1.

It refers to the field of management which involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of individuals
toward achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administation
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization

 Organization-a group of persons working together for a common goal or objectives a form of human association
for the attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives.
 Administration- an organizational process concerned with the implementation of objectives and plans and
internal operating efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process involved in ensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and
related statutes focuses on the policing process.

2. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary.

A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera

 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of police of the Manila Police Department in 1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police of the Manila Police Department after the Philippine
Independence from the United States of America in 1946

3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then. What year can Eugene retire if he wants to
avail the mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023

 Compulsory – upon reaching the age

FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY (20) YEARS of active service

4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these

5. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the
field operations relative t0000000000000000o reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure

 Headquarters Procedures - include the procedures to be followed in the headquarters, usually reflected in the
duty manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) - procedures intended for specific operations to ensure uniformity
of action

6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ?

A. Not exceeding four (5) years.

B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.

 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure

Those who have reached the prescribed maximum tenure corresponding to their position shall be retired from
the service

 Chief 4 years
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services 4
years
 Regional Directors 6 years
 Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years

7. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
members refers to:

A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765

 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and later reorganized by R.A.
2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975, enacted on August 8, 1975; established the Integrated
National Police (INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law

8. The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the people or the community refers
to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental

 Continental - policemen are regarded as servants of the higher authorities

o It exist in France, Italy and Spain- countries with a decentralized form of government
 Old Concept - measurement of police competence is the increasing number of arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is measured by the decreasing number of crimes

9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank
upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE

 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic sciences, graduates of the
PNPA and licensed criminologists
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, members of the bar and doctors of medicine

10. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:

A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions

 Primary or Line Functions- functions that carry out the major purposes of the organization, Patrolling, traffic
duties, and crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed to support the line functions and assist in the performance of the line
functions examples of the staff functions of the police are Planning, research, budgeting and legal advice
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving the logistical operations of the organization examples are
communication, maintenance, records management, supplies and equipment management.

11. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:

A. Conduct a complete search.

B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
 12. He is known as the father of modern policing system?

A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell

B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso
p
 August Vollmer - recognized as the Father of Modern Law Enforcement
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of Scotland Yard
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern Criminology.

13. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, what immediate actions should
the patrol officer will do?

a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.

b. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
c. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
d. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.

14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
equivalent rank in the PNP?

a. Inspector C. Senior Inspector

b. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent

 Inspector – Captain
 Chief Inspector – Major
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel

15. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
a. 1 C. 3
b. 2 D. 4

Deputy Director General ranks

 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)

 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
 Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in Command)

16. The highest rank in the BJMP is .

a. Four star general C. Director

b. Chief Superintendent D. Director General

 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL

17. What is the minimum police-to-population

ratio?

A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7

Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to- population ratio)

o 1:500 – nationwide average

18. What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?

A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force
 19. The largest organic unit within a large department.
a. Bureau C. Section
b. Division D. Unit

 Division- The primary subdivision of a bureau.

 Section- Functional units within a particular division. This is necessary for specialization.
 Units- Functional group within a section
where further specialization is needed.

20. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word , which means government of the city.

a. politia C. politeia
b. polis D. Policy

 Polis – Greek word which means “City- State”.

 Politia – Roman word which means
“condition of the state or the Government”.

21. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained.
a. planning C. Advancement
b. police planning D. Development

 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police administration to allocate anticipated resources to meet anticipated
service demands.

22. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing
education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
a. PPSC C. RTS
b. PNPA D. NPC

PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD 1184, premier educational institution for future officers of the tri-bureaus.

23. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
a. IAS C. PNP
b. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM

 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather evidence in support of an open investigation; conduct summary hearings
on PNP members facing administrative charges;

24. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
 25. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of eligible’s recommended by the PNP
regional director:
a. six C. five
b. Three D. four

 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE eligible’s recommended by the PD.

26. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity
and to provide day-to-day services to the community.
a. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
b. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol

27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ?

a. Director General C. Solicitor General
b. Inspector General D. IAS General

28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. one (1) C. more than one
b. at least one D. less than one

 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for every five hundred (500) city or municipal police personnel

29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do when accident occur?
a. Cordon the area
b. Go away and call your superior
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him

30. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for appointment in the Philippine National
Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged from military services or civilian position in the
government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.

A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e

31. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the
community
b. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
c. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay captains
d. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod

32. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason
for establishing such organization. They must identify the organization’s :
a. strategy C. Goal
b. Tactic D. objective

 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a major plan of action that needs a large amount of resources to attain a
major goal or objectives.
 Goal- General Statement of intention normally with time perspective. It is achievable end state that can be
measured and observed.
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method or course of action to attain a particular objective in consonance with
strategy.

33. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
d. define authority and responsibility

34. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between individual subordinate
increases
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to the
management level
d. All of the above
 35. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
of organization:
a. Audit C. Coordination
b. Monitoring D. Authority

36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of
personnel

37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for :

a. Administrative control
b. Administration and control
c. Operational supervision
d. Policy and program coordination\

38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle of :

a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command

 Delegation of Authority- conferring of certain specified authority by a superior to a subordinate

 Chain of Command- the arrangement of officers from top to bottom on the basis of rank or position and
authority
 Span of Control- the maximum number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise
 Command Responsibility- dictates that immediate commanders shall be responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their personnel and unit

39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack T. Khole?

A. President C. Chief,
PNP
[Link] D. Regional
Director

Promoting Authorities:

Grade/Rank Promoting Authorities

 Director General President

 Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
 Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
 PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP

40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

a. Standard operation procedures

b. Special operation procedures
c. Standard operating procedures
d. Special operating procedures

41. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security.
a. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
b. Relative criticality D. Relative security

 Relative Vulnerability – is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
operation due to various hazards.

42. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:

a. SEC C. DTI
b. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD

 Trade name of the Security Agencies must be registered at the Department of Trade and Industry

43. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed.
a. Full view fence C. Solid fence
b. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences

 Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that provides visual access through the fence.
 44. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
issued with a-
a. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order
b. Mission Order D. None of These

45. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?

a. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
b. 72 Hours D. 300
Hours
Classification and Duration Period of training

 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing Training Course)- 150 Hours

 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course

46. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:

a. Detachment Commander
b. Chief Inspector
c. Post-in-Charge
d. Security Supervisor 1

Line Leadership Staff

 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment Commander- the field or area commander of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector- responsible for inspecting the entire area coverage by the
detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible for the area assigned by the chief inspector or the
detachment commander.

47. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal
part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than high excluding the top guard.
a. 8 feet C. 9 feet
b. 7 feet D. 6 feet

Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)

Specifications

 Standard barbed wire is twisted double strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point barb spaced on equal distant
part.
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to post not more than 6 feet apart.
 The distance between strands will not exceed 6 inches and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway
between posts.

48. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security guards.

a. Any of these
b. Secretary, DILG
c. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
d. C/PNP

49. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
a. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
b. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection

 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A light beam connected by a wire to control station and
when an intruder crosses the beam he breaks the contact with the photoelectric coil which thus
activates the alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a supersensitive microphone speaker sensor that is installed in walls,
ceilings, and floors of the protected area, Any sound caused by attempted forced entry is detected by
file censor.
 Vibration detection device - Any vibration caused by attempted force entry is detected by the sensor.
 50. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security
policies and procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey

Security Planning- Is a corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the security and the
means and the method to reach those objectives or goal must then evolve.

 Security Survey- Is the process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough inspection of
all operation system and procedures of a facility
 Security Education - The basic goal is to acquaint all the employees the justification behind the security
measures and to insure cooperation at all times.

51. What is the last phase of Security Education?

a. Initial Interview C. Conference
b. Dissemination D. Security promotion

Phases of Security Education

 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing

52. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building, room
container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner
a. Padlocks C. Code Operated
b. Locks D. Combination Locks

 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like
and is then made fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open by pressing a series of numbered buttons in the proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires manipulation of dials according to a predetermined
combination code of numbers or letters

53. A type of protective alarm system where the protective alarm located outside the installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary

 Local Alarm by chance System - This is a local alarm in which a siren or bell is sounded with no
predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system installation circuits are led into local police or fire department by lease
telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as the central station system except that it is owned by, operated and
located in the facility

54. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas issued to an employees who
keeps it in the possession until his authorization is change or until he terminates.
a. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
b. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System

 Pass Exchange System- Which he exchange one-color coded pass at the entrance to the controlled area is
issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization or until he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of passes are issued to an individual with the same photograph.
The individual exchange his badge for another color or markings at the entrance. Once inside, if he needs
to enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for another color acceptable in that area.

55. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front of their
foot to engage the activation bar
a. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
b. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button

 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency Activation, when currency is removed from the devices, the
alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed inside the deck or teller station so they can be activated by knee or
thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires pressure on both side of the device and therefore the probability of
accidental alarm is reduced.
 56. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical
plane
a. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights
b. Street Lights D. Search lights

 Floodlights - projects light in a concentrated beam. Best used in boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused incandescent lamps used in pinpointing potential
 Street Lights - produced diffused light rather than direction beam.

57. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private security guard under normal condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.

A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V

B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V

58. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000

New applicants to operate shall be required to obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE MILLION (P1, 000,
000.00) pesos with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00)
pesos in order to start its business operations.

59. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for
economic gain?
a. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
b. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer

 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of
detection.

60. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or installation refers
to:
a. Safe C. File room
b. Vault D. None of these

61. Chain link fences must be constructed in material excluding the top guard?
a. Seven feet C. Four feet
b. Six feet D. Five feet

Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)

Specifications

 Must be constructed in 7 feet material excluding the top guard

 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
 Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 inches

62. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
Complex, EXCEPT:
a. Human c. Doors
b. Fences d. NONE
 63. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least
fire resistant.
a. 3 hours C. 6 hours
b. 24 hours D. 12 hours

64. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated
by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. None C. Card Operated Locks
b. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks

 Card-Operated Locks - Coded card notched, embossed or containing an embedded pattern of

copper flocks.
 Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer tumbler type, has flat metal tumblers with open center fitted into
lock case, commonly used for Automobile Industry which affords delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.

65. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA

should not exceed by units.
A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000

Use of Firearms

 Number of firearms shall not exceed one

(1) for every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)
 For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100) guards, an initial of at least 30 licensed firearms.
 For regular licensed two hundred guards (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed firearms.

66. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?

a. Sodium vapor lamp

b. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
d. Quartz lamp

 Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous Discharge lamp that emit Yellow Light.
 Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very bright white light and instant on almost as rapidly as the
incandescent lamp.
 Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very economical to use but for industrial security it is not acceptable due to
long time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5 minutes to light.
 Incandescent Lamps- These are common light bulbs that are found in every home. They have the
advantage of providing instant illumination

67. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises where personnel,
processes, properties and operations are safeguarded?
a. Personal security C. Operational security
b. industrial security D. bank security

 Personal Security- Involves the protection of top-ranking officials of the government, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves the protection of processes, formulas, and patents, industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage, infiltration, loss, compromise or photocopying.
 School Security- Security involving not only facilities but also the students or pupils.

68. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:

a. There is impenetrable Barrier.

b. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
c. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.

69. For a Security agency, how much is the registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. [Link]

Payment of fees and licenses

 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P 2,000.00) as national license fee payable to the National Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as payment for registration fee for each security guard employed.

 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year for Security Consultant,Security Officer and Private Detectives
  Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for Security Guard payable at the Chief Finance Office, HQ PNP.

70. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you must have year/s experience in the operation and
management of security business.
a. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
b. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years

71. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed after operating for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1

72. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects predominate?

a. Mercury vapor lamp

b. Sodium vapor Lamp
c. Quartz lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp

 Amber color does not attract insects at night.

73. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security agency, company guard force and
government security forces?
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487

74. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access and
classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of from the date of
issuance.
a. 1 year C. 4 years
b. 2 years D. 5 years

 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years

75. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas or room.
a. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
b. Thug D. Peterpan

76. The tenure of a security guard is:

a. Six Months
b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
d. Contractual

77. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these

78. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer for any valid and legal
claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799
guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000

 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards –
P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards –
P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards – P200,000.00

This bond shall answer for any valid and legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party.

79. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the circumstances of a person?

a. partial background investigation

 b. personnel security investigation
c. complete background investigation
d. national agency check

 Partial Background Investigation - investigation of the background of the individual but limited only
to some of the circumstances of his personal life.

80. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey

81. It is under physical security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness.
A. Protective L i g h t i n g C. Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting

 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to continuous lighting but it is turn on manually or by special
device or other automatic means.
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of stationary or portable, manually operated searchlights. The searchlights
may be lighted continuously during the hours of darkness nor only as needed, it is just a supplementary to
other protective or security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting may be utilized in the event of electric failure, either due to local
equipment or commercial failure.
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common type consisting of series of fixed luminous flood a given area
continuously with overlap

82. Barangay Tanod is included in what component of Integrated Patrol System?

a. Fixed Component
b. Auxiliary Component
c. Secondary Component
d. Patrol Component

 Fixed Components - include the different police station headquarters, PCP, police visibility points, and
traffic post.
 Patrol Components - include the air patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile
patrols and detective repressive
patrols.
 Auxiliary Components - include the security guards deployed in area, the traffic enforcer, barangay
tanods, volunteers and NGO’s.

83. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat, and before returning to the
point of origin.
a. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
b. b. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
IV

84. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any activities to test its validity.
a. Practice C. Dry run
b. Rehearsal D. Trial

85. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty:

a. Post C. Beat
b. Area D. Route

 Route - the length of street or streets, designated for patrol purposes also
referred to as line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.
 Sector - an area containing two or more beats, routes or posts.
 District - a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its
own station.
 Area - A section or territorial division of a large city.

86. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch criminals is known as:
a. High visibility patrol
C. Target Oriented patrol
b. Low visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol

 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of apprehension of law violator to
engage in certain types of crimes
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and Police uniform. Primary objective is Crime Prevention.
 Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty

87. The ideal police response time is:

A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes

88. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the creation of
problem necessitating a demand for immediate police service:
a. Hazard C. Opportunity
b. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard

 Hazard – it refers to any person, place, thing, situation, or condition which, if allowed to exist may induce an
accident or cause the commission of a crime.

89. The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
b. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol

90. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the
night. The primary purpose is:

a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime

b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
d. D, For safety of the Patrol officer

91. The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.

a. Reduce public fear on crime;

b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.

A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e

92. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific
predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:

a. Target Oriented Patrol

b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
 d. Directed deterrent Patrol

93. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the police through.
a. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
b. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol

94. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
a. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
b. 3 shifts D. every other day shift.

95. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human being to commit crime.
a. Preventive C. Proactive
b. Reactive D. High Visibility

 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol personnel in their respective Area of Responsibility with definite
objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in patrolling wherein officers and units drive around their area of
responsibility waiting for something to happen or waiting for a call that they will respond.

96. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of since they can be operated very quietly and without attracting
attention.

a. Mobility and wide area coverage.

b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
d. Mobility and stealth

97. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
a. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
b. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol

98. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau
of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917

99. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles especially
during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm and Flashlight should be-

A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.

[Link] away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
[Link] at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these

100. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
a. Arrest criminals C. Securing the area
b. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money

101. The following are the duties of Patrol Supervisors:

I. Make a patrol plan;

II. Designate and select the members of the patrol team/s;
III. Inspect the members of the patrol on the completeness;
IV. Render hourly report of locationand situation; and
V. Resolve conflicts/differencesbetween neighbors.

a. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV

b. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,

102. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except when its occupants pose imminent danger of
causing death or injury to the police officer or any other person, and that the use of firearm does not create a
danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the
following parameters should be considered EXCEPT:

A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty the police officer or other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
 103. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a more secure search position
may be:

a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
d. All of these

104. All except one are the types of specialized patrol method:
a. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
b. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol

105. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?

a. True C. False
b. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No

106. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department

B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated

107. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades and special events.
a. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Patrol
b. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol

Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then there is considerable foot movement such as business and shopping
center, family dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in securing certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in checking residential buildings, business establishments, dark alley,
and parking lots.
[Link] following are patrol activities, except:
a. Arrest of alleged criminals
b. Responding to emergency calls
c. Inspection services
d. Preparation of investigation reports

109. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the community ideal in gaining
the trust and confidence of the people to the police:
a. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
b. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol

 Automobile Patrol - It separates public from the Police.

110. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol officer is:
a. Clockwise pattern
b. Zigzag pattern
c. Counter clockwise pattern
d. Crisscross pattern

 Clockwise Patrol Pattern - Rectangular/square size of beat; done in the start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern - Done by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat not at
random but with definite target location where he knows his presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest to observe the movement of the
patrol officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway intersection designed to route traffic without interference, by means of a
system of curving ramps from one level to another, in the form of a Four (4) leaf clover

111. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime

112. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you
call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for
tracking purposes?
a. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
b. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
  German Shepherd- the most frequently used and high scoring dog for police work
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and Video Exploration System) – It is the system of attaching
miniature camera and transmitter to a search dog which makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his handler.

113. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

a. Foot C. Automobile
b. Bicycle D. Helicopter

114. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:

a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d. Any of these

115. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming with people, hazards, and facilities on his
beat.
a. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
b. Energetic D. Unfamiliar

116. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?

a. Straightway C. Crisscross
b. Sector D. Zigzag

117. The two-man patrol became due to increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous section
to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
a. Unnecessary C. Necessary
b. Voluntary D. Redundant

118. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and
order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
b. Detective Beat System
c. Comparative Police System
d. Community Oriented Policing System

Integrated Patrol System

 Considered as the best way of immersing policemen in various activities of a particular area and to
demonstrate to the populace the commitment of the Police to serve and protect the community.
 It is response to the requirement of Police Visibility.

Detective Beat System - enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s investigation capability

[Link] among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become completely a function of automobile
patrol is the checking of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement.

120. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed.

121. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-

A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.

122. Team Policing is said to be originated in :

a. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
b. Vienna, Austria D. London, England

123. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
a. Egyptians C. English
b. Chinese D. American
 124. Psychology of Omniprescense means .
A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility
B . Reactive D. Proactive

125. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 13th floor building. Which of the following should be the
first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump
b. Call nearest relative
c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station

[Link] is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other patrol methods?
a. Low cost C. Visibility
b. Speed D. Security

127.1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are different from ordinary Police Officer.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police Organization.
rd
3 Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the quality of justice to be served in a community.
4th Statement- All police function had been vested to the patrol division.

A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct

B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
D. All statements are correct

 Tear gas - may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be
aggressive and refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.

128. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
following:
a. Size of the area;
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.

A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d

129. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas such as markets, malls, and ports is:
a. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
b. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol

130. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of origin is following
what pattern?
a. Clockwise C. Zigzag
b. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross

131. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:

a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
c. C. It is inexpensive to operate .
132. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.
C. Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.

133. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into a
working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing

134. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to evacuation and search- and-rescue
operations?
a. Motorcycle C. Automobile
b. Helicopter D. Horse

Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment by the Patrol Officers

135. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:

a. Conduct a complete search.

b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.

d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.

136. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing
troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
B. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
C. Truncheon D. Shield

137. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in Police Work:

I. Simple Installation Process;

II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of classified operational information.

A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV

B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV

138. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after patrol is-

A. To integrate the police and the community interest into a working relationship.B. To remind the patrol on the strict
observance of the PNP Operational Procedures.
C. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects noted.
D. All of the Above

139. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the police unit headquarters at least before the
start of their shift for accounting-
a. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes

140. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law-abiding citizens and would be criminals
alike that the police are always existing to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. This statement refers to:

a. Police Omnipresence

b. Police Patrol
c. Police Discretion
d. Integrated Patrol

[Link] is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police force
and in having, set up the foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as one of
the safety cities in the world.
a. Philippine National Police
b. Hong Kong Police Force
c. Japan Police Department
d. National Police Agency

142. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:

A. Commissioner General C. Director General
B. Commissioner D. Director

 Director General – Philippine National Police

 Director – BJMP and BFP
 Commissioner General - highest position in Japan Police Organization

[Link] stands for:

a. International Police
b. International Organization of Police
c. International criminal Organization
d. International Criminal Police Organization

144. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:

a. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly
 b. National Assembly D. General Assembly

145. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by the:

a. Director General C. Supervisor
b. Inspector General D. Secretary General

146. It is the counterpart of Police Community nPrecinct in Japan:

a. Keishi C. Koban
b. Omerta D. Keiban

147. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest position in Japan Police Organization:
a. Commissioner Secretariat
b. Commissioner
c. Chairman
d. Commissioner General

148. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a Commissioner General who is appointed by:
a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister
c. National Public Safety Commission
d. Japan Commission

[Link] lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:

a. Junsa C. Constable
b. Sergeant D. Police Officer

[Link] nature of which, the police officer is free from specific routine duty is the definition of
a. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
b. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”

 Length of Service- The period of time elapsed since the oath of office was administered.
 Active Service- shall refer to services rendered as an officer and non-officer, cadet, trainee or draftee in the
PNP

Franco Angelo Reyes, Rcrim

Faculty, College of Criminal Justice- PHINMA Education
National Lecturer
Cum Laude
Batch Valedictorian