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CODEWEST API·570 COURSE - API RP 577

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR API RP 577

1. API 577 for the training and experience required to be an American Welding Society
Certified Welding Inspector (CWI).

a.
b.
c.
is a replacement
is not a replacement
can be used as alternate
-
d. may be used as a substitute

2. API 577 all welds to be inspected.

a. requires
b. requires 50% of
c. does not require
d. requires a representative number of

3. Who determines the welds to be inspected?

a. Operating supervisors and/or Facility Manager.

b. Maintenance supervisors and/or welding supervisors.
c. Welding inspectors and/or engineers.
d. Federal OSHA inspectors and/or State inspectors.

4. Who should be consulted on any critical, specialized or complex welding issues?

a. A welding engmeer.
b. A maintenance engineer.
c. A Safety engineer.
d. A Welding supervisor.

5. The shortest distance between the weld root and the face of a fillet weld is called:

a. Chord distance.
b. Arc distance.
c. Actual throat.
d. Tangent distance.

6. What type of carbon arc cutting process removes molten metal with a jet of air?

a. Carbon are air blowing (CM-S).

b. Air carbon are cutting (CAC-A).
c. Carbon plasma arc air cutting (CPM-C).
d. Carbon laser air removal (CLA-R).

7. Arc blow is of an arc from its normal path beeause of magnetie forees.

a. bending
b. directing
e. defleetion
d. distortion

8. The distance from the tip of the welding electrode to the adjaeent surface of the weld pool is called:

a. Electrode distance.
b. Weld distance.
c. Pool distance.
d. Are length.

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9. A discontinuity resulting from an are, consisting of any localized remelted metal, heat-affected metal, or
change in the surface profile of any metal object is called:

a. an irregularity.
b. an anomaly.
e. an are strike.
d. a welder error.

10. A group of welding processes that produces coalescence of work pieces by heating them with an are
is ealled:

a. aeetylene welding.
b. electric welding.
e. eoalescence welding.
d. are welding.

11. A fusion weld that is made without filler metal is called:

a. a synthesis weld.
b. an autogenous weld.
c. a molten weld.
d. a non-filler metal weld.

12. A material or deviee placed against the backside of the weld joint, or at both sides of a weld in
welding, to support and retain molten weld metal is called:

a. baeking.
b. a fusion eonsumable.
e. an assistance strip.
d. eonsumable inserto

13. The aet of penetrating a thin component with the welding are while hot tap welding or in-service
welding is ealled:

a. excessive penetration.
b. burn-through.
C. fusion melting.
d. melt down.

14. A fracture type discontinuity characterized by a sharp tip and high ratio of length and width to
opening displacement is called: \..... .

a. a fracture.
b. a f1aw.
c. a crack.
d. a fissure.

15. A weld with this term used to describe a condition in it will designate rejectability of the weld. What is
.,
this term?

a. Flaw.
b. Discontinuity.
c. Blemish.
d. Defeet.

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CODEWEST API-570 COURSE - API RP 577

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16. What is an interruption of the typical structure of a material, such as a lack of homogeneity in its
mechanical, metallurgical, or physical characteristics called?

a. An error.
b. A discontinuity.
c. A blemish.
d. An imperfection.

17. The metal or alloy metal added in making a welded joint is called:

a. fusion metal.
b. melted metal.
c. molten metal.
d. filler metal

18. A non-standard term used to describe a weld interface is:

a. bevelline.
b. groove line.
c. a fusion line.
d. penetration line.

19. The portion of the base metal whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by
the heat of welding or thermal cutting is called:

a. heat penetration region.

b. temper affected zone.
c. fusion effected area.
d. heat affected zone.

20. If foreign so lid material is entrapped in a weld (slag, flux, oxides, etc.), it is referred to as:

a. a flaw.
b. a defect.
c. an inclusion.
d. an imperfection.

21. A joint root condition in a groove weld in which weld metal does not extend through the joint thickness
is called: •..

a. a slag inclusion.
b. an unfinished weld toe.
c. a partial weld.
d. incomplete joint penetration.

22. Which of the listed individuals is not a qualified inspector?

a. Certified API 510 inspector.

[Link] CWI.
c. ASNT Levellll inspector.
d. National Board Commissioned inspector.

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23. What is another common term for an Image Quality Indicator?

a. Photometer.
/ b. Positron.
c. Penetra meter.
d. PMI meter.

24. The distance the weld metal extends from the kVeldface into a joint, exclusive of weld reinforcement is
called:

a. joint weld distance.

b. joint penetration.
c. joint .attachment.
d. joint heat aftected zone.

·25. Which of the joints listed below is not considered a "joint type"?

a. Butt joint.
b. Fillet joint.
c. Corner joint.
d. Lap joint.

26. A non-standard term indicating a weld discontinuity in which fusion did not occur between weld metal
and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is referred to as:

a. arc blow.
b. burn-through.
c. lack of fusiono
d. lamellar tear.

27. A type of discontinuity with separation or weakness generally aligned parallel to the worked surface of
a metal is called:

a. a lamellar.
b. an overlap.
C. a lamination.
d. a fusion line.

28. A crack that runs approximately parallel to the weld axis is called:

a. a lamellar crack.
b. a directional crack.
C. a linear discontinuity.
d. a longitudinal crack.

29. If a welder "hammers" or mechanically works the metal using impact blows, what is it called?

a. Peening.
b. Hammering.
C. Mechanical stress relieving.
d. Knocking slag.

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30. If a metal is heated to a temperature prior to welding or initiating thermal operations. it is called:

a. post heat.
b. preheat.
c. parent metal heating.
d. primary heating.

31. Two pieces of plate are to be joined by butt welding. The plates have been beveled. The two plates
are separated approximately 1/8" prior to welding. What is this opening called?

a. Weld space.
b. A weld separation.
c. A welding gap.
d. A root opening.

32. A weld that is made to hold parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made is
called:

a. a tack weld.
b. a fastener weld.
c. an attachment weld.
d. an initial weld.

33. A crack with its major axis oriented approximately perpendicular to the weld axis is called:

a. a non-directional crack.
b. a perpendicular crack.
c. a lamellar crack.
d. a transverse crack.

34. A gr90ve melted into the base metal aojacent to the weld toe or weld root and left unfilled by weld
metal is called:

a. an under fil!.
b. a longitudinal groove.
c. an undercut.
d. a directional groove.

35. An individual who holds an engineering degree and is knowledgeable and experienced in the
engineering disciplines associated with weldinq is:

a. a welding engineer.
b. a welding specialist.
c. a metallurgist.
d. a welding experto

36. Weld metal in excess of the quantity required to fill a joint is called:

a. excess weld.
b. weld reinforcement.
c. weld strengthening.
d. a gorilla weld.

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37. Three of the items listed below are welding inspection activities that can be separated into three
stages corresponding to the welding work process. Which one does not belong?

a. Tasks prior to welding.

b. Tasks during welding operations.
c. Tasks upon completion of welding.
d. Tasks in selecting personnel.

38. Some ofthe quality control items dealing with procedures and qualification récords ofwelders for an
inspector to assess are listed below. Which of the 4 items does not belong?

a. Make sure WPS(s) are properly qualified and meet ap,plicable codes, standards and specifications.
b. Make sure procedure qualification records (POR) are properly performed & supported by WPS(s).
c. Make sure PWHT information is available.
d. Make sure welder performance qualifications (WPO) meet requirements for the WPS.J

39. What does an inspector do if he finds that improperly marked filler materials or inappropriate base
materials are on the job?

a. Call the welding engineer.

b. Accept them conditionally.
c. Notify the welder foreman.
d. Reject them.

40. Who is responsible for the quality and craftsmanship of weldments?

a. The welder.
b. The welding foreman.
c. The inspector.
d. The welding engineer.

41. When an inspector completes physical checks, visual examinations and results of NDE and
unacceptable workmanship is found, what should be done?

a. Notif'y the welder.

b. Call the welding engineer.
c. Accept the workmanship if t"e items are minoro
d. Reject the workmanship.

42. Some of the hazards that the inspector would more commonly encounter in the presence of welding
are listed below. Which item does not belong?

a. Arc radiation.
b. Air contamination.
C. Heat.
d. Noise.

43. What is the source of ultraviolet and infrared light connected with welding.

a. The sunlight on some jobs.

b. The welders electric are,
C. The X-ray technicians equipment.
d. The NDE technicians use of an infrared light.

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44. What is the danger faced in an enclosed space if a welder is using a gas-shielded process for
welding?

a. It can cause air-borne particles.

b. It can generate toxic gases.
c. It can cause an oxygen deficient environment.
d. It can cause burns to the skin.

45. Which of the basic arc welding processes is the most widely used?

a. GMAW
b. SMAW
c. GTAW
[Link]

46. How is shielding provided for the arc when using a consumable covered electrode in shielded metal
arc welding?

a. Shielding is provided from a flux from the center of a tubular electrode.

b. Shielding is provided from the slag coming from the electrode covering.
c. Shielding is provided by a shielding gas.
d. Shielding is provided from the decomposition of the electrode covering.

47. What are some disadvantages or limitations of shielded metal are welding?

a. Difficult to shield the weld zone in air drafts and it has a low tolerance for contaminants on filler or
base metal.
b. Welding are must be protected from air drafts and the equipment is more expensive.
c. Deposition rates are low and slag must be removed at stops and starts.
d. Slag requires removal between passes and backing material is required for root pass welding.

48. What does the DCEN stand for when used to describe the GTAW weld process?

a. DCEN stands for direct centered electrode.

b. DCEN stands for direct current electrode-negative.
c. DCEN stands for dominant contaminant elimination nodular.
d. DCEN stands for distance containing electron-negative.

49. What are some of the advantages to gas tungsten arc welding?
t
a. It is the only consumable electrode process that can be used to weld most commercial metals and
alloys.
b. It produces high purity welds and it allows for excellent control of root pass weld penetration.
c. It has a high deposition rate and metallurgical benefits that can be derived from a flux.
d. It is considered an all-position process and it has a high productivity rate compared with manually
welding studs to base metal.

50. What is a welding process that produces fast a freezing weld pool and is generally suited for joining
thin sections or root passes.

a. GMAW-S
b. SMAW
c. FCAW
d. GTAW

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51. What type of weld process normally employs a semiautomatic mode and depends on a flux from a
tubular electrode that contaíns a shielding gas from an externally supplied gas?

a. SMAW
b. FCAW
c. GMAW
d. GTAW

52. What type of welding is used extensively in shop pressure vessel fabrication and pipe manufacturing?

a. FCAW
b. GTAW
c. SMAW
[Link]

53. What type of welding process is predominantly limited to welding insulation and refractory support
pins to tanks, pressure vessels and heater casings?

[Link]
b. SMAW
[Link]
d. GTAW

54. ASME Section IX requires a written welding procedure specification (WPS). What does the WPS
provide for the welder?

a. It provides a list of documents such as ASME, API 571, etc. that the welder must follow.
b. It provides guidelines for the welder to prevent him from making mechanical errors in welding.
c. It provides a record of the welding data and variables used to weld a test coupon and the test results.
d. lt provides direction for the welder while making production welds to ASME Code requirements.
./

55. Essential variables the mechanical properties of the weld.

a. indicate
b. direct
c. affect
d. specify

56. Non-essential variables d¿ not the mechanical properties of the weld.

a. express
'b. affect
[Link]
d. state

57. If you change an essential variable in the WPS you must:

a. make sure the change is written in on the WPS.

b. write a new WPS.
c. requalify the WPS.
d. list the change as a supplement to the WPS.

58. If there are supplementary essential variables, they are treated as when they apply.

a. essential variables
b. non-essential variables
c. other requirements
d. end user directions

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59. Three of the items listed below are essential variables. One is not an essential variable. Mark the
incorrect item.

a. Base metal.
b. Welding position.
c. Groove designo
d. Welding technique.

60. For the PQR, test sample selection and testing requirements are defined in:

a. National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspection Codeo

b. API RP 577, Welding Inspection and Metallurgy.
C. ASME B&PV Code, Section IX.
d. ASME B&PV Code, Section V.

61. Who SHALL review the WPS and the PQR prior to welding?

[Link].
b. Inspectors.
C. Contractors.
d. Supervisors.

62. Four items that must be included on the PQR are listed below. One of these four is incorrect. Mark
the incorrect item.

a. Certlfication signature and date.

b. Name of the individual that prepared the procedure.
C. WPS(s) that the PQR supports.
d. Welding process used.

63. What is the range of welding P-numbers for Titanium and titanium-base alloys?

a. P-No. 1 through P-No. 11.

b. P-No. 51 through P-No. 53.
C. P-No. 21 through P-No. 25.
d. P-No. 61 through P-No. 62.

64. Why are base metals assigned P-numbers in ASME Section IX?

a. It is done to make it easier for the welder.

b. It is done to simplify the classes offiller metal used in welding.
c It is done to reduce the number of welding procedure qualíflcatíons required.
d. It is done to make the inspecter's and supervisor's jobs simpler.

65. Why are electrodes and welding rods assigned F-numbers?

a. It is done to simplify the classes of filler metals used in welding.

b. It is done to reduce the number of welding procedure and performance qualifications required.
C. It is done to make the inspector's and supervisor's jobs easier.
d. It is done to make the welder's job simpler.

66. What is the A-number grouping based upon?

a. It is based on the type material that the weld metal is used upon.
b. It is based on the chemical composition of the deposited weld metal.
C. It is based on the usability characteristics of the metal.
d. It is based on the comparable base metal ultimate strength values.

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67. Why do you sto re welding consumables in warm holding ovens after they have been removed from
the manufacture's packaging?

a. This is done to preserve the manufacturer's expiration dates on the rods.

b. This is done to keep the temperature down especially in hot climates.
c. This is done to reduce exposure to moisture.
d. This is done to make sure all rods are located in a central place of easy access.

68. Why should low-hydrogen electrodes be stored separately from other types of electrodes with
higher hydrogen content?

a. Because this can be another source for hydrogen pick-up.

b. Because they will pick up characteristics of the other electrodes.
c. Because this can be a source for excess nitrogen pick-up.
d. Because the low-hydrogen electrodes will contaminate the other electrodes.

69. A welder may be qualified three different ways. Four are listed below. Which is the incorrect one?

a. Oualified by radiography of a test coupon.

b. Oualified by an initial production weld.
c. Oualified by bend tests of a test coupon.
d. Oualified by the written okay of the contractor.

70. If any essential variable listed for the welding process changes:

a. the welder does not have to re-qualify for that process.

b. the welder must re-qualify for that process.
c. the welder can qualify for that process by an exemption from his employer.
d. the welder can qualify for that process by an exception from the testing agency.

71. If a radiographic examination is used for qualification of a welder, the minimum length of the coupon
to be examined is:

a. 4 inches and it in includes at least two thirds the circumference for pipe coupons.
b. 12 inches and it includes at least one half the circumference for pipe coupons.
c. 6 inches and it includes the entire weld circumference for pipe coupons.
d. 8 inches and it includes the entire weld for the pipe coupons.

72. Rules for qualification of welding operators using radiography require Iength
to be examined.

a. 1 foot
b.6inches
c. 3 feet
d. 2 feet

73. Welder performance qualification expires if the welding process is not used during a _
periodo

a. two month
b. four month
c. six month
d. twelve month

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74. What is the definition of non-destructive examination?

a. It is inspection methods, which allow materials to be examined without changing or destroying their
usefulness.
b. It is inspection methods approved by ASNT, which allow materials to be examined by, UT, RT, ET,
VT, AE, PT, ACFM and MT.
c. It is inspection methods, which require materials to be examined by minimal destructive methods by
certified personnel.
d. It is inspection methods, which require material s to be examined by personnel who are qualified
and certified.

75. What are the most commonly used NDE methods used during weld inspection? NOTE: SELECT THE
ANSWER THAT HAS ALL THE CORRECT METHODS!

[Link],AE,PT,LT,VT,RT,UT,ET,ACFM,
b. VT, MT, WFMT, PT, LT, ET, RT, UT, ACFM.
c. AE, PT, HT, VT, MT, WFMT, ET, LT, UT
d. VT, MT, WFMT, HT, LT, ET, RT, UT, PT

76. Where would you look for slag inclusion discontinuities?

a. Base metal zone and the HAZ.

b. Weld metal zone and weld interface.
c. Base metal zone and the weld metal between passes.
d. Weld interface zone and weld toe or root surface.

77. Which NDE method is the most acceptable for a lap joint?

[Link]
b. UT
[Link]
d. PT
78. What is the most capable NDE method for finding a discontinuity such as incomplete fusion in a joint?

a. VT
b. MT
c. RT
[Link]

79. When welding carbon steel, what is the major cause of lack of fusion in all welding processes?

a. Improper welding speed.

b. Improper heat input and improper welding technique.
c. Not using a low hydrogen electrode, improper shielding.
d. Improper are length control.

80. When .welding stainless steel, what is the cause of undercut?

a. Fast travel speed.

b. Improper heat input.
c. Improper arc length control.
d. Improper cleaning.

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81. When welding stainless steel what would cause porosity in the weld?

a. Improper heat input and improper joint designo

b. Improper shielding, not using a low hydrogen electrode, & welding in a high sulfur area.
c. High heat input and arc length control.
d. Improper cleaning and arc length control.

82. When welding carbon steel, how would you control burn through?

a. Reduce the travel speed.

b. Control the are length.
C. Use proper heat input.
d. Use proper cleaning methods.

83. Who is responsible for establishing a written material verification program (PMI)?

a. The inspector.
b. The owner/user.
C. The welder.
d. The contractor.

84. What document gives guidelines for material control and verification?

a. NBIC latest edition

b. ASME B&PV Code Seco V
C. API RP 577
d. API RP 578

85. Visual examination is the most extensively used NDE method for inspecting welds. Direct visual
examination is conducted when access is sufficient to place the eye within of the surface.

a. 4 inches to 18 inches
b. 6 inches to 24 inches
C. 8 inches to 30 inches
d. 10 inches to 35 inches
86. Direct visual examination of a weld must be done at an angle of not less than __ of the surface to
be examined.

a. 25 degrees
b. 30 degrees
C. 35 degrees
d. 40 degrees

87. Remote examination of welds may use aids such as telescopes, borescopes, fiberscopes, cameras or
other suitable instruments, provided:
a. they have a resolution at least equivalent to that which is aUained by direct visual examination.
b. they have a greater acuity than the eye and the inspection would be better than a direct visual.
C. they have good perception & the inspection would be approximately equal to a direct visual exam.
d. they have sensitivity to find the possible defects that a direct visual exam would produce.

88. How often must an individual using visual inspection ofwelds complete a J-1 Jaeger-type eye vision
test?

a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
C. Biennially.
d. Triennially.

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89. Which visual inspection toollisted below is a mechanical aid for visually inspecting welds?

a. Magnifiers.
b. Fiberscopes.
c. Levels.
d. Mirrors.

90. What type of visual inspection device measures preheat and interpass temperatures?

a. Digital pyrometer.
b. Vernier scale.
c. Hi-Lo welding gauge.
d. Bridge cam gauge.

91. Magnetic particle examination (MT) is effective in locating :

a. surface discontinuities only of non-magnetic metals.

b. surface and subsurface discontinuities of all types of material.
c. surface or near surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic materials.
d. surface discontinuities only of stainless steel and copper based alloys.

92. What type of weld inspection technique can be made more sensitive by using wet fluorescents and
a filtered infrared light (black light)?

a. Magnetic Flux Direction Inspection (MFDI)

b. Fluid Ferromagnetic Element testing (FFET).
c. Liquid penetrant testing (PT)
d. Wet Fluorescent Magnetic Particle testing (WFMT).

93. What is a pie gauge used for?

a. It is used to find the magnetic flux direction.

b. It is used to find the heat affected zone of a weld.
c. It is used to find the thickness of the weld reinforcement.
d. It is used to measure the temperature during weld preheat.

94. The Alternating Current Field Measurement (ACFM) technique is an electromagnetic non-contacting
technique that is able to detect and size surface breaking defects in a range of different materials and
through coatings of varying thickness. This technique is ideal for inspecting:

a. Fillet welds, J-welds and seal welds.

b. Nozzles, ring-grooves and grind-out areas or radii.
c. Butt welds (single and double bevel) and plug welds.
d. Lap joint welds and up hill welding.
95. What is the maximum temperature that ACFM may be used?

a.300oF
b.500oF
c. 900°F
d.1000oF

96. Liquid Penetrant examination (PT) is commonly used on what type material?

a. Carbon steel.
b. Austenitic stainless steel
c. Copper based alloys.
d. Chrome Moly steels.

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97. What is the maximum temperature limitation of using PT examination?

a.400oF
b.212oF
c.200oF
d.1250F

98. Eddy current can be used as a quick test to ensure that the components being joined during welding
have:

a. a general current carrying capability.

b. a common temperature.
c. the same thickness.
d. the same material properties.

99. Eddy current can be used to measure:

a. the extent of coverages of coatings or cladding.

b. the weldability of coatings or claddings.
c. the thickness of surface coatings or cladding thickness.
d. the thickness of parent metal below alloy metal cladding.

100. What makes radiographic inspection (RT) possibly more expensive than other NDE?

a. The hazards of radiation and the licensing requirements.

b. The complexity of this method and the cost of the film.
c. The cost of transporting the equipment and personnel.
d. The mathematical capabilities required of the testing personnel.

101. What is another name for penetrameters?

a. Picture Enhancement Instrument.

b. Image Ouality Indicator.
c. Material Depth Meter.
d. Photograph Measuring Device

102. What are penetrameters used for?

a. They are used to ascertain how much radiation that the source has imparted to the material.
b. They are used to establish the depth that the radiation source penetrates.
c. They are used to determine that the required sensitivity of the radiograph is obtained.
d. They are used to mark the radiographs with a definite identifying characteristic.

103. How are image quality indicators selected?

a. They are picked basis the film type used by the radiographer.
b. They are chosen basis the alloy content of the material being radiographed.
c. They are picked basis the number and size of the radiographs.
d. They are selected basis thickness of the base material plus the thickness of the weld reinforcement.

104. How are wire type 10l's most often placed in relation to the weld?

a. They are placed at 45 degree angles to the center line of the weld.
b. They are placed perpendicular to the center line of the weld.
c. They are placed parallel to the center line of the weld.
d. They are placed on top of the weld with 50% on one side and 50% on the other.

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105. For a welded material that is 0.625 inches thick, what number IQI should be selected?

a. 12
b. 15
c.17
d.20

106. What is the essential hole diameter of a Number 17 IQI hole?

a.0.050"
b.0.040"
c.0.035"
d.0.025"

107. What are the 2 typical radioactive isotopes used for radiography?

a. Curium 247 or Actimium

b. Thoriam 234 or Cesium
c. Uranium 239 or Robidium
d. Iridium 192 or Cobalt 60

108. What is the normal developing time for radiographic film at 68°F?

a. 20 to 30 minutes.
b. 10 to 15 minutes.
c. 5 to 8 minutes.
d. 2 to 3 minutes.

109. What is the most effective technique for making a radiograph?

a. The radiation source should pass through twice the thickness of the material being radiographed.
b. The radiation source should be placed a minimum of 3 feet from the material being radiographed.
c. The radiation source should be placed with a thick lead shield between the film and the source.
d. The radiation source should pass through a single thickness of the material being radiographed.

110. If a technique is used in which the radiation passes through two walls and only the weld on the film
sidewall is viewed for acceptance, what is the minimum number of exposures that must be taken?

[Link].
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

111. When it is not practical to use a single wall technique, a technique should be used.

a. vertical-wall
b. double-wall
c. standing-wall
d. solitary-wall

112. For pipe in or less in nominal outside diameter, a technique may be used in which the
radiation passes through two walls and the weld in both walls is viewed for acceptance.

a. 1.5 inches
b. 3.5 inches
c. 2.5 inches
d.3inches

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113. A weld crack is generally tight and not always detectable by radiography unless the crack orientation
is somewhat in the same plane as the direction of the _

a. film
b. crack
c. radiation
d. weld bead

114. What power magnification devices are recommended as aids to film interpretation and evaluation of
radiographs?

a. 3X to 9X
b. 4X to 6X
c. 1.5X to 3X
d. 10X to 24X

115. What should be done with a radiograph that has a blemish in the area of interest?

a. It should be discarded.
b. Nothing.
c. It should be checked closely around the blemish area & if no problem, okay it.
d. It should be discarded and the area radiographed again.

116. The transmitted film density through the radiographic image through the body of the hole type 101 or
adjacent to the wire 101, in the area of interest, should be within the range of for Gamma
Rays.

a. 2.0 to 4.0
b. 1.8 to 4.0
c.0.1%to1.0%
d. 1.0 to 3.0

117. What are the dimensions of the lead letter "B" that is attached to the back of each film
holder/cassette during exposure to determine if backscatter radiation is a problem?

a. Its thickness is 1/32 inch and its minimum dimension is 5/8 inch.
b. Its thickness is 1/16 inch and its minimum dimension is 1/2 inch.
c. Its thickness is 3/32 inch and its minimum dimension is 3/8 inch.
d. Its thickness is 1/8 inch and its minimum dimension is 9/16 inch.

118. What does the appearance of a light image of the letter "B" signify on a radiograph of a darker
background?

a. Protection from backscatter radiation is sufficient and the radiograph ls acceptable.

b. Protection from backscatter radiation is marginal and the radiograph is useable.
c. Protection from backscatter radiation ís insufficient but the radiograph is acceptable.
d. Protection from backscatter radiation is insufficient and the radiograph is unacceptable.

119. Radiographic is the art of extracting the maximum information from a radiographic
image.

a. interpretation
b. reading
c. viewing
d. screening

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120. How many cycles per second (now known as Hz or Hertz) is classified as being in the ultrasonic
frequency range?

a. 10 kHz
b. 15000 cycles per second
c. 20000 Hz
d. greater than 20000 Hz

121. What type of UT technique is used for thickness evaluation or to check for laminations, and/or other
conditions?

a. Surface beam.
b. Angle beam.
c. Straight beam.
d. Shear wave beam.

122. What does a e-sean display show?

a. It shows a plan view of the test object.

b. It shows a cross sectional view of the test object.
c. It shows the response along the path of the sound beam for a given position of the probe.
d. It shows the path of the sound beam on an angle through the test object.

123. The temperature of the calibration standard should be within ofthe part to be examined.

a. 15°F
b. 25°F
c.390F
d.50oF

124. What happens if during a system calibration check, it is determined that the UT equipment is not
functioning properly?

a. Selected areas tested since the last successful calibration should be examined & if okay, accepted.
b. Al! areas tested since the last successful calibration should have the readings adjusted.
c. Al! areas tested since the last successful calibration must have the readings adjusted.
d. Al! areas tested since the last successful calibration should be reexamined.

125. How much will each pass of the transducer overlap the previous path during a weld scan?

a. 20 % of the transducer element dimension.

b. 5% of the transducer element dimension.
c. 10% of the transducer element dimension.
d. 15 % of the transducer element dimension.

126. In ultrasonic testing terminology, what does AUT stand for?

a. Analogy Ultrasonic Testing.

b. Animated Ultrasonic Testing.
c. Atomic Ultrasonic Testing.
d. Automated Ultrasonic Testing.

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127. A line scan technique used in the pitch-catch mode of AUT is called:

a. Time of Flight Diffraction.

b. Pulse Echo Zoned Inspection.
c. Pulse Echo Raster Scanning.
d. Leisner Resonance Scanning

128. Where is the heat affected zone (HAZ) assumed to be for purposes of hardness testing?

a. The HAZ is always assumed to be 1 inch on either side of the centerline of the weld.
b. The HAZ is usually assumed to be from the toe of the weld on one side to the opposite toe.
c. The HAZ is always assumed to be 0.25 inches away from the toe of the weld.
d. The HAZ is otten assumed to be just adjacent to the toe of the weld.

129. How long, typically should a pressure test be held?

a. 60 minutes.
b. 45 minutes.
c. 35 minutes.
d. 30 minutes.

130. What can cause a change in the test pressure (up or down) when there is no lea k in the system ano
no problem with equipment?

a. Changes in inspectors.
b. Changes in temperature.
c. Changes in the wind direction.
d. Changes in the adjacent sound levels.

131. If a system is found to have a lea k during a pressure test, what should be done?

a. Continue with the pressure test until maximum test pressure is reached, then repair the leak.
b. Repair the leak immediately and continue with the pressure test.
c. Depressure the system, repair the lea k per code, and repeat the test.
d. Stop the leak, complete the pressure test and then repair the leak.

132. Sol id metals are in nature and all have a structure in which the atoms of each crystal
are arranged in a specific geometric pattern.

a. ionic
b. binary
c. crystalline
d. allotropic

133. Metals in molten or liquid sta te solidify, interlocking grains into a solid metallic structure called a:

a. crystal
b. casting.
c. pumice.
d. agglomerate

134. The vast majority of metallic materials used for the fabrication of refinery and chemical plant
equipment are used in the form rather than cast.

a. isomorphic
b. dolomite
c. igneous
d. wrought
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135. Mechanical working of a cast ingot produces materials by processes such as rolling,
forging, or extrusion, which are normally at an elevated temperature.

[Link]
b. igneous
e. wrought
d. dendritic

136. The addition of to austenitic stainless steels leads to the formation of very small iron and
ehromium earbide preeipitates in the grains and at grain boundaries.

[Link]
b. carbon
e. nitrogen
d. ehromium

137. Carbon steel is a two-phase alloy. One phase is a relatively pure form of iron called ferrite. With the
addition of more than 0.06% percent of carbon, a seeond phase is formed called . This adds
strength to steel.

a. dendrite
b. pearlite
e. magnetite
d. hematite

138. Lamellar means:

a. plate-like.
b. shell-like.
e. erystal-like.
d. lattice-like.

139. The parts of a weld eomprises three zones. What are these zones?

a. The single phase zone, the pearlite zone, and parent metal.
b. The weld metal, the heat affected metal (zone), and the base metal.
e. The single phase zone, the dual phase metal (zone) and the original metal.
d. The filler material, the fusion zone, and the base metal.

140. The portion of the base metal that has not been melted, but whose mechanical properties or
mierostrueture have been altered by the heat of welding is called the:

a. igneous effected zone.

b. transient infected zone.
e. transitory ehanging zone.
d. heat affeeted zone ..

141. What happens to the gas, carbon dioxide, when it is exposed to weld are temperatures?

a. It is fused into the heat affected zone.

b. It vaporizes eompletely.
e. It breaks down into carbon and oxygen.
d. It ehanges into iron earbonate.

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142. Melting temperature, thermal heat conductivity, electrical conductivity, the coefficient of thermal
expansion, and density are all of a metal or alloy.

a. welding assets
b. corrosion properties
c. recognition signs
d. physical properties

143. If a welder increases the amperage what does this increase?

a. Voltage
[Link]
c. Heat
d. Resistance

144. The rate at which heat is transmitted through a material by conduction is called its:

a. igneous velocity.
b. thermal conductivity rateo
C. radiant factor speed.
d. transmittal time.

145. The electrical conductivity rate of steel is low; therefore, is produced by its high measure
of electrical resistance when a weld current is introduced.

a. minimal heat
b. less heat
C. more heat
d. variable heat

146. When metals are heated they:

a. increase in volume.
b. decrease in electrical conductivity.
C. form odd shapes.
d. decrease in thermal conductivity.

147. Why are castings and welds usually less dense?

a. The filler metals and castings themselves are usually made from less dense materials.
b. The high temperatures used to form them produce less dense material.
C. They contain porosity and inclusions.
d. They contain many light weight elements that cause the density to be less.

148. What type test pulls a test specimen to failure with increasing load?

a. A shear test.
b. A compression test.
C. A tensile test.
d. A torsion test.

149. The change in shape (deformation) a specimen experiences when is stressed or loaded is called:

a. stress.
b. strain.
C. yield.
d. ultimate.

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150. Stress is defined as:

a. the density in a given region of material when an external force is applied.

b. the force acting in a given region of material when an externalload is applied.
c. the strain acting in a given area of material when an external energy is applied.
d. the energy produced in a given portion of material when an external strain is applied.

151. If a metal is subject to tensile stress to a point less than its yield stress, it will:

a. take on a permanent set and will not return to its originallength when the stress is removed.
b. return to its original shape or length when the stress is removed.
c. deform to a shape that is not useable when the stress is removed.
d. not be able to conduct electricity anymore and it will not be electric weldable.

152. If a metal is subject to tensile stress to a point greater than its yield stress, it will:

a. deform to a shape that is not useable when the stress is removed.

b. return to its original shape or length when the stress is removed.
c. assume a permanent increase in length when the stress is removed.
d. not be thermal conductive anymore and it will be difficult to weld.

153. What is the stress called when a metal tensile specimen is stressed to failure?

a. The yield stress.

b. The ultimate tensile stress.
c. The maximum strain stress.
d. The ultimate plastic stress.

154. The ability of a material to deform plastically without fracturing, measured by elongation or reduction
of area is defined as:

a. plasticity.
b. ductility.
c. yielding.
d. flexibility.

155. The resistance of a material to plastic deformation by indentation is defined as:

a. ductility.
b. toughness.
c. hardness.
d. density.

156. Susceptibility to wet H2S cracking in carbon steel is reduced if hardness levels are maintained
below:

a. HRC 22.
b. HRC 55
c. HRC 43
d. HRC 10

157. The ability of a metal to absorb energy and deform plastically before fracturing is defined as:

a. ductility.
b. density.
c. hardness.
d. toughness.

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158. The primary purpose for preheating carbon and low-alloy steels is:

a. to lower the yielding of the weld metal and the HAZ.

b. to reduce the tendency for hydrogen induced delayed cracking.
c. to permit the amperage of the electric welding to be lowered.
d. to make the temperature of the base metal more even while welding.

159. How far on each side of the weld should preheat be maintained?

a. 4 inches.
b. 3 inches.
c. 2 inches.
d. 1 inch.

160. The primary reason for post-weld heat treatment (PWHT) is to :

a. lower the existing strain in a welded parto

b. relieve the residual stresses in a welded fabrication.
C. decrease the chances of hydrogen induced cracking.
d. make sure that all trace elements are eliminated from the weld.

161. What is the Brinnell hardness limit value for carbon steel in refining service?

a.241
b. 225
c.215
d.200

162. What are the two types of material test reports?

a. A qualitative analysis and certified mili description.

b. A material content and a mili run account.
C. A quantitative alloy report and a material explanation.
d. A heat analysis and a product analysis.

163. Typically, steels with a carbon equivalent of less that require no preheat.

a.0.35
b.0.45
c.0.50
d.0.55

164. Steels with a carbon equivalent of higher than require both preheat and PWHT.

a.0.35
b.0.45
c.0.50
d.0.55

165. The most common measure of weldability and susceptibility to hot cracking of austenitic stainless
steels is the ferrite number of the weld metal. A number of resources recommend a minimum of
to ferrite to prevent cracking.

a. 0.5%, 1.0%
b. 2%, 5%
C. 5%, 20%
d. 1%,4%

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166. What are the two main concerns when welding on in-service piping and equipment?

a. Inexperienced welders and insufficient safety permits.

b. Use of the wrong equipment and improper material.
c. Incorrect welding techniques and improper okays.
d. Burn through and cracking.

167. Hot tap and in-service welding operations should be carried out only with low-hydrogen
consumables and electrodes such as:

a. E6010
b. E7018
c. E7014
d. E7011

168. Carbon steels with a carbon equivalent (CE) greater than should be welded with an extra
low hydrogen electrode such as EXXXX-H4.

a.0.43%
b.0.35%
c.0.30%
d.0.25%

169. Liquid flow rates in piping to be hot tapped shall be between __ feet per second and feet
per second.

a. 4.5, 5.5
b. 4.0,5.0
C. 1.3,4.0
d. 0.5, 3.0

170. How much liquid should be above the area that is to be hot tapped on a storage tank or vessel?

a. 1 foot.
b. 4 feet.
C. 2 feet.
d. 3 feet.

171. What size electrode should be used on the first weld pass on a hot tap or an in-service weld on
piping or equipment less than 1/4 inch thick?

a. 3/32 inch or smaller.

b. 1/4 inch or smaller.
C. 5/16 inch or smaller.
d. 3/8 inch or smaller.

172. What type of welding hazard associated with a hot tap on piping containing ethylene would you
expect?

a. Metal burning.
b. Hydrogen embrittlement.
C. High temperature hydrogen cracking.
d. An exothermic decomposition or explosion.

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173. When using SMAW, what does the first two numbers of a E7018 electrode identify?

a. Welder position.
b. 70000 psi ultimate strength.
c. Electrode coating.
d. Alloy of electrode.

174. What does this weld symbol indicate?

a. Consumable inserto
b. Melt through.
C. Field weld.
d. Weld all around.

175. What does this weld symbol indicate?

a. Fillet weld, other side.

b. Bevel weld other side.
C. Fillet weld, arrow side.
d. Vee weld, arrow side.

176. A SMAW welder using a E7028 electrode is welding in the horizontal position. In what other
position(s) could he use this rod?

a. Flat position.
b. Horizontal position only.
C. AII positions.
[Link].

177. If a welder makes unacceptable production welds, the inspector must identify and quarantine all the
improper weldments made by the welder. The welder is then retested and fails his test. What is the next
step?

a. Identify reason the welder failed and retrain the welder.

b. Retest the welder.
C. Have the welder dismissed.
d. Move the welder to a different less critical job.

178. A SMAW welder is preparing to weld two 9% Cr-1 Mo steel plates together. What type of welding
electrode should be selected?

a. AWS A5.5 Classification E80XX-B7 or E80XX-B7L, low hydrogen.

b. AWS A5.5 Classification E80XX-B8 or E80XX-B8L, low hydrogen.
C. AWS A5.5 Classification E80XX-B6 or E80XX-B6L, low hydrogen.
d WS A5.5 Classification E80XX-C1 or E70XX-C1L,low hydrogen.

179. A SMAW welder is preparing to weld two AISI Type 321 stainless steel plates together. What type of
welding electrode should be selected?

a. AWS A5.11 Classification E321-XX

b. AWS A5.11 Classification E347-XX
C. AWS A5.11 Classification E316-XX
d. AWS A5.11 Classification E308-XX

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180. Define DCEN?

a. Don't come, entrance not open

b. Double costing, employees negated
c. Direct current, electrode negative
d. Direct current, electrode neutral

181. What is the minimum holding time recommended for a pressure test?

a. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 hours

182. What is the size of a standard Charpy V-Notch specimen?

a. 100 mm x 100 mm
b. 75 mm x 15 mm
c. 38 mm x 10 mm
d.10mmx10mm

183. What is the recommended maximum Brinell hardness or C - Y2 Mo steel?

a.225
b.241
c.22
d.55
r:
184. The ability of aluminum to transfer heat so efficiently makes it _

a. easier to weld with low temperature heat sources

b. more difficult to form the material
c. more difficult to weld with low temperature heat sources.
d. easier to form the material

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ANSWER KEY

1 B.1 SCOPE 65 B.7.3 129 D.9.11

2 C.1 SCOPE 66 B.7.5 130 B,9.11
3 C,1 SCOPE 67 C.7.7 131 C,9.11
4 A,1 SCOPE 68 A.7.7 132 C.10.2
5 C.3.1 69 D.8.1 133 B,10.2
6 B,3.2 70 B,8.2 134 D,10.2.2
7 C.3.3 71 C,8.2 135 C.10.2.2
8 D,3.4 72 C,8.2 136 B,10.2.2
9 C,3.5 73 C.8.2 137 B,10.2.2
10 D,3.6 74 A. 9.1 138 A. 10.2.2
11 B.3.7 75 B, 9.1 & TABLE 3 139 B.10.2.3
./
12 A.3.9 76 B, TABLE 2 140 D.10.2.3
13 B,3.12 77 D, FIGURE 4' 141 C,10.2.3
14 C.3.15 78 D, TABLE 5 142 D,10.3
15 D.3.16 79 B, TABLE 6 143 C,10.3.1
16 B.3.19 80 A, TABLE 6 144 B,10.3.2
17 D,3.21 81 B, TABLE 6 145 C.10.3.3
18 C.3.23 82 C. TABLE 6 146 A.10.3.4
19 D,3.25 83 B.9.2 147 C.10.3.5
20 C,3.28 84 D.9.2 148 C.10.4.1
21 D.3.30 85 B 9.3.1 & FIGURE 12 149 B.10.4.1
22 C.3.31 86 B. 9.3.1 & FIGURE 12 150 B,10.4.1
"-,3 C,3.33 87 A.9.3.1 151 B.10.4.1
24 B.3.34 88 A,9.3.1(dl 152 C,10.4.1
25 B.3.35 89 e, [Link], [Link] & [Link] 153 B.10.4.1
26 C.3.36 90 A.[Link](fl 154 B. 10.4.2
27 C,3.38 91 C,9.4.1 155 e, 10.4.3
28 D,3.40 92 D,9.4.1 156 A. 10.4.3
29 A,3.45 93 A. 9.4.2 157 D.10.4.4
30 B.3.48 94 B,9.5 158 B.10.5
31 D,3.52 95 e 9.5 159 C,10.5
32 A,3.57 96 B.9.6 160 B,10.6
33 D.3.59 97 D.9.6 161 D. 10.7 & TABLE 11
34 C,3.62 98 D,9.7 162 D.10.8
35 A.3.66 99 C,9.7 163 A.10.9.1
36 B.3.69 100 A. 9.8.1 164 D.10.9.1
37 D, 4.1,4.2,4.3, & 4.4 101 B,9.8.2 165 C.10.10.1
38 C,[Link] 102 e 9.8.2 166 D.11.2
39 D.[Link] 103 D.9.8.2 167 B.11.2.1
40 A. [Link] (a) 104 B.9.8.2 168 A.11.2.1
41 D,[Link] 105 D, TABLE 7 169 C.11.2.2
42 D.4.7 106 C. TABLE 7 170 D.11.2.2
43 B.4.7 107 D.9.8.4 171 A.11.2.3
44 C.4.7 108 C.9.8.5 172 D, TABLE 11
45 B,5.2 109 D,9.8.8 173 B. FIGURE A-6
46 D,5.2 110 C,[Link] 174 D. APPENDIX A
47 C.5.2.3 111 B.[Link] 175 C. APPENDIX A
48 B.5.3 112 B.[Link] 176 A. APPENDIX A
49 B.5.3.1 113 C.9.8.9 177 A, APPENDIX B
50 A.5.4.1 114 C.[Link] 178 B, TABLE D-1
51 B.5.5 115 D.[Link] 179 B, TABLE D-2
52 D,5.6 116 A. [Link] 180 C,3.17
53 C,5.7 117 B.[Link] 181 B,9.11
54 D.6.1 118 D.[Link] 182 D,10.4.4
55 C.6.2 119 A. [Link] 183 B.10.7, Table 11
56 B,6.2 120 D.9.9 184 C,10.3.2
57 C,6.2 121 C,9.9
58 A, 6.2 122 A.9.9.1
59 C.6.2.1 123 B.9.9
60 C.6.3 124 D.9.9.1
61 B.6.4 125 C.9.9.3
62 B.6.4.2 126 D.9.9.6
63 B, TABLE 1 127 A. 9.9.6(c)
64 C,7.2 128 D,9.10

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 CODEWEST API-570 PREP COURSE - ASME SECTION RP 577 QUIZ # 9
COPYRIGHT 2008 - J. W. COLEY, J. W. STOKES ANO COOEWEST - ALL RIGHTS RESERVEO - 00 NOT COPY WITHOUT
PERMISSION

Name: Date: _
-------------------------
1. A defect is discontinuity that renders a part unable to meet minimum acceptance standards.
,

True D False D

2. Review of WPS's is a task performed prior to welding.

True 'J False D

3. An advantage of the SMAW process is that it produces high purity welds, generally free from defects.

True O False D

4. F -number groupings are based essentially on the electrical characteristics.

True J False D

5. Electrodes that have become wet do not have to be discarded.

True J False D

6. A vernier scale is an optical aid for visual inspection.

True ::::' False D

7. The ACFM technique can be used at elevated temperatures up to 900°F.

True == False D

8. Radiographic film Classes 1, 11, and 111 are acceptable for use.

True e False D

9. UT straight beam information can be displayed by the A, B, or C sean displays.

True r False D

10. Tensile testing is used to determine only a materials yield strength.

True D False D

11. API Publ 2201 is a standard for hot tapping and in-service welding.

True J False D

12. The third X in the SMAW electrode identification system EXXXX stands for position.

True D False D

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 CODEWEST API-570 PREP COURSE - QUIZ ANSWER KEYS
COOEWEST 2008 - sv«. COLEY, sv«. STOKES ANO COOEWEST - ALL RIGHTS RESERVEO - DO NOT COPY WITHOUT PERMISSION

ANSWER KEY

RP577
QUIZ # 9 - 08
1. T, 3.16
'1 T,
•.... 4.2.3
')
oJo F, 5.2.2
4. F, 7.3
5. F, 7.7
6. F, [Link]
7. T, 9.5
8. F, 9.8.3
9. T, 8.9
10. F, 10.4.1
11. T, 11.2
12. T, Figure A-6

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1