:

A. Hofmann's Rule: States that in certain elimination reactions, the major product is the less
substituted and less stable alkene.

A. Condition 1 (Bulky Base): When a strong, sterically hindered base like potassium tert-
butoxide (t−BuOK) is used, it preferentially attacks the more accessible (less hindered)
primary hydrogens. This is seen in Option 1.
B. Condition 2 (Poor Leaving Groups): Substrates with large, charged leaving groups
like quaternary ammonium salts (−NR3+​) or sulfonium salts (−SR2+​) follow Hofmann's rule
due to steric bulk and electronic effects. This is seen in Options 3 and 4.

B. Zaitsev's Rule: Smaller bases like ethoxide (CH3CH2OK) favor the more stable, more
substituted alkene. This applies to Option 2.

A. Option 1: Bulky base (t−BuOK) → Hofmann product (But-1-ene).

B. Option 2: Small base (EtOK) → Zaitsev product (But-2-ene).
C. Option 3: Quaternary ammonium salt → Hofmann product.
D. Option 4: Sulfonium salt → Hofmann product.

Final Answer: (A), (C), and (D)

46)

Explain question : To find out the reaction which gives but-1-ene as the major product.

Concept : This question is based on E-2 bimolecular elimination reaction.

 Solution :

(1) CH3–CHCl–CH2–CH3 + KOH CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 + CH3–CH=CH–CH3 [E2

bimolecular elimination reaction]

But-1-ene (minor) But-2-ene (major) [Saytzeff

alkene]

(2) CH2=CHCH2–CH3 CH3–CH=CH–CH3

But-1-ene (major) But-2-ene (minor)

[Hofmann alkene] [Saytzeff alkene]

(3) CH3–CH2–CHCl–CH3 + Me3CO–K+ CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 + CH2–CH=CH–CH3

But-1-ene (major) But-2-ene (minor)
[Hofmann alkene] [Saytzeff alkene]

(4) CH3–CH2–CH(OH)–CH3 + conc.H2SO4 CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 + CH3–CH=CH–CH3 [E1

elimination reaction]

But-1-ene (minor) But-2-ene (major) [Saytzeff

alkene]

Thus reaction 2 and 3 give but-1-ene as major alkene.

Final answer : Options (B & C)

47)

= 2 × 10°

48)

A, B, D and E have same value of osmatic pressure.

49) Explain the question: Calculate the total vapor pressure of a solution with equal masses
of A and B.
Concept: Raoult's Law and Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures.
Solution: From the given pressure-composition graph, the vapor pressure of pure liquid
is 40 torr, and the vapor pressure of pure liquid is 30 torr. Since the solution
contains equal masses (let's say 'w' grams) of A and B, we first calculate their mole fractions.
The moles of A are , and the moles of B are . The mole fraction of A is
 . Consequently, the mole fraction of B
is 0.4 . The total pressure X is calculated using Raoult's and Dalton's laws:
. Substituting the values, we get
torr. The question asks for the value of .
The value of X/ 6 is 36/6 = 6 Final Answer: 6

50) Molecule B.O.

- 2.5
- 2.5
O2 - 2.0
- 2.5
- 0.5
- 1.5
- 3.0
NO+ - 3.0
F2 - 1.0

51)

The correct answer is 3

52) Question Explanation: Finding the difference between filled gerade and ungerade MOs.
Concept: Molecular Orbital Symmetry (Gerade and Ungerade)
Solution: In Molecular Orbital Theory, gerade (g) orbitals have a center of inversion
while ungerade (u) orbitals do not We identify the fully filled
orbitals of these types for N2 and O2 based on their electronic configurations.

X=3

Y=4

Final Answer : 1

53)

(i, ii, iv, v, viii, ix, x)

54)

The correct answer is 3

(b, c, d)