GNET Analytical Preparation Guide

GNET Analytical Preparation Guide

– MBA Admission NUST

GNET Analytical Reasoning Section

Complete Concept Notes • Rules & Strategies • Speed Tricks • Solved Practice Questions

13 Core Topics | 130+ Solved Practice Questions | Exam-Ready Shortcuts

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Table of Contents
TOC \h \o "1-2"

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1. Logical Reasoning (Statement & Conclusion, Statement &

Assumption)
Overview
This topic tests whether you can separate what is definitely true (a conclusion that follows from the
statement) from what is merely implied or taken for granted (an assumption behind the statement). A
conclusion must follow strictly from the given statement alone, while an assumption is an unstated
premise the speaker must believe for the statement to make sense. Both question types punish over-
thinking and outside knowledge — stick strictly to the text given.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Conclusion Definition A conclusion must follow directly and only from the statement. It
cannot bring in new information, personal opinion, or general
knowledge.

Assumption Definition An assumption is implicit, unstated, and taken for granted by the
speaker. Negate it — if the statement collapses, it is a valid
assumption (Negation Test).

Negation Test Reverse the assumption. If the statement’s logic breaks down or
becomes meaningless, the assumption is correct. If the statement
still holds, the assumption is not necessary.

Scope Rule Never go beyond the scope of the statement. "Most people like tea"
does not conclude "Everyone likes tea."

Word Strength Watch for absolute words (all, never, only, must) versus moderate
words (some, may, often). Conclusions with absolute words are
usually wrong unless the statement itself is absolute.

Cause vs Justification An assumption justifies why an action was taken; a conclusion states
what logically results from a fact.

Two-Statement Rule If both a conclusion/assumption seem correct, check whether one is

a restatement of the given statement (invalid) rather than a logical
inference.

Eliminate Outside Do not use real-world facts, statistics, or personal beliefs. Judge
Knowledge purely on the text given, even if it contradicts known facts.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• For assumptions, instantly apply the Negation Test mentally — it is the fastest elimination
method.

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• For conclusions, ask "Does this HAVE to be true?" — if there is any possible alternate reading, it
is not a valid conclusion.
• Eliminate options that introduce a brand-new noun, number, or comparison not present in the
statement — these are almost always wrong.
• If an option merely repeats the statement in different words, it is NOT a conclusion (conclusions
must add a logical inference, not restate facts).
• Advertisements and warning statements (e.g. "Buy X, it lasts longer") almost always assume that
the audience values the stated benefit and that competitors lack it.
• In assumption questions, look for the gap between the premise and the action taken — the
assumption always bridges that exact gap.
• If a statement gives a recommendation or order ("Do X"), the assumption is usually that X is
possible/desirable and that not doing X would be worse.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statement: "All employees must submit their reports by Friday."
Conclusion I: Some employees may not submit reports on time.
Conclusion II: Friday is an important day for the office.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Conclusion I introduces a new idea (possibility of lateness) that is not stated or implied — the
statement only gives a rule, not a prediction about compliance. So I does not follow.
Conclusion II broadens the statement’s scope: the statement only fixes a deadline; it never says
Friday is "important" in general terms — this is an unsupported generalization.
Neither conclusion follows strictly from the statement.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever a conclusion predicts future behavior ("may not," "will probably") that the statement
never mentions, reject it immediately — rules state requirements, not predictions of compliance.

Q2.
Statement: "Read this book to improve your vocabulary."
Assumption I: The reader wants to improve their vocabulary.
Assumption II: This book contains rich vocabulary.
Which assumption(s) are implicit?
Solution:
Apply the Negation Test to Assumption I: if the reader did NOT want to improve their vocabulary,
the recommendation would be pointless. So the statement assumes the reader has this desire —
Assumption I holds.

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Apply the Negation Test to Assumption II: if the book did NOT contain rich vocabulary,
recommending it for vocabulary improvement would make no sense. So Assumption II also holds.
Both assumptions are necessary for the statement to be meaningful.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "Do X to achieve Y" statements, there are almost always two layered assumptions: (1) the
audience wants Y, and (2) X is actually capable of producing Y. Check both before eliminating.

Q3.
Statement: "The company has decided to shift its office to a location closer to the airport."
Conclusion I: Many employees of the company travel by air frequently.
Conclusion II: The new location will reduce travel time for air-traveling staff.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Conclusion I assumes a reason (frequent air travel) that is never stated — the move could be for
client visits, logistics, or cost. This is an assumption at best, not a guaranteed conclusion.
Conclusion II is a direct logical consequence: being closer to the airport mathematically reduces the
distance/time to reach it, for anyone using air travel. This follows necessarily from the geometry of
the situation.
Only Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Distinguish "this explains WHY" (assumption/cause) from "this necessarily results" (conclusion).
Geographic/numeric facts like distance reduction are safe conclusions; motives are not.

Q4.
Statement: "Parents are advised to limit children’s screen time to two hours a day."
Assumption: Excessive screen time can be harmful to children.
Does the assumption hold?
Solution:
Negate the assumption: if excessive screen time were NOT harmful, there would be no reason to
advise limiting it to two hours.
Since the advice only makes sense if screen time has some downside above a certain threshold, the
assumption is implicit and necessary.
The assumption holds.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Any "limit/reduce X" advice always assumes X has a negative effect beyond the recommended
threshold — this pattern repeats across diet, screen-time, spending, and similar advisory statements.

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Q5.
Statement: "Despite the heavy rain, the cricket match continued without interruption."
Conclusion I: The ground had excellent drainage facilities.
Conclusion II: The rain was not heavy enough to stop play under the rules.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Conclusion I provides one POSSIBLE explanation (good drainage) but the statement never confirms
drainage was the reason — covered stadiums, light rain despite being called "heavy" colloquially, or
rule thresholds could also explain it.
Conclusion II also offers a possible explanation but again is not confirmed — the statement says rain
was heavy, yet play continued; we cannot be certain WHY, only THAT it happened.
Neither conclusion follows with certainty; both are plausible causes, not guaranteed conclusions.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a statement reports an outcome without explaining the mechanism, options proposing "the
reason was X" are almost always traps — they sound logical but are unverifiable from the text.

Q6.
Statement: "Use SafeDrive tyres for a smoother and safer ride."
Assumption I: Other tyre brands do not offer as smooth or safe a ride.
Assumption II: Consumers value safety and smoothness while driving.
Which assumption(s) are implicit?
Solution:
This is an advertisement, and advertisements implicitly claim superiority over competitors even
without naming them — negate Assumption I: if other brands were equally smooth/safe, there
would be no special reason to choose SafeDrive. So I holds.
Negate Assumption II: if consumers did not care about safety/smoothness, advertising these
benefits would be pointless. So II also holds.
Both assumptions are implicit.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Advertisement-style statements almost always carry the "competitor inferiority" assumption AND
the "audience values this benefit" assumption — check for both as a default pattern.

Q7.
Statement: "If the price of petrol increases further, public transport usage will rise."
Conclusion: Public transport is cheaper than using a private vehicle.
Does the conclusion follow?
Solution:

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The statement only describes a cause-effect relationship (price increase → more public transport
usage); it does not explicitly compare overall costs.
The conclusion "public transport is cheaper" is a real-world inference that, while plausible, is the
underlying ASSUMPTION behind the statement, not a guaranteed conclusion drawn purely from the
words given.
The conclusion does not strictly follow — it is mixing up assumption and conclusion.
⚡ Quick Trick:
A frequent trap: an option that explains WHY the statement’s logic works is usually the assumption,
mislabeled as a "conclusion." If an option answers "why would this happen?" rather than "what
definitely follows?", reject it as a conclusion.

Q8.
Statement: "Only candidates with a minimum of 3 years’ experience need apply for the Senior Analyst
position."
Conclusion I: All candidates with 3+ years of experience will be selected.
Conclusion II: Candidates with less than 3 years of experience will not be considered.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Conclusion I confuses eligibility with selection — meeting the minimum requirement to apply does
not guarantee being hired. This conclusion overreaches.
Conclusion II is a direct, necessary consequence of the word "Only" — it explicitly restricts eligibility
to those meeting the criterion, meaning anyone below it is automatically excluded.
Only Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
The word "Only" is a strong logical gatekeeper — it always supports a conclusion that EXCLUDES
whoever doesn’t meet the stated condition. Treat "Only X can Y" as "Not X → Not Y" automatically.

Q9.
Statement: "The government has announced a 10% subsidy on electric vehicles to promote eco-friendly
transport."
Assumption I: The subsidy will encourage more people to buy electric vehicles.
Assumption II: Electric vehicles are currently more expensive without the subsidy, making cost a barrier.
Which assumption(s) are implicit?
Solution:
Negate Assumption I: if a subsidy had no effect on buying behavior, announcing it to "promote"
adoption would be pointless — so I is a necessary assumption.
Negate Assumption II: if cost were never a barrier to EV adoption, a price-based subsidy would not
be an effective promotional tool — so II is also necessary, since the policy tool chosen (subsidy =
price reduction) only makes sense if price was the obstacle.

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Both assumptions are implicit.

⚡ Quick Trick:
For policy/incentive statements, ask: "What problem is this tool designed to fix?" The implicit
assumption is always that the named problem (here, cost) actually exists and that the tool (subsidy)
actually works.

Q10.
Statement: "Most students who studied in groups scored higher than those who studied alone in the
recent exam."
Conclusion I: Group study is more effective than individual study for all students.
Conclusion II: Some students who studied alone also scored well.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Conclusion I uses the absolute word "all," but the statement only says "most," which allows
exceptions — this overreaches the scope of the statement.
Conclusion II is logically safe: since the statement says "most" (not "all") group-studiers scored
higher, it leaves room — and indeed implies — that the comparison wasn’t universal, so some
individual studiers could indeed have scored well. This is a cautious, scope-respecting inference.
Only Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever a statement uses "most" or "some," instantly flag any option using "all" or "every" as an
overreach — moderate premises can never support absolute conclusions.

Q11.
Statement: "Wear a helmet — it could save your life."
Assumption: Riding without a helmet carries a risk of fatal injury.
Does the assumption hold?
Solution:
Negate the assumption: if there were no risk of fatal injury without a helmet, the warning "it could
save your life" would be meaningless.
The statement’s entire persuasive logic depends on this risk being real and significant enough to
matter.
The assumption holds.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Safety-warning statements ("X could save your life/prevent injury") always assume a real, non-trivial
risk exists without taking the recommended action — a near-universal pattern in this question type.

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Q12.
Statement: "The new policy requires all online sellers to display GST registration numbers on their
product listings, ensuring greater transparency for buyers."
Conclusion I: Some sellers were not displaying their GST numbers before this policy.
Conclusion II: Buyers were facing difficulty verifying seller authenticity earlier.
Assumption: Displaying the GST number will genuinely increase transparency for buyers.
Evaluate the conclusions and the assumption.
Solution:
Conclusion I: the very fact that a NEW mandatory policy is being introduced implies that this was not
already a universal practice — otherwise the rule would be redundant. This follows as a reasonable
necessary inference from the introduction of a new mandate.
Conclusion II overreaches: the statement says the policy "ensures transparency" going forward, but
never confirms buyers were actively struggling with verification before — this is implied motive, not
a guaranteed fact.
Assumption: negate it — if displaying the number did NOT increase transparency at all, the policy’s
stated purpose would fail; the statement’s rationale depends on this being true, so the assumption
holds.
Final: Conclusion I follows, Conclusion II does not, and the assumption holds.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a new rule is introduced "to ensure X," treat the existence of the rule itself as evidence that
the prior situation lacked X (supports a "before" conclusion) — but do NOT assume the rule names
the ONLY or the WORST prior problem unless explicitly stated.

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2. Analytical Reasoning (Seating Arrangements, Blood

Relations, Direction Sense)
Overview
Analytical Reasoning tests your ability to map multiple given conditions onto a single consistent picture
— people around a table, family members in a tree, or directions on a compass. The key skill is
translating words into a diagram step by step and using elimination when information is incomplete.
Always draw it out; never try to solve these purely in your head.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Circular Arrangement Decide "facing center" or "facing outward" first — this flips left/right.
Facing center: clockwise = your right. Facing outward: clockwise =
your left.

Linear Arrangement Fix the most constrained person first (one with the most clues
attached) and build outward left-to-right.

Left/Right in Linear Rows If two rows face each other, the left/right of one row is the mirror
(reverse) of the other.

Blood Relations — Draw a family tree with generations as horizontal levels; mark
Generation Mapping gender with M/F and use arrows for parent-to-child.

Common Blood Relation Father’s son = brother (or self); Mother’s brother = maternal uncle;
Chains Father’s sister = aunt (paternal); Son’s wife = daughter-in-law.

Direction Sense — Base Rule Always assume starting point faces North unless stated. Right turn
from North = East; Left turn from North = West.

Direction Sense — Net After multiple turns/moves, use the Pythagorean theorem (straight-
Displacement line distance) only when asked for shortest distance, not total path
walked.

Clockwise/Anticlockwise in Right turn = clockwise rotation of facing direction; Left turn =

Direction anticlockwise rotation.

Elimination Strategy When multiple cases are possible after using definite clues, use the
conditional/uncertain clues (if, may, possibly) last to break ties.

Negative Constraints Clues like "A does not sit next to B" should be applied AFTER placing
definite/positive clues, as a filter to invalidate wrong cases.

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Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Always sketch a quick diagram first — circles for circular seating, boxes in a row for linear, a
compass cross for direction problems. Never solve in your head.
• In circular arrangements, write "facing center" or "facing outside" in a corner of your diagram
before placing anyone — this prevents the most common error.
• For blood relations, convert long relational chains into a simple tree with one symbol per
generation; trace the final relationship along branches rather than re-reading the full sentence.
• For direction problems, draw a compass (N/E/S/W) and physically rotate your pencil/mental
image with each turn instead of tracking turns as abstract words.
• When a question gives both positive ("sits next to") and negative ("does not sit next to") clues,
place positive clues first, then use negative clues purely to eliminate remaining slots.
• If multiple valid arrangements remain after using all the clues, check the question stem — it
usually asks for something true in ALL cases (the only safe answer) or explicitly says "if" to fix
one variable.
• For "shortest distance" questions in direction sense, only the start and end points matter —
ignore intermediate path complexity and use distance formula or simple right-triangle
properties.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Six friends A, B, C, D, E, F sit around a circular table facing the center. A sits second to the right of B. C
sits immediately to the left of A. D sits second to the left of B. Who sits immediately to the right of D,
given E and F occupy the two remaining seats with E not adjacent to B?
Solution:
Place B at a reference position (say position 1, facing center). "Second to the right of B" means
moving 2 seats clockwise (since facing center, clockwise = right) lands on A → A is at position 3.
C is immediately to the left of A → left in a center-facing arrangement is anticlockwise → C is at
position 2.
D is second to the left of B → 2 seats anticlockwise from position 1 → D is at position 5 (positions:
1,2,3,4,5,6 going clockwise; anticlockwise 2 from 1 is 6 then 5).
Remaining positions are 4 and 6 for E and F. Position 6 is adjacent to B (position 1) and position 4 is
not. Since E is NOT adjacent to B, E takes position 4, and F takes position 6.
Now find who is immediately to the right of D (position 5). Right (clockwise) of position 5 is position
6, which is F.
Answer: F sits immediately to the right of D.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Number the circle 1-6 clockwise the instant you fix one person. Convert every "right/left" clue into a
fixed clockwise/anticlockwise number immediately — this turns the whole puzzle into simple
modular arithmetic instead of repeated re-visualization.

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Q2.
Pointing to a photograph, Rita says, "He is the son of my grandfather’s only daughter." How is the boy in
the photo related to Rita?
Solution:
Rita’s grandfather’s only daughter = Rita’s mother (since if grandfather had only one daughter, and
Rita is female, that daughter must be Rita’s mother — assuming Rita is in that lineage) — but more
generally, "grandfather’s only daughter" is Rita’s mother OR Rita’s aunt depending on whether Rita
is the daughter herself.
Since the grandfather has "only" one daughter, and Rita herself is female and descended from this
grandfather, that one daughter must be Rita’s own mother (there is no other daughter to be an
"aunt").
So "the son of my grandfather’s only daughter" = the son of Rita’s mother = Rita’s brother.
Answer: The boy is Rita’s brother.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever you see "only son/daughter," immediately check if that description forces the relation to
collapse onto the speaker’s own parent — this is the single biggest shortcut in blood relation chains
with the word "only."

Q3.
A man walks 5 km towards East, then turns left and walks 3 km, then turns left again and walks 5 km.
How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
Solution:
Set up a compass: start facing East. Walk 5 km East.
Turn left from East → facing North. Walk 3 km North.
Turn left from North → facing West. Walk 5 km West.
Plot coordinates: Start (0,0). After leg 1: (5,0). After leg 2: (5,3). After leg 3: (5-5, 3) = (0,3).
Final position (0,3) relative to start (0,0) is exactly 3 km North.
Answer: 3 km, due North of the starting point.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Plot each leg on an x-y grid (East/West = x-axis, North/South = y-axis) instead of tracking directions
verbally — when the East and West legs are equal in length, they cancel out completely, leaving only
the North-South component as the answer.

Q4.
In a row of children facing North, P is 4th from the left and Q is 7th from the right. If there are 12
children in the row and exactly 3 children sit between P and Q, find the position of Q from the left.
Solution:
Total children = 12. Q is 7th from the right → Q’s position from the left = 12 - 7 + 1 = 6th from the
left.

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P is 4th from the left. Children between P (position 4) and Q (position 6) = positions 5 only = 1 child.
This contradicts the given condition of exactly 3 children between them — so we must double
check: the problem states this as a condition to verify, meaning Q’s position must be recalculated
using the constraint instead of the "7th from right" figure if they conflict. Using the 3-children
condition as the binding constraint: positions of P and Q must differ by 4 (3 children between means
a gap of 4 positions, e.g., position 4 and position 8).
P is at position 4, so Q is at position 4 + 4 = 8 (since Q must be to the right of P for both right-from
and left-from counts to make sense in a 12-row).
Answer: Q is 8th from the left (this also gives Q’s position from the right as 12 - 8 + 1 = 5th,
illustrating why the "exactly 3 between" condition is the binding one to trust in case of conflicting
data).
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a question gives both a fixed ordinal position AND a "number of people between" condition,
treat the "between" condition as the controlling constraint — convert it instantly to "gap = (number
between) + 1" and add/subtract from the known position.

Q5.
Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my father." How is the woman
related to the man?
Solution:
"Only daughter of my father" = the woman herself (since she is the only daughter of her own
father).
So "his wife is [the woman herself]" → the man’s wife is the woman speaking.
Answer: The woman is the man’s wife.
⚡ Quick Trick:
The phrase "only daughter of my father" is a classic self-reference trick — it almost always means
"myself." Recognize this pattern instantly to skip a full relational trace.

Q6.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H sit in two parallel rows of four, facing each other (A, B, C, D in row 1
facing South; E, F, G, H in row 2 facing North). B sits second from the left end of row 1. D, who is not an
end person, faces F. G sits to the immediate right of E. Who sits opposite to B?
Solution:
Row 1 (facing South), left to right as seen from above: positions 1,2,3,4. B is 2nd from left → B is at
row1-position 2.
In facing rows, "opposite" pairs align directly: row1-position 1 opposite row2-position 1, and so on
— but since the rows face each other, the row2 left-right order (as the row2 people experience it) is
mirrored relative to row1. For an overhead-view fixed grid, position 2 in row 1 is opposite position 2
in row 2 in the SAME overhead column.

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D is not an end person in row 1, so D is at position 2 or 3. Since B occupies position 2, D must be at

position 3.
D faces F → F is directly opposite D → F is at row2-position 3 (same column as D).
G sits immediately to the right of E. We need E and G’s positions in row 2; remaining row 2 spots are
1, 2, 4 (since F is at 3). For G to be immediately right of E within row 2’s own left-right sense (facing
North, their right is opposite to row 1’s right when viewed on the same overhead grid — but
immediate adjacency in physical seating is grid-adjacency regardless of facing direction): valid
adjacent pairs from {1,2,4} are (1,2) only, since 4 is not adjacent to 2 or 1 in a 4-seat row... actually
position 4 is adjacent to position 3 (taken by F), so the only open adjacent pair is positions 1-2.
So E is at position 1 and G is at position 2 (immediate right of E in the grid sense), leaving H at
position 4.
B is at row1-position 2. Opposite (same column) in row 2 is position 2, which is G.
Answer: G sits opposite B.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For facing-row puzzles, draw TWO parallel lines of four boxes directly across from each other on
paper (an overhead view) — never try to track "left/right as the person facing you sees it" purely
mentally, since that mirroring is the single biggest source of errors.

Q7.
P is the brother of Q. Q is the daughter of R. R is the husband of S. How is S related to P?
Solution:
Q is the daughter of R, and R is the husband of S → R and S are husband and wife, and Q is their
daughter.
P is the brother of Q → P is also a child of R and S (since Q’s sibling shares the same parents).
So S, being R’s wife and Q’s mother, is also P’s mother.
Answer: S is the mother of P.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always redraw blood-relation chains as a tree with R-S as a couple at the top and their children
below — once the tree is drawn, any relation between named individuals from the SAME
generation/branch is read off instantly without re-parsing sentences.

Q8.
A is 40m to the North of B. C is 30m to the East of B. D is 40m to the South of C. What is the shortest
distance between A and D, and in which direction is D from A?
Solution:
Set B at origin (0,0). A is 40m North of B → A = (0, 40).
C is 30m East of B → C = (30, 0).
D is 40m South of C → D = (30, 0 - 40) = (30, -40).
Shortest distance AD = √[(30-0)² + (-40-40)²] = √[30² + (-80)²] = √[900 + 6400] = √7300 ≈ 85.4m.

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Wait — recompute the vertical difference correctly: A is at y=40, D is at y=-40, so the difference is
40-(-40) = 80, and horizontal difference is 30-0 = 30. Distance = √(30² + 80²) = √(900+6400) = √7300 ≈
85.44m.
Direction of D from A: D is to the East (positive x) and South (more negative y than A) of A, so D is to
the South-East of A.
Answer: Approximately 85.4 m, in the South-East direction from A.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always assign coordinates the moment 3+ directional facts appear — plug each statement directly
into (x,y) shifts (North=+y, South=−y, East=+x, West=−x) rather than visualizing turns; distance and
direction then become pure coordinate geometry.

Q9.
In a family of six members, A is the mother of B. B is the husband of C. D is the son of C. E is the brother
of D. F is the mother-in-law of B. How is F related to D?
Solution:
A is B’s mother. F is B’s mother-in-law — meaning F is the mother of B’s spouse, C. So F is C’s
mother.
D is the son of C, and E is D’s brother (so E is also C’s child).
Since F is C’s mother, and D is C’s son, F is D’s grandmother (specifically, maternal grandmother
since the link is through D’s mother C).
Answer: F is the (maternal) grandmother of D.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Build the tree in two parallel branches — B’s side (A → B) and C’s side (F → C) — then merge them at
the B-C marriage point. Children (D, E) hang below the merge point, making grandparent relations
visually obvious.

Q10.
Five people J, K, L, M, N sit in a row facing North. K sits third to the left of M, and K is at the left extreme
end of the row. J is an immediate neighbor of both K and N. How many people sit between L and M?
Solution:
There are 5 seats: positions 1 to 5 (left to right). K is at the left extreme end → K = position 1.
"K sits third to the left of M" means M is 3 positions to the right of K → M = 1 + 3 = position 4.
J is an immediate neighbor of both K and N, meaning J sits directly between K and N. Since K is at
position 1, J must be at position 2 (the only neighbor of K). For J to also neighbor N, N must be at
position 3 (J’s other side).
Remaining position 5 is the only seat left, so L = position 5.
People between L (position 5) and M (position 4): there are no positions strictly between 4 and 5.
Answer: 0 people sit between L and M (they are immediate neighbors).
⚡ Quick Trick:

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Fixing one person to an "extreme end" immediately turns relative clues ("third to the left of") into
exact position numbers — always use extreme-end clues as your very first anchor before placing
anyone else.

Q11.
Pointing to a man, Sonia said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is Sonia related to
the man?
Solution:
"The only daughter of my mother" = Sonia herself (Sonia is her mother’s only daughter).
So "his mother is Sonia" → the man’s mother is Sonia.
Answer: Sonia is the man’s mother.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Same self-reference pattern as before: "only daughter/son of my [parent]" collapses to "myself."
Once recognized, these questions resolve in one line.

Q12.
Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, V are stacked one above another (position 1 = topmost, position 7 =
bottommost). R is immediately above U. Exactly two boxes are below T. Exactly three boxes are between
U and P. S is immediately above Q. V is at the bottommost position. Find the position of S from the top.
Solution:
Number positions 1 (top) to 7 (bottom). "V is at the bottommost position" → V = 7.
"Exactly two boxes are below T" → exactly 2 positions exist below T → T = position 5 (positions 6
and 7 lie below it).
"R is immediately above U" → R’s position = U’s position − 1, so R and U are consecutive, with R
sitting on top of U.
"Exactly three boxes are between U and P" → the gap between U and P spans 4 positions (3 boxes in
between).
Remaining positions to assign: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 (for P, Q, R, S, U), since T=5 and V=7 are already fixed.
Find a pair from {1,2,3,4,6} that differs by exactly 4: only (2,6) qualifies. So {U, P} = {2, 6} in some
order.
Test U=6: then R (immediately above U) would be position 5 — but that is already T. Invalid.
Test U=2: then R = 1, which is still free. Valid. So R=1, U=2, leaving P=6.
Remaining positions 3 and 4 go to S and Q. "S is immediately above Q" → S’s position = Q’s position
− 1 → S=3, Q=4.
Final order, top to bottom: 1-R, 2-U, 3-S, 4-Q, 5-T, 6-P, 7-V.
Answer: S is at the 3rd position from the top.
⚡ Quick Trick:
In stacking puzzles, lock down absolute anchors first — "bottommost/topmost" items and "exactly N
below/above X" clues — since these pin exact numbers immediately. Then convert every

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"immediately above/below" into a simple ±1 relationship and every "exactly N between" into a fixed
numeric gap, turning the rest into basic arithmetic on the leftover slots.

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3. Data Sufficiency
Overview
Data Sufficiency questions give you a question and two (or three) numbered statements containing data.
You must decide whether the data in the statements — alone, combined, or not at all — is enough to
answer the question, WITHOUT actually solving for the final numeric answer. Speed comes from testing
each statement independently first, then combining only if needed, and stopping as soon as sufficiency
is determined.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Standard Answer Choices (A) Statement I alone is sufficient; (B) Statement II alone is sufficient;
(C) Either I or II alone is sufficient; (D) Both together are needed; (E)
Even both together are not sufficient.

Golden Rule You only need to determine IF an answer can be found uniquely —
never actually calculate the final value.

Independence Check Always test Statement I completely alone first (ignore Statement II
entirely), then test Statement II completely alone (ignore Statement
I). Never let one influence your reading of the other at this stage.

Combine Only If Needed Only combine both statements if neither alone is sufficient. If a
single statement is enough, you never need to check the
combination.

Uniqueness Test Data is "sufficient" only if it leads to ONE single, unique answer. If a
statement allows two or more different possible answers, it is NOT
sufficient.

Beware of Real-World Do not assume typical/real-world facts (e.g., "age cannot be

Assumptions negative" is valid, but "a normal classroom has 30 students" is not)
unless mathematically guaranteed.

Geometry Sufficiency For geometry, check if the given data fixes a SINGLE shape/value —
multiple valid configurations satisfying the same data make it
insufficient.

Common Trap A statement that "seems related" but answers a slightly different
question (e.g., gives total instead of average) is insufficient — verify
it answers the EXACT question asked.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Memorize the 5-option pattern (AIBIC/CombinedID/E) so you spend zero time re-reading what
each letter means — apply it instantly.

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• Test Statement I in total isolation, write "Suff" or "Not Suff" next to it, then completely clear
your mind and test Statement II in isolation — never let your work on one contaminate the
other.
• The instant you find Statement I alone is sufficient, check whether Statement II ALONE is also
sufficient (for option A vs C) — but never combine them with Statement I’s logic.
• If a statement gives a ratio or percentage without an absolute value, and the question asks for
an absolute value, it is almost always insufficient by itself.
• For "Yes/No" type sufficiency questions, a statement is sufficient if it lets you answer a DEFINITE
"yes" or a DEFINITE "no" — but NOT sufficient if the answer could be "sometimes yes,
sometimes no."
• If both statements individually give the SAME type of information (e.g., both give different
unrelated equations with 2 unknowns), check whether combining solves a system of equations
uniquely before declaring (D).
• Eliminate (E) quickly if you can show even one valid combined scenario gives a definite, unique
answer.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Question: What is the value of x?
Statement I: x² = 49
Statement II: x is a positive number.
Solution:
Statement I alone: x² = 49 gives x = 7 or x = −7. Two possible values exist, so Statement I alone is
NOT sufficient (no unique answer).
Statement II alone: "x is positive" gives no numeric value at all — clearly not sufficient by itself.
Combine both: x² = 49 AND x is positive → x must be +7 (the negative root is excluded). This gives a
single, unique value.
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever a statement involves a square (x² = k), instantly flag it as having TWO possible roots (±√k)
— it can never be sufficient alone unless paired with a sign-determining statement like Statement II
here.

Q2.
Question: Is Ali older than Bilal?
Statement I: Ali is 5 years older than Sara.
Statement II: Sara is 2 years younger than Bilal.
Solution:
Statement I alone: gives Ali’s age relative to Sara, but says nothing about Bilal — not sufficient.
Statement II alone: gives Sara’s age relative to Bilal, but says nothing about Ali — not sufficient.

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Combine: Ali = Sara + 5. Sara = Bilal − 2 → Sara is 2 years younger than Bilal, i.e., Bilal = Sara + 2. So
Ali = Sara+5 and Bilal = Sara+2 → Ali is 3 years older than Bilal regardless of Sara’s actual age.
Since Ali > Bilal is now definitely established (a clear "Yes"), combining both gives a unique, definite
answer.
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For relative-age chains, assign a variable to the "middle" person mentioned in both statements (Sara
here) — every other person’s age becomes "variable + offset," and comparisons between the OTHER
two people often cancel the middle variable out entirely.

Q3.
Question: What is the area of the rectangular garden?
Statement I: The perimeter of the garden is 40 meters.
Statement II: The length of the garden is 12 meters.
Solution:
Statement I alone: Perimeter = 40 → 2(l+w) = 40 → l+w = 20. Infinite (l,w) pairs satisfy this (e.g.,
15&5, 12&8, 10&10), each giving a DIFFERENT area. Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: only gives length = 12, nothing about width or area. Not sufficient.
Combine: l+w=20 and l=12 → w = 8. Now both dimensions are fixed → Area = 12 × 8 = 96 (unique
value, though we don’t need to compute it, just confirm it’s fixed).
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For rectangle/perimeter problems, recognize instantly that perimeter alone NEVER fixes a unique
area (infinite l-w combinations satisfy any fixed perimeter) — you always need a second independent
piece of dimensional data.

Q4.
Question: Is the integer n divisible by 6?
Statement I: n is divisible by 2.
Statement II: n is divisible by 3.
Solution:
Statement I alone: n divisible by 2 does not guarantee divisibility by 3 (e.g., n=4 is divisible by 2 but
not by 6). Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: n divisible by 3 does not guarantee divisibility by 2 (e.g., n=9 is divisible by 3 but
not by 6). Not sufficient.
Combine: if n is divisible by both 2 AND 3, and 2 and 3 are co-prime, then n must be divisible by their
product, 6. This gives a definite "Yes" in all cases.
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).

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⚡ Quick Trick:
For divisibility-by-composite-number questions (divisible by 6, 12, 15, etc.), instantly break the
number into its co-prime factors (6 = 2×3) — sufficiency almost always requires confirming divisibility
by EACH co-prime factor separately.

Q5.
Question: What is the value of y?
Statement I: 3y + 7 = 22
Statement II: y is a positive integer less than 10.
Solution:
Statement I alone: 3y + 7 = 22 → 3y = 15 → y = 5. This is a single linear equation with one unknown,
giving exactly one unique value. Sufficient.
Statement II alone: "positive integer less than 10" allows y = 1,2,3,...,9 — many possible values. Not
sufficient.
Since Statement I alone is sufficient and Statement II alone is not, the answer is Option A (Statement
I alone is sufficient).
⚡ Quick Trick:
A single linear equation with exactly one unknown and a fixed constant is ALWAYS sufficient by itself
— recognize this format instantly and mark it sufficient without further checking, then move straight
to testing the other statement.

Q6.
Question: Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statement I: P is taller than Q but shorter than R.
Statement II: S is taller than R but shorter than T.
Solution:
Statement I alone: gives Q < P < R, but says nothing about S and T — not sufficient to determine the
overall tallest among all 5.
Statement II alone: gives R < S < T, but says nothing about P and Q — not sufficient alone either.
Combine both: Q < P < R < S < T. This chain places all five people in a definite order, with T clearly
the tallest.
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).
⚡ Quick Trick:
When two statements each give a partial ordering chain sharing one common name (R appears in
both here), check immediately whether the chains LINK UP through that shared name into one full
ordering — this is the fastest way to test combined sufficiency in ranking questions.

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Q7.
Question: What is the value of m if m and n are positive integers?
Statement I: m × n = 24
Statement II: m + n = 11
Solution:
Statement I alone: m×n=24 has multiple positive integer pairs (1,24),(2,12),(3,8),(4,6) — multiple
values for m. Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: m+n=11 has multiple positive integer pairs (1,10),(2,9),...,(10,1) — multiple
values for m. Not sufficient.
Combine: m×n=24 and m+n=11. Testing the pairs from Statement I against m+n=11: (3,8) gives sum
11 ✓; (4,6) gives sum 10 ✗; (2,12) gives sum 14 ✗; (1,24) gives sum 25 ✗. Only (m,n) = (3,8) or (8,3)
satisfies both.
Since m could be 3 OR 8 (two valid unordered values, as the statements don’t specify which of m or
n is larger), the value of m specifically is still NOT uniquely determined.
Answer: Even both statements together are not sufficient (Option E).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For simultaneous equations asking for ONE specific variable (not the pair), always check if the
system is symmetric in the two variables (like m×n and m+n here) — symmetric systems usually
leave the INDIVIDUAL variable ambiguous even when the PAIR is determined, a classic trap for
Option D.

Q8.
Question: Did Company X make a profit last year?
Statement I: Company X’s revenue last year was $2 million.
Statement II: Company X’s expenses last year were 80% of its revenue.
Solution:
Statement I alone: gives revenue only, no expense information — cannot determine profit/loss. Not
sufficient.
Statement II alone: gives expenses as a percentage of revenue, but without knowing the actual
revenue figure, we can’t compute the actual profit value — though notice expenses (80% of
revenue) being LESS than 100% of revenue already implies a profit regardless of the actual number,
since profit = revenue − expenses = revenue × (1 − 0.8) = revenue × 0.2, which is positive for ANY
positive revenue.
Re-examine Statement II alone: since 80% < 100%, expenses are always less than revenue, so profit
is always positive — this answers the YES/NO question definitely, without needing the actual
revenue figure from Statement I.
Answer: Statement II alone is sufficient; Statement I alone is not (Option B).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For Yes/No profit or comparison questions, check if a PERCENTAGE statement alone already settles
the direction of the answer (here, "80% of revenue" guarantees expenses < revenue regardless of the
actual number) — absolute values are often a distractor when only the yes/no direction matters.

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Q9.
Question: In triangle ABC, what is the measure of angle C?
Statement I: Angle A = 50°
Statement II: Angle B = 70°
Solution:
Statement I alone: gives only one angle of the triangle; the other two angles could be many
combinations summing to 130°. Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: similarly gives only one angle; not sufficient alone.
Combine: Angle A + Angle B + Angle C = 180° (angle sum property of a triangle) → 50° + 70° + C =
180° → C = 60°. This is a single, unique, fixed value.
Answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is (Option D).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "find the third angle" triangle questions, remember the angle-sum property (180°) makes ANY
two known angles automatically sufficient together — this is a near-instant Option D pattern; no
need for detailed checking once you see two angles given.

Q10.
Question: Is x greater than y?
Statement I: x + 3 > y + 1
Statement II: x and y are both negative numbers.
Solution:
Statement I alone: x + 3 > y + 1 → x > y − 2 → x − y > −2. This means x could still be less than, equal
to, or greater than y (e.g., if x−y = −1, x is still less than y by 1, but x−y > −2 holds; if x−y = 1, x > y).
Since both cases are possible, Statement I alone does NOT guarantee x > y. Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: simply states both are negative, giving no comparative information between
them. Not sufficient.
Combine: knowing both are negative does not resolve the ambiguity from Statement I (x − y > −2 still
allows x < y in cases like x=−5, y=−4, since −5−(−4) = −1 > −2, but here x < y). So even combined, we
cannot determine a definite yes or no.
Answer: Even both statements together are not sufficient (Option E).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For inequality sufficiency questions, always test boundary/edge values mentally (e.g., x−y slightly
less than 0 vs slightly more than 0) to check if BOTH a "yes" and a "no" outcome remain possible — if
so, it’s automatically insufficient regardless of how precise-looking the inequality seems.

Q11.
Question: How many students are in the class?

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Statement I: If 5 more students join, the class will have 35 students.

Statement II: The number of boys in the class is 18 and the number of girls is 12.
Solution:
Statement I alone: "5 more students → 35 total" → current count = 35 − 5 = 30. This is one single
linear equation yielding a unique value. Sufficient.
Statement II alone: boys = 18, girls = 12 → total = 18+12 = 30. This is also a complete, unique
calculation. Sufficient.
Since EACH statement alone is independently sufficient (and they happen to agree, though
agreement isn’t even required for this determination), the answer is that either statement alone
works.
Answer: Either statement alone is sufficient (Option C).
⚡ Quick Trick:
When both statements independently produce a complete, computable answer (even before
checking if the numbers match), immediately mark this as "Either I or II alone is sufficient" (Option C)
— don’t waste time combining them.

Q12.
Question: A bag contains only red and blue balls. What is the probability of picking a red ball at random?
Statement I: The bag contains 15 balls in total.
Statement II: The ratio of red to blue balls is 3:2.
Solution:
Statement I alone: total = 15, but the split between red and blue is unknown — could be any
combination. Not sufficient.
Statement II alone: ratio 3:2 means red balls = 3/5 of the total, REGARDLESS of the actual total
number of balls — probability of picking red = 3/(3+2) = 3/5, a fixed fraction independent of the
actual count.
Since Statement II alone already gives a definite, unique probability value (3/5) without needing to
know the total, it is sufficient by itself.
Statement I alone (just the total, 15) gives no ratio information and is not sufficient.
Answer: Statement II alone is sufficient; Statement I alone is not (Option B).
⚡ Quick Trick:
For probability/ratio questions, recognize that a RATIO alone is often sufficient by itself (since
probability only needs relative proportions, not absolute counts) — whereas a total count ALONE is
almost never sufficient unless paired with a ratio or exact sub-count.

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4. Cause & Effect

Overview
Cause & Effect questions present two statements describing events, and you must judge the logical
relationship between them: does one cause the other, are both effects of a common cause, are they
independent events, or is the relationship reversed? The skill tested is recognizing the direction and
nature of causality, not just temporal sequence.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Standard Categories Both statements are independent causes; Statement I is the cause of
Statement II; Statement II is the cause of Statement I; Both are
effects of a common cause; Both are effects of independent causes.

Timing Check A cause must occur BEFORE its effect in time. If Statement II
happened first chronologically, it cannot be caused by Statement I.

Common Cause Pattern If two seemingly unrelated effects both trace back to one shared
underlying event/condition not mentioned in either statement, they
are "effects of a common cause."

Direct Logical Link Check if Statement I logically and directly explains why Statement II
would happen (or vice versa) — not just "happened around the same
time."

Independent Events If neither statement explains the other, and no obvious shared cause
exists, they may simply be independent, unconnected facts.

Avoid Outside Causation Don’t import real-world causes not implied by the statements
themselves — stick to what is logically inferable from the two given
statements only.

Reverse Causality Trap A common trap is assuming "I causes II" when actually "II causes I" —
always check both directions before deciding.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• First check WHICH statement happened earlier in time — this instantly eliminates one of the
two "X causes Y" directions.
• Ask: "If I only knew Statement I, would I expect Statement II to happen?" If yes, I likely causes II.
Repeat the test in reverse for the other direction.
• If both effects seem to spring from something neither statement explicitly states (e.g., both are
consequences of bad weather, but weather itself isn’t mentioned), suspect "common cause."
• If the two statements describe completely unrelated domains (e.g., one about traffic, one about
a stock price) with no logical bridge, default to "independent causes/events."

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• Watch for words like "due to," "as a result," "following," and "after" in the statements
themselves — these often hint at the intended direction directly.
• When uncertain between "I causes II" and "common cause," check if Statement I, by itself, is
specific enough to fully explain Statement II — if it only partially explains it, a common cause is
more likely.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statement I: The price of crude oil rose sharply in the international market this month.
Statement II: Transportation costs across the country increased this month.
Determine the cause-effect relationship.
Solution:
Check timing and logic: crude oil is a primary input for fuel, which directly powers transportation
(trucks, buses, etc.).
A rise in crude oil prices directly and logically increases fuel costs, which in turn raises transportation
costs — this is a well-established, direct economic mechanism.
There is no indication that transportation costs rose first and somehow caused oil prices to rise
(reverse causality is implausible here, as oil pricing is set internationally, largely independent of local
transport costs).
Answer: Statement I is the cause of Statement II.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For economic/commodity-based cause-effect pairs, identify which item is the "raw input" — raw
input price changes almost always cause downstream cost changes in dependent industries, never
the reverse, unless explicitly stated otherwise.

Q2.
Statement I: Sales of umbrellas increased sharply in the city this week.
Statement II: Sales of raincoats also increased sharply in the city this week.
Determine the cause-effect relationship.
Solution:
Check if buying umbrellas would directly cause people to buy raincoats, or vice versa — there is no
direct logical mechanism connecting the two purchases to each other.
Both products serve a similar purpose (rain protection), suggesting a shared external trigger.
The most logical explanation is heavy rainfall/a rainy spell in the city this week — an unstated
common cause driving both effects simultaneously.
Answer: Both statements are effects of a common cause (likely rainfall).
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever two statements describe a simultaneous rise/fall in two DIFFERENT but THEMATICALLY
RELATED items (umbrellas & raincoats, ice cream & cold drinks, heaters & woolen clothes), suspect a

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common external cause (usually weather or a seasonal/event trigger) rather than one causing the
other directly.

Q3.
Statement I: The local football club won the regional championship last weekend.
Statement II: Stock prices of a major IT company rose by 2% on Monday.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
There is no logical, economic, or causal link between a football club’s championship win and an IT
company’s stock price movement.
No shared underlying cause is evident either — these are simply two unrelated events occurring
around the same time, in different domains.
Answer: Both are independent events with no cause-effect relationship.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When two statements belong to entirely unrelated domains (sports vs finance, weather vs politics)
with zero thematic overlap, don’t force a connection — confidently mark them as
independent/unrelated events.

Q4.
Statement I: The river overflowed its banks following three days of continuous heavy rainfall.
Statement II: Several low-lying villages near the river were flooded.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
Statement I explicitly states the river overflowed AFTER heavy rainfall — establishing the rainfall as
the trigger for the overflow.
Statement II describes flooding in villages NEAR the river — a direct, physical, and immediate
consequence of a river overflowing its banks.
The chain is: rainfall → river overflow (within Statement I) → village flooding (Statement II) —
Statement I’s outcome directly causes Statement II.
Answer: Statement I is the cause of Statement II.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When one statement already contains an internal cause-effect chain ("X following Y"), treat its FINAL
outcome (the overflow) as the operative cause for evaluating its relationship with the OTHER
statement — don’t get distracted by the rainfall mentioned earlier in the same statement.

Q5.
Statement I: The company’s quarterly profit declined by 15% compared to the previous quarter.

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Statement II: The company’s top sales executive resigned at the start of the quarter.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
Check timing: the resignation happened "at the start of the quarter," meaning it occurred BEFORE
the profit decline was recorded (profit decline is measured at quarter-end, after the resignation).
A senior sales executive’s departure can plausibly disrupt sales operations, client relationships, and
team morale — providing a direct logical mechanism for reduced sales and hence profit.
Since the resignation (Statement II) precedes and plausibly explains the profit decline (Statement I),
the direction is reversed from a naive first reading.
Answer: Statement II is the cause of Statement I.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always check WHICH event is explicitly anchored earlier in time ("at the start of," "before,"
"preceding") — exam-setters often place the cause in the SECOND statement deliberately, to test
whether you default lazily to "Statement I causes Statement II" just because of reading order.

Q6.
Statement I: Ice cream sales in the city tripled during the month of June.
Statement II: The number of reported cases of minor heatstroke also rose during June.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
Check if ice cream sales could cause heatstroke, or if heatstroke cases could cause ice cream sales —
neither has a direct causal mechanism on the other.
Both are plausible CONSEQUENCES of a single shared factor: a heatwave or unusually high
temperatures during June.
Answer: Both statements are effects of a common cause (a heatwave/high temperatures in June).
⚡ Quick Trick:
Same family as the umbrella/raincoat pattern — two seemingly unrelated effects (consumer
behavior + health incidents) both linked to weather/season should default to "common cause," not
direct causation between them.

Q7.
Statement I: The government imposed a new import duty on electronic goods last month.
Statement II: Domestic manufacturers of electronic goods reported a rise in local sales this month.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
An import duty makes imported electronics more expensive, which logically shifts consumer
preference towards cheaper domestic alternatives.

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Timing fits: the duty was imposed "last month," and the rise in domestic sales is observed "this
month" — effect follows cause chronologically.
There is a clear, direct, economically sound mechanism connecting the two.
Answer: Statement I is the cause of Statement II.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For policy-and-market-response pairs (tax/duty/subsidy → sales/behavior change), check timing
alignment (policy first, response after) — this combination of plausible mechanism + correct timing is
the strongest possible confirmation of direct causation.

Q8.
Statement I: Absenteeism among factory workers increased significantly this winter.
Statement II: A flu outbreak was reported in the region this winter.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
A flu outbreak directly causes illness, and illness is one of the most common and direct reasons for
worker absenteeism.
No reverse mechanism makes sense — workers being absent does not cause a flu outbreak.
Answer: Statement II is the cause of Statement I.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When one statement describes a health/illness event and the other describes a
behavioral/attendance outcome, the illness is almost always the cause — illness explains absence far
more directly than absence explains illness.

Q9.
Statement I: A new high-speed train route was launched between City A and City B.
Statement II: Hotel bookings in City B increased noticeably in the following month.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
A new high-speed route makes City B more accessible, likely increasing the number of
travelers/tourists from City A.
More travelers logically leads to more hotel bookings in the destination city.
Timing supports this: the bookings rose "in the following month," after the route launch.
Answer: Statement I is the cause of Statement II.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Infrastructure/connectivity improvements (new routes, roads, bridges) almost always serve as the
CAUSE for downstream economic effects (tourism, business, bookings) in the connected location — a
frequently repeated pattern.

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Q10.
Statement I: A popular social media influencer reviewed a new smartphone model positively.
Statement II: The price of gold increased globally during the same week.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
There is no plausible mechanism by which a smartphone review affects global gold prices, or vice
versa.
No shared underlying cause connects consumer tech reviews with gold commodity pricing.
Answer: Both are independent events with no cause-effect relationship.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Don’t be misled by "same week" timing coincidences — shared timing alone does NOT imply
causation or a common cause; you still need a plausible logical bridge between the two domains,
which is absent here.

Q11.
Statement I: Several schools in the city announced early closure for the day.
Statement II: A severe dust storm warning was issued for the city in the morning.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:
Check timing: the dust storm warning was issued "in the morning," and school closures were
"announced" presumably in response, during the same day — the warning logically precedes the
safety-driven closure decision.
Authorities/schools commonly close early as a precaution in response to severe weather warnings
— a direct, plausible safety mechanism.
Answer: Statement II is the cause of Statement I.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "warning issued" + "precautionary action taken" pairs, the warning is virtually always the cause
— precautionary actions (closures, evacuations, cancellations) are responses TO warnings, not
causes OF them.

Q12.
Statement I: Enrollment in online coding courses surged by 40% this year.
Statement II: Average starting salaries for software developers in the region increased by 12% this year.
Determine the relationship.
Solution:

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Check both directions: could higher salaries (already increased) cause MORE people to enroll in
coding courses, anticipating a lucrative career? This is plausible — rising salaries make a field more
attractive to prospective students.
Could a 40% surge in enrollment (a flow of students still mid-training) directly cause a 12% rise in
ALREADY-EMPLOYED developers’ salaries this same year? This is implausible — new students
entering a course haven’t yet entered the job market within the same year, so they can’t be driving
up current salaries.
Since rising salaries make the field attractive and would logically motivate more enrollments, while
the reverse mechanism doesn’t fit the timeline, the salary increase is the more plausible cause.
Answer: Statement II is the cause of Statement I.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a "talent pipeline" effect (enrollment, training, applications) and a "market outcome" effect
(salaries, demand, job openings) appear together, check which one could realistically happen
WITHIN the same year — outcomes that require time to materialize (new graduates affecting
salaries) are usually the EFFECT, not the immediate cause.

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5. Course of Action
Overview
A Course of Action question presents a problem or situation, followed by suggested actions. You must
judge whether each suggested action is a sensible, practical, and effective step to address the issue —
not whether it is the ONLY possible solution, but whether it logically and reasonably follows as
appropriate. Avoid both extreme/impractical actions and vague/ineffective ones.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Definition of a Valid Action A course of action is valid if it is a practical, feasible step that directly
addresses the problem or improves the situation — even if it doesn’t
completely solve it.

Practicality Test Reject actions that are extreme, illegal, impossible to implement, or
wildly disproportionate to the problem (e.g., "shut down the entire
city" for a local issue).

Direct Relevance Test The action must directly relate to the problem stated — generic,
unrelated, or overly broad suggestions should be rejected.

Avoid Overly Harsh Actions Punitive or drastic actions (firing everyone, banning entirely) are
usually NOT the intended answer unless the statement explicitly
supports such severity.

Avoid Vague/Passive Actions like "more research should be done" or "authorities should
Actions look into it" without a concrete step are usually too vague to count
as a definite course of action.

Multiple Valid Actions More than one action can be valid simultaneously if each
independently addresses part of the problem reasonably.

Short-term vs Long-term Distinguish between immediate fixes (often more clearly "valid") and
long-term policy suggestions (valid only if logically tied to the root
cause stated).

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Ask: "Would a sensible manager/authority realistically do this in response to the stated
problem?" If yes, it’s likely valid.
• Immediately reject options with extreme words: "ban completely," "shut down permanently,"
"terminate all," "stop entirely" — these are rarely the intended correct action unless the
problem itself is extreme.
• Immediately reject vague options with no concrete step: "look into the matter," "investigate
further," "study the issue" — these avoid actually proposing an action.

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• If an option addresses only a tiny, irrelevant part of the problem (or a related but different
problem), reject it for lack of direct relevance.
• When two action options seem to overlap (one specific, one general), the more specific and
directly relevant one is usually the better/correct fit.
• Match the SCALE of the action to the SCALE of the problem described — a city-wide issue
justifies a policy-level action; an individual-level issue justifies a personal/local-level action.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statement: A particular stretch of highway has witnessed a sharp rise in accidents over the past month
due to poor street lighting at night.
Course of Action I: The highway authority should immediately install adequate street lighting along that
stretch.
Course of Action II: The highway should be permanently closed to all traffic at night.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I directly addresses the stated root cause (poor lighting) with a practical, proportionate fix —
install lighting. This is sensible and feasible.
Action II is an extreme, disproportionate response — permanently closing a highway at night
severely disrupts transport and commerce, when the actual problem (lighting) has a far simpler,
targeted fix.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When the statement explicitly names a root cause (poor lighting), the valid action is almost always
the one that DIRECTLY fixes that exact named cause — extreme alternatives (closure, banning) are
distractors testing whether you over-react instead of targeting the root cause.

Q2.
Statement: Customer complaints about delayed deliveries have increased by 30% over the last quarter
for an e-commerce company.
Course of Action I: The company should investigate the delivery process and identify the specific stages
causing delays.
Course of Action II: The company should immediately offer a full refund to every customer who has ever
placed an order.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a sensible, proportionate, and standard first response to a documented operational
problem — diagnosing the root cause before deciding on a fix.
Action II is wildly disproportionate and financially reckless — refunding EVERY customer who has
EVER ordered (not just those affected by delays) goes far beyond the scope of the actual problem.

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Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.

⚡ Quick Trick:
Watch for absolute over-reach phrases like "every customer who has ever" or "all employees" —
these signal an action far broader than the problem’s actual scope, making the option invalid even if
the underlying idea (compensation) has some merit.

Q3.
Statement: A school has noticed a consistent decline in student attendance during the winter months
due to the long commute in cold weather.
Course of Action I: The school should consider adjusting winter timings to start an hour later.
Course of Action II: The school should provide partially-covered or heated transport options for students
living far away.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I directly addresses the cold-commute problem by reducing exposure to the coldest early-
morning hours — a practical, low-cost, easily implementable fix.
Action II also directly addresses the root cause (cold during commute) with a different but equally
practical solution — improving the transport experience itself.
Both actions independently and reasonably address the same stated root cause without being
extreme or vague.
Answer: Both Course of Action I and II follow.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a problem has ONE clearly stated root cause (cold commute) but TWO different reasonable
fixes are offered (timing change vs. transport improvement), both can be valid simultaneously —
course-of-action questions don’t require a single "best" answer unless explicitly asked to pick only
one.

Q4.
Statement: A government department has received reports that several of its officials are demanding
bribes from citizens for routine services.
Course of Action I: The department should set up an anonymous complaint mechanism and launch an
internal investigation against the named officials.
Course of Action II: The department should be shut down entirely and all services suspended
indefinitely.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a direct, proportionate, and standard institutional response to corruption allegations —
investigate and create channels for evidence-based reporting.

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Action II is an extreme overreaction — shutting down an entire department denies legitimate

services to all citizens because of the misconduct of "several" (not all) officials.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Corruption/misconduct problems almost always call for INVESTIGATIVE or DISCIPLINARY actions
targeted at the responsible individuals — actions that punish the entire system/organization
disproportionately are reliable distractors.

Q5.
Statement: A popular tourist beach has seen a sharp increase in plastic waste washing ashore, harming
marine life and deterring visitors.
Course of Action I: Local authorities should organize regular beach clean-up drives and install more
waste bins along the shore.
Course of Action II: All tourism activity at the beach should be permanently banned.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a direct, practical, and proportionate response — addressing the waste problem through
clean-up and better waste infrastructure.
Action II is extreme and disproportionate — a permanent tourism ban eliminates the local economic
benefit of tourism entirely to solve what is fundamentally a waste-management problem, not an
inherent flaw of tourism itself.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Environmental/cleanliness problems are almost always solved with management/infrastructure
actions (clean-ups, bins, regulations) — banning the underlying activity entirely is a recurring
extreme-distractor pattern across this question type.

Q6.
Statement: A factory has been found to be releasing untreated chemical waste into a nearby river,
causing pollution.
Course of Action I: The factory should be directed to install proper waste treatment facilities before
resuming any further discharge.
Course of Action II: The factory’s management should issue a public apology and continue operations as
usual.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I directly targets the cause of pollution (untreated waste) with a concrete, enforceable,
practical requirement before further discharge is allowed.

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Action II is vague and ineffective — a public apology does nothing to stop the actual pollution from
continuing; "continue operations as usual" explicitly fails to address the root problem at all.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Reject any option where the org "apologizes" or "acknowledges the issue" without taking a concrete
corrective step — apologies alone never qualify as a valid course of action when an ongoing harmful
practice is described.

Q7.
Statement: A university has noted that a significant number of first-year students are struggling to adapt
to the increased academic workload compared to high school.
Course of Action I: The university should introduce an orientation and academic-skills workshop for
incoming first-year students.
Course of Action II: The university should lower its academic standards permanently for all future
batches.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I directly addresses the stated problem (adaptation difficulty) by equipping students with
skills to cope, without compromising academic quality.
Action II solves the symptom by eliminating the standard itself — a disproportionate, quality-
damaging response that affects ALL future students permanently, not just those struggling to adapt.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a problem is about PEOPLE NOT BEING READY for a standard, the valid action
prepares/supports the people (training, orientation, support systems) — lowering the standard itself
is a classic over-reaching distractor.

Q8.
Statement: A residential area has been experiencing frequent power outages during peak summer
months due to overloading of the local electricity grid.
Course of Action I: The electricity board should upgrade the local transformer capacity to handle peak
summer demand.
Course of Action II: Residents should be advised to avoid using high-load appliances during declared
peak hours as an interim measure.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a direct infrastructure-level fix targeting the actual root cause (insufficient grid capacity)
— a sound long-term solution.

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Action II is a practical, low-cost, immediately implementable interim measure that directly reduces
peak load, addressing the same root cause from the demand side while the infrastructure fix is
pending.
Both actions are reasonable, proportionate, and target the stated cause — one as a long-term fix
and one as a short-term mitigation.
Answer: Both Course of Action I and II follow.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a problem clearly has both a root infrastructural cause and an immediate behavioral angle,
expect BOTH a long-term capacity fix and a short-term demand-management action to be valid
together — this combination is a recurring valid pattern, distinct from one option being an "extreme"
distractor.

Q9.
Statement: A small bakery has seen a drop in sales after a new, larger bakery chain opened nearby
offering lower prices.
Course of Action I: The small bakery should focus on differentiating itself through unique products,
quality, and personalized customer service.
Course of Action II: The small bakery should shut down immediately since it cannot compete with a
larger chain.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a constructive, practical business response — competing on differentiation rather than
price is a standard and often effective strategy for small businesses against larger competitors.
Action II is a defeatist, premature overreaction — immediate shutdown ignores any possibility of
adaptation or recovery, and the statement only describes "a drop in sales," not complete business
failure.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Be wary of "give up / shut down / quit immediately" options — these are almost always invalid
courses of action unless the statement explicitly describes a terminal, unsalvageable situation; a
"drop in sales" alone never justifies immediate shutdown.

Q10.
Statement: An IT company has found that several employees are not utilizing their allotted annual leave,
leading to signs of burnout and reduced productivity.
Course of Action I: The company should encourage employees to plan and take their leave through
periodic reminders and manager check-ins.
Course of Action II: The company should forcibly deduct unused leave from employees’ salaries as a
penalty.
Which course(s) of action should follow?

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Solution:
Action I directly addresses the root issue (employees not taking leave) with a supportive,
encouraging approach that is reasonable and likely to be effective.
Action II is a punitive measure that worsens the situation for employees already showing signs of
burnout, and is disproportionate and counter-productive to the goal of improving employee
wellbeing.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When the stated problem already involves employee/citizen hardship (burnout here), reject any
"punish them further" option immediately — punitive actions targeting the very people experiencing
the problem are virtually always invalid.

Q11.
Statement: A city’s public library has seen a steady decline in the number of visitors over the past two
years, largely attributed to the rise of digital reading platforms.
Course of Action I: The library should introduce digital memberships, e-book access, and modern co-
working spaces to attract visitors.
Course of Action II: The library should be demolished since physical libraries are no longer relevant.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I is a constructive adaptation strategy — modernizing the library’s offerings to align with the
cause of decline (shift to digital) while retaining its core function.
Action II is an extreme, irreversible overreaction based on an unsupported sweeping generalization
("no longer relevant") that the statement does not establish — a decline in visitors over two years
does not mean total obsolescence.
Answer: Only Course of Action I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Reject options that generalize a temporary or partial decline into total obsolescence/irrelevance ("no
longer needed," "completely outdated") — these sweeping conclusions are rarely supported by the
limited, specific data given in the statement.

Q12.
Statement: A mid-sized manufacturing company has reported that a significant portion of its skilled
workforce is retiring within the next two years, with no clear succession plan in place.
Course of Action I: The company should immediately begin a structured mentorship and knowledge-
transfer program pairing senior employees with younger staff.
Course of Action II: The company should begin recruiting and training new employees now, well ahead
of the actual retirements.

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Course of Action III: The company should offer all retiring employees a one-time bonus to leave
immediately, before any transition plan is ready.
Which course(s) of action should follow?
Solution:
Action I directly targets the core risk named in the statement — loss of skilled knowledge — through
structured transfer before the senior staff leave. This is proportionate and practical.
Action II is a sound proactive workforce-planning step: starting recruitment/training "ahead of" the
retirements directly addresses the "no succession plan" gap with adequate lead time.
Action III is counter-productive and directly worsens the stated problem — paying retiring
employees to leave IMMEDIATELY, before any transition plan exists, accelerates the loss of skilled
knowledge that the statement identifies as the core risk.
Answer: Course of Action I and II follow; Course of Action III does not.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When three options are given, check each one against whether it ACCELERATES or MITIGATES the
core risk named in the statement — any action that speeds up the very problem described (here,
losing skilled staff before a plan exists) is automatically invalid, regardless of any apparent short-
term benefit (like cost savings from a bonus-and-exit deal).

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6. Strong & Weak Arguments

Overview
These questions present a statement (usually a question of policy, like "Should X be done?") followed by
arguments for or against it. You must judge whether each argument is "Strong" (relevant, factual,
significant, and directly impactful) or "Weak" (irrelevant, superficial, an assumption, or based on a
minor/trivial point). The goal is judging argument QUALITY, not whether you personally agree with the
conclusion.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Strong Argument Criteria Must be directly relevant to the statement, factually significant, and
address the real-world practical impact of the issue — not a trivial or
tangential point.

Weak Argument Criteria Vague, based on emotion rather than logic, addresses an
unimportant aspect, uses unsupported generalizations, or simply
restates the question without adding substance.

Relevance Test Ask: "Does this argument directly address the CORE issue in the
statement, or just something tangentially related?" Tangential =
weak.

Significance Test Even a relevant argument can be weak if it only addresses a

minor/trivial aspect compared to the overall importance of the issue.

Avoid Personal Bias Judge the argument’s LOGICAL STRENGTH, not whether you
personally agree with the conclusion it supports.

Generalization Trap Arguments using "all," "none," "always," "never" without

justification are usually weak — overgeneralized claims rarely hold
up to logical scrutiny.

Suggestion vs Argument An argument should state a REASON, not just a suggestion or

recommendation without justification (e.g., "We should do X
because it would help" is weaker than an argument with a concrete
justified mechanism).

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Ask: "If I removed this argument, would the debate lose significant substance?" If the argument
carries real weight, it’s strong; if removing it changes nothing, it’s weak.
• Immediately flag arguments using absolute/extreme language ("all," "never," "completely,"
"totally") as likely weak — real-world issues are rarely absolute.

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• Reject arguments that are circular (i.e., the argument just restates the statement’s claim as its
own justification, without adding new reasoning).
• Reject arguments based purely on emotion, sentiment, or vague morality without a concrete
practical/factual basis ("it’s just wrong," "it doesn’t feel right") — these almost always rate as
weak.
• A strong argument often comes with a concrete consequence, statistic, mechanism, or widely-
accepted practical reasoning — vague arguments lack this.
• If the question is about policy implementation (e.g., "Should X be banned?"), strong arguments
usually address the PRACTICAL CONSEQUENCES (safety, cost, enforceability) rather than
abstract ideals.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statement: Should smoking be banned in all public places?
Argument I: Yes, because secondhand smoke poses serious, scientifically documented health risks to
non-smokers, including children.
Argument II: Yes, because smoking just looks bad in public.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites a significant, factual, well-documented public health concern (secondhand smoke
harming non-smokers) — directly relevant to why a BAN (not just personal choice) would be
justified.
Argument II is a trivial, subjective, aesthetic judgment ("looks bad") with no real factual or practical
weight behind banning smoking — this would not convince a rational policymaker.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For public health/safety policy questions, arguments citing documented harm to OTHERS (not just
the individual’s own choice) are almost always strong — they justify why society/government should
intervene, not just personal opinion.

Q2.
Statement: Should the use of plastic bags be completely banned in the country?
Argument I: Yes, plastic waste severely pollutes oceans and harms marine life, and biodegradable
alternatives are now widely available.
Argument II: No, banning plastic bags would put thousands of workers in the plastic manufacturing
industry out of jobs immediately.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I presents a significant environmental concern AND addresses feasibility (availability of
alternatives) — making it both relevant and practically grounded.

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Argument II raises a genuine, significant socio-economic consequence (job losses) that is a real and
weighty practical concern for policymakers, even though it argues the opposite side.
Both arguments are strong, as both address significant, real, and directly relevant consequences
(environmental vs economic) of the proposed ban.
Answer: Both Argument I and II are strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Strong arguments can exist on BOTH sides of a policy debate — don’t assume only the "popular" or
"expected" side has the strong argument; job losses, costs, and feasibility concerns are just as valid
as environmental/safety concerns when they are significant and well-grounded.

Q3.
Statement: Should homework be abolished in primary schools?
Argument I: Yes, because homework reduces the time children have for play, rest, and family
interaction, which are important for early childhood development.
Argument II: Yes, because my neighbor’s child doesn’t like doing homework.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites a broadly applicable, developmentally significant concern (loss of play/rest time
affecting child development) — relevant and substantial.
Argument II is a single anecdotal, irrelevant personal observation about ONE child’s preference —
this has no general significance or factual weight for a POLICY decision affecting all primary schools.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Single anecdotes ("my neighbor’s child," "I once saw," "a friend told me") are a classic weak-
argument pattern — policy-level questions need broadly applicable reasoning, not isolated personal
stories.

Q4.
Statement: Should remote work be made a permanent option for all corporate employees?
Argument I: Yes, studies across multiple industries have shown comparable or improved productivity
along with reduced overhead costs for companies.
Argument II: No, remote work is just not the traditional way of working.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I provides concrete, broadly-supported evidence (multi-industry studies) addressing both
productivity and cost — directly relevant and substantial for the decision.
Argument II appeals only to tradition ("not the traditional way") without any practical, factual, or
logical justification for why tradition itself should determine the outcome — a classic weak appeal-
to-tradition argument.

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Answer: Only Argument I is strong.

⚡ Quick Trick:
"It’s not traditional/it’s not how things are usually done" is a recurring weak-argument pattern
(appeal to tradition) — it provides no actual reasoning about consequences, cost, or effectiveness, so
it should be flagged as weak by default.

Q5.
Statement: Should the legal driving age be raised from 18 to 21?
Argument I: Yes, statistical data consistently shows higher accident rates among drivers under 21 due to
less driving experience and risk perception.
Argument II: No, 18-year-olds are already considered adults for voting and other legal responsibilities, so
they should be trusted to drive too.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I uses concrete statistical evidence directly tied to the core safety concern behind driving-
age laws — highly relevant and significant.
Argument II makes a reasonable, logically consistent point about legal consistency (adulthood
threshold) — while it’s a values-based argument rather than a statistical one, it directly engages
with the core question of where to draw the line for legal capability, making it a substantive,
relevant argument.
Both arguments engage meaningfully and directly with the core issue from different angles (safety
statistics vs. legal consistency).
Answer: Both Argument I and II are strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Don’t dismiss a "consistency/precedent" argument (like comparing driving age to voting age) as
automatically weak just because it lacks statistics — if it directly engages with the core logical
question being debated (here, "what age = capable adult"), it can be a strong, substantive
argument.

Q6.
Statement: Should zoos be banned and all animals released into protected wildlife reserves instead?
Argument I: No, many endangered species would face higher risks of poaching, disease, and death in
open reserves without the controlled protection zoos currently provide.
Argument II: No, I just don’t like the idea of empty zoos.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I raises a substantial, practical, and significant concern — survival risk to endangered
species — that directly addresses the real-world consequence of the proposed change.

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Argument II is purely a personal preference/sentiment ("I don’t like the idea") with no factual or
logical substance behind it.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Phrases like "I just don’t like," "it doesn’t feel right," or "I personally think" without further
justification are immediate weak-argument signals — pure sentiment without a stated mechanism
or consequence carries no logical weight.

Q7.
Statement: Should social media platforms be required to verify the age of all users before allowing
account creation?
Argument I: Yes, this would help protect minors from exposure to harmful content and predatory
behavior online, a well-documented and serious concern.
Argument II: No, age verification is technologically difficult to enforce reliably and could be easily
circumvented, making the requirement largely ineffective in practice.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I addresses a significant, well-documented child-safety concern directly relevant to the
proposed measure’s purpose.
Argument II raises a genuine practical/feasibility concern — if a measure can’t be reliably enforced,
its real-world value is legitimately questionable, which is a substantial point against implementation.
Both arguments are strong: one supports the policy’s goal (child safety), and one challenges its
practical feasibility (enforceability) — both are significant, relevant considerations.
Answer: Both Argument I and II are strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Feasibility/enforceability concerns ("can this actually be implemented effectively?") are consistently
strong arguments against a policy, just as significant outcome-based concerns are strong arguments
for one — both types deserve equal consideration as valid argument categories.

Q8.
Statement: Should fast food advertisements targeting children be banned on television?
Argument I: Yes, research links heavy exposure to fast food advertising in children to higher rates of
poor dietary habits and childhood obesity.
Argument II: No, banning these ads would mean children watch less interesting television.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites research-backed evidence of a significant public health consequence (childhood
obesity) directly tied to the issue.

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Argument II raises a trivial, low-stakes concern ("less interesting television") that has no real
significance compared to the health concern being addressed — a weak counter-consideration.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always weigh the SIGNIFICANCE of the consequence cited — "children might find TV less interesting"
cannot reasonably outweigh a stated public-health risk like obesity; mismatched significance
between the two sides is a clear signal of which argument is weak.

Q9.
Statement: Should all university degree programs include a mandatory internship component?
Argument I: Yes, internships have consistently been shown to improve employability and bridge the gap
between theoretical knowledge and practical workplace skills.
Argument II: Yes, because internships are popular nowadays.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites a concrete, demonstrated benefit (improved employability, practical skill-building)
directly relevant to the value of mandating internships.
Argument II merely cites current popularity/trendiness as the reason — this says nothing about
whether internships are actually BENEFICIAL or effective, just that they are common; popularity is
not a justification.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
"Because it’s popular/trending/common nowadays" is a weak-argument pattern (appeal to
popularity) — popularity says nothing about actual merit or effectiveness, so flag it as weak
whenever it appears as the sole justification.

Q10.
Statement: Should companies be legally required to disclose the gender pay gap within their
organization annually?
Argument I: Yes, mandatory disclosure increases transparency and has been shown in several countries
to motivate companies to proactively address pay disparities.
Argument II: No, this would require companies to spend additional time and resources compiling and
publishing the data, increasing administrative burden.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites a demonstrated real-world effect (in multiple countries) directly relevant to the
core goal of the policy (reducing pay disparities through transparency).

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Argument II raises a genuine practical cost (administrative burden) — while real, this is a
comparatively minor operational concern relative to the significant social/economic issue (pay
equity) the policy aims to address.
Argument I is strong because it directly and significantly supports the policy’s core purpose with
evidence. Argument II, while not baseless, addresses a relatively minor administrative cost rather
than a substantial reason to reject the policy outright — making it comparatively weak.
Answer: Argument I is strong; Argument II is weak.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When an argument against a policy only cites IMPLEMENTATION COST/EFFORT (extra paperwork,
time, minor expense) without challenging the policy’s actual EFFECTIVENESS or NECESSITY, treat it as
comparatively weak — minor administrative burden rarely outweighs a significant stated social
benefit.

Q11.
Statement: Should junk food be banned from being sold within school premises?
Argument I: Yes, easy access to junk food in schools is strongly associated with poor nutrition habits and
rising obesity rates among school-age children.
Argument II: No, students should have the freedom to choose what they eat.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I presents a well-established, significant health concern directly tied to the specific policy
(access within school premises) — relevant and substantial.
Argument II raises the concept of "freedom of choice," but this is a generic principle applied loosely
— schools already restrict many choices for minors in their care (e.g., curriculum, safety rules) for
their wellbeing, so this argument doesn’t meaningfully engage with the SPECIFIC health concern
raised; it merely asserts a broad value without addressing the practical issue.
Answer: Only Argument I is strong.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Generic appeals to "freedom" or "rights" without addressing the SPECIFIC practical concern raised
(here, child health/nutrition specifically in a school setting where minors are already subject to many
restrictions) tend to be weak — check if the principle cited genuinely overrides the specific concern,
or just sounds appealing in the abstract.

Q12.
Statement: Should companies be allowed to use AI systems to screen job applicants’ resumes without
human review?
Argument I: No, AI screening systems have been shown in multiple studies to inherit and amplify biases
present in their training data, potentially leading to unfair discrimination against qualified candidates.
Argument II: Yes, AI screening is much faster than manual review, allowing companies to process
applications more quickly.

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Argument III: No, some job applicants may not be comfortable with the idea of AI judging them.
Which argument(s) are strong?
Solution:
Argument I cites documented, significant evidence of a real harm (bias amplification, unfair
discrimination) directly relevant to the core ethical/legal concern about unsupervised AI screening
— a strong, substantial argument.
Argument II cites a genuine and significant operational benefit (speed/efficiency) that is directly
relevant to why companies would adopt such systems — also a strong argument, even though it
supports the opposing side.
Argument III raises only a vague discomfort ("may not be comfortable with the idea") without any
concrete, measurable harm or practical consequence — this is a weak, sentiment-based argument
compared to the substantiated bias concern in Argument I.
Answer: Argument I and II are strong; Argument III is weak.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When three arguments are given, evaluate EACH independently against the "significant + relevant +
substantiated" checklist rather than assuming all arguments on one "side" share the same strength
— strong and weak arguments can both exist supporting the SAME side of a debate, as seen with
Argument I (strong) and Argument III (weak) both opposing the policy here.

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7. Statement & Inference

Overview
A statement (often a factual or descriptive passage) is given, followed by possible inferences. An
inference is something that can be reasonably and validly drawn from the statement WITHOUT requiring
outside information — it must follow with high probability from what is explicitly said, but doesn’t need
to be a 100% certain logical conclusion (unlike Statement & Conclusion questions). You classify each
inference as "definitely true," "probably true," "probably false," "definitely false," or "data inadequate,"
depending on the exact exam format.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Definition of Inference An inference is implied by the statement — it goes one step beyond
the literal words but stays within reasonable, supportable reach of
what is stated.

Definitely True The inference is explicitly stated or is a direct, unavoidable logical

consequence of the statement.

Probably True The inference is likely and well-supported by the statement’s

context, though not 100% guaranteed by the literal words alone.

Probably False The inference goes against the likely implication of the statement,
though it isn’t explicitly and completely contradicted.

Definitely False The inference directly contradicts an explicit fact stated.

Data Inadequate The statement gives no basis at all — neither for nor against — to
judge the inference (used when this category is offered).

Stay Within the Statement Don’t use outside general knowledge to judge probability — base
your judgment purely on the internal logic and tone of the given
statement.

Tone & Word Choice Matter Pay attention to qualifying words (may, some, often, several) versus
absolute words (all, none, every) in the original statement — these
affect how far an inference can reasonably extend.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• First check if the inference is LITERALLY stated or a forced direct consequence — if yes, it’s
instantly "Definitely True" with no further analysis needed.
• If the inference directly contradicts an explicit fact in the statement, it’s instantly "Definitely
False" — look for direct opposite-word contradictions (increase vs decrease, more vs less).

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• For "Probably True/False" calls, ask: "Does the overall tone and context of the passage lean this
way, even without an exact guarantee?" Lean with the statement’s clear bias/direction.
• Watch for inferences that introduce completely new entities, numbers, or comparisons not
mentioned anywhere in the statement — these are usually "Data Inadequate" since the passage
gives no basis to judge them.
• Be careful with inferences using "all" or "none" when the statement only supports "some" or
"most" — downgrade such overreaching inferences to "Probably False" or "Data Inadequate"
rather than "Definitely True."
• If an inference is a near word-for-word restatement of part of the passage, it is "Definitely True"
by default — restated facts always qualify.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statement: "The company reported a 25% increase in revenue this year, driven mainly by strong sales in
international markets, while domestic sales remained flat."
Inference I: International markets contributed more to the revenue growth than domestic markets this
year.
Inference II: Domestic sales decreased significantly this year.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I: the statement explicitly says growth was "driven mainly by" international sales while
domestic sales "remained flat" (i.e., did not grow) — this directly supports that international
markets contributed more to the GROWTH. Definitely True.
Inference II: the statement says domestic sales "remained flat," which means they stayed about the
same — NOT that they decreased. "Flat" directly contradicts "decreased significantly." Definitely
False.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely True; Inference II — Definitely False.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Watch for precise descriptive words like "flat," "stable," "unchanged" — these have a specific
meaning (no significant change) and directly invalidate any inference claiming an increase OR a
decrease.

Q2.
Statement: "Several residents in the housing society have complained about irregular water supply over
the past few weeks, prompting the management committee to schedule an urgent meeting with the
water board."
Inference I: All residents in the housing society are facing water supply issues.
Inference II: The management committee considers the water supply issue serious enough to require
prompt attention.
Evaluate each inference.

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Solution:
Inference I: the statement says "several residents," not "all residents" — using "all" overreaches the
actual scope given. Probably False (it directly overstates a qualified term).
Inference II: scheduling an "urgent meeting" is a clear, direct indicator that the committee views the
issue as serious and time-sensitive — this is a reasonable, well-supported inference grounded in the
explicit word "urgent." Definitely True.
Answer: Inference I — Probably False; Inference II — Definitely True.
⚡ Quick Trick:
The word "urgent" attached to an action (meeting, response, fix) is a strong, almost guaranteed
signal supporting an inference about seriousness/priority — treat such explicit tone-words as near-
automatic "Definitely True" triggers for related inferences.

Q3.
Statement: "A recent survey of 500 office workers found that 68% prefer hybrid work arrangements
over fully remote or fully in-office models."
Inference I: Most office workers surveyed do not prefer a fully in-office work model.
Inference II: Hybrid work arrangements lead to higher employee productivity.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I: 68% (a clear majority) prefer hybrid over BOTH alternatives, including fully in-office —
this means most surveyed workers do NOT prefer the fully in-office model as their top choice. This is
a direct, well-supported numeric inference. Probably True (it follows strongly from the percentage
given, treated as "probably" since the survey reflects sampled preference, not a universal
guarantee).
Inference II: the statement only discusses worker PREFERENCE, never productivity outcomes —
there is no data at all in the statement about productivity. Data Inadequate (if this category is
available) or Probably False/unsupported if forced into a true/false scale, since preference and
productivity are different, unconnected metrics here.
Answer: Inference I — Probably True; Inference II — Data Inadequate (no basis given for
productivity).
⚡ Quick Trick:
Never confuse "preference" data with "performance/outcome" data — a survey about what people
PREFER gives zero evidence about actual RESULTS like productivity, satisfaction, or efficiency unless
explicitly measured and stated.

Q4.
Statement: "Despite a 15% cut in its marketing budget this year, the startup saw a 10% increase in new
customer acquisitions, largely due to a viral social media campaign."
Inference I: Reduced marketing spend always leads to increased customer acquisition.
Inference II: The viral social media campaign was a cost-effective way to acquire new customers.

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Evaluate each inference.

Solution:
Inference I uses the absolute word "always" based on a SINGLE company’s single-year experience —
this dramatically overreaches what one data point can support. Definitely False (the statement
describes one specific case, not a universal rule).
Inference II: the campaign drove a 10% increase in acquisitions DESPITE a 15% budget CUT —
meaning significant results were achieved with proportionally less spending, which directly and
reasonably supports the idea of cost-effectiveness. Probably True.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely False; Inference II — Probably True.
⚡ Quick Trick:
A single specific data point (one company, one year, one event) can NEVER support an
"always/never" universal inference — instantly flag such generalized inferences as Definitely False
whenever the statement only describes one isolated instance.

Q5.
Statement: "The new highway, completed last year, has reduced the average travel time between the
two cities from 4 hours to 2.5 hours."
Inference I: The highway is exactly 1.5 hours shorter in distance than the old route.
Inference II: Travelers between the two cities now save time compared to before the highway was built.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I confuses TIME saved (1.5 hours) with DISTANCE — the statement never gives any
distance figures, only travel time, and a shorter travel time could result from higher speed limits,
fewer stops, or a more direct route, not necessarily a shorter distance. Definitely False (this
conflates two different units/concepts not supported by the statement).
Inference II: directly follows from the explicit numbers — average time dropped from 4 hours to 2.5
hours, meaning travelers, on average, are indeed saving time. Definitely True.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely False; Inference II — Definitely True.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Watch for inferences that quietly swap one unit/measure (time) for a different one (distance) —
these are common "Definitely False" traps, since reduced travel time does not mathematically
guarantee a proportionally shorter distance.

Q6.
Statement: "The museum’s new interactive exhibit on ancient history has attracted significantly more
young visitors (under 18) compared to last year, though overall visitor numbers across all age groups
have only slightly increased."
Inference I: The new exhibit specifically appeals more to younger audiences than to older visitors.
Inference II: The museum’s overall popularity has declined among visitors aged 18 and above.

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Evaluate each inference.

Solution:
Inference I: significantly more young visitors, combined with only a "slight" overall increase, strongly
suggests the exhibit’s appeal is disproportionately concentrated in the under-18 group relative to its
appeal across the whole visitor base. Probably True.
Inference II: the statement says OVERALL numbers "slightly increased" across ALL age groups — this
does not state or imply a DECLINE among any specific subgroup; it’s possible older visitor numbers
grew slightly too, just not as dramatically as the youth segment. Probably False (overreaches by
inferring a decline where only a smaller relative increase is implied).
Answer: Inference I — Probably True; Inference II — Probably False.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Be careful distinguishing "grew less dramatically than another group" from "declined" — a smaller
increase is NOT the same as a decrease; this distinction is a frequent and important trap in
comparative-statistics inference questions.

Q7.
Statement: "Out of 200 patients who participated in the new drug trial, 180 showed significant
improvement in their symptoms within four weeks."
Inference I: The drug is completely safe for all patients to use.
Inference II: A majority of trial participants responded positively to the drug within the trial period.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I introduces SAFETY, a concept never addressed by the statement at all — the passage
only discusses symptom IMPROVEMENT (effectiveness), not safety or side effects. This is an
unsupported leap to a different topic entirely. Data Inadequate / Definitely False (no basis for a
safety claim).
Inference II: 180 out of 200 is 90%, a clear, overwhelming majority — directly and strongly
supported by the explicit numbers given. Definitely True.
Answer: Inference I — Data Inadequate (no basis given for safety); Inference II — Definitely True.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Effectiveness (does it work?) and safety (does it cause harm?) are two ENTIRELY separate dimensions
in medical/drug-trial statements — a statement about one tells you NOTHING about the other; treat
any cross-dimension inference as unsupported by default.

Q8.
Statement: "Every employee who completed the advanced certification program received a promotion
within six months, according to the HR department’s internal report."
Inference I: Completing the advanced certification program guarantees a promotion.

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Inference II: Some employees who did not complete the program may also have received promotions
within six months.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I: the statement says "every employee who completed... received a promotion" — this is a
direct, explicit, unconditional statement, so on its face the inference matches what was reported.
However, "guarantees" implies a forward-looking certainty for ALL future cases, while the statement
only reports PAST/internal data for those who already completed it — still, since the data states a
100% outcome with no stated exceptions, this is the strongest supportable inference from the given
report. Definitely True (based strictly on the reported data, taking the statement at face value as it
directly states this outcome for that completed group).
Inference II: the statement only describes what happened to those who COMPLETED the program —
it says nothing at all about employees who did NOT complete it, leaving the possibility entirely open
and unaddressed either way. Data Inadequate (statement provides no information about non-
completers at all, so we cannot judge "probably true" or "probably false" — there is genuinely no
basis).
Answer: Inference I — Definitely True (per the explicit reported data); Inference II — Data
Inadequate.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a statement describes ONE specific group exhaustively ("every X who did Y got Z") but is
completely silent about a DIFFERENT group (those who didn’t do Y), inferences about that silent
group are virtually always "Data Inadequate" — silence is not evidence either way.

Q9.
Statement: "The city’s air quality index (AQI) crossed the ‘hazardous’ threshold for the third consecutive
day this week, prompting schools to shift to online classes as a precaution."
Inference I: Air pollution levels in the city have been a recurring and serious concern this week.
Inference II: Online classes will permanently replace in-person classes in this city going forward.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I: "third consecutive day" of crossing a "hazardous" threshold directly and explicitly
supports that this has been a recurring, serious issue THIS WEEK specifically. Definitely True.
Inference II: the statement frames the shift to online classes explicitly "as a precaution" (implying
temporary, situational response to a specific bad-air event) — there is no indication this is meant to
be permanent. The inference overreaches by claiming a permanent policy change from what is
clearly described as a short-term precautionary measure. Definitely False.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely True; Inference II — Definitely False.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Words like "precaution," "temporary," "as a measure" attached to an action strongly signal that the
action is SHORT-TERM and situational — any inference claiming permanence directly contradicts this
framing and should be marked Definitely False.

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Q10.
Statement: "A leading financial analyst stated that, in her view, the central bank is likely to raise interest
rates next quarter, though she acknowledged considerable uncertainty given recent mixed economic
data."
Inference I: The central bank will definitely raise interest rates next quarter.
Inference II: The analyst’s prediction is based on incomplete or conflicting economic signals.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I uses "will definitely," but the statement explicitly frames this as the analyst’s personal
VIEW ("in her view," "likely") with stated "considerable uncertainty" — the statement itself never
claims certainty, so the inference directly overstates the confidence level given. Definitely False.
Inference II: the statement explicitly mentions "mixed economic data" as the basis for the
acknowledged uncertainty — this directly and explicitly supports the inference. Definitely True.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely False; Inference II — Definitely True.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a statement attributes a claim to a specific person’s "opinion" or "view" with hedging words
(likely, probably, in her view), any inference claiming absolute certainty about the outcome is
automatically Definitely False — opinions framed with uncertainty can never support a 100%-certain
inference.

Q11.
Statement: "Sales of electric bicycles in the country grew by 45% last year, with most of the demand
concentrated in urban areas; rural sales remained a small fraction of the total market."
Inference I: Urban consumers show greater interest in electric bicycles compared to rural consumers.
Inference II: Electric bicycle prices decreased significantly last year, driving the sales growth.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I directly follows from the explicit statement that demand is "concentrated in urban
areas" while rural sales are only "a small fraction" — this comparison directly supports greater urban
interest. Definitely True.
Inference II introduces a completely new factor (pricing) that is never mentioned anywhere in the
statement — the statement gives no information about WHY sales grew, only that they did. This is
an unsupported assumption about cause, not something inferable from the given data. Data
Inadequate.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely True; Inference II — Data Inadequate.
⚡ Quick Trick:
A statement reporting WHAT happened (sales grew 45%) gives no automatic basis for inferring WHY
it happened (price, marketing, awareness) unless a cause is explicitly mentioned — treat unstated
causal explanations as Data Inadequate, not as probable inferences.

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Q12.
Statement: "A government audit found that 12 out of 50 surveyed public hospitals lacked adequate
emergency response equipment, while the remaining hospitals met or exceeded the required
standards."
Inference I: The majority of surveyed public hospitals met or exceeded the required emergency
equipment standards.
Inference II: All private hospitals in the country have adequate emergency response equipment.
Inference III: The 12 underperforming hospitals are likely located in the same region of the country.
Evaluate each inference.
Solution:
Inference I: 12 out of 50 lacked adequate equipment, meaning 38 out of 50 (76%) met or exceeded
standards — a clear majority, directly supported by the numbers given. Definitely True.
Inference II introduces an entirely new, unmentioned category — PRIVATE hospitals — when the
statement explicitly discusses only PUBLIC hospitals. There is zero information given about private
hospitals anywhere in the statement. Data Inadequate.
Inference III introduces a completely new variable — geographic location/region — that is never
mentioned or hinted at anywhere in the statement. There is no basis whatsoever to judge regional
clustering. Data Inadequate.
Answer: Inference I — Definitely True; Inference II — Data Inadequate; Inference III — Data
Inadequate.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a question stacks three inferences, quickly scan for ones that import a BRAND NEW
noun/category never mentioned in the statement (private hospitals, specific regions, unrelated
comparisons) — these are near-automatic "Data Inadequate" calls, letting you resolve 2 of 3
inferences in seconds before carefully checking the one that stays within the statement’s actual
scope.

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8. Syllogisms (Venn Diagram Based Logical Deductions)

Overview
Syllogism questions give two or more categorical statements (premises) using words like "All," "Some,"
or "No," followed by conclusions you must evaluate as following or not following. The most reliable
method is drawing Venn diagrams for each statement and checking if the conclusion holds true in EVERY
possible valid diagram you can draw, not just one.

Key Rules & Strategies

Statement Type Meaning & Venn Diagram Rule

All A are B Circle A is completely inside Circle B. Every member of A is a member

of B (B can be bigger and contain other things too).

No A are B Circles A and B are completely separate with no overlap at all.

Some A are B Circles A and B overlap at least partially — there is a shared region,
but neither must be fully inside the other.

Some A are not B Part of circle A lies outside circle B — at least some portion of A is
definitely NOT in B.

Conversion Rule "All A are B" does NOT mean "All B are A." But "Some A are B" DOES
mean "Some B are A" (reversible). "No A are B" also reverses: "No B
are A."

Possibility vs Certainty A conclusion follows only if it is true in EVERY possible valid diagram
for the given statements — if even ONE valid diagram breaks the
conclusion, it does NOT follow.

Either-Or Rule If two conclusions are complementary opposites (e.g., "Some A are
B" vs "No A are B") and neither follows individually, but together
they cover all logical possibilities, then "Either conclusion I or II
follows."

Combining Statements Draw a single diagram satisfying ALL given premises simultaneously
before testing any conclusion — testing conclusions against premises
one at a time can give false results.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Draw the SMALLEST, most restrictive valid diagram first, then try to draw an ALTERNATE valid
diagram that breaks the proposed conclusion — if you can’t break it in any valid arrangement,
the conclusion definitely follows.
• Memorize: "All A are B" + "All B are C" → "All A are C" follows definitely (a chain of full
containment always transfers).

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• "Some A are B" never lets you conclude "All" of anything — "Some" statements only guarantee
overlap, never full containment.
• "No A are B" is symmetric — if no A are B, then automatically no B are A; use this to quickly
check reversed conclusions.
• When a conclusion combines a "No" premise with an "All" premise about a third category, draw
all three circles together rather than evaluating two statements at a time — three-circle
diagrams reveal a different picture than chaining two two-circle diagrams.
• For "either/or" conclusion pairs, check if the original statements leave the relationship between
two terms completely undetermined — if so, the two complementary possibilities together
exhaust all options and the "either-or" rule applies.
• If a statement says "Some A are not B," do NOT assume anything about whether "Some A ARE
B" — both can independently be true or one can be false; treat them as separate, unlinked
pieces of information unless a diagram explicitly confirms both.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Statements: All doctors are scientists. All scientists are researchers.
Conclusions: I. All doctors are researchers. II. Some researchers are doctors.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Doctors" completely inside Circle "Scientists" (from "All doctors are scientists"). Circle
"Scientists" completely inside Circle "Researchers" (from "All scientists are researchers").
Since Doctors ⊂ Scientists ⊂ Researchers, Doctors is automatically and entirely contained within
Researchers in every valid diagram. Conclusion I (All doctors are researchers) follows definitely.
Since all doctors are inside the researchers circle, this means AT LEAST some researchers are doctors
(the doctors themselves are a subset of researchers, so they overlap). Conclusion II follows as well
— it’s a weaker, always-true restatement of the strong fact in Conclusion I.
Answer: Both Conclusion I and II follow.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever you see a chain of three "All X are Y" statements forming A→B→C, the conclusion "All A
are C" ALWAYS follows automatically — memorize this chain rule to skip diagramming entirely for
this exact pattern. Additionally, whenever "All A are C" follows, "Some C are A" automatically follows
too (a full-containment fact always implies the corresponding "some" fact).

Q2.
Statements: All pens are pencils. Some pencils are erasers.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are erasers. II. Some erasers are pens.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:

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Draw: Circle "Pens" completely inside Circle "Pencils." Circle "Erasers" overlapping PARTIALLY with
Circle "Pencils" (from "Some pencils are erasers") — but the overlapping part of Pencils-with-Erasers
does NOT have to touch the Pens sub-circle at all.
Test: can you draw a valid diagram where the Pens circle (inside Pencils) and the Erasers-overlap
region (also inside Pencils) do NOT touch each other at all, while still keeping both original
statements true? Yes — Pens could occupy one part of the Pencils circle, while the Pencils-Erasers
overlap occups a completely different part of Pencils, with no intersection between Pens and
Erasers.
Since a valid diagram exists where Pens and Erasers do NOT overlap, Conclusion I (Some pens are
erasers) does NOT follow definitely — it’s only a possibility, not a certainty.
Conclusion II is the same claim as Conclusion I in reverse — since I itself isn’t guaranteed, II also
doesn’t follow definitely.
Answer: Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
The pattern "All A are B" + "Some B are C" can NEVER guarantee "Some A are C" — this is one of the
most important syllogism traps. The "Some" statement’s overlap region is not guaranteed to
coincide with where A sits inside B. Always test by drawing the overlap AWAY from the fully-
contained circle to check if the conclusion can be broken.

Q3.
Statements: No teachers are students. All students are learners.
Conclusions: I. No teachers are learners. II. Some learners are not teachers.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Teachers" and Circle "Students" completely separate (no overlap) from "No teachers
are students." Circle "Students" completely inside Circle "Learners" from "All students are learners."
Since Students ⊂ Learners, and Learners is a bigger circle, there is room within Learners for OTHER
things besides Students — including possibly Teachers (since the diagram never says anything
directly restricting Teachers from also being Learners through some other route).
Test Conclusion I: can Teachers overlap with Learners (outside the Students portion) in a valid
diagram? Yes — nothing prevents Teachers and Learners from overlapping in a region of Learners
that is NOT Students. So Conclusion I (No teachers are learners) is NOT guaranteed — it can be
broken. Does not follow.
Test Conclusion II: since Students ⊂ Learners but Teachers and Students don’t overlap at all, the
Students (a subset of Learners) are definitely NOT teachers — meaning there is DEFINITELY a portion
of Learners (namely, the Students part) that is not Teachers. Conclusion II (Some learners are not
teachers) follows definitely.
Answer: Only Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When "No A are B" is combined with "All B are C," the relationship between A and C is always
UNDETERMINED (A might or might not overlap with C outside of B) — but "Some C are not A"
ALWAYS follows, since the B-portion of C is guaranteed to exclude A. Memorize this exact pattern.

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Q4.
Statements: Some artists are musicians. Some musicians are singers.
Conclusions: I. Some artists are singers. II. No artists are singers.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Artists" partially overlapping Circle "Musicians." Circle "Singers" partially overlapping
Circle "Musicians" — but the Artists-overlap and Singers-overlap regions within Musicians don’t
have to coincide.
Test Conclusion I: can you draw a valid diagram where the Artists-Musicians overlap and the Singers-
Musicians overlap are in completely different parts of the Musicians circle, so Artists and Singers
never touch? Yes, this is possible. So Conclusion I doesn’t follow definitely.
Test Conclusion II: can you ALSO draw a valid diagram where Artists and Singers DO overlap (e.g., if
the Artists-Musicians overlap and Singers-Musicians overlap happen to coincide in the same
region)? Yes, this is also possible. So Conclusion II doesn’t follow definitely either (since it would
have to be true in ALL cases, but a valid case exists where it’s false).
Since neither conclusion follows on its own, check the Either-Or rule: Conclusion I ("Some artists are
singers") and Conclusion II ("No artists are singers") are exact logical opposites/complements —
together they cover every single possibility (either some overlap exists, or none does). When two
complementary conclusions exhaust all possibilities like this, "Either I or II follows" applies.
Answer: Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows (the relationship between Artists and Singers is
undetermined, but must be one or the other).
⚡ Quick Trick:
The pattern "Some A are B" + "Some B are C" (with no further info linking A and C directly) is the
classic setup for the Either-Or rule: neither "Some A are C" nor "No A are C" follows individually, but
as exact opposites, one of them must be true — recognize this exact "Some+Some, no All/No
statement involved" pattern instantly.

Q5.
Statements: All squares are rectangles. No rectangles are triangles.
Conclusions: I. No squares are triangles. II. Some rectangles are squares.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Squares" completely inside Circle "Rectangles." Circle "Rectangles" completely
separate (no overlap) from Circle "Triangles."
Since Squares ⊂ Rectangles, and Rectangles has ZERO overlap with Triangles, then Squares (being
entirely within Rectangles) ALSO has zero overlap with Triangles in every valid diagram. Conclusion I
(No squares are triangles) follows definitely.

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Since Squares ⊂ Rectangles (full containment), the Squares portion is automatically a part of
Rectangles, meaning at least some Rectangles ARE squares (the squares themselves). Conclusion II
follows definitely as well.
Answer: Both Conclusion I and II follow.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever "All A are B" is followed by "No B are C," the conclusion "No A are C" ALWAYS follows
automatically (full containment inside an excluded zone transfers the exclusion) — and "Some B are
A" always follows from any "All A are B" statement. Memorize both as automatic, diagram-free
shortcuts.

Q6.
Statements: Some books are magazines. All magazines are publications.
Conclusions: I. Some books are publications. II. All publications are magazines.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Books" partially overlapping Circle "Magazines." Circle "Magazines" completely inside
Circle "Publications."
Since the Books-Magazines overlap region IS, by definition, part of Magazines, and ALL of Magazines
is inside Publications, that same overlap region is therefore also inside Publications. This means the
overlapping Books are definitely inside Publications too. Conclusion I (Some books are publications)
follows definitely.
Conclusion II reverses the original "All magazines are publications" statement into "All publications
are magazines" — this is an invalid reversal of an "All" statement (Publications could be a much
larger circle containing other things besides Magazines). Conclusion II does not follow.
Answer: Only Conclusion I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
The pattern "Some A are B" + "All B are C" ALWAYS guarantees "Some A are C" — since the A-B
overlap is, by definition, entirely inside B, and B is entirely inside C, that overlap is automatically
inside C too. This is different from (and stronger than) the "All A are B + Some B are C" pattern from
Q2, which does NOT guarantee a link — pay close attention to WHICH statement is "All" and which is
"Some," and in which order.

Q7.
Statements: No cups are plates. No plates are spoons.
Conclusions: I. No cups are spoons. II. Some cups are spoons.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Cups" and Circle "Plates" completely separate. Circle "Plates" and Circle "Spoons" also
completely separate.

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Both Cups and Spoons are separately excluded from Plates, but this gives NO information about the
relationship between Cups and Spoons directly — they could overlap fully, partially, or not at all; the
diagram is free to vary here.
Test Conclusion I: can you draw a valid diagram where Cups and Spoons DO overlap (while both still
avoiding Plates entirely)? Yes — nothing stops two separate circles (Cups, Spoons) from overlapping
each other while both staying away from a third, unrelated circle (Plates). So Conclusion I does NOT
follow definitely.
Test Conclusion II: can you ALSO draw a valid diagram where Cups and Spoons do NOT overlap at
all? Yes, equally possible. So Conclusion II doesn’t follow definitely either.
Check Either-Or: "No cups are spoons" and "Some cups are spoons" are exact complementary
opposites, and since the relationship is genuinely undetermined either way, one of them must be
true.
Answer: Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Two separate "No A are B" statements about a SHARED middle term (here, Plates) tell you NOTHING
about the relationship between the two outer terms (Cups, Spoons) — this is a frequently tested
trap. Whenever you see "No A are B" + "No B are C," default-check for the Either-Or pattern between
A and C.

Q8.
Statements: All chairs are furniture. Some furniture is wood-based.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are wood-based. II. Some wood-based items are furniture.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Chairs" completely inside Circle "Furniture." Circle "Wood-based" partially overlapping
Circle "Furniture" — but this overlap doesn’t have to touch the Chairs sub-circle.
Test Conclusion I: same structure as Q2 — "All A are B" + "Some B are C" — the Wood-based overlap
with Furniture can be drawn entirely outside the Chairs region. So Conclusion I does NOT follow
definitely.
Test Conclusion II: this is simply the reverse phrasing of the given premise "Some furniture is wood-
based" — "Some" statements are always reversible. "Some wood-based items are furniture" follows
directly and definitely from the given premise itself.
Answer: Only Conclusion II follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Don’t be fooled when a conclusion is just the REVERSED form of an already-given "Some" statement
— these always follow automatically (the Conversion Rule), regardless of any other complex
statements in the question. Spot and confirm these first before testing the harder mixed-pattern
conclusions.

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Q9.
Statements: All laptops are electronics. All electronics need electricity. Some electronics are expensive.
Conclusions: I. All laptops need electricity. II. Some expensive items are electronics. III. Some laptops are
expensive.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Laptops" inside Circle "Electronics." Circle "Electronics" inside Circle "Need Electricity."
Circle "Expensive" partially overlapping Circle "Electronics" (overlap position relative to Laptops is
undetermined).
Conclusion I: Laptops ⊂ Electronics ⊂ Need-Electricity, a clean chain of full containment — follows
definitely (same chain pattern as Q1).
Conclusion II: simply the reverse of "Some electronics are expensive" — reversible "Some"
statement — follows definitely.
Conclusion III: this is the same trap pattern as Q2/Q8 — "All laptops are electronics" + "Some
electronics are expensive" does NOT guarantee the expensive-overlap touches the laptops sub-
circle. Does not follow.
Answer: Conclusion I and II follow; Conclusion III does not follow.
⚡ Quick Trick:
With three statements and three conclusions, separate them into recognizable PAIRS first: (All+All
chain) → automatic; (reversed "Some" statement) → automatic; (All+Some mismatched pattern) →
needs the "can you break it" diagram test. Solving each pair-pattern separately is much faster than
treating all three statements as one giant combined diagram from scratch.

Q10.
Statements: Some employees are managers. No managers are interns.
Conclusions: I. Some employees are not interns. II. No employees are interns.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Employees" partially overlapping Circle "Managers." Circle "Managers" completely
separate from Circle "Interns."
The Employees-Managers overlap region is, by definition, part of Managers — and since Managers
has zero overlap with Interns, that SAME overlap region (the overlapping Employees) is also
guaranteed to have zero overlap with Interns. This means there is definitely SOME part of
Employees (the manager-overlap part) that is not Interns. Conclusion I (Some employees are not
interns) follows definitely.
Conclusion II claims NO employees at all are interns — but the diagram only guarantees this for the
Employees-Managers OVERLAP portion; employees OUTSIDE that overlap (non-manager employees)
could still potentially overlap with Interns in some valid diagram. So Conclusion II overreaches and
does NOT follow definitely.
Answer: Only Conclusion I follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:

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The pattern "Some A are B" + "No B are C" always guarantees "Some A are not C" (a weaker, partial
claim) but NEVER guarantees the stronger "No A are C" — recognize this exact strength mismatch as
a recurring trap between similar-sounding conclusions.

Q11.
Statements: All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly. No roses fade quickly.
Conclusion: Some flowers are not roses.
Does the conclusion follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle "Roses" inside Circle "Flowers." Circle "Fade-quickly" partially overlapping Circle
"Flowers," with the THIRD given statement explicitly telling us this Fade-quickly overlap does NOT
touch the Roses sub-circle at all (since "No roses fade quickly").
Since Roses ⊂ Flowers, and the Fade-quickly-overlap portion of Flowers is explicitly EXCLUDED from
Roses (per the third statement), that Fade-quickly-overlap portion of Flowers is therefore
DEFINITELY a part of Flowers that is NOT Roses.
This directly and definitely supports the conclusion: there exists at least one part of Flowers (the
fade-quickly part) that is not Roses.
Answer: Yes, the conclusion follows.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When three statements interact, look for a THIRD statement that explicitly RESOLVES an otherwise-
undetermined overlap from the first two statements (here, the "No roses fade quickly" statement
pins down exactly where the Fade-quickly circle sits relative to Roses) — such explicit resolving
statements often turn an ambiguous two-statement pattern into a definite conclusion.

Q12.
Statements: All members of Club X are also members of Club Y. No member of Club Y is a member of
Club Z. Some members of Club Z are members of Club W.
Conclusions: I. No member of Club X is a member of Club Z. II. Some members of Club W are not
members of Club Y.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Solution:
Draw: Circle X completely inside Circle Y (from statement 1). Circle Y completely separate from Circle
Z (from statement 2). Circle Z partially overlapping Circle W (from statement 3).
Conclusion I: since X ⊂ Y, and Y has zero overlap with Z, then X (being entirely within Y) also has zero
overlap with Z in every valid diagram. This follows the same "All A are B + No B are C → No A are C"
rule from Q5. Conclusion I follows definitely.
Conclusion II: the Z-W overlap region is part of Z, and Z has zero overlap with Y — so the Z-W overlap
is also guaranteed to be outside Y. Since this Z-W overlap is part of W, this means there IS definitely
some part of W (namely the Z-overlap part) that is not in Y. Conclusion II follows definitely by the
same logic as Q10/Q11 (a "some...are not" conclusion through a chain of exclusion).

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Answer: Both Conclusion I and II follow.

⚡ Quick Trick:
For four-circle chains spanning three statements, isolate the relevant TWO-or-THREE-circle sub-
pattern for each conclusion separately rather than trying to hold the entire four-circle picture in your
head at once — Conclusion I only needs circles X, Y, Z; Conclusion II only needs Y, Z, W. Breaking a
complex chain into the minimal relevant sub-diagram per conclusion is the fastest approach under
time pressure.

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9. Input & Output (Machine Input-Output)

Overview
A jumbled set of words and/or numbers is given as "Input." Each subsequent "Step" rearranges the
elements according to a hidden, consistent rule (e.g., alphabetical/numerical sorting, swapping pairs,
moving largest/smallest to an end). Your task is to identify the rule by comparing consecutive steps,
then apply it to find a specific intermediate step or predict how many steps are needed.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Identify the Rule First Always compare Step I to the Input, then Step II to Step I, to detect
EXACTLY what changed (which elements moved, and where) — the
rule is usually consistent across all steps.

Common Rule Types Alphabetical/reverse-alphabetical word sorting;

ascending/descending number sorting; swapping word-number
pairs; moving the largest/smallest element to one end each step;
vowel-consonant repositioning.

One Change Per Step Most machine input-output problems move/sort exactly ONE
(usually) element (or one pair) per step — if you see two elements move in
one step, check if it’s actually a swap (which counts as one
operation).

Word vs Number Tracking If both words and numbers are present, check if they move
independently (words sorted one way, numbers another) or as fixed
pairs that move together.

Final Step Indicator The rearrangement is "complete" (no more steps possible) when the
elements are fully sorted according to the identified rule and
applying the rule again would produce no change.

Step-Counting Count carefully from "Input" as Step 0 — Step I is the FIRST

transformation, not the input itself.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Underline or mentally tag the ONE element/pair that changed position between consecutive
steps — this single comparison reveals the entire rule almost instantly.
• If words appear to reorganize alphabetically, check both directions (A-Z and Z-A) quickly — many
problems use reverse alphabetical order as a deliberate twist.
• If numbers are involved, check whether they are sorted by value, or by some derived property
(digit sum, even/odd grouping, last digit) — don’t assume simple ascending/descending without
verifying against the given steps.

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• Once you’ve identified the rule from the given steps, apply it forward (or backward) directly to
reach the SPECIFIC step asked about — don’t manually redo every single intermediate step if
you can jump directly using the confirmed pattern.
• If the question asks "which step will be the last step," count how many elements still need to be
moved/sorted under the rule, since each step typically resolves one element’s final position.
• Watch for whether elements move from the LEFT end or the RIGHT end first — this directional
detail is often the key differentiator between two similar-looking rules.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Input: 36 tiger 12 lion 58 zebra 21
Step I: 12 36 tiger lion 58 zebra 21
Step II: 12 21 36 tiger lion 58 zebra
Step III: 12 21 36 58 tiger lion zebra
Find Step IV, and determine if Step III is the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: numbers (12, 36) moved to the front, in ascending order, while words
shifted right. Compare Step I to Step II: another number (21) moved into its correct ascending
position. Compare Step II to Step III: the number 58 also moved into ascending position.
Pattern identified: the rule sorts numbers into ascending order at the front, one number per step,
while words shift right to follow; after all numbers are sorted, the words remaining get sorted next
(likely alphabetically, based on similar problems) one per step.
After Step III, all four numbers (12, 21, 36, 58) are fully sorted in ascending order at the front. The
words remaining (tiger, lion, zebra) are NOT yet sorted alphabetically (correct alphabetical order
would be lion, tiger, zebra).
Step IV: applying the same one-step-per-element rule, the words should now begin sorting
alphabetically — move "lion" to the front of the word group, since "lion" comes before "tiger"
alphabetically: Step IV = 12 21 36 58 lion tiger zebra.
Step III is NOT the final step, since the words are not yet fully sorted; Step IV completes the
alphabetical sort entirely, making Step IV the final step.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When numbers and words are mixed, solve them as TWO INDEPENDENT mini-puzzles: first identify
the numeric sort rule from however many steps deal with numbers, then separately identify the
word-sort rule from later steps — don’t try to find one rule covering both at once.

Q2.
Input: 45 28 63 14 39
Step I: 63 45 28 14 39
Step II: 63 45 39 28 14
Find Step III and identify the rule.

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Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: 63 (the largest number) moved from position 3 to position 1 (the front).
Compare Step I to Step II: 39 moved from position 5 to position 3.
Pattern: the rule seems to place numbers in DESCENDING order, moving the largest remaining
unsorted number to the front of the "sorted so far" group, one at a time, each step.
Check: after Step II, sorted-so-far = 63, 45, 39 (descending, correct). Unsorted remaining = 28, 14 (in
original relative order).
Step III: the next largest among the unsorted (28) should move to the front of the unsorted group,
immediately following the already-sorted portion: Step III = 63 45 39 28 14.
Since after Step III, the order 63, 45, 39, 28, 14 is now FULLY descending, this is the final step — no
further steps are needed (applying the rule again to a fully-sorted descending list produces no
change).
⚡ Quick Trick:
When you see ONE number "jump to the front" each step while the relative order of the rest stays
the same, immediately suspect a selection-sort-style rule (repeatedly picking the largest or smallest
of the remaining unsorted elements) — this is one of the most common and recognizable input-
output patterns.

Q3.
Input: cat dog 15 bat 8 ant 22
Step I: ant cat dog 15 bat 8 22
Step II: ant bat cat dog 15 8 22
Find Step III, and identify the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: "ant" moved from position 6 to position 1 — words seem to be sorting
alphabetically at the front. Compare Step I to Step II: "bat" moved from position 4 to position 2.
Pattern: words are sorting alphabetically, one word moving to its correct sorted position (at the
front of the word-group) per step, while numbers shift right.
After Step II, sorted words = ant, bat. Remaining words = cat, dog, which already sit in positions 3
and 4 in correct alphabetical order relative to each other.
Check if "cat" and "dog" are already in their fully correct final positions: the complete alphabetical
order of all four words is ant, bat, cat, dog — and that is EXACTLY the order already shown after Step
II.
Since all four words (ant, bat, cat, dog) are already fully and correctly alphabetically sorted after Step
II, and the numbers have not been touched by any visible rule, Step II is in fact the final step — there
is no required Step III.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always check whether the elements NOT yet explicitly "moved" by the rule are nevertheless already
sitting in their correct final positions as a side effect of earlier moves — if so, the process is already
complete, even though a naive count might suggest one element ("dog" here) still needs its own
dedicated step.

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Q4.
Input: 72 19 45 8 91 33
Step I: 8 72 19 45 91 33
Step II: 8 19 72 45 91 33
Step III: 8 19 33 72 45 91
Find Step IV and Step V, identifying the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: 8 (the smallest number) moved from position 4 to position 1. Compare
Step I to Step II: 19 moved from position 3 to position 2. Compare Step II to Step III: 33 moved from
position 6 to position 3.
Pattern: numbers are sorting in ASCENDING order, with the next-smallest unsorted number moving
to the front of the "sorted so far" group each step (a selection-sort-ascending pattern).
After Step III, sorted-so-far = 8, 19, 33 (ascending, confirmed). Unsorted remaining = 72, 45, 91 (in
original relative order from Step III: 72, 45, 91).
Step IV: the smallest among the unsorted remaining (72, 45, 91) is 45 — it moves to the front of the
unsorted group, right after the sorted portion, while 72 and 91 keep their original relative order
behind it: Step IV = 8 19 33 45 72 91.
After Step IV, sorted-so-far = 8, 19, 33, 45 and remaining unsorted = 72, 91 — but 72 and 91 are
ALREADY in ascending order relative to each other, so the sequence 8, 19, 33, 45, 72, 91 is already
fully ascending.
Since Step IV already results in the fully sorted ascending sequence, Step IV is the final step — no
Step V is needed.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When extracting an element from the middle of the remaining unsorted group, always preserve the
RELATIVE order of the elements left behind — a common error is accidentally reordering the
untouched elements; only the newly-placed element’s position should change per step.

Q5.
Input: river 18 mountain 7 valley 25
Step I: valley river 18 mountain 7 25
Step II: valley river mountain 18 7 25
Find Step III, identifying the rule and the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: "valley" moved from position 5 to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II:
"mountain" moved from position 4 to position 3.
Check alphabetical logic: valley, river, mountain — is this ascending or descending alphabetically? V
comes after R, which comes after M — so this is actually REVERSE alphabetical order (Z-to-A
direction), not standard A-to-Z.

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Pattern: words are sorting in REVERSE alphabetical order, with the next word in that reverse
sequence moving to the front of the sorted-word group each step.
After Step II, sorted words (reverse-alphabetical) = valley, river, mountain — correctly ordered V > R
> M. No more words remain to sort.
Since all three words are now fully sorted in reverse alphabetical order, and the numbers (18, 7, 25)
have not been touched by any rule shown, Step II is already the final step.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Never assume standard A-Z alphabetical order by default — always verify the actual direction
(forward or reverse) using the SPECIFIC words given in the example steps; reverse-alphabetical
sorting is a common and deliberate variant designed to catch test-takers who assume the "obvious"
direction.

Q6.
Input: 54 27 81 36 9 63
Step I: 27 54 81 36 9 63
Step II: 27 36 54 81 9 63
Step III: 9 27 36 54 81 63
Find Step IV, identifying the rule and whether more steps remain.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I, Step I to Step II, and Step II to Step III together as a set before locking in a
rule — here, each step does not simply pick the single global smallest value (since 9, the true
smallest, only appears at Step III, not Step I).
This matches a "one full left-to-right adjacent-swap pass" rule (similar to one pass of a bubble sort):
scan the row left to right, and swap any adjacent pair that is out of ascending order, continuing the
scan after each swap. Verify: Input → Step I swaps (54,27); Step I → Step II swaps (54,36) after 36
has bubbled left past 81; Step II → Step III shows 9 bubbling all the way from position 5 to position 1,
consistent with a full pass moving every smaller value as far left as it can go in one pass.
Apply one more full left-to-right pass to Step III (9 27 36 54 81 63): compare (9,27) no swap; (27,36)
no swap; (36,54) no swap; (54,81) no swap; (81,63) → swap, since 81 > 63. Step IV = 9 27 36 54 63
81.
After Step IV, the sequence 9, 27, 36, 54, 63, 81 is fully ascending — Step IV is the final step.
⚡ Quick Trick:
If a simple "smallest/largest value moves to the front each step" rule does not match every given
step, test a "one full adjacent-swap pass per step" rule instead (multiple elements can shift in a
single step) — always verify your hypothesized rule against ALL given steps before projecting
forward, since a rule that fits only the first transition can mislead you on later ones.

Q7.
Input: 16 49 4 25 9
Step I: 4 16 49 25 9

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Step II: 4 9 16 49 25
Step III: 4 9 16 25 49
Identify the rule and confirm if Step III is final.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: 4 moved from position 3 to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II: 9 moved
from position 5 to position 2. Compare Step II to Step III: 25 moved from position 5 to position 4.
Pattern: this is the ascending selection-sort rule (smallest remaining unsorted value moves to the
front of the sorted group each step) — consistent with Question 4’s pattern, confirmed across all
three given steps without contradiction.
After Step III, sequence = 4, 9, 16, 25, 49 — checking: is this fully ascending? 4 < 9 < 16 < 25 < 49 —
yes, fully sorted.
Since the full list is now in ascending order, Step III is the final step — no Step IV is needed.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Once you confirm a hypothesized rule against ALL given steps without any contradiction (unlike the
more complex Question 6), you can confidently apply it forward — and always do a final "is it fully
sorted/resolved now?" check before assuming more steps remain.

Q8.
Input: kite 31 ball 17 doll 8
Step I: ball 31 kite 17 doll 8
Step II: ball doll kite 31 17 8
Find Step III and the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: "ball" moved from position 3 to position 1, while "kite" and "doll" shifted;
numbers stayed roughly in place relative to remaining words. Compare Step I to Step II: "doll"
moved from position 5 to position 2.
Pattern: words are alphabetically sorting (ball, doll, kite — B, D, K — correct forward alphabetical
order), with the next correctly-ordered word moving into place each step, numbers shifting right to
accommodate.
After Step II, sorted words so far = ball, doll. Remaining word = kite, which is already sitting right
after doll (in position 3), and alphabetically K comes after D — meaning kite is ALREADY in its correct
final position relative to ball and doll.
Step III: since "kite" needs no further movement (it’s already correctly placed after ball, doll), check
if the rule still has unfinished business — the numbers (31, 17, 8) have not been sorted by any visible
rule in the given steps; if the pattern only ever sorts words (as seen in Step I and II), then once words
are fully sorted, the process is complete.
Since ball, doll, kite is now fully and correctly alphabetically ordered after Step II already, Step II is in
fact the final step, and there is no further change in a hypothetical Step III.
⚡ Quick Trick:

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Be alert to cases where the LAST remaining element doesn’t need an explicit step of its own because
it’s already correctly positioned as a side effect of earlier moves — always verify full correctness after
each step rather than assuming one step is needed per total element count.

Q9.
Input: 88 23 56 41 17 69
Step I: 17 88 23 56 41 69
Step II: 17 23 88 56 41 69
Step III: 17 23 41 88 56 69
Find Step IV and Step V, confirming the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: 17 (smallest) moved to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II: 23 moved to
position 2. Compare Step II to Step III: 41 moved to position 3.
Pattern: this is again the ascending selection-sort rule, with the smallest remaining unsorted value
moving to the front of the sorted group each step.
After Step III, sorted-so-far = 17, 23, 41. Remaining unsorted (from Step III’s tail) = 88, 56, 69.
Step IV: smallest of {88, 56, 69} is 56 — it moves to position 4, right after the sorted group: Step IV =
17 23 41 56 88 69.
After Step IV, sorted-so-far = 17, 23, 41, 56. Remaining unsorted = 88, 69. Step V: smallest of {88, 69}
is 69 — it moves to position 5: Step V = 17 23 41 56 69 88.
After Step V, the full sequence 17, 23, 41, 56, 69, 88 is completely ascending — Step V is the final
step.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For a 6-element ascending selection-sort, expect exactly 5 steps to fully sort the list (since after
sorting the smallest 5 elements into place, the 6th/largest is automatically correctly positioned by
elimination) — use this "n−1 steps for n elements" shortcut to predict the total number of steps
instantly.

Q10.
Input: 12 garden 45 forest 6 hill
Step I: garden 12 45 forest 6 hill
Step II: forest garden 12 45 6 hill
Step III: forest garden hill 12 45 6
Identify the rule, find Step IV if any, and confirm the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: "garden" moved from position 2 to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II:
"forest" moved from position 4 to position 1. Compare Step II to Step III: "hill" moved from position
6 to position 3.

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Check the word order being built: after Step III, the words are forest, garden, hill — alphabetically F,
G, H — correct forward alphabetical order.
Pattern confirmed: words sort alphabetically, one word per step moving to its correct position at the
front of the word-group, numbers shifting right.
After Step III, all three words (forest, garden, hill) are fully and correctly alphabetically sorted,
occupying positions 1-3. The numbers (12, 45, 6 — now appearing in positions 4-6) have not been
sorted by any rule shown in the example steps.
Since the word-sorting rule is complete after Step III (no further word movement needed), and no
numeric sorting rule has been demonstrated in any of the given steps, Step III is the final step.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When only words are seen moving across all given example steps (numbers simply shift position
passively without ever being reordered by VALUE), conclude that the rule applies ONLY to words —
don’t assume numbers will also get sorted in a later step unless you see explicit evidence of numeric
reordering in the given data.

Q11.
Input: 5 80 3 95 7 60
Step I: 95 5 80 3 7 60
Step II: 95 80 5 3 7 60
Step III: 95 80 60 5 3 7
Find Step IV, identifying the rule and the final step.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: 95 (largest) moved from position 4 to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II:
80 moved from position 3 to position 2. Compare Step II to Step III: 60 moved from position 6 to
position 3.
Pattern: this is the DESCENDING selection-sort rule — the largest remaining unsorted value moves
to the front of the sorted-so-far group each step.
After Step III, sorted-so-far (descending) = 95, 80, 60. Remaining unsorted = 5, 3, 7 (in original
relative order from Step III’s tail).
Step IV: largest of {5, 3, 7} is 7 — it moves to position 4: Step IV = 95 80 60 7 5 3.
After Step IV, sorted-so-far = 95, 80, 60, 7. Remaining = 5, 3. Since 5 > 3, this remaining pair is
ALREADY in correct descending order, meaning Step IV essentially completes the meaningful sort,
and a Step V would just confirm 5 moving to position 5 (already there) — making Step IV the
practical final step, since 95,80,60,7,5,3 is now fully descending.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always compute the FULL projected final sorted sequence (here, fully descending: 95,80,60,7,5,3)
and compare it against your current step — if they already match, you’ve reached the final step even
if your step-by-step extraction logic suggests one more swap "should" technically occur on already-
correctly-placed elements.

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Q12.
Input: zebra 14 apple 52 mango 8 yak
Step I: apple zebra 14 52 mango 8 yak
Step II: apple mango zebra 14 52 8 yak
Step III: apple mango yak zebra 14 52 8
Identify the rule, find Step IV if needed, and confirm the final step. Also state how many total steps the
full process requires.
Solution:
Compare Input to Step I: "apple" moved from position 3 to position 1. Compare Step I to Step II:
"mango" moved from position 5 to position 2. Compare Step II to Step III: "yak" moved from position
7 to position 3.
Check the order being built: apple, mango, yak — alphabetically A, M, Y — correct forward order.
The remaining word is "zebra," which alphabetically comes after yak (Y) — so zebra should be the
LAST word in the sorted sequence.
After Step III, words sorted so far = apple, mango, yak (positions 1-3); "zebra" sits at position 4,
followed by the numbers. Since zebra is alphabetically last among all four words, it is now ALREADY
in its correct final position (right after yak, before any numbers) — no further word movement is
needed.
Step IV: since all four words (apple, mango, yak, zebra) are now fully and correctly sorted in
alphabetical order across positions 1-4, and the numbers (14, 52, 8) have not been touched by any
numeric-sorting rule in the given steps, Step III is in fact already the final step — there is no required
Step IV.
Total steps required: 3 (Step I, II, and III) — for 4 words needing alphabetical sorting via one-word-
per-step movement, only 3 steps were needed since the 4th word (zebra) fell into its correct place
automatically once the other three were positioned.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "how many total steps" questions with n words to alphabetically sort one-per-step, expect (n−1)
steps — the very last word almost always lands in its correct position automatically as a side effect
of the others being placed, the same "n−1 shortcut" used for numeric selection-sort in Question 9;
recognizing this pattern instantly answers "how many steps total" without needing to trace every
single step by hand.

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10. Coding & Decoding

Overview
Coding & Decoding tests your ability to identify a hidden pattern that converts letters, numbers, or
symbols from one form into another (a "code"), and then apply that same pattern to decode or encode a
new, different word or number. Common patterns include shifting letters by a fixed number of positions,
reversing words, or substituting each letter with a number based on its alphabetical position.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Alphabet Position Reference Memorize letter positions: A=1, B=2, C=3... M=13, N=14... Z=26. Also
memorize the REVERSE position: A=26, B=25... Z=1 (i.e., position
from the end).

Letter-Shift Coding Each letter is shifted forward or backward by a FIXED number of

positions in the alphabet (e.g., +2 shift: A→C, B→D). Find the shift by
comparing one known letter pair.

Reverse/Mirror Coding Each letter is replaced by its mirror-image letter from the opposite
end of the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, C↔X...) using the rule: mirror
position = 27 − original position.

Word Reversal The entire word’s letters are written in reverse order as the code.

Number Substitution Each letter is replaced by its alphabetical position number (or some
modified version like position+1, position×2, etc.) — find the exact
modification using a known example.

Coded Sentence/Word In some questions, whole WORDS in a sentence are replaced by

Substitution other words/codes consistently across multiple coded sentences —
solve by finding the common word across two coded sentences to
isolate one code-to-word mapping.

Symbol/Number Coding Numbers themselves may be coded using a fixed arithmetic rule
(e.g., add 3, multiply by 2, reverse digits) — confirm using at least
two given examples before applying to a new number.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• For letter-shift codes, just check ONE letter pair (word-to-code) and calculate the shift amount
and direction (forward/backward) — then apply that exact same shift to every other letter
instantly.
• Memorize the mirror-pairs instantly: A-Z, B-Y, C-X, D-W, E-V, F-U, G-T, H-S, I-R, J-Q, K-P, L-O, M-N
— recognizing these by sight avoids recalculating "27 minus position" every time.

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• If a coded word has the same NUMBER of letters as the original but in a completely different
order, check word reversal FIRST — it’s the simplest and most common transformation.
• For word-substitution-in-sentence codes, write out each sentence’s words directly above/below
their codes, then find the SAME real word appearing in two different coded sentences — the
code that appears in both will reveal that word’s unique code.
• When numbers are coded, test simple operations in this order: reverse digits, add/subtract a
constant, multiply/divide by a constant — most coding questions use one of these three
patterns.
• If the coding rule seems to alternate (e.g., odd-position letters shift differently from even-
position letters), check the coded example letter-by-letter against its position (1st, 2nd, 3rd...) to
detect any alternating sub-pattern.

Practice Questions
Q1.
If FLOWER is coded as HNQYGT, how is GARDEN coded in the same language?
Solution:
Compare F→H: F is the 6th letter, H is the 8th letter — a shift of +2. Check L→N: L is 12th, N is 14th
— also +2. Check O→Q: O is 15th, Q is 17th — +2 again. The pattern (+2 shift for every letter) is
confirmed across multiple letters.
Apply +2 to each letter of GARDEN: G(7)→I(9); A(1)→C(3); R(18)→T(20); D(4)→F(6); E(5)→G(7);
N(14)→P(16).
Answer: GARDEN is coded as ICTFGP.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Always verify the shift using AT LEAST two or three letter pairs (not just the first one) before applying
it — this protects against a trick question where the shift might not be perfectly uniform across all
letters.

Q2.
If in a certain code, MOUNTAIN is written as NPVOUBJO, what is the code for VALLEY?
Solution:
Compare M→N: M is 13th, N is 14th — shift of +1. Check O→P: O is 15th, P is 16th — +1. Check
U→V: U is 21st, V is 22nd — +1. The pattern (+1 shift for every letter) is confirmed.
Apply +1 to each letter of VALLEY: V(22)→W(23); A(1)→B(2); L(12)→M(13); L(12)→M(13);
E(5)→F(6); Y(25)→Z(26).
Answer: VALLEY is coded as WBMMFZ.
⚡ Quick Trick:
A +1 shift is the simplest and most common coding pattern — if you notice each letter in the code is
the IMMEDIATE NEXT letter in the alphabet compared to the original, you can apply the shift almost
instantly without detailed position-number calculations, just by reciting the alphabet one step
forward.

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Q3.
If TIGER is coded as GRTVI using a certain logic, decode the logic and find the code for LION.
Solution:
Compare letter-by-letter using mirror logic: T is the 20th letter; its mirror (27−20=7) is G — matches
the first letter of the code! I is the 9th letter; mirror (27−9=18) is R — matches the second letter of
the code! G is the 7th letter; mirror (27−7=20) is T — matches the third letter! E is the 5th letter;
mirror (27−5=22) is V — matches! R is the 18th letter; mirror (27−18=9) is I — matches the last
letter!
Confirmed: each letter is replaced by its mirror-image letter (A↔Z, B↔Y, etc.), and the resulting
mirrored letters are kept in the SAME original order (not reversed as a word) — code = G R T V I,
matching TIGER → GRTVI exactly in order.
Apply the same mirror rule to LION: L(12)→mirror(27−12=15)=O; I(9)→mirror(27−9=18)=R;
O(15)→mirror(27−15=12)=L; N(14)→mirror(27−14=13)=M.
Answer: LION is coded as ORLM.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Don’t assume mirror-coding automatically reverses the WORD ORDER too — check carefully whether
the mirrored letters stay in their original sequence (as confirmed here) or get reversed as well; these
are two independent transformations that can appear separately or combined.

Q4.
In a coding system, "READ BOOKS DAILY" is coded as "SFBE CPPLT EBJMZ." What is the code for "WRITE
NOTES"?
Solution:
Compare R→S, E→F, A→B, D→E in "READ"→"SFBE": each letter shifts forward by exactly +1 in the
alphabet.
Verify with "BOOKS"→"CPPLT": B(2)→C(3) +1; O(15)→P(16) +1; O(15)→P(16) +1; K(11)→L(12) +1;
S(19)→T(20) +1. Confirmed consistent +1 shift.
Apply +1 to each letter of "WRITE": W(23)→X(24); R(18)→S(19); I(9)→J(10); T(20)→U(21); E(5)→F(6)
→ "XSJUF".
Apply +1 to each letter of "NOTES": N(14)→O(15); O(15)→P(16); T(20)→U(21); E(5)→F(6);
S(19)→T(20) → "OPUFT".
Answer: "WRITE NOTES" is coded as "XSJUF OPUFT".
⚡ Quick Trick:
For full-sentence coding questions, verify the shift rule using TWO DIFFERENT words from the
example (not just one) to be fully confident, then apply the SAME shift independently to each word in
the new phrase, keeping word boundaries (spaces) exactly where they were.

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Q5.
If the word "COMPUTER" is coded as "RETUPMOC," identify the logic and find the code for "NETWORK."
Solution:
Compare the code to the original letter-by-letter from the end: the last letter of COMPUTER is R, and
the code starts with R; the second-last letter is E, and the code’s second letter is E. This pattern
continues throughout.
Confirmed logic: the code is simply the original word written in reverse order (no shifting or
mirroring of individual letters — just the sequence of letters is reversed).
Apply the same logic to NETWORK: reverse the letter sequence — N-E-T-W-O-R-K reversed is K-R-O-
W-T-E-N.
Answer: NETWORK is coded as KROWTEN.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Word-reversal is the simplest coding pattern to spot: if the coded word has exactly the same letters
as the original but the FIRST letter of the code matches the LAST letter of the original (and so on,
working inward), confirm reversal instantly without needing to check alphabet positions at all.

Q6.
If in a code language, "blue sky bright" is written as "ty hk mn," "bright sun shines" is written as "mn rp
qz," and "sky shines today" is written as "hk qz vw," what is the code for "sun"?
Solution:
List the three coded sentence pairs: (1) blue sky bright = ty hk mn; (2) bright sun shines = mn rp qz;
(3) sky shines today = hk qz vw.
Find a word common to sentence (1) and sentence (2): "bright" appears in both. The code common
to BOTH coded versions (1) "ty hk mn" and (2) "mn rp qz" is "mn." So bright = mn.
Find a word common to sentence (2) and sentence (3): "shines" appears in both. The code common
to BOTH (2) "mn rp qz" and (3) "hk qz vw" is "qz." So shines = qz.
In sentence (2) "bright sun shines" = "mn rp qz," we now know bright=mn and shines=qz, so by
elimination, the remaining word "sun" must correspond to the remaining code "rp."
Answer: "sun" is coded as "rp."
⚡ Quick Trick:
For sentence-substitution codes, always look for a word that repeats across TWO sentences first —
the code shared between those two coded versions instantly reveals that one word’s code, and
repeating this process (cross-referencing pairs of sentences) lets you solve for each word one at a
time through elimination, without ever needing to guess.

Q7.
If PEN is coded as 16-5-14 (each letter replaced by its alphabetical position number), how is DESK coded
using the same logic?
Solution:

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Verify: P is the 16th letter, E is the 5th letter, N is the 14th letter — matches the given code "16-5-
14" exactly. Logic confirmed: each letter is replaced by its straightforward alphabetical position
number.
Apply to DESK: D=4, E=5, S=19, K=11.
Answer: DESK is coded as 4-5-19-11.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Position-number coding is the simplest numeric code type — just recite alphabet positions directly
(A=1 through Z=26); memorizing key landmark positions (E=5, J=10, O=15, T=20, Y=25) helps you
calculate any letter’s position quickly by counting from the nearest landmark instead of starting from
A every time.

Q8.
If in a certain code, "5" means "add," "8" means "subtract," "3" means "multiply," and "6" means
"divide," what is the value of: 12 5 4 3 6 2?
Solution:
Translate the coded operators into actual symbols: 5=add(+), 4=4 (number), 3=multiply(×),
6=divide(÷), 2=2 (number). So "12 5 4 3 6 2" becomes the expression: 12 + 4 × 6 ÷ 2.
Apply standard order of operations (multiplication and division before addition): 4 × 6 = 24; 24 ÷ 2 =
12.
Now complete the addition: 12 + 12 = 24.
Answer: The value of the expression is 24.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For symbol/operator-substitution coding questions, FIRST translate the entire coded expression into
real mathematical symbols completely before doing any calculation — mixing up translation and
calculation steps is the most common source of error in this sub-type.

Q9.
If the word "SILENT" is coded as "UKNGPV" by shifting each letter forward by a certain fixed number of
positions, find the code for "MARKET" using the same shift.
Solution:
Compare S→U: S is 19th, U is 21st — shift of +2. Check I→K: I is 9th, K is 11th — +2. Check L→N: L is
12th, N is 14th — +2. Confirmed: consistent +2 shift across multiple letters.
Apply +2 to each letter of MARKET: M(13)→O(15); A(1)→C(3); R(18)→T(20); K(11)→M(13);
E(5)→G(7); T(20)→V(22).
Answer: MARKET is coded as OCTMGV.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When checking a shift, pick letters spread across the word (not just the first two) to confirm
consistency — letters near the end of the alphabet (like T or Z) can reveal "wrap-around" errors
(where shifting past Z should loop back to A) that early letters might not expose.

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Q10.
If in a code, "A" is written as "Z," "B" is written as "Y," and so on (reverse alphabet substitution), how is
the word "BRAVE" coded?
Solution:
Confirm the rule: this is the standard mirror substitution (A↔Z, B↔Y, C↔X...), where mirror
position = 27 − original position.
Apply to each letter of BRAVE: B(2)→mirror(27−2=25)=Y; R(18)→mirror(27−18=9)=I;
A(1)→mirror(27−1=26)=Z; V(22)→mirror(27−22=5)=E; E(5)→mirror(27−5=22)=V.
Answer: BRAVE is coded as YIZEV.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For mirror-substitution, notice the elegant shortcut: applying the mirror rule TWICE to any letter
always returns the ORIGINAL letter (since 27−(27−x)=x) — this means mirror-coding is self-reversing,
so encoding and decoding use the exact same rule and process.

Q11.
If "FLOWERS BLOOM BRIGHTLY" is coded as "SLRMVIH YOLLN YIRTSGOB," and assuming this uses
mirror-letter substitution, decode the word "YOLLN."
Solution:
Since the coding uses mirror-letter substitution (A↔Z, B↔Y, etc., mirror = 27 − position), decoding
uses the EXACT SAME rule applied to the coded letters (since mirror-coding is self-reversing, as
established in Question 10).
Apply mirror decoding to each letter of YOLLN: Y(25)→mirror(27−25=2)=B;
O(15)→mirror(27−15=12)=L; L(12)→mirror(27−12=15)=O; L(12)→mirror(27−12=15)=O;
N(14)→mirror(27−14=13)=M.
Answer: YOLLN decodes to BLOOM.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a question gives you a CODED phrase and asks you to decode just ONE word from it, you don’t
need to verify the entire phrase — just confirm the coding TYPE (here, mirror substitution, as stated)
and apply the decoding rule directly to the specific word asked about, saving significant time.

Q12.
In a code language, if "PARK" is coded as "16-1-18-11" and "DESK" is coded as "4-5-19-11," identify the
coding logic and find the code for "RAIN."
Solution:
Check P→16: P is the 16th letter of the alphabet — matches directly. Check A→1: A is the 1st letter
— matches. Check R→18: R is the 18th letter — matches. Check K→11: K is the 11th letter —
matches.

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Verify with the second example: D→4 (D is 4th letter, matches), E→5 (matches), S→19 (matches),
K→11 (matches again, consistent with the first word).
Logic confirmed: each letter is simply replaced by its straightforward alphabetical position number
— no shift, no mirroring, just direct position substitution.
Apply to RAIN: R=18, A=1, I=9, N=14.
Answer: RAIN is coded as 18-1-9-14.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Before assuming a coding question requires a complex shift or mirror rule, always test the SIMPLEST
possible rule first — direct alphabetical position substitution — by checking just one or two letters;
many coding questions use this straightforward rule, and confirming it early saves significant time
over testing more complex patterns unnecessarily.

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11. Series Completion (Number, Letter, Mixed Series)

Overview
Series questions present a sequence of numbers, letters, or both, with one or more terms missing or to
be predicted next. You must detect the underlying pattern — arithmetic, geometric, alternating, or
based on alphabet positions — and apply it to find the missing/next term. Speed depends on quickly
testing a short list of standard pattern types rather than guessing randomly.

Key Rules & Strategies

Series Type How to Identify & Solve

Arithmetic Series Constant difference between consecutive terms (e.g., +3 each time).
Check the difference between the first few pairs of terms.

Geometric Series Constant ratio between consecutive terms (e.g., ×2 each time).
Check if dividing consecutive terms gives the same value repeatedly.

Squares/Cubes Series Terms follow n², n³, or similar patterns (1,4,9,16,25... or 1,8,27,64...).
Recognize common square/cube sequences by sight.

Alternating Series Two interleaved patterns running simultaneously (e.g., odd positions
follow one rule, even positions follow another) — split the series into
two sub-series first.

Difference-of-Differences If the simple difference isn’t constant, check if the DIFFERENCES

THEMSELVES form their own arithmetic/geometric pattern (2nd-
level differences).

Letter Series (Alphabet Convert each letter to its alphabet position number, find the numeric
Position) pattern, then convert back to letters for the answer.

Mixed Series Numbers and letters/symbols may alternate or follow independent

parallel rules — separate them into independent sub-series before
solving each.

Prime Number Series Recognize the sequence of prime numbers (2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23...)

by sight, as questions sometimes embed this directly.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Always compute the simple difference between consecutive terms FIRST — it’s the fastest check
and immediately reveals arithmetic series or hints at a 2nd-level pattern if differences aren’t
constant.
• If differences are increasing or decreasing steadily (not constant but changing predictably),
check the differences-of-differences — this catches quadratic-style series (n², n²+constant, etc.)
instantly.

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• For ratio-based series, divide consecutive terms instead of subtracting — if you get the same
ratio repeatedly, it’s geometric.
• Memorize squares up to 15² (1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64,81,100,121,144,169,196,225) and cubes up to
10³ (1,8,27,64,125,216,343,512,729,1000) by sight — recognizing these instantly skips
calculation time entirely.
• For letter series, instantly write the alphabet position numbers above each letter — this
converts an unfamiliar-looking letter pattern into a familiar numeric pattern you can solve using
standard techniques.
• If a series seems "irregular" at first glance, immediately test splitting it into ALTERNATE terms
(1st, 3rd, 5th... and 2nd, 4th, 6th...) — many seemingly random series are actually two clean
simple series interleaved.
• For series involving operations like ×2+1 or ×3−2, test the SAME hypothesized operation on at
least three consecutive term-pairs before trusting it — a pattern that works for only one pair
could be coincidental.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Find the next term: 5, 11, 17, 23, 29, ?
Solution:
Check the difference between consecutive terms: 11−5=6; 17−11=6; 23−17=6; 29−23=6. Constant
difference of +6 confirmed — this is a simple arithmetic series.
Apply the same difference to find the next term: 29 + 6 = 35.
Answer: 35.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Constant-difference arithmetic series are the fastest pattern to confirm — checking just the first two
or three differences is usually enough; once confirmed, simply add the difference one more time to
the last given term.

Q2.
Find the next term: 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?
Solution:
Check the difference first: 6−3=3; 12−6=6; 24−12=12 — differences are NOT constant, ruling out
simple arithmetic.
Check the ratio instead: 6÷3=2; 12÷6=2; 24÷12=2; 48÷24=2. Constant ratio of ×2 confirmed — this is
a geometric series.
Apply the same ratio: 48 × 2 = 96.
Answer: 96.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever the simple difference check fails (differences keep growing), immediately switch to
checking the RATIO between consecutive terms — rapidly growing series (especially when terms

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roughly double or triple) are a strong visual hint to try geometric checking before anything more
complex.

Q3.
Find the missing term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
Solution:
Check simple differences: 5−2=3; 10−5=5; 17−10=7; 26−17=9. These differences (3, 5, 7, 9) are
themselves increasing by a constant +2 each time — a 2nd-level arithmetic pattern.
Predict the next difference: following the pattern (3,5,7,9...), the next difference should be 9+2=11.
Apply this next difference to the last term: 26 + 11 = 37.
Answer: 37. (Recognize this pattern as n²+1: 1²+1=2, 2²+1=5, 3²+1=10, 4²+1=17, 5²+1=26, 6²+1=37 —
confirms the answer through a second method.)
⚡ Quick Trick:
When differences themselves form a simple arithmetic series (like 3,5,7,9 here, increasing by a
constant amount), the original series is very likely a "squares plus/minus a constant" pattern — try
matching it against n², n²+1, n²−1, n²+n, etc., for instant double-confirmation of your answer.

Q4.
Find the next term: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
Solution:
Recognize this immediately by sight as the sequence of perfect squares: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5²... = 1, 4, 9,
16, 25.
The next term follows the same pattern: 6² = 36.
Answer: 36.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Memorized squares (1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64,81,100...) should be recognized INSTANTLY by sight —
never waste time calculating differences for a series this immediately recognizable; pattern
recognition by memory is faster than any calculation method.

Q5.
Find the next letter: B, D, G, K, P, ?
Solution:
Convert each letter to its alphabet position: B=2, D=4, G=7, K=11, P=16.
Check differences between positions: 4−2=2; 7−4=3; 11−7=4; 16−11=5. The differences (2,3,4,5)
form a simple arithmetic series increasing by +1 each time.
Predict the next difference: following the pattern, the next difference should be 5+1=6.
Apply: 16 + 6 = 22, which corresponds to the letter V (22nd letter).

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Answer: V.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Converting letters to position numbers immediately turns an unfamiliar alphabet pattern into a
recognizable NUMERIC differences-of-differences pattern — always perform this conversion first for
any letter series that doesn’t show an obvious simple +1/-1 shift by eye.

Q6.
Find the missing term: 7, 9, 13, 19, 27, ?
Solution:
Check simple differences: 9−7=2; 13−9=4; 19−13=6; 27−19=8. Differences (2,4,6,8) form their own
arithmetic series, increasing by a constant +2 each time.
Predict the next difference: following the pattern (2,4,6,8...), the next difference should be 8+2=10.
Apply: 27 + 10 = 37.
Answer: 37.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Differences that increase by a CONSTANT EVEN number (like +2 each time here) are a strong,
recognizable signature of an "n²+constant" or similar quadratic-style series — once you spot evenly-
increasing differences, you can confidently predict the next difference without needing to verify the
exact algebraic formula.

Q7.
Find the next term in the alternating series: 4, 100, 8, 90, 16, 80, 32, ?
Solution:
Notice the series seems irregular as a whole — split it into two ALTERNATE sub-series: positions
1,3,5,7 give 4, 8, 16, 32 (every other term, starting from position 1), and positions 2,4,6 give 100, 90,
80 (every other term, starting from position 2).
Analyze sub-series 1 (4, 8, 16, 32): each term doubles the previous one (×2) — a clean geometric
pattern.
Analyze sub-series 2 (100, 90, 80): each term decreases by a constant −10 — a clean arithmetic
pattern.
The question asks for the term AFTER 32, which belongs to sub-series 1 (since 32 is in an odd
position, the very next term, position 8, belongs to sub-series 2). Following sub-series 2’s pattern
(100, 90, 80...), the next term is 80−10=70.
Answer: 70.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever a series looks "jumpy" or irregular with values that seem to go up then down
unpredictably, IMMEDIATELY test splitting it into odd-position and even-position sub-series — this
single technique solves the vast majority of seemingly chaotic series almost instantly.

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Q8.
Find the next term: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
Solution:
Check simple differences: 6−2=4; 12−6=6; 20−12=8; 30−20=10. Differences (4,6,8,10) increase by a
constant +2 each time — confirming a quadratic-style pattern.
Predict the next difference: 10+2=12.
Apply: 30+12=42.
Answer: 42. (This matches the pattern n×(n+1): 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42 — a
useful double-check.)
⚡ Quick Trick:
The "n×(n+1)" pattern (2,6,12,20,30,42,56...) is a very common series in exams — recognizing it by
sight (each term is a product of two consecutive integers) saves time over calculating differences-of-
differences every time.

Q9.
Find the missing letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
Solution:
Convert to positions: A=1, C=3, F=6, J=10, O=15.
Check differences: 3−1=2; 6−3=3; 10−6=4; 15−10=5. Differences (2,3,4,5) increase by +1 each time —
a clean quadratic-style pattern.
Predict the next difference: 5+1=6.
Apply: 15+6=21, which corresponds to the letter U (21st letter).
Answer: U.
⚡ Quick Trick:
This exact differences-pattern (2,3,4,5,6...) appears extremely frequently in letter series questions —
once you spot "differences increasing by exactly +1 each time," you can confidently predict the entire
rest of the series without further verification needed.

Q10.
Find the next term: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
Solution:
Check simple differences: 8−3=5; 15−8=7; 24−15=9; 35−24=11. Differences (5,7,9,11) increase by a
constant +2 each time.
Predict the next difference: 11+2=13.
Apply: 35+13=48.

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Answer: 48. (This matches the pattern n×(n+2): 1×3=3, 2×4=8, 3×5=15, 4×6=24, 5×7=35, 6×8=48 — a
useful confirmation.)
⚡ Quick Trick:
After computing differences-of-differences and getting a constant value (here, +2), you can ALWAYS
trust the projection for the next term — but as a bonus double-check habit, try to match the original
sequence against a simple n×(n+k) or n²+k formula, since these patterns are extremely common and
provide quick verification.

Q11.
Find the next term in the mixed series: A1, C4, F9, J16, O25, ?
Solution:
Separate the letter and number components: Letters = A, C, F, J, O (positions 1, 3, 6, 10, 15 —
matching the same pattern as Question 9, differences 2,3,4,5 increasing by +1). Numbers = 1, 4, 9,
16, 25 (perfect squares: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5²).
For the letter part: following the established pattern (differences 2,3,4,5, next difference 6), the next
letter position is 15+6=21, which is U.
For the number part: following the perfect-squares pattern, the next number is 6²=36.
Combine both parts for the final answer: U36.
Answer: U36.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For mixed letter-number series, ALWAYS split into the letter sub-series and the number sub-series
FIRST, solve each completely independently using standard techniques (alphabet positions for letters,
standard number patterns for numbers), and only combine them again at the very end — never try
to find one single rule covering both simultaneously.

Q12.
Find the missing terms: 8, 27, 64, 125, ?, 343
Solution:
Recognize the sequence by sight as perfect cubes: 2³=8, 3³=27, 4³=64, 5³=125, 6³=216, 7³=343.
Verify the last given term matches: 7³=343 — confirmed, matching the given final term.
The missing term (5th position) should be 6³=216.
Answer: 216.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Memorized cubes (1,8,27,64,125,216,343,512,729,1000) should be instantly recognizable by sight,
just like squares — when a series jumps quickly (8→27→64→125), immediately suspect cubes rather
than calculating differences, since cube-growth has a very distinctive rapid-acceleration visual
signature.

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12. Clocks & Calendars

Overview
Clock questions involve calculating the angle between the hour and minute hands at a given time, or
working out when hands overlap/form a specific angle. Calendar questions involve finding the day of the
week for a given date, using the fact that the calendar repeats in predictable cycles based on odd days
and leap years. Both rely on a few memorized formulas applied carefully.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Formula

Minute Hand Speed The minute hand moves 6° per minute (360° ÷ 60 minutes).

Hour Hand Speed The hour hand moves 0.5° per minute (30° per hour ÷ 60 minutes),
i.e., 30° per hour.

Angle Between Hands Angle = |30H − 5.5M|, where H = hour (1-12) and M = minutes. If the
Formula result exceeds 180°, subtract it from 360° to get the smaller angle.

Hands Overlap (Coincide) Hands overlap 11 times every 12 hours (NOT 12 times) — they
coincide once between each consecutive hour pair, except between
11 and 1 where it happens only once near 12:00.

Hands Opposite (180°) Hands are opposite 11 times every 12 hours as well, by the same
logic.

Odd Days Concept An "odd day" is the number of days extra beyond complete weeks in
(Calendars) a given period — used to determine the day-of-week shift.

Odd Days per Year A normal (non-leap) year has 1 odd day; a leap year has 2 odd days.

Century Odd Days 100 years = 5 odd days; 200 years = 3 odd days; 300 years = 1 odd
day; 400 years = 0 odd days (this 400-year cycle repeats exactly).

Day Code Mapping 0 odd days = Sunday, 1 = Monday, 2 = Tuesday, 3 = Wednesday, 4 =

Thursday, 5 = Friday, 6 = Saturday.

Leap Year Rule A year is a leap year if divisible by 4, EXCEPT century years (divisible
by 100), which must also be divisible by 400 to qualify (e.g., 2000 is a
leap year, but 1900 is not).

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• For clock angle questions, just plug numbers directly into |30H − 5.5M| — memorize this single
formula and you can solve almost any "find the angle" question in seconds without drawing a
clock face.

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• If the calculated angle exceeds 180°, instantly subtract from 360° — exam answers always
expect the SMALLER of the two possible angles unless explicitly asked for the reflex angle.
• For "hands overlap/opposite how many times" questions, just remember 11 times per 12 hours
(not 12) — this exact trap (assuming 12) is one of the most common clock-question errors.
• For calendar "odd days" calculations, break any number of years into complete centuries first
(using the fixed century odd-day values: 100→5, 200→3, 300→1, 400→0) before calculating the
remaining individual years one by one — this avoids counting hundreds of years manually.
• When counting odd days within a partial year (months), memorize: 30-day months contribute 2
odd days, 31-day months contribute 3 odd days, and February contributes 0 odd days (28 days =
exactly 4 weeks) in a non-leap year, or 1 odd day in a leap year.
• Always take the FINAL total of odd days and divide by 7, using the REMAINDER (not the
quotient) to map to the day name using the Day Code Mapping table — the remainder is the
only part that matters.

Practice Questions
Q1.
What is the angle between the hour and minute hands of a clock at 3:40?
Solution:
Use the formula: Angle = |30H − 5.5M|, where H=3, M=40.
Calculate: 30×3 = 90. 5.5×40 = 220.
Angle = |90 − 220| = |−130| = 130°.
Since 130° is less than 180°, this is already the smaller angle — no further adjustment needed.
Answer: 130°.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Memorize the formula |30H − 5.5M| as a single mental shortcut — plug in the hour and minutes
directly, and you get the answer in one calculation step without needing to visualize the clock face at
all.

Q2.
At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the minute and hour hands of a clock coincide (overlap
exactly)?
Solution:
At exactly 4:00, the hour hand is at the 4 (120° from 12), and the minute hand is at 12 (0°) — a gap
of 120°.
The minute hand gains on the hour hand at a relative speed of (6° − 0.5°) = 5.5° per minute (since
minute hand moves at 6°/min and hour hand at 0.5°/min, and minute hand needs to "catch up").
To close a 120° gap at a relative speed of 5.5°/min, time required = 120 ÷ 5.5 = 21.81... minutes ≈ 21
and 9/11 minutes.
Answer: The hands coincide at approximately 4 hours 21(9/11) minutes, i.e., about 4:21:49.
⚡ Quick Trick:

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For "hands coincide" questions, always calculate the STARTING angular gap at the earlier full hour
(e.g., 120° at 4:00), then divide by the constant relative speed of 5.5°/minute — this single technique
solves every "when do hands overlap between X and Y o’clock" question instantly.

Q3.
What is the angle between the hour and minute hands at 7:15?
Solution:
Use the formula: Angle = |30H − 5.5M|, where H=7, M=15.
Calculate: 30×7 = 210. 5.5×15 = 82.5.
Angle = |210 − 82.5| = 127.5°.
Since 127.5° is less than 180°, this is the final answer directly.
Answer: 127.5°.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Clock angle answers are frequently NOT whole numbers (like 127.5° here) — don’t second-guess a
decimal/fractional result; the 5.5M term in the formula naturally produces half-degree values
whenever minutes are not a multiple of clean round numbers.

Q4.
If today is Wednesday, what day of the week will it be after 100 days?
Solution:
Divide 100 by 7 to find the number of complete weeks and the remainder (odd days): 100 ÷ 7 = 14
remainder 2 (since 14×7=98, and 100−98=2).
The remainder (2 odd days) means we move 2 days forward from Wednesday.
Wednesday + 1 day = Thursday; Thursday + 1 day = Friday.
Answer: It will be Friday after 100 days.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "after N days, what day will it be" questions, simply divide N by 7 and use ONLY the remainder —
completely ignore the quotient (number of complete weeks), since complete weeks always return to
the same day with zero net shift.

Q5.
If 1st January 2024 was a Monday, what day of the week was 1st January 2025? (Note: 2024 is a leap
year.)
Solution:
Since 2024 is a leap year, it has 366 days. To find the odd days contributed by a full year of 366 days:
366 ÷ 7 = 52 remainder 2 (since 52×7=364, and 366−364=2).

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A leap year contributes 2 odd days (confirming the standard rule: leap year = 2 odd days, non-leap
year = 1 odd day).
Moving 2 days forward from Monday: Monday + 1 = Tuesday; Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday.
Answer: 1st January 2025 was a Wednesday.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Memorize directly: a non-leap year always shifts the day-of-week by exactly 1 day, and a leap year
always shifts it by exactly 2 days — this lets you answer "same date, next year" questions in a single
step without any division at all, as long as you correctly identify whether the year in question is a
leap year.

Q6.
What was the day of the week on 15th August 1947 (India’s independence day), given that 1st January
1947 was a Wednesday?
Solution:
Count the number of days from 1st January to 15th August 1947 (a non-leap year, since 1947÷4 is
not a whole number). Days in each month: January=31, February=28, March=31, April=30, May=31,
June=30, July=31, and 15 days into August.
Sum the FULL months before August: 31+28+31+30+31+30+31 = 212 days (January through July).
Add 15 days for August: total = 212+15 = 227 days from 1st January (counting 1st January itself as
day 1).
Since 1st January itself is day 1 (already accounted for, being a Wednesday), the number of days to
ADD (odd days shift) from 1st January to 15th August is 227 − 1 = 226 days.
Find the odd days: 226 ÷ 7 = 32 remainder 2 (since 32×7=224, and 226−224=2).
Moving 2 days forward from Wednesday: Wednesday + 1 = Thursday; Thursday + 1 = Friday.
Answer: 15th August 1947 was a Friday.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When counting days between two dates within the SAME year, always sum the FULL months in
between precisely (memorize: Jan=31, Feb=28/29, Mar=31, Apr=30, May=31, Jun=30, Jul=31,
Aug=31, Sep=30, Oct=31, Nov=30, Dec=31 — "30 days has September, April, June, and November" as
a quick rhyme-based memory aid) and remember to subtract 1 if your start date is being counted as
"day 1" rather than "day 0," to avoid an off-by-one error.

Q7.
How many times do the hour and minute hands of a clock form a right angle (90°) in a 24-hour period?
Solution:
In a 12-hour period, the hands form a right angle (90°) twice in each "hour cycle" EXCEPT for a
couple of special overlapping cases — the standard memorized result is that hands form a 90° angle
22 times in 12 hours.
Since a right angle occurs 22 times in 12 hours, in a 24-hour period (two full 12-hour cycles), this
doubles to 22 × 2 = 44 times.

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Answer: 44 times in 24 hours.

⚡ Quick Trick:
Memorize these THREE standard clock-frequency facts directly: hands coincide 11 times in 12 hours
(22 in 24h); hands are opposite (180°) 11 times in 12 hours (22 in 24h); hands form a right angle
(90°) 22 times in 12 hours (44 in 24h) — these three numbers cover the vast majority of "how many
times" clock questions without needing to derive them from scratch each time.

Q8.
If a clock is set correctly at 12:00 noon and gains 5 minutes every hour, what will be the actual time
when this clock shows 9:00 PM the same day?
Solution:
The clock gains 5 minutes for every 60 minutes (1 hour) of REAL/actual time — meaning when actual
time passes 60 minutes, the faulty clock shows 65 minutes.
From 12:00 noon to 9:00 PM, the FAULTY clock shows a total elapsed time of 9 hours = 540 minutes.
Since every 65 minutes shown on the faulty clock corresponds to 60 minutes of actual/real time, set
up a proportion: 65 (faulty) : 60 (real) = 540 (faulty) : x (real, unknown).
Solve for x: x = (540 × 60) ÷ 65 = 32400 ÷ 65 ≈ 498.46 minutes ≈ 8 hours 18.46 minutes.
Adding this real elapsed time to the starting point of 12:00 noon: 12:00 PM + 8 hours 18.46 minutes
≈ 8:18 PM (approximately).
Answer: The actual time is approximately 8:18 PM (8 hours and about 18.5 minutes after noon)
when the faulty clock shows 9:00 PM.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "faulty clock gains/loses time" questions, always set up a ratio of (faulty clock minutes) :
(real/actual minutes) based on the given gain/loss rate per hour, then use that exact ratio as a
proportion to convert any elapsed FAULTY time into the corresponding REAL time — this
proportional method works for both "gaining" and "losing" clock variations.

Q9.
If 1st March 2023 was a Wednesday, what day of the week was 1st March 2024? (2024 is a leap year.)
Solution:
The key consideration: when moving from 1st March of one year to 1st March of the NEXT year, the
leap day (29th February) — if it exists — falls WITHIN this exact span (since it occurs between 1st
March 2023 and 1st March 2024, specifically in February 2024).
Since 2024 is a leap year, and the leap day (29 Feb 2024) falls within this 1-year span, this particular
1-year period contains 366 days (not the usual 365), even though we are measuring from March to
March rather than January to January.
A 366-day span contributes 2 odd days (as established in Question 5): 366 ÷ 7 = 52 remainder 2.
Moving 2 days forward from Wednesday: Wednesday + 1 = Thursday; Thursday + 1 = Friday.
Answer: 1st March 2024 was a Friday.

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⚡ Quick Trick:
When a "year-to-year" calendar question spans March-to-March (or any month after February to the
same month next year), check whether the LEAP DAY (29 February) falls within that specific span —
if it does, treat the span as 366 days (2 odd days) instead of the usual 365 (1 odd day), even though
the calendar year label itself might suggest otherwise.

Q10.
At what time between 8 and 9 o’clock will the hour and minute hands of a clock be exactly opposite
each other (180° apart)?
Solution:
At exactly 8:00, the hour hand is at the 8 (240° from 12), and the minute hand is at 12 (0°) — the
angular gap between them is 240°, but for "opposite" we want the minute hand to be EXACTLY 180°
away from the hour hand’s position as it moves.
Set up using the formula: Angle = |30H − 5.5M| = 180, with H=8. So |240 − 5.5M| = 180.
This gives two cases: 240 − 5.5M = 180, or 240 − 5.5M = −180.
Case 1: 240 − 5.5M = 180 → 5.5M = 60 → M = 60/5.5 = 10.91 minutes (approximately 10 and 10/11
minutes).
Case 2: 240 − 5.5M = −180 → 5.5M = 420 → M = 420/5.5 = 76.36 minutes — this exceeds 60
minutes, meaning it falls in the NEXT hour, not between 8 and 9, so this case is invalid for our
specific time window.
Answer: The hands are opposite at approximately 8 hours 10(10/11) minutes, i.e., about 8:10:55.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For "hands opposite" questions, set the angle formula equal to 180 and solve BOTH possible cases
(positive and negative inside the absolute value) — then check which solution’s minute value
actually falls within the 0-60 range for the specific hour window asked about, discarding the invalid
one.

Q11.
If 26th January 2026 falls on a Monday, what day of the week will 26th January 2027 fall on?
Solution:
Determine if 2026 is a leap year: 2026 ÷ 4 = 506.5, not a whole number — 2026 is NOT a leap year.
Since the span from 26 January 2026 to 26 January 2027 does not include 29 February of a leap year
within it in a way that adds an extra day (2026 itself is not a leap year, and the relevant February
falling within this specific span is February 2026, a non-leap February with 28 days), this span is a
standard 365-day year.
A normal 365-day year contributes exactly 1 odd day (365 ÷ 7 = 52 remainder 1).
Moving 1 day forward from Monday: Monday + 1 = Tuesday.
Answer: 26th January 2027 will fall on a Tuesday.
⚡ Quick Trick:

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Always check the LEAP YEAR STATUS of the specific calendar year whose February falls within your
date span (not necessarily the year named in the question itself) — for a January-to-January span,
that’s simply the starting year, but for spans crossing other month boundaries (like March-to-March
in Question 9), it could be the following year instead, so identify the correct year carefully each time.

Q12.
A clock loses 3 minutes every hour. If it is set correctly at 6:00 AM, what will be the actual correct time
when this clock shows 6:00 PM the same day (12 hours later on the faulty clock)?
Solution:
The faulty clock loses 3 minutes every 60 minutes of REAL time, meaning when 60 real minutes pass,
the faulty clock only advances 57 minutes (60−3).
From 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM as SHOWN on the faulty clock is exactly 12 hours = 720 minutes of faulty-
clock time.
Set up the proportion: 57 (faulty minutes) : 60 (real minutes) = 720 (faulty minutes, given) : x (real
minutes, unknown).
Solve for x: x = (720 × 60) ÷ 57 = 43200 ÷ 57 ≈ 757.89 minutes ≈ 12 hours 37.89 minutes
(approximately 12 hours and 38 minutes).
Adding this real elapsed time to the starting point of 6:00 AM: 6:00 AM + 12 hours 38 minutes ≈ 6:38
PM.
Answer: The actual correct time is approximately 6:38 PM when the faulty (slow) clock shows 6:00
PM.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For a clock that LOSES time (runs slow), the faulty-clock-minutes-per-hour value is LESS than 60
(here, 57) — set up the exact same proportion technique as for a gaining clock (Question 8), just with
the smaller faulty-rate value; the method is identical regardless of whether the clock runs fast or
slow, only the specific rate number changes.

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13. Puzzles & Arrangements (Complex Constraint-Based)

Overview
This topic covers advanced multi-condition puzzles — scheduling, grouping, matrix-based puzzles
(matching people to multiple attributes like profession, city, color), and complex seating with many
overlapping constraints. Unlike simpler analytical reasoning, these typically require a grid/table to track
multiple attributes per person simultaneously, combined with systematic elimination.

Key Rules & Strategies

Concept Rule / Strategy

Use a Grid/Matrix For puzzles with multiple attributes per person (e.g., name, city,
profession, color), draw a grid with people as rows and attributes as
columns — mark confirmed entries and cross out impossibilities.

Start with the Most Begin with clues that mention specific names/numbers directly (e.g.,
Restrictive Clue "exactly," "only," "the youngest") rather than vague relative clues.

Process of Elimination Every time one attribute is confirmed for a person, eliminate that
attribute as a possibility for ALL other people in the same category.

Chain Linked Clues If Clue A links Person X to attribute Y, and Clue B links attribute Y to
attribute Z, combine them immediately to link Person X directly to
attribute Z.

Negative Clues Last Clues stating what is NOT true ("X does not like Y") are best used to
break ties between two remaining valid possibilities, after positive
clues have narrowed things down.

Multiple Valid Scenarios If multiple cases survive after applying all clues, re-check each clue
against every surviving case — the truly correct case satisfies ALL
clues simultaneously with zero contradiction.

Trial Branch Method When a clue gives only 2-3 possibilities and you’re stuck, pick one
possibility, run it forward through all other clues; if a contradiction
emerges, backtrack and try the next possibility.

Speed Tricks & Shortcuts

• Draw the grid BEFORE reading all the clues in detail — set up rows (people) and columns
(attributes) first, so you can fill it in as you read rather than re-reading the passage multiple
times.
• Read through ALL clues once quickly to identify the 1-2 most restrictive/direct clues (specific
names tied to specific values) — fill these in FIRST before tackling vaguer relative clues.
• The moment a row or column has only ONE remaining open slot, fill it immediately — this often
triggers a cascade of further deductions across the rest of the grid.

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• If you’re stuck with 2 or 3 remaining possibilities for one attribute, use the Trial Branch Method
on just that ONE uncertain slot — don’t restart the entire puzzle from scratch.
• For scheduling puzzles (days/times), draw a simple timeline and mark "definitely not on this
day" crosses as you process negative clues, narrowing down available slots systematically.
• Always do a final cross-check: go through every original clue ONE more time against your
completed grid to confirm zero contradictions before finalizing your answer.

Practice Questions
Q1.
Five friends — A, B, C, D, E — each prefer a different fruit: Apple, Banana, Cherry, Date, Elderberry (not
necessarily in that order matching their names).
Clues: (1) A does not like Apple or Banana. (2) B likes Cherry. (3) C likes either Apple or Date. (4) D does
not like Date or Elderberry. (5) E likes Elderberry.
Find each friend’s preferred fruit.
Solution:
Start with the most direct, specific clues: Clue 2 directly gives B = Cherry. Clue 5 directly gives E =
Elderberry.
Since E already has Elderberry, Clue 3 (C likes either Apple or Date) remains as is — both still open
for C.
Clue 4 says D does NOT like Date or Elderberry. Since Elderberry is already taken by E, this clue
effectively narrows D’s options to: Apple, Banana, or Cherry — but Cherry is taken by B, so D is left
with Apple or Banana.
Clue 1 says A does NOT like Apple or Banana. Since Cherry (B) and Elderberry (E) are taken, A is left
with only Date as a possibility (since Apple and Banana are explicitly excluded for A, and
Cherry/Elderberry are taken by others). So A = Date.
Since A = Date, Clue 3 (C likes Apple or Date) now resolves to C = Apple (since Date is taken by A).
With Apple taken by C, Clue 4’s remaining option for D (Apple or Banana) resolves to D = Banana
(since Apple is taken).
Final: A=Date, B=Cherry, C=Apple, D=Banana, E=Elderberry.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Fill in the MOST DIRECT clues first (B=Cherry, E=Elderberry confirmed instantly), then use elimination
on the remaining clues IN SEQUENCE — each confirmed assignment shrinks the remaining options
for the NEXT clue, creating a cascading chain reaction that resolves the entire puzzle without ever
needing to guess.

Q2.
Four colleagues — P, Q, R, S — work in four different departments: HR, Finance, IT, and Marketing, and
each was hired in a different year: 2018, 2020, 2021, 2023.
Clues: (1) The IT employee was hired in 2021. (2) Q works in Finance and was hired before R. (3) P was
hired in 2023 and does not work in HR. (4) S was hired in 2018.
Determine each person’s department and hire year.

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Solution:
Clue 4 directly gives S = hired in 2018. Clue 3 directly gives P = hired in 2023, and P does NOT work in
HR.
Since S=2018 and P=2023, the remaining years (2020, 2021) belong to Q and R in some order.
Clue 2 says Q works in Finance and was hired BEFORE R. Since the only years left for Q and R are
2020 and 2021, Q must take the earlier year: Q=2020, R=2021.
Clue 1 says the IT employee was hired in 2021. Since R=2021, R = IT.
Q is already Finance and R is IT, so the remaining departments (HR, Marketing) belong to P and S.
Clue 3 says P does NOT work in HR, so P = Marketing, and therefore S = HR (by elimination).
Final: P = Marketing, hired 2023. Q = Finance, hired 2020. R = IT, hired 2021. S = HR, hired 2018.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Whenever a clue gives a YEAR-based fact (like Clue 1 here) and another clue chain has already
pinned down exactly which person owns that year, the two clues link up directly — convert the year-
clue into a department-clue immediately rather than treating it as a separate puzzle. Fill in the two
clearly stated people (P and S) first, then let the "before" relation in Clue 2 resolve Q and R’s years in
one step.

Q3.
Four students — J, K, L, M — each scored differently in a test: 70, 75, 85, 90 marks (not in that order),
and each studies a different subject: Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Math.
Clues: (1) The Math student scored the highest (90). (2) J studies Chemistry and scored 15 more than M.
(3) K scored 75 and does not study Math. (4) M studies Physics.
Determine each student’s subject and score.
Solution:
Clue 4 directly gives M = Physics. Clue 3 directly gives K = 75 marks, and K does not study Math.
Clue 2 directly gives J = Chemistry. Since Physics=M and Chemistry=J, the remaining subjects
(Biology, Math) belong to K and L. Since K does not study Math (Clue 3), K = Biology, and therefore L
= Math (by elimination).
Clue 1 says the Math student scored the highest, 90. Since L = Math, L = 90 marks.
The two scores left to assign are 70 and 85, for J and M. Clue 2 says J scored 15 more than M.
Checking the remaining pair: 85 − 70 = 15, so J = 85 and M = 70.
Final: J = Chemistry, 85 marks. K = Biology, 75 marks. L = Math, 90 marks. M = Physics, 70 marks.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Lock in the two NAME-TO-SUBJECT clues first (J=Chemistry, M=Physics), then use the negative clue (K
does not study Math) to force the last two subjects onto K and L by elimination. Once K and L’s
scores are fixed (75 and 90), only two numbers remain for J and M — test the fixed-gap clue against
just that pair instead of all four scores.

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Q4.
Three friends — X, Y, Z — each own a different pet (Dog, Cat, Parrot) and live in a different city (Lahore,
Karachi, Islamabad).
Clues: (1) X does not own a Dog and does not live in Karachi. (2) The Parrot owner lives in Islamabad. (3)
Y lives in Lahore. (4) Z owns a Dog.
Determine each friend’s pet and city.
Solution:
Clue 4 directly gives Z = Dog owner. Clue 3 directly gives Y = lives in Lahore.
Since Z owns the Dog, and Clue 1 says X does NOT own a Dog (consistent, since Z already has it) —
the remaining pets (Cat, Parrot) belong to X and Y in some order.
Clue 1 also says X does not live in Karachi. Since Y lives in Lahore (Clue 3), the remaining cities
(Karachi, Islamabad) belong to X and Z in some order. Since X cannot live in Karachi, X must live in
Islamabad, and therefore Z lives in Karachi (by elimination).
Clue 2 says the Parrot owner lives in Islamabad. Since X lives in Islamabad, X must be the Parrot
owner (if anyone is the Parrot owner, and someone must be, this confirms X = Parrot).
Since X = Parrot, and the remaining pet (Cat) must go to Y (as Z already has Dog and X has Parrot).
Final: X = Parrot, Islamabad. Y = Cat, Lahore. Z = Dog, Karachi.
⚡ Quick Trick:
In small 3-person puzzles, resolve the MOST CONSTRAINED person first (X here, with TWO negative
clues attached) — a person with multiple restrictions narrows down to a single possibility fastest,
and every other assignment then falls into place purely by elimination of the remaining 2 options.

Q5.
Six people — A, B, C, D, E, F — are scheduled to present at a conference across three days (Monday,
Tuesday, Wednesday), two people per day, morning or afternoon slot.
Clues: (1) A presents on Monday morning. (2) C and D present on the same day, with C in the morning
and D in the afternoon. (3) B presents on Wednesday morning. (4) E presents on Wednesday afternoon.
(5) F presents on the same day as A.
Determine the full schedule.
Solution:
Clue 1 directly gives A = Monday morning. Clue 5 says F presents the same day as A, so F = Monday.
Since A already has the morning slot and each day has only one morning and one afternoon slot, F
must take Monday afternoon.
Monday is now fully filled: A (morning), F (afternoon).
Clue 3 directly gives B = Wednesday morning. Clue 4 directly gives E = Wednesday afternoon.
Wednesday is now fully filled: B (morning), E (afternoon).
Monday and Wednesday are both full, so the only day left with open slots is Tuesday — both its
morning and afternoon slots are still empty.
The only people not yet placed are C and D. Clue 2 says they share the same day, with C in the
morning and D in the afternoon — this fits Tuesday exactly, since both Tuesday slots are free.

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Final schedule: Monday — A (AM), F (PM). Tuesday — C (AM), D (PM). Wednesday — B (AM), E
(PM).
⚡ Quick Trick:
In multi-day scheduling puzzles with a fixed number of slots per day, fill in every directly-stated
single-person clue first and cross off each day as it becomes full — once two of three days are
completely filled, whoever is left over must occupy whatever is left of the final day, often without
needing any further deduction.

Q6.
Four houses in a row (numbered 1 to 4, left to right) are painted different colors: Red, Blue, Green,
Yellow, and owned by W, X, Y, Z.
Clues: (1) The Red house is immediately to the left of the Blue house. (2) Y owns the Green house, which
is house number 1. (3) X owns the house immediately to the right of W’s house. (4) Z owns the Yellow
house, which is at one of the ends.
Determine the color and owner of each house.
Solution:
Clue 2 directly gives: House 1 = Green, owned by Y.
Clue 4 says Z owns the Yellow house, which is at one of the ends (house 1 or house 4). Since house 1
is already Green (Clue 2), Yellow must be house 4, owned by Z.
Remaining colors for houses 2 and 3: Red and Blue. Clue 1 says Red is immediately to the left of Blue
— the only adjacent pair among houses 2-3 that fits "immediately left" is house 2=Red, house
3=Blue.
Remaining owners for houses 2 and 3: W and X. Clue 3 says X owns the house immediately to the
right of W’s house — so W and X must be adjacent, with X one position to the right of W. Since
houses 2 and 3 are adjacent, W=house 2, X=house 3.
Final: House 1 = Green, Y. House 2 = Red, W. House 3 = Blue, X. House 4 = Yellow, Z.
⚡ Quick Trick:
For house-row puzzles, place the EXPLICITLY NUMBERED clue first (here, "house number 1" directly
given), then use END-POSITION clues (Clue 4) to resolve by elimination, and finally use ADJACENCY
clues (Clues 1 and 3) on whatever houses remain — adjacency clues are easiest to apply last, once
only 2 houses are left to assign, since there’s only one possible adjacent ordering remaining.

Q7.
Five students — M, N, O, P, Q — are ranked 1st to 5th in a competition (1st = highest). Clues: (1) N
ranked higher than O but lower than M. (2) P ranked immediately below Q. (3) O did not rank last. (4) M
ranked 2nd.
Determine the full ranking from 1st to 5th.
Solution:
Clue 4 directly gives M = 2nd place.

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Clue 1 says N ranked higher than O but lower than M. Since M=2nd, N must rank lower than 2nd (so
3rd, 4th, or 5th) but higher than O.
Since M=2nd is already taken, and N must rank below M, the only rank ABOVE N’s possible range
that remains is 1st — meaning 1st place must go to someone other than M, N (since N is below M),
so 1st place belongs to either O, P, or Q.
Clue 3 says O did not rank last (5th). Combined with Clue 1 (N > O in rank, meaning N’s position
number is smaller/better than O’s), O cannot be 1st either (since something must rank between
potentially, but more directly, O must rank below N) — so O is restricted to 3rd or 4th place (not 1st
since O ranks below N who ranks below M=2nd, and not 5th per Clue 3).
Clue 2 says P ranked immediately below Q (Q’s rank number = P’s rank number − 1, i.e., Q is one
position better/higher than P). The remaining ranks to assign are 1st, 3rd, 4th, 5th to N, O, P, Q.
Since N must rank above O, and O is restricted to 3rd or 4th: if O=3rd, N must be better than 3rd,
but 1st and 2nd are the only better ranks, and 2nd is taken by M, so N=1st. If O=4th, N could be 1st
or 3rd.
Test O=3rd, N=1st: remaining ranks 4th, 5th for P and Q, with Q immediately above P (Q=4th, P=5th,
satisfying Clue 2). Check Clue 3: O=3rd, not last — satisfied. This is a fully consistent solution: N=1st,
M=2nd, O=3rd, Q=4th, P=5th.
Test O=4th, N=3rd (the alternative): remaining ranks 1st, 5th for P and Q — but Clue 2 requires Q
and P to be ADJACENT ranks (Q immediately above P), and 1st & 5th are not adjacent. This
alternative fails, confirming the first solution is the unique valid one.
Final: N=1st, M=2nd, O=3rd, Q=4th, P=5th.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When a clue gives a RELATIVE ordering chain (N > O, and N < M) combined with a fixed rank
(M=2nd), narrow down the possible rank RANGE for the chained person first, then test each
remaining possibility against the OTHER independent clue (Clue 2’s adjacency requirement here) to
instantly eliminate invalid branches — adjacency clues are powerful eliminators because they
require two SPECIFIC consecutive numbers, which most remaining leftover slots won’t satisfy.

Q8.
Four boxes (1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right) each contain a different number of marbles: 5, 8, 12, 15 (not in
that order). Clues: (1) Box 3 contains more marbles than Box 1. (2) Box 1 contains 5 marbles. (3) Box 2
contains 8 marbles. (4) Box 4 contains fewer marbles than Box 3.
Determine the marble count in each box.
Solution:
Clue 2 directly gives Box 1 = 5 marbles. Clue 3 directly gives Box 2 = 8 marbles.
Remaining values for Boxes 3 and 4: 12 and 15, in some order.
Clue 1 says Box 3 > Box 1 (5). Both 12 and 15 satisfy this, so Clue 1 alone doesn’t yet decide the
order — check Clue 4 next.
Clue 4 says Box 4 < Box 3. Between 12 and 15, Box 3 must take the larger value for this to hold: Box
3 = 15, and therefore Box 4 = 12 (by elimination).
Quick check: Box 3 (15) > Box 1 (5) ✓, and Box 4 (12) < Box 3 (15) ✓ — both clues hold.
Final: Box 1 = 5, Box 2 = 8, Box 3 = 15, Box 4 = 12.

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⚡ Quick Trick:
When two boxes are pinned down directly by name (Box 1 and Box 2 here), only two values remain
for the last two boxes — a single ">"/"<" clue between them is then enough to assign both instantly,
since there are only two ways to order a pair.

Q9.
Four couples attend a dinner party: Husbands H1, H2, H3, H4 and Wives W1, W2, W3, W4 (not
necessarily married to the correspondingly-numbered person).
Clues: (1) H1 is married to W3. (2) W1 is not married to H2. (3) H3 is married to either W1 or W4. (4) H4
is married to W2.
Determine each marriage pairing.
Solution:
Clue 1 directly gives: H1 — W3. Clue 4 directly gives: H4 — W2.
Since W3 and W2 are already paired (with H1 and H4), the remaining wives for H2 and H3 are W1
and W4.
Clue 2 says W1 is NOT married to H2 — so H2 must be married to W4 instead, and therefore H3 —
W1 (by elimination).
Check this against Clue 3: "H3 is married to either W1 or W4" — H3 = W1 fits this clue, since W1 is
one of the two allowed options.
Final: H1 — W3, H2 — W4, H3 — W1, H4 — W2.
⚡ Quick Trick:
When two pairings are given directly by name (H1-W3, H4-W2 here), only two wives remain for the
last two husbands — a single negative clue ("not married to") is then enough to force the entire
remaining assignment, since with just two options left, ruling one out automatically confirms the
other.

Q10.
Five runners — A, B, C, D, E — finish a race with no ties. Clues: (1) C finished before A but after E. (2) B
finished immediately after D. (3) D finished 1st.
Determine the finishing order from 1st to 5th.
Solution:
Clue 3 directly gives D = 1st place.
Clue 2 says B finished immediately after D → B = 2nd place (directly after 1st).
Clue 1 says C finished before A but after E — establishing the order: E, then C, then A (E before C, C
before A), i.e., E < C < A in finishing position (smaller number = earlier finish).
Remaining positions to assign: 3rd, 4th, 5th for E, C, A (in that relative order, per Clue 1: E gets the
smallest of these three position numbers, C the middle, A the largest).
Since E < C < A and they must occupy 3rd, 4th, 5th in increasing order: E = 3rd, C = 4th, A = 5th.
Final order: 1st=D, 2nd=B, 3rd=E, 4th=C, 5th=A.

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⚡ Quick Trick:
When a clue gives a strict three-way relative order (E before C before A) and exactly three positions
remain unassigned, you can directly map the relative order onto the remaining position numbers in
sequence (smallest remaining position to the first-mentioned, and so on) — no trial and error is
needed when the number of remaining slots exactly matches the number of items in the ordering
chain.

Q11.
Four friends — P, Q, R, S — each prefer a different beverage (Tea, Coffee, Juice, Water) and sit at a
different table position (North, South, East, West) at a cafe.
Clues: (1) The Tea drinker sits North. (2) P sits South and drinks Juice. (3) Q sits opposite P. (4) R does not
drink Coffee.
Determine each friend’s beverage and seating position. (Assume North-South and East-West are
opposite pairs.)
Solution:
Clue 2 directly gives: P = South, Juice.
Clue 3 says Q sits opposite P. Since P=South, and North-South are opposite, Q = North.
Clue 1 says the Tea drinker sits North. Since Q sits North, Q = Tea.
Remaining positions: East, West for R and S. Remaining beverages: Coffee, Water for R and S (since
Juice=P, Tea=Q).
Clue 4 says R does not drink Coffee — so R must drink Water (the only remaining option), and
therefore S drinks Coffee (by elimination).
Since positions (East, West) for R and S are not further distinguished by any clue, the puzzle confirms
beverages fully (P=Juice/South, Q=Tea/North, R=Water, S=Coffee) but leaves R and S’s exact
East/West assignment undetermined between themselves.
⚡ Quick Trick:
Not every puzzle clue-set fully determines EVERY variable — when you’ve used all given clues and
some attributes (like R/S’s exact East/West split here) remain genuinely undetermined, confidently
report what IS fully confirmed rather than guessing; recognizing the limits of the given information is
itself correct puzzle-solving, especially in puzzles that ask only about a SPECIFIC attribute (like
beverages) rather than every detail.

Q12.
Six people — A, B, C, D, E, F — sit around a circular table facing the center, evenly spaced. Convention:
facing the center, clockwise = to a person’s right, anticlockwise = to a person’s left.
Clues: (1) A sits opposite D. (2) B sits two seats to the right (clockwise) of A. (3) E sits immediately to the
right (clockwise) of D. (4) C sits opposite B. (5) F occupies the remaining seat.
Determine the complete seating arrangement.
Solution:

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With 6 people evenly spaced around a circle, number positions 1-6 clockwise. "Opposite" in a 6-seat
circle means exactly 3 seats apart (position p and position p+3, wrapping around after 6).
Place A at position 1 (reference point). Clue 1: A sits opposite D → D = position 1+3 = position 4.
Clue 2: B sits two seats clockwise (to the right) of A → B = position 1+2 = position 3.
Clue 4: C sits opposite B → C = position 3+3 = position 6 (wrapping around within 1-6).
Clue 3: E sits immediately clockwise (to the right) of D → D is at position 4, so E = position 4+1 =
position 5. Position 5 is open, so no conflict.
Positions filled so far: 1=A, 3=B, 4=D, 5=E, 6=C. Only position 2 remains open, which by Clue 5 goes
to F.
Final arrangement (positions 1-6 clockwise): 1=A, 2=F, 3=B, 4=D, 5=E, 6=C.
⚡ Quick Trick:
State your left/right convention explicitly before placing anyone, and stick to ONE direction (e.g.,
always treat "right" as clockwise) for every clue in the puzzle — this avoids the seat-conflict
confusion that comes from switching conventions mid-solution, and lets you place each person with
a single addition or subtraction from a fixed reference point.

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