Deep Research Notes: 12th HSC

Biology — Chapter 5: Origin and

Evolution of Life
These notes are designed for Maharashtra HSC Class 12 Biology and focus
on the chapter Origin and Evolution of Life. They combine textbook-
aligned concepts with exam-oriented explanations, common question
patterns, and quick-revision points so you can study the chapter deeply
and revise it efficiently before board exams.

1. Chapter Overview
 The chapter explains how life may have originated on Earth and how
living organisms changed over time.
 It covers theories of origin of life, chemical evolution, Darwinism,
mutation theory, modern synthetic theory, Hardy-Weinberg
principle, evidences of evolution, speciation, adaptive radiation,
geological time scale, and human evolution.
 For HSC exams, this chapter is important because it includes
definitions, short notes, differences, examples, scientific
explanations, and concept-based MCQs.

2. Detailed Concept Notes

2.1 Origin of Life (Protobiogenesis)
Scientists proposed different ideas to explain the origin of life. The theory
of special creation states that a supernatural power created life; it has
no scientific proof. The cosmozoic theory or panspermia suggests that
life came from outer space. The theory of spontaneous generation
claimed that life arose from non-living matter, but this was disproved by
experiments such as those of Louis Pasteur. The theory of biogenesis
states that life arises only from pre-existing life. To explain the first life,
the most accepted scientific idea in this chapter is chemical evolution.

Chemical evolution, developed mainly by Oparin and Haldane, proposes

that on primitive Earth, inorganic molecules gradually formed simple
organic molecules, then complex organic substances, and finally
precellular structures. A reducing atmosphere with gases such as
methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapour favored these reactions.
The sequence is generally explained as: inorganic substances → simple
organic molecules → complex organic molecules → colloidal
aggregates/protobionts → eobionts/protocells → first living cells. The Miller-
Urey experiment provided experimental support by showing that amino
acids can be synthesized under primitive Earth-like conditions.

2.2 Organic Evolution

Organic evolution means gradual heritable changes in populations over
generations, leading to adaptation and formation of new species. Charles
Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection. According to Darwin,
organisms produce more offspring than can survive, individuals show
variations, and those with favorable variations survive and reproduce
more successfully. Over time, useful variations accumulate in populations,
causing evolutionary change.

Darwinism alone could not fully explain the origin of variations. Later,
mutation theory emphasized sudden heritable changes called mutations
as a source of variation. The modern synthetic theory of evolution
combines Darwin’s natural selection with genetics. It explains
evolution through mutation, recombination, gene flow, genetic drift,
isolation, and natural selection acting together on populations.

2.3 Hardy-Weinberg Principle

The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that in a large, randomly mating
population with no mutation, migration, natural selection, or genetic drift,
allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation. If the
frequency of one allele is p and the other is q, then p + q = 1 and the
genotype frequencies are p² + 2pq + q² = 1, where p² represents
homozygous dominant, 2pq heterozygous, and q² homozygous recessive
individuals. Any factor disturbing this equilibrium can lead to evolution.

 Mutation: introduces new alleles.

 Gene migration/gene flow: movement of alleles between
populations.
 Genetic drift: random change in allele frequency, especially in
small populations.
 Recombination: creates new gene combinations.
 Natural selection: favors alleles that improve survival or
reproduction.
 Isolation: reduces gene exchange and promotes speciation.

2.4 Evidences of Evolution

Evolution is supported by several lines of evidence:
  Morphological and anatomical evidence: Homologous organs
indicate common ancestry, while analogous organs indicate
adaptation to similar functions. Example: forelimbs of
vertebrates are homologous; flippers of penguin and dolphin
are analogous.
 Vestigial organs: Reduced, functionless structures suggest
ancestry, e.g., human appendix and coccyx.
 Palaeontological evidence: Fossils show extinct forms and
transitional links, such as Archaeopteryx between reptiles and
birds.
 Embryological evidence: Early embryos of vertebrates show
similarities, indicating common origin.
 Connecting links: Organisms possessing features of two groups
help trace evolutionary relationships.
 Molecular evidence: Similarities in DNA, RNA, proteins, and
genetic code support common descent.

2.5 Speciation and Adaptive Radiation

Speciation is the formation of new species from existing populations. It
often occurs when reproductive isolation develops. Isolating mechanisms
may be premating or postmating. Examples include geographical
isolation, seasonal isolation, behavioural isolation, mechanical isolation,
and hybrid sterility. Adaptive radiation refers to the evolution of
different species from a common ancestor into various ecological niches.
It is an example of divergent evolution.

2.6 Geological Time Scale

The geological time scale divides Earth’s history into eras and periods.
Important evolutionary events are placed on this scale to show the
sequence of appearance of life forms. Broadly, early simple life appeared
first, then fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals, and finally
modern humans much later. Remember the sequence rather than
excessive dates unless specifically required.

3. Human Evolution Timeline

 Dryopithecus: ape-like ancestor.
 Ramapithecus: more man-like jaw features.
 Australopithecus: connecting link between ape and man; walked
more upright.
 Homo habilis: known as handyman; better brain development and
tool use.
  Homo erectus: fully upright posture, improved hunting and use of
fire.
 Neanderthal man: robust body, cranial capacity around 1400 cc,
lived in caves.
 Cro-Magnon man: advanced skills, art, and social behavior.
 Modern man (Homo sapiens sapiens): highly developed brain,
language, culture, and technology.

3A. Deep Detailed Research on Human

Evolution
In science, the “real evolution of humans” means the evidence-based
history of how the human lineage changed over millions of years through
descent with modification. It does not mean that modern humans came
from the monkeys or apes living today. Instead, humans, chimpanzees,
bonobos, gorillas, and orangutans share ancient common ancestors, and
the human lineage followed its own branch. The strongest current
scientific view is that Homo sapiens evolved in Africa, and that human
evolution was branching, not a straight ladder. Many hominin species
lived at different times, and some overlapped with one another. Fossils,
stone tools, footprints, comparative anatomy, and genetics together
support this conclusion.

3A.1 Scientific Consensus: Common Ancestry and

African Origin
Current scientific evidence supports that the human lineage split from the
lineage leading to chimpanzees and bonobos roughly 6–7 million years
ago. Early hominins then evolved in Africa. The oldest known fossils of
Homo sapiens are from Africa and are about 300,000 years old.
Modern humans later dispersed outward in multiple waves, with a major
expansion out of Africa occurring roughly 70,000–50,000 years ago.
This explains why human evolution is often described using the Out of
Africa model, while also recognizing that different African populations
likely exchanged genes over long periods before and during the rise of
modern humans.

3A.2 Major Stages in Human Evolution

1. Early hominins: The earliest members of the human lineage
showed the first steps toward upright posture. These forms were not
fully modern humans but help show the beginning of bipedal
adaptation.
 2. Australopithecus: These were small-brained but more regularly
bipedal hominins. Australopithecus afarensis, represented by the
famous fossil “Lucy,” shows that walking on two legs evolved before
major brain enlargement.
3. Early Homo: Forms such as Homo habilis are associated with
increased brain size and simple stone tools. This stage shows the
beginning of clearer human-like hand use and behavioral flexibility.
4. Homo erectus: This species had a more modern body plan, larger
brain, longer legs, and efficient walking. It was the first human
species known to spread out of Africa. It is also strongly associated
with more advanced stone tools and probable controlled use of fire.
5. Archaic humans: Later forms such as Homo heidelbergensis are
often considered close to the ancestry of Neanderthals, Denisovans,
and modern humans.
6. Neanderthals and Denisovans: These were close human
relatives, not direct modern humans. They had complex behavior
and interbred with ancestors of some present-day human
populations.
7. Homo sapiens: Anatomically modern humans evolved in Africa and
later spread to the rest of the world. Our species shows a rounded
skull, smaller face, prominent chin, advanced symbolic behavior,
and complex language and culture.

3A.3 Key Changes During Human Evolution

 Bipedalism: One of the earliest major changes. The vertebral
column, pelvis, femur, foot, and skull base gradually changed to
support upright walking.
 Hands freed for manipulation: As bipedalism improved, hands
became more available for carrying, tool use, and fine control.
 Brain enlargement: Brain size increased over time, especially in
the genus Homo. This supported better planning, memory, social
behavior, and learning.
 Changes in teeth and jaws: Reduction in jaw size and canine
teeth reflects dietary changes and different food processing
methods.
 Tool culture: Stone tools became increasingly sophisticated, from
Oldowan tools to Acheulean hand axes and later blades.
 Control of fire: Fire likely improved diet, safety, and social
interaction.
 Language and symbolic behavior: Although difficult to date
precisely, art, ornamentation, burials, and cultural complexity
suggest advanced communication and abstract thought in later
humans.
3A.4 Evidence for Human Evolution
Human evolution is supported by multiple independent lines of evidence
that agree with one another:

 Fossils: Fossil skulls, teeth, pelvis, limbs, and footprints show

gradual changes in posture, gait, brain size, and facial structure
over time.
 Archaeological evidence: Stone tools, hearths, pigments,
ornaments, and shelters reveal increasing behavioral complexity.
 Comparative anatomy: Human skeletons share many features
with other primates but also show distinct modifications for upright
walking and precision grip.
 Genetics: DNA comparisons show that humans are closely related
to chimpanzees and that modern humans carry traces of
interbreeding with Neanderthals and Denisovans.
 Dating methods: Radiometric dating and other techniques help
place fossils and tools in correct time order.

3A.5 Common Misconceptions About Human Evolution

 Misconception 1: Humans came from modern monkeys.
Correct idea: Humans and modern monkeys are different branches
that share distant ancestors.
 Misconception 2: Evolution is a straight line from ape to
human.
Correct idea: Human evolution is branching, with many species
existing at different times.
 Misconception 3: Bigger brain came first.
Correct idea: Bipedalism evolved earlier; major brain enlargement
came later.
 Misconception 4: Evolution has stopped in humans.
Correct idea: Human populations still evolve, but modern culture
and medicine influence selective pressures differently.
 Misconception 5: Neanderthals were simply ‘primitive
cavemen’.
Correct idea: They were highly adapted humans with tools, social
behavior, and culture.

3A.6 Board Exam Key Points on Human Evolution

 Human evolution is supported by fossils, anatomy, archaeology, and
genetics.
 Humans did not evolve from modern apes; humans and apes share
common ancestors.
 Bipedalism evolved before major increase in brain size.
  Australopithecus shows early upright walking.
 Homo habilis is linked with early tool use.
 Homo erectus had a more modern body form and spread out of
Africa.
 Homo sapiens originated in Africa and later spread globally.
 Human evolution is branching and complex, not a simple ladder.

Important note for study: Board textbooks often present a simplified

sequence for easy learning. Modern scientific research shows that human
evolution is more complex, with overlapping species and branching
lineages. For exams, learn the textbook sequence well, but for deep
understanding, remember that the actual history of human evolution is a
branching family tree.

3A.7 Truth vs Myth Table on Human Evolution

Myth Scientific Truth

Humans did not evolve from the monkeys

Humans came directly from
or apes alive today. Humans and other apes
modern monkeys or apes.
share ancient common ancestors.

Human evolution is branching, with many

Human evolution is a straight
hominin species appearing, overlapping,
line from ape to man.
and going extinct at different times.

Bipedalism evolved earlier, while major

Bigger brain evolved first. brain enlargement happened later in the
genus Homo.

Neanderthals were highly adapted humans

Neanderthals were simply
with tools, social behavior, and culture, and
primitive cavemen and not
they were close relatives of modern
advanced.
humans.

Evolution continues in human populations,

Evolution means humans are
but changes occur over long periods and
still turning into a completely
are influenced by environment, culture, and
different species right now.
selection.

There was only one direct The human lineage included multiple
path leading to modern species and side branches. Evolution was
humans. more like a family tree than a ladder.

Human evolution is supported by fossils,

One fossil alone proves
footprints, tools, comparative anatomy,
human evolution.
genetics, and dating methods together.
Modern humans originated The strongest scientific evidence supports
independently in many that Homo sapiens evolved in Africa and
unrelated places without later spread globally, while also interacting
shared ancestry. with some other human groups.

3B. Deep Detailed Research on Bird

Evolution
In modern biology, the real scientific explanation is that birds evolved
from small theropod dinosaurs. This means that birds are not just
related to dinosaurs; they are the living descendants of one dinosaur
lineage. The change from non-avian dinosaurs to early birds was gradual
and happened through many intermediate forms over millions of years.
Modern evidence from fossils, skeletons, feathers, and evolutionary trees
strongly supports this view. In simple words, the scientific truth is that
modern birds are living dinosaurs.

3B.1 Scientific Consensus: Birds Evolved from Theropod

Dinosaurs
The strongest current scientific consensus is that birds evolved within a
group of bipedal, mostly carnivorous dinosaurs called theropods,
especially close to the branch known as maniraptorans. This conclusion
became especially strong after the discovery of many feathered dinosaur
fossils in China and elsewhere. These fossils showed that several
structures once thought to be unique to birds had already begun evolving
in non-avian dinosaurs. Feathers likely appeared before true flight and
may first have served functions such as insulation, display,
camouflage, or egg-brooding. Later, in one lineage, feathers and
forelimbs became modified for gliding and then powered flight.

3B.2 Archaeopteryx and Other Transitional Fossils

Archaeopteryx is one of the most important fossils in evolutionary
biology. It lived about 150 million years ago in the Late Jurassic period
and shows a mixture of bird-like and dinosaur-like traits. It had feathers,
wings, and flight-related features like a bird, but also had teeth,
clawed fingers, and a long bony tail like a non-avian dinosaur. This is
why it is often described as a connecting link between reptiles and
birds in textbooks. Modern research suggests it was a very early bird or a
close avialan relative, helping show the transition from small theropod
dinosaurs to birds.
  Sinosauropteryx: showed simple filament-like feathers, proving
that feathers existed in non-avian dinosaurs.
 Microraptor: a small feathered dinosaur with flight feathers on
both forelimbs and hindlimbs, suggesting that early flight evolution
was complex and may have included gliding stages.
 Anchiornis: another feathered dinosaur showing that bird-like
plumage evolved before modern birds fully appeared.
 Early avialans: several fossils reveal gradual reduction of the tail,
changes in the hand, and increasing flight adaptation.

3B.3 Origin of Feathers and Flight

Feathers did not evolve only for flight. The fossil record indicates that
simple feathers appeared first and gradually became more complex. The
general trend was from simple hair-like filaments to branched downy
feathers, then to pennaceous feathers with a central shaft and barbs,
and finally to asymmetrical flight feathers useful in flight. This strongly
suggests that feathers first had non-flight functions and were later co-
opted for flight.

 Tree-down hypothesis: Ancestors first climbed and glided from

heights.
 Ground-up hypothesis: Running animals used forelimbs to
generate lift while chasing prey or escaping danger.
 Current understanding: The origin of flight was likely not a single
simple event. Different feathered dinosaurs may have used wings
for balance, display, brooding, gliding, wing-assisted incline running,
and eventually powered flight.

3B.4 Anatomical Evidence Linking Dinosaurs and Birds

 Wishbone (furcula): found in birds and many theropod dinosaurs.
 Hollow bones: light but strong bones occur in both groups.
 Three-toed limbs: characteristic theropod pattern is reflected in
birds.
 Feathers: preserved in many non-avian theropods.
 Egg-laying and nesting behavior: dinosaur fossils show
brooding-like behavior similar to birds.
 Wrist and forelimb structure: important for the folding motion
that later became the wing stroke.
 Air-filled bone systems and advanced respiration: some
theropods show evidence of bird-like respiratory adaptations.
3B.5 What Is the “Real Truth” About Bird Evolution?
The real scientific truth is not merely that “birds evolved from reptiles” in
a very broad sense. The more accurate modern statement is that birds
evolved from a specific group of reptiles called theropod
dinosaurs. Therefore, birds are one surviving branch of the dinosaur
family tree. This is why paleontologists often say that birds are living
dinosaurs. The older board-textbook sentence is useful for exams, but
the deeper scientific view is more precise and better supported by fossils
and anatomy.

3B.6 Common Misconceptions About Bird Evolution

 Misconception 1: Birds appeared suddenly.
Correct idea: Bird evolution was gradual, with many transitional
fossil forms.
 Misconception 2: Feathers evolved only for flight.
Correct idea: Feathers likely first evolved for insulation, display, or
other functions.
 Misconception 3: Archaeopteryx was exactly like a modern
bird.
Correct idea: It had both bird-like and dinosaur-like features.
 Misconception 4: Birds are not dinosaurs.
Correct idea: Scientifically, modern birds are part of the dinosaur
lineage.
 Misconception 5: One fossil alone proves everything.
Correct idea: The conclusion comes from many fossils, anatomy, and
evolutionary analysis together.

3B.7 Board Exam Key Points on Bird Evolution

 Birds evolved from theropod dinosaurs.
 Archaeopteryx is an important connecting link between reptiles
and birds.
 Birds and theropod dinosaurs share many anatomical features such
as furcula, hollow bones, and three-toed limbs.
 Feathers evolved before complete powered flight.
 Flight likely evolved through multiple functional stages.
 Modern birds are the surviving avian branch of the dinosaur lineage.

Important study note: For HSC answers, you can safely write that
Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and birds. For
deeper scientific understanding, remember the more exact statement:
birds evolved from small feathered theropod dinosaurs.
3B.8 Truth vs Myth Table on Bird Evolution
Myth Scientific Truth

Birds appeared suddenly

Bird evolution was gradual and involved many
as fully formed flying
transitional forms over millions of years.
animals.

Birds evolved from reptiles

More precisely, birds evolved from a specific
only in a vague general
group of reptiles called theropod dinosaurs.
sense.

Feathers likely first evolved for insulation,

Feathers evolved only for
display, camouflage, or brooding, and were
flight.
later adapted for flight.

Archaeopteryx was exactly Archaeopteryx had both bird-like and dinosaur-

the same as a modern like features, making it an important
bird. transitional form.

Evolution changes structures gradually.

If birds came from
Modern birds retain many dinosaur features
dinosaurs, they should
but also evolved specialized traits for flight
look exactly like dinosaurs.
and other lifestyles.

Bird evolution is supported by many fossils,

One fossil alone proves
comparative anatomy, feather evidence, and
bird evolution.
evolutionary analysis together.

Scientifically, modern birds are living

Birds are not dinosaurs. descendants of one dinosaur lineage and are
considered living dinosaurs.

4. Key Terms and Formulae

 Evolution: gradual heritable change in populations over
generations.
 Variation: differences among individuals of a species.
 Natural selection: differential survival and reproduction of better-
adapted individuals.
 Gene pool: total collection of genes in a population.
 Gene frequency: proportion of an allele in a population.
 Speciation: formation of new species.
 Adaptive radiation: diversification from a common ancestor into
different niches.
 Hardy-Weinberg formula: p + q = 1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1.
5. Common Exam Questions with Answer
Hints
1. Explain chemical evolution of life.
Answer hint: Mention primitive atmosphere, formation of simple and
complex organic molecules, protobionts, and first cells.
2. State Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer hint: Overproduction, struggle for existence, variations,
survival of the fittest, inheritance of favorable variations.
3. Explain Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Answer hint: Define equilibrium, write formula, and mention factors
that disturb equilibrium.
4. Write evidences of evolution.
Answer hint: Explain homologous organs, analogous organs, fossils,
vestigial organs, embryology, and molecular evidence with
examples.
5. What is adaptive radiation?
Answer hint: Define it, mention divergent evolution, and provide an
example from a common ancestor adapting to different habitats.
6. Describe human evolution in brief.
Answer hint: Write the sequence from ape-like ancestors to modern
humans with 1–2 features of each.
7. Define speciation and explain isolating mechanisms.
Answer hint: Define speciation, then list premating and postmating
barriers.

6. Common Mistakes to Avoid

 Do not confuse homologous and analogous organs.
 Do not write Hardy-Weinberg equations incorrectly; remember both
p + q = 1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1.
 Do not say Darwin explained the origin of first life; Darwin explained
evolution by natural selection.
 Do not forget that mutation is random and non-directional.
 Do not skip examples in short answers; examples often increase
clarity and marks.
 In human evolution, remember the sequence and one identifying
feature of each stage.

7. One-Page Quick Revision Checklist

 Revise theories of origin of life.
  Learn the sequence of chemical evolution.
 Practice Darwinism and modern synthetic theory in point form.
 Memorize Hardy-Weinberg principle and its disturbing factors.
 Prepare 2–3 examples each of homologous, analogous, vestigial
organs, and fossils.
 Learn definition and examples of speciation and adaptive radiation.
 Revise human evolution sequence and key features.
 Practice textbook MCQs and short answers from this chapter.

NEET 2026 Full-Length Practice

Question Paper
This NEET-style practice paper follows the current pattern of 180
compulsory MCQs for 720 marks: Physics (45), Chemistry (45), and
Biology (90). Marking scheme: +4 for each correct answer, -1 for each
incorrect answer, and 0 for unattempted questions. Recommended time:
180 minutes.

NEET 2026 Practice Paper – Physics

(Questions 1–45)
1. The escape velocity from Earth’s surface is approximately: (A) 7.9
km/s (B) 11.2 km/s (C) 3.2 km/s (D) 15 km/s
2. For a satellite in circular orbit, the gravitational force provides: (A)
tension (B) work (C) centripetal force (D) torque
3. In a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the change in
internal energy is: (A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) cannot be
determined
4. The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors 3 µF and 6 µF in series
is: (A) 9 µF (B) 2 µF (C) 4.5 µF (D) 18 µF
5. The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to: (A) charge
(B) momentum (C) energy only (D) mass only
6. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. After 30 days, the
remaining fraction is: (A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/16
7. The power factor in a purely resistive AC circuit is: (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1/2
(D) depends on frequency
8. In an n-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are: (A)
holes (B) protons (C) electrons (D) neutrons
9. Which color of visible light has the highest frequency? (A) Red (B)
Yellow (C) Green (D) Violet
10. The drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is of the order of:
(A) speed of light (B) a few m/s or less (C) 10⁸ m/s (D) zero always
11. When a sound wave travels from air into water, its frequency:
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains constant (D) becomes zero
12. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and radius R about
its central axis is: (A) MR² (B) 1/2 MR² (C) 2MR² (D) 1/4 MR²
13. For a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate:
(A) along the direction of propagation (B) opposite to propagation
(C) perpendicular to propagation (D) randomly
14. The unit of magnetic flux is: (A) tesla (B) weber (C) henry (D)
farad
15. If two cells of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in
series, the total emf and internal resistance are: (A) E, r (B) 2E, r/2
(C) 2E, 2r (D) E/2, 2r
1. A body moving with uniform speed in a circle has: (A) constant
velocity (B) variable velocity (C) zero acceleration (D) zero
momentum
2. If the net external force on a system is zero, its linear momentum
remains: (A) zero (B) constant (C) increasing (D) decreasing
3. The dimensional formula of work is: (A) ML²T⁻² (B) MLT⁻² (C) ML²T⁻¹
(D) M⁰L⁰T⁰
4. When the temperature of a metal wire increases, its resistance
generally: (A) decreases (B) becomes zero (C) increases (D) remains
unchanged
5. A convex lens always forms a virtual image when the object is
placed: (A) at infinity (B) between F and 2F (C) beyond 2F (D)
between optical center and focus
6. The SI unit of electric field is: (A) volt (B) newton/coulomb (C) ohm
(D) tesla
7. The magnetic field at the center of a circular current-carrying loop is
directly proportional to: (A) radius (B) current (C) resistance only (D)
time period
8. In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is: (A) constant and positive
(B) directly proportional to displacement (C) opposite and
proportional to displacement (D) independent of displacement
9. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on: (A) pressure
difference only (B) temperatures of source and sink (C) working
substance only (D) volume only
10. The refractive index of a medium is maximum for: (A) red light
(B) yellow light (C) green light (D) violet light
11. If a projectile is fired at 45° with speed u, its horizontal range
is: (A) u²/2g (B) u²/g (C) 2u²/g (D) u/g
12. The RMS value of alternating current is equal to: (A) peak
value (B) half peak value (C) peak value/√2 (D) √2 × peak value
13. The stopping potential in the photoelectric effect depends on:
(A) intensity only (B) frequency only (C) distance from source only
(D) area of metal surface only
14. A transformer works on the principle of: (A) electrostatic
induction (B) self induction only (C) mutual induction (D)
rectification
15. For a body in equilibrium under three coplanar forces, the
vector sum of forces is: (A) one (B) infinite (C) zero (D) equal to
torque
1. The potential energy of a spring is: (A) 1/2 kx² (B) kx (C) mgx (D) k/x
2. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives: (A) displacement (B)
acceleration (C) momentum (D) jerk always
3. Which law explains the buoyant force on an immersed body? (A)
Newton’s law (B) Pascal’s law (C) Archimedes’ principle (D) Hooke’s
law
4. In Young’s double-slit experiment, fringe width is proportional to: (A)
slit separation (B) wavelength (C) 1/distance to screen (D)
1/wavelength
5. The SI unit of self-inductance is: (A) weber (B) henry (C) tesla (D)
ampere
6. The nucleus consists of: (A) electrons and protons (B) neutrons only
(C) protons and neutrons (D) electrons only
7. If the frequency of a wave doubles and speed remains same,
wavelength becomes: (A) double (B) half (C) four times (D)
unchanged
8. The relation between pressure P, volume V and temperature T for an
ideal gas is: (A) PV = constant for all cases (B) PV = nRT (C) P/T =
constant always (D) V/T = constant always
9. The electric power consumed by a resistor R connected across
voltage V is: (A) V/R (B) VR (C) V²/R (D) R²/V
10. A prism disperses white light because different colors have
different: (A) amplitudes (B) frequencies in vacuum only (C)
refractive indices in the prism (D) speeds in vacuum
11. For total internal reflection to occur, light must travel from: (A)
rarer to denser medium (B) denser to rarer medium (C) vacuum to
air only (D) air to vacuum only
12. The charge on an electron is: (A) +1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C (B) -1.6 ×
10⁻¹⁹ C (C) 0 C (D) -1.6 × 10⁻¹⁶ C
13. The SI unit of resistivity is: (A) ohm (B) ohm metre (C) siemens
(D) volt metre
 14. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on:
(A) intensity of incident light only (B) frequency of incident light (C)
area of plate (D) distance of source
15. In a p-n junction diode under forward bias, the depletion
region: (A) widens (B) remains same (C) narrows (D) disappears
completely in all cases

NEET 2026 Practice Paper – Chemistry

(Questions 46–90)
1. The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO₄ is: (A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +6 (D) +7
2. Avogadro number is: (A) 6.022 × 10²³ (B) 3.011 × 10²³ (C) 1.66 ×
10⁻²⁴ (D) 22.4 × 10²³
3. The hybridization of carbon in methane is: (A) sp (B) sp² (C) sp³ (D)
dsp²
4. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is: (A) 0 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 1
5. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? (A) Li (B) Na
(C) K (D) Cs
6. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is: (A) methanol (B) ethanol (C)
propanol (D) ethanal
7. Which gas is evolved when zinc reacts with dilute HCl? (A) O₂ (B)
CO₂ (C) H₂ (D) Cl₂
8. The coordination number of Ni in [Ni(CO)₄] is: (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
9. The shape of BF₃ molecule is: (A) tetrahedral (B) trigonal planar (C)
bent (D) octahedral
10. Which of the following is an example of a thermosetting
polymer? (A) PVC (B) Bakelite (C) Polythene (D) Nylon-6
11. The unit of molarity is: (A) mol kg⁻¹ (B) mol L⁻¹ (C) g L⁻¹ (D) eq
L⁻¹
12. The number of moles in 44 g of CO₂ is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D)
44
13. Which orbital has the highest energy in a multielectron atom
among the following? (A) 3s (B) 3p (C) 4s (D) 3d
14. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by: (A) increasing ΔH
(B) increasing activation energy (C) decreasing activation energy (D)
changing equilibrium constant
15. Which of the following acids is a weak acid? (A) HCl (B) HNO₃
(C) CH₃COOH (D) H₂SO₄
1. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing pressure favors the
side with: (A) more moles of gas (B) fewer moles of gas (C) no gases
(D) more solids
2. The bond order of O₂ is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2.5
3. Glucose on reduction gives: (A) gluconic acid (B) sorbitol (C) ethanol
(D) fructose
4. The reagent used in the carbylamine test is: (A) NaOH and CHCl₃ (B)
Fehling solution (C) Tollen’s reagent (D) NaHSO₃
5. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism? (A) Butane (B)
But-2-ene (C) Ethane (D) Methane
6. Among halogens, the most reactive is: (A) F₂ (B) Cl₂ (C) Br₂ (D) I₂
7. The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid and strong base is
approximately: (A) 0 kJ mol⁻¹ (B) -57 kJ mol⁻¹ (C) +57 kJ mol⁻¹ (D) -
5.7 kJ mol⁻¹
8. Which of the following is aromatic? (A) Cyclohexane (B) Benzene (C)
Cyclobutane (D) Ethene
9. The oxidation of primary alcohol first gives: (A) ketone (B) aldehyde
(C) ether (D) ester
10. Which one is a colligative property? (A) Viscosity (B) Surface
tension (C) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (D) Density
11. In electrolysis of brine, the gas liberated at the anode is: (A)
H₂ (B) O₂ (C) Cl₂ (D) N₂
12. The central atom in SF₆ undergoes which hybridization? (A) sp³
(B) sp³d (C) sp³d² (D) dsp²
13. Which is the monomer of natural rubber? (A) Isoprene (B)
Styrene (C) Vinyl chloride (D) Ethylene glycol
14. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is: (A) +2 (B) +4 (C)
+6 (D) -2
15. The correct order of atomic radius is: (A) Na < Mg < Al (B) Al
< Mg < Na (C) Mg < Na < Al (D) Al < Na < Mg
1. Which biomolecule acts as the genetic material in most organisms?
(A) Protein (B) DNA (C) RNA only (D) Lipid
2. The common oxidation state of lanthanides is: (A) +1 (B) +2 (C) +3
(D) +4
3. Tollen’s reagent is used to test: (A) aldehydes (B) alkanes (C)
alkynes (D) esters
4. The compound CH₃COOC₂H₅ belongs to the functional group: (A)
aldehyde (B) ketone (C) ester (D) ether
5. Which of the following has maximum boiling point? (A) CH₄ (B) NH₃

6. For the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, the catalyst used in Haber

(C) H₂O (D) HF

process is: (A) Ni (B) Pt (C) finely divided Fe (D) Cu

7. The number of sigma bonds in ethyne is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
8. Rancidity in oils is mainly due to: (A) reduction (B) oxidation (C)
hydrolysis only (D) polymerization
9. Which vitamin is synthesized in skin on exposure to sunlight? (A)
Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin K
 10. The compound used as antiseptic among the following is: (A)
phenol (B) methane (C) benzene (D) toluene
11. Which of the following is a nucleophile? (A) H⁺ (B) NO₂⁺ (C)
OH⁻ (D) AlCl₃
12. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is called: (A)
hydration (B) fermentation (C) hydrogenation (D) dehydration
13. The valency of carbon in most of its compounds is: (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
14. The gas responsible for the green house effect among the
following is: (A) He (B) CO₂ (C) Ne (D) Ar
15. Which of the following is an addition polymer? (A) Nylon-6,6
(B) Bakelite (C) Polythene (D) Terylene

NEET 2026 Practice Paper – Biology

(Questions 91–180)
1. The powerhouse of the cell is: (A) ribosome (B) mitochondrion (C)
lysosome (D) Golgi body
2. The functional unit of kidney is: (A) neuron (B) nephron (C) alveolus
(D) villus
3. Which hormone regulates blood glucose level? (A) thyroxine (B)
insulin (C) adrenaline (D) estrogen
4. The site of photosynthesis in plant cells is: (A) chloroplast (B)
nucleus (C) vacuole (D) peroxisome
5. Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments because: (A) they
are poisonous (B) they have clear contrasting traits (C) they are
aquatic (D) they lack flowers
6. The chromosome number in human somatic cells is: (A) 23 (B) 46
(C) 44 (D) 92
7. DNA replication is described as: (A) conservative (B) semi-
conservative (C) dispersive only (D) random
8. The basic unit of classification is: (A) phylum (B) class (C) species
(D) family
9. Which blood cells help in clotting? (A) RBCs (B) WBCs (C) platelets
(D) plasma cells
10. The process by which plants lose water vapour is: (A)
respiration (B) transpiration (C) guttation (D) translocation
11. In humans, fertilization normally occurs in the: (A) uterus (B)
ovary (C) fallopian tube (D) cervix
12. The genetic material in most organisms is: (A) protein (B) DNA
(C) RNA only (D) lipid
13. Which of the following is a connective tissue? (A) blood (B)
neuron (C) epidermis (D) muscle fiber
14. The green pigment in plants is: (A) xanthophyll (B) carotene
(C) chlorophyll (D) anthocyanin
15. Evolutionary selection favoring average individuals is called:
(A) disruptive selection (B) directional selection (C) stabilizing
selection (D) artificial selection
1. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by: (A)
Watson and Crick (B) Singer and Nicolson (C) Mendel and Morgan
(D) Darwin and Wallace
2. Which tissue is responsible for conduction of water in plants? (A)
phloem (B) xylem (C) cambium (D) cortex
3. During glycolysis, glucose is converted into: (A) acetyl CoA (B)
pyruvate (C) lactic acid only (D) citric acid
4. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy? (A) vitamin A (B) vitamin
B₁₂ (C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D
5. The causative organism of malaria is: (A) Plasmodium (B)
Entamoeba (C) Trypanosoma (D) Ascaris
6. Crossing over occurs during: (A) prophase I (B) metaphase I (C)
anaphase II (D) telophase
7. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by: (A) companion
cells (B) guard cells (C) sieve tubes (D) trichomes
8. Which one is a nitrogen-fixing microorganism? (A) Rhizobium (B)
Lactobacillus (C) Amoeba (D) Yeast
9. ABO blood group in humans is an example of: (A) incomplete
dominance (B) polygenic inheritance (C) multiple allelism (D) linkage
10. In a food chain, the ultimate source of energy is: (A) plants (B)
sun (C) decomposers (D) soil
11. The antibody-producing cells are: (A) RBCs (B) B-lymphocytes
(C) neutrophils (D) platelets
12. The process of formation of RNA from DNA is called: (A)
translation (B) transcription (C) translocation (D) replication
13. The end products of aerobic respiration are: (A) ethanol and
CO₂ (B) lactic acid and ATP (C) CO₂, H₂O and ATP (D) pyruvate only
14. Which part of the brain maintains posture and balance? (A)
cerebrum (B) cerebellum (C) medulla (D) hypothalamus
15. One gene one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by: (A)
Beadle and Tatum (B) Watson and Crick (C) Mendel and de Vries (D)
Jacob and Monod
1. The tissue culture technique commonly used for rapid plant
propagation is: (A) layering (B) micropropagation (C) grafting (D)
budding
2. Which of the following is an excretory product in plants? (A) urea
only (B) resins and gums (C) ammonia only (D) bile pigments
3. The normal ratio in monohybrid cross in F₂ generation is: (A) 1:1 (B)
3:1 (C) 9:3:3:1 (D) 1:2:1 only phenotypic
4. Which RNA carries amino acids to ribosome? (A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C)
rRNA (D) snRNA
5. The biggest ecosystem on Earth is: (A) desert (B) grassland (C)
ocean (D) pond
6. Auxins are mainly associated with: (A) fruit ripening (B) cell
elongation (C) dormancy only (D) leaf fall only
7. Which chamber of human heart pumps oxygenated blood to the
body? (A) right atrium (B) right ventricle (C) left atrium (D) left
ventricle
8. The sequence of bases in DNA is read in triplets called: (A)
anticodons (B) codons (C) operons (D) exons only
9. Which one is a sexually transmitted disease? (A) typhoid (B)
tuberculosis (C) gonorrhoea (D) malaria
10. The enzyme RuBisCO is related to: (A) glycolysis (B) Krebs
cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) photorespiration only
11. The science of naming organisms is called: (A) ecology (B)
taxonomy (C) anatomy (D) physiology
12. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in humans? (A)
heart (B) appendix (C) liver (D) pancreas
13. The male reproductive part of a flower is: (A) carpel (B) pistil
(C) stamen (D) ovule
14. The branch of biology dealing with heredity and variation is:
(A) morphology (B) ecology (C) genetics (D) palaeontology
15. In biotechnology, PCR is used for: (A) protein denaturation
only (B) DNA amplification (C) RNA destruction (D) lipid synthesis
1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by: (A) Lamarck (B)
Darwin (C) de Vries (D) Pasteur
2. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
(A) pulmonary artery (B) vena cava (C) pulmonary vein (D) aorta
3. The organelle responsible for packaging and secretion is: (A)
ribosome (B) Golgi apparatus (C) centriole (D) nucleolus
4. Double fertilization is characteristic of: (A) gymnosperms (B)
angiosperms (C) pteridophytes (D) bryophytes
5. The universal donor blood group is: (A) AB+ (B) O- (C) A+ (D) B-
6. The term ecosystem was coined by: (A) Odum (B) Tansley (C) Darwin
(D) Haeckel
7. The nitrogenous base absent in RNA is: (A) adenine (B) guanine (C)
cytosine (D) thymine
8. Which phase is called the synthetic phase of cell cycle? (A) G₁ (B) S
(C) G₂ (D) M
9. Transpiration pull helps in: (A) phloem transport only (B) ascent of
sap (C) respiration (D) pollination
10. Insulin is secreted by: (A) liver (B) pancreas (C) thyroid (D)
adrenal
11. The site of Krebs cycle is: (A) cytoplasm (B) mitochondrial
matrix (C) nucleus (D) ribosome
12. Which one is an amphibian? (A) crocodile (B) salamander (C)
sparrow (D) lizard
13. In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, p² + 2pq + q² equals: (A) p + q
(B) 0 (C) 1 (D) q² only
14. Which of the following is not a contraceptive method? (A) IUD
(B) condom (C) insulin injection (D) oral pills
15. The living component of biosphere is called: (A) abiotic factor
(B) biotic factor (C) niche (D) habitat only
1. The phenomenon of appearance of recombinants due to crossing
over shows: (A) linkage only (B) variation (C) cloning (D) mutation
only
2. Which of the following is a biofertilizer? (A) urea (B) Rhizobium
culture (C) DDT (D) superphosphate
3. The study of fossils is called: (A) histology (B) palaeontology (C)
cytology (D) embryology
4. Photolysis of water occurs in: (A) PSI only (B) PSII (C) Calvin cycle
(D) glycolysis
5. The human immunodeficiency virus attacks mainly: (A) RBCs (B)
helper T-lymphocytes (C) platelets (D) neurons
6. The movement of minerals from soil into root cells against
concentration gradient requires: (A) diffusion (B) osmosis (C) active
transport (D) plasmolysis
7. Which one is an example of homologous organs? (A) wings of bat
and butterfly (B) flippers of whale and forelimbs of horse (C) eyes of
octopus and man (D) wings of bird and insect
8. The sequence of nitrogen bases on mRNA determines the sequence
of: (A) fatty acids (B) amino acids in protein (C) sugars (D) vitamins
9. Which hormone is responsible for metamorphosis in frog? (A) insulin
(B) thyroxine (C) prolactin (D) testosterone
10. The small openings on leaf surface are called: (A) lenticels (B)
stomata (C) hydathodes (D) trichomes
11. Ecological pyramids are generally upright for: (A) number in
tree ecosystem always (B) energy (C) biomass in pond always (D)
none
12. Test tube baby technique involves: (A) cloning (B) in vitro
fertilization (C) artificial insemination only (D) tissue culture only
13. The vector used in gene cloning is usually: (A) plasmid (B)
chromosome (C) ribosome (D) lysosome
14. The first stable product of C₄ cycle is: (A) PGA (B) PEP (C)
oxaloacetic acid (D) RuBP
15. Which of the following is an autotroph? (A) mushroom (B)
Nitrosomonas (C) human (D) tapeworm
1. The process of cell eating is called: (A) pinocytosis (B) phagocytosis
(C) diffusion (D) osmosis
2. The female gametophyte in angiosperms is: (A) ovule (B) embryo
sac (C) nucellus (D) ovary
3. Which scientist gave the cell theory with Schleiden? (A) Schwann (B)
Virchow (C) Hooke (D) Pasteur
4. The deficiency of iodine causes: (A) diabetes (B) goitre (C) anemia
(D) scurvy
5. The bacterium used in recombinant DNA technology to obtain
restriction enzyme EcoRI is: (A) Escherichia coli (B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Rhizobium radiobacter (D) Lactobacillus
6. The respiratory pigment in human blood is: (A) hemocyanin (B)
hemoglobin (C) myoglobin (D) chlorocruorin
7. The term ‘ecology’ was coined by: (A) Haeckel (B) Tansley (C) Odum
(D) Mendel
8. Which of the following is a connecting link? (A) Archaeopteryx (B)
Hydra (C) Spirogyra (D) Amoeba
9. The opening through which pollen tube enters the ovule is: (A)
chalaza (B) micropyle (C) hilum (D) funicle
10. Which one is an infectious protein particle? (A) viroid (B) prion
(C) plasmid (D) virion only
11. The muscles of the heart are called: (A) smooth muscles (B)
skeletal muscles (C) cardiac muscles (D) striated voluntary muscles
only
12. The process of shedding of old leaves is promoted by: (A)
auxin (B) gibberellin (C) abscisic acid (D) cytokinin
13. Which one is not a function of the liver? (A) bile secretion (B)
detoxification (C) insulin secretion (D) glycogen storage
14. The study of interaction between organisms and environment
is: (A) anatomy (B) ecology (C) physiology (D) embryology
15. The accepted unit of biodiversity measurement at basic level
is: (A) phylum (B) species (C) kingdom (D) genus
NEET 2026 Practice Paper – Full Answer Key
Physics Answer Key (1–45)
1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-C, 9-D, 10-B, 11-C, 12-A, 13-C, 14-B, 15-
C, 16-B, 17-B, 18-A, 19-C, 20-D, 21-B, 22-B, 23-C, 24-B, 25-D, 26-B, 27-B,
28-C, 29-C, 30-C, 31-A, 32-B, 33-C, 34-B, 35-B, 36-C, 37-B, 38-B, 39-C, 40-
C, 41-B, 42-B, 43-B, 44-B, 45-C

Chemistry Answer Key (46–90)

46-D, 47-A, 48-C, 49-B, 50-D, 51-B, 52-C, 53-B, 54-B, 55-B, 56-B, 57-A, 58-
D, 59-C, 60-C, 61-B, 62-B, 63-B, 64-A, 65-B, 66-A, 67-B, 68-B, 69-B, 70-C,
71-C, 72-A, 73-C, 74-B, 75-B, 76-B, 77-C, 78-A, 79-C, 80-C, 81-C, 82-C, 83-
B, 84-C, 85-A, 86-C, 87-B, 88-C, 89-B, 90-C

Biology Answer Key (91–180)

91-B, 92-B, 93-B, 94-A, 95-B, 96-B, 97-B, 98-C, 99-C, 100-B, 101-C, 102-B,
103-A, 104-C, 105-C, 106-B, 107-B, 108-B, 109-C, 110-A, 111-A, 112-B,
113-A, 114-C, 115-B, 116-B, 117-B, 118-C, 119-B, 120-B, 121-B, 122-B,
123-B, 124-B, 125-C, 126-B, 127-D, 128-B, 129-C, 130-C, 131-B, 132-B,
133-C, 134-C, 135-B, 136-B, 137-C, 138-B, 139-B, 140-B, 141-B, 142-D,
143-B, 144-B, 145-B, 146-B, 147-B, 148-C, 149-C, 150-B, 151-B, 152-B,
153-B, 154-B, 155-B, 156-C, 157-B, 158-B, 159-B, 160-B, 161-B, 162-B,
163-A, 164-C, 165-B, 166-B, 167-B, 168-A, 169-B, 170-A, 171-B, 172-A,
173-A, 174-B, 175-B, 176-C, 177-C, 178-C, 179-B, 180-B

Detailed Solutions – Physics (Questions 1–

45)
Each solution gives the correct option and the key idea or formula needed
to solve the question quickly in NEET style.

1. Answer: B — Escape velocity from Earth is approximately 11.2

km/s.
2. Answer: C — In circular orbit, gravity acts as the required
centripetal force.
3. Answer: C — For an ideal gas, internal energy depends only on
temperature. In isothermal expansion, temperature is constant, so
ΔU = 0.
4. Answer: B — For series capacitors, 1/C = 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2, so C = 2
µF.
5. Answer: B — de Broglie wavelength λ = h/p, so it is inversely
proportional to momentum.
6. Answer: C — 30 days means 3 half-lives. Remaining fraction =
(1/2)³ = 1/8.
7. Answer: B — In a purely resistive AC circuit, voltage and current
are in phase, so power factor = 1.
8. Answer: C — n-type semiconductors have electrons as majority
carriers.
9. Answer: D — Violet light has the highest frequency in the visible
spectrum.
10. Answer: B — Drift velocity is very small, typically of the order
of mm/s to m/s.
11. Answer: C — Frequency of a wave remains unchanged when
it enters another medium.
12. Answer: A — Moment of inertia of a ring about its central axis
is MR².
13. Answer: C — In a transverse wave, particles vibrate
perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
14. Answer: B — The SI unit of magnetic flux is weber.
15. Answer: C — In series, emfs add and internal resistances also
add, giving 2E and 2r.
1. Answer: B — In uniform circular motion, speed is constant but
direction changes continuously, so velocity is variable.
2. Answer: B — Zero net external force means linear momentum
remains conserved.
3. Answer: A — Work = force × displacement, so dimensions are
ML²T⁻².
4. Answer: C — For metals, resistance generally increases with
temperature.
5. Answer: D — A convex lens forms a virtual image only when the
object lies between optical center and focus.
6. Answer: B — Electric field = force/charge, so unit is N/C.
7. Answer: B — At the center of a current loop, magnetic field is
directly proportional to current.
8. Answer: C — In SHM, acceleration a = -ω²x, so it is opposite and
proportional to displacement.
9. Answer: B — Carnot efficiency depends only on source and sink
temperatures.
10. Answer: D — Refractive index is highest for violet because
violet bends most.
11. Answer: B — Range = u²sin2θ/g; at 45°, sin90° = 1, so range
= u²/g.
12. Answer: C — RMS current = peak current/√2.
13. Answer: B — Stopping potential depends on maximum
kinetic energy, which depends on incident frequency.
 14. Answer: C — Transformer works on the principle of mutual
induction.
15. Answer: C — For equilibrium, vector sum of all forces must
be zero.
1. Answer: A — Potential energy stored in a spring is (1/2)kx².
2. Answer: B — Slope of velocity-time graph gives acceleration.
3. Answer: C — Buoyant force is explained by Archimedes’ principle.
4. Answer: B — Fringe width in YDSE is β = λD/d, so it is proportional
to wavelength.
5. Answer: B — SI unit of self-inductance is henry.
6. Answer: C — Nucleus contains protons and neutrons.
7. Answer: B — Since v = fλ, if speed is constant and frequency
doubles, wavelength becomes half.
8. Answer: B — Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT.
9. Answer: C — Electric power P = V²/R for a resistor across voltage V.
10. Answer: C — A prism disperses light because different
colours have different refractive indices in the prism material.
11. Answer: B — Total internal reflection occurs when light
travels from denser to rarer medium with angle greater than critical
angle.
12. Answer: B — Electron charge is -1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.
13. Answer: B — SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre.
14. Answer: B — In photoelectric effect, maximum kinetic energy
depends on frequency of incident light.
15. Answer: C — Under forward bias, the depletion region
narrows, allowing current to increase.

Detailed Solutions – Chemistry (Questions

46–90)
Each solution gives the correct option with the main concept, definition, or
reaction needed to solve the question quickly in NEET style.

1. Answer: D — In KMnO₄, K = +1 and O = -2. So Mn + 1 + 4(-2) = 0,

giving Mn = +7.
2. Answer: A — Avogadro number is 6.022 × 10²³ particles per mole.
3. Answer: C — Carbon in methane forms four single bonds, so it is
sp³ hybridized.
4. Answer: B — A neutral solution at 25°C has pH = 7 because [H⁺] =
[OH⁻] = 10⁻⁷ M.
5. Answer: D — Among alkali metals, reducing character increases
down the group, so Cs is strongest here.
6. Answer: B — CH₃CH₂OH is a two-carbon alcohol, so its IUPAC name
is ethanol.
7. Answer: C — Zinc reacts with dilute HCl to form ZnCl₂ and
hydrogen gas.
8. Answer: B — In [Ni(CO)₄], four CO ligands are attached to Ni, so
coordination number = 4.
9. Answer: B — BF₃ has three bond pairs around boron and no lone
pair, giving trigonal planar shape.
10. Answer: B — Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer because it
forms a hard cross-linked structure on heating.
11. Answer: B — Molarity means moles of solute per litre of
solution, so unit is mol L⁻¹.
12. Answer: A — Molar mass of CO₂ is 44 g/mol, so 44 g = 1
mole.
13. Answer: D — In multielectron atoms, 3d has higher energy
than 4s after filling considerations used in standard ordering for
such comparisons.
14. Answer: C — A catalyst speeds up reaction by lowering
activation energy, not by changing ΔH or equilibrium constant.
15. Answer: C — Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid; HCl,
HNO₃, and H₂SO₄ are strong acids.
1. Answer: B — Increasing pressure shifts equilibrium toward the side
with fewer moles of gas.
2. Answer: B — Molecular orbital theory gives bond order of O₂ as 2.
3. Answer: B — Reduction of glucose converts its aldehyde group into
an alcohol, forming sorbitol.
4. Answer: A — Carbylamine test uses CHCl₃ and alcoholic KOH/NaOH
with primary amines to form isocyanides.
5. Answer: B — But-2-ene shows geometrical isomerism because
each double-bond carbon has two different groups.
6. Answer: A — Fluorine is the most reactive halogen due to its high
electronegativity and small size.
7. Answer: B — Strong acid + strong base neutralization releases
about -57 kJ mol⁻¹.
8. Answer: B — Benzene is aromatic because it is cyclic, planar,
conjugated, and follows Hückel’s 4n+2 rule.
9. Answer: B — Primary alcohols first oxidize to aldehydes and then
further to acids under stronger conditions.
10. Answer: C — Relative lowering of vapour pressure depends
only on number of solute particles, so it is colligative.
11. Answer: C — In brine electrolysis, chloride ions lose electrons
at the anode to form chlorine gas.
 12. Answer: C — SF₆ has six bond pairs around sulfur, so
hybridization is sp³d².
13. Answer: A — Natural rubber is formed by polymerization of
isoprene.
14. Answer: C — In H₂SO₄, 2(+1) + S + 4(-2) = 0, so S = +6.
15. Answer: B — Across a period, atomic radius decreases from
left to right, so Al < Mg < Na.
1. Answer: B — In most organisms, DNA stores genetic information.
2. Answer: C — Lanthanides most commonly show +3 oxidation state.
3. Answer: A — Tollen’s reagent gives a silver mirror test with
aldehydes.
4. Answer: C — CH₃COOC₂H₅ contains the -COO- group, which is an
ester functional group.
5. Answer: C — Water has the highest boiling point here due to strong
extensive hydrogen bonding.
6. Answer: C — Haber process uses finely divided iron as catalyst.
7. Answer: C — Ethyne (HC≡CH) has one sigma bond between
carbons and one sigma bond to each hydrogen, total 3 sigma bonds.
8. Answer: B — Rancidity of oils is mainly caused by oxidation of fats.
9. Answer: C — Vitamin D is synthesized in skin in the presence of
sunlight.
10. Answer: A — Phenol is used as an antiseptic.
11. Answer: C — OH⁻ donates an electron pair, so it is a
nucleophile.
12. Answer: B — Fermentation converts sugars into alcohol,
usually by yeast action.
13. Answer: C — Carbon is tetravalent in most of its compounds,
so valency = 4.
14. Answer: B — CO₂ is a major greenhouse gas.
15. Answer: C — Polythene is formed by addition polymerization
of ethene.

Detailed Solutions – Biology (Questions 91–

180)
Each solution gives the correct option with the core biological fact or
concept needed to solve the question quickly in NEET style.

1. Answer: B — Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell

because they produce ATP during aerobic respiration.
2. Answer: B — The nephron is the structural and functional unit of
the kidney.
3. Answer: B — Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting uptake and
storage of glucose.
4. Answer: A — Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, especially in
the grana and stroma.
5. Answer: B — Mendel chose pea plants because they show clear
contrasting characters and are easy to cross.
6. Answer: B — Human somatic cells are diploid and contain 46
chromosomes.
7. Answer: B — DNA replication is semi-conservative because each
new DNA molecule has one old and one new strand.
8. Answer: C — Species is the basic unit of classification.
9. Answer: C — Platelets help in blood clotting.
10. Answer: B — Transpiration is the loss of water vapour from
aerial parts of plants.
11. Answer: C — In humans, fertilization generally occurs in the
fallopian tube.
12. Answer: B — DNA is the genetic material in most organisms.
13. Answer: A — Blood is considered a connective tissue because
it connects and transports materials.
14. Answer: C — Chlorophyll is the main green pigment involved
in photosynthesis.
15. Answer: C — Stabilizing selection favors average individuals
and eliminates extremes.
1. Answer: B — Singer and Nicolson proposed the fluid mosaic model
of plasma membrane.
2. Answer: B — Xylem conducts water and minerals from roots to the
rest of the plant.
3. Answer: B — Glycolysis converts one glucose molecule into two
molecules of pyruvate.
4. Answer: C — Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.
5. Answer: A — Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium.
6. Answer: A — Crossing over takes place during prophase I of
meiosis.
7. Answer: B — Guard cells regulate stomatal opening and closing.
8. Answer: A — Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules
of legumes.
9. Answer: C — ABO blood group inheritance is a classic example of
multiple alleles.
10. Answer: B — The sun is the ultimate source of energy for
most food chains.
11. Answer: B — B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells
that produce antibodies.
12. Answer: B — Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a
DNA template.
13. Answer: C — Aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide,
water, and ATP.
14. Answer: B — Cerebellum coordinates posture, balance, and
fine movement.
15. Answer: A — Beadle and Tatum proposed the one gene–one
enzyme hypothesis.
1. Answer: B — Micropropagation is the tissue culture method used
for rapid clonal multiplication of plants.
2. Answer: B — Plants excrete substances like resins, gums, latex,
and tannins.
3. Answer: B — A monohybrid cross gives a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in
the F₂ generation.
4. Answer: B — tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes during
translation.
5. Answer: C — The ocean is the largest ecosystem on Earth.
6. Answer: B — Auxins mainly promote cell elongation and apical
dominance.
7. Answer: D — The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the
aorta for the body.
8. Answer: B — The genetic code is read in triplets called codons.
9. Answer: C — Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease.
10. Answer: C — RuBisCO functions in the Calvin cycle, fixing
carbon dioxide.
11. Answer: B — Taxonomy is the science of naming and
classifying organisms.
12. Answer: B — The human appendix is a vestigial organ.
13. Answer: C — Stamen is the male reproductive part of a
flower.
14. Answer: C — Genetics deals with heredity and variation.
15. Answer: B — PCR amplifies specific segments of DNA.
1. Answer: B — Charles Darwin proposed natural selection as the
main mechanism of evolution.
2. Answer: C — Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from lungs
to the left atrium.
3. Answer: B — Golgi apparatus modifies, packages, and secretes cell
products.
4. Answer: B — Double fertilization is a unique feature of
angiosperms.
5. Answer: B — O negative is called the universal donor for red blood
cell transfusion.
6. Answer: B — The term ecosystem was coined by A. G. Tansley.
7. Answer: D — RNA contains uracil instead of thymine, so thymine is
absent.
8. Answer: B — DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase of the cell
cycle.
9. Answer: B — Transpiration pull helps in ascent of sap through
xylem.
10. Answer: B — Insulin is secreted by beta cells of the pancreas.
11. Answer: B — Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrial
matrix.
12. Answer: B — Salamander is an amphibian.
13. Answer: C — In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, p² + 2pq + q² =
1.
14. Answer: C — Insulin injection is not a contraceptive method.
15. Answer: B — The living components of the biosphere are
called biotic factors.
1. Answer: B — Crossing over produces recombinants and increases
variation.
2. Answer: B — Rhizobium culture is used as a biofertilizer.
3. Answer: B — The study of fossils is called palaeontology.
4. Answer: B — Photolysis of water occurs in PSII during the light
reaction of photosynthesis.
5. Answer: B — HIV mainly infects helper T-lymphocytes.
6. Answer: C — Uptake of minerals against a concentration gradient
requires active transport.
7. Answer: B — Flippers of whale and forelimbs of horse are
homologous organs because they share common origin.
8. Answer: B — mRNA base sequence determines the amino acid
sequence in a protein.
9. Answer: B — Thyroxine induces metamorphosis in frogs.
10. Answer: B — Stomata are minute pores on the leaf surface.
11. Answer: B — Ecological pyramids of energy are always
upright because energy decreases at each trophic level.
12. Answer: B — The test tube baby technique refers to in vitro
fertilization.
13. Answer: A — Plasmids are commonly used as vectors in gene
cloning.
14. Answer: C — Oxaloacetic acid is the first stable product of
the C₄ pathway.
15. Answer: B — Nitrosomonas is a chemoautotroph and
therefore autotrophic.
1. Answer: B — Phagocytosis means cell eating, while pinocytosis
means cell drinking.
2. Answer: B — The embryo sac is the female gametophyte of
angiosperms.
3. Answer: A — Schwann, along with Schleiden, proposed the cell
theory.
4. Answer: B — Iodine deficiency enlarges the thyroid gland, causing
goitre.
5. Answer: A — EcoRI is a restriction enzyme originally isolated from
Escherichia coli.
6. Answer: B — Hemoglobin is the respiratory pigment in human
blood.
7. Answer: A — Ernst Haeckel coined the term ecology.
8. Answer: A — Archaeopteryx is a classical connecting link between
reptiles and birds.
9. Answer: B — The pollen tube usually enters the ovule through the
micropyle.
10. Answer: B — A prion is an infectious protein particle.
11. Answer: C — The heart is made of cardiac muscle.
12. Answer: C — Abscisic acid promotes leaf fall and dormancy.
13. Answer: C — Insulin is secreted by the pancreas, not the
liver.
14. Answer: B — Ecology studies interactions between organisms
and their environment.
15. Answer: B — Species is the basic and widely accepted unit
for measuring biodiversity.