ZIMBABWE REPUBLIC POLICE

POLICE STAFF COLLEGE

ANNUAL OPEN BOOK EXAMINATION

CONSTABLE UP TO RANK OF INSPECTOR

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Answer all questions.

 You are allowed to refer to Police Books and to discuss with others.

CRIMINAL LAW [CODIFICATION AND REFORM] ACT: [CHAPTER 9:23]

1. According to the Codification and Reform Act, marriage includes the following except
A marriage solemnised under the Marriage Act [Chapter 5:11]
B an unregistered customary law marriage,
C the Customary Marriages Act [Chapter 5:07],
D registered marriage under the African Customary laws

2. Which of the following statements according to The Criminal Codification and Reform act not
true?
A) Children under seven years of age not criminally liable
B)A childbelow the age of seven years shall be deemed to lack criminal capacity
C)A child shall not be tried for any criminal liability
D) A child shall not be tried or convicted of any crime which he or she is alleged to have committed
before attaining that age.
E. There is no presumption of criminal incapacity for persons over the age of fourteen years

3. Which of the following statements is false?

A person shall not be guilty of or liable to be punished for a crime unless-
A)the crime is not defined by this Code or any other enactment
B)the person committed the crime or was a party to its commission as provided in the Code or in the
enactment concerned
C)his or her liability is based upon voluntary conduct;
D)the person engaged in the conduct constituting the crime with any of the blameworthy states of
mind referred to in this Code or any other enactment may require
E) his or her liability is based upon unlawful conduct, that is, upon conduct for which there is no lawful
excuse affording that person a complete defence to the criminal charge
4. According to Codification Act subjective state of mind means
A) is a test whereby a court decides whether or not the person concerned actually
possessed that state of mind at the relevant time, taking into account all relevant factors that
may have influenced that person’s state of mind.
B) is whether or not the person whose conduct is in issue intended to engage in the
conduct or produce the consequence he or she did.

C) is whether or not the person whose conduct is in issue had knowledge of the relevant fact
or circumstance.
D) is a component of awareness, that is, whether or not the person whose
conduct is in issue realised that there was no risk or possibility of danger

5. Which of the following is not an essential service according to the Code?

A. any service not related to the generation, supply or distribution of electricity.
B. any fire brigade or fire service and any service relating to the supply or distribution of
water.
C. any health, hospital or ambulance service.
D. any service relating to the production, supply, delivery or distribution of fuel.

6. Any person who by procuring by force the alteration of any law or policy of the
Government commits the crime of
A. Insurgency, banditry, sabotage or terrorism
B. killing or injuring any other person
C. inflicting substantial financial loss upon any other person
D. Causing disaffection among the government

7. In determining whether or not a disturbance of peace, security or order or an invasion of rights is

sufficiently serious to constitute the crime of public violence, a court shall take into account all relevant
factors except
(a) the nature and duration of the disturbance or invasion;
(b) the motive of the persons involved in the disturbance or invasion;
(c) whether the disturbance or invasion occurred in a public place or on private property;
(d) whether or not the persons involved in the disturbance or invasion were sober or not
[Link] according Code refers to except
A) any act or form of expression,
B) verbal, written or visual
C) gesture
D) any film, picture, publication, statue or record that is of a bona fide literary or artistic character.

9. Any person who causes the death of another person intending to kill the other
person or realising that there is a real risk or possibility that his or her conduct
may cause death, and continues to engage in that conduct despite the risk or
possibility shall be guilty of
A murder.
B. Infanticide
[Link]
D culpable homicide

10. If any person thinking that by his or her conduct has killed the other person, disposes or attempts to
dispose of the other person’s body that person shall be guilty of
A murder or infanticide
B Infanticide alone
[Link] disposing a suspected dead body
D. homicide

11. Taking of property or keeping of property by means of a threat of violence shall constitute an
offence of:
A. Robbery
B. No offence
C. Threat of violence
D. Threat of future violence

12. Any person who is a citizen of or ordinarily resident in Zimbabwe and does an act outside
Zimbabwe with the intention of overthrowing the government shall be liable to a charge of:
A. No charge since its outside Zimbabwe
B. Subversive statement
C. Terrorism
D. Treason

13. A person who knowingly commits any sexual act with a bird shall be charged of:
A. No charge
B. Rape
C. Sodomy
D. Bestiality

14. A person who buries, abandons or disposes of the body of a child with the intention of
concealing the fact of as birth whether the child was still born or died during or after birth shall:
A. Be excused of a murder charge
B. Not be liable to any charge
C. Be charged of concealing birth of a child
D. Causing abortion

15. Property capable of being stolen does not include:

A. Money, cash notes or coins
B. Shares in any business undertaking
C. Electricity and electromagnetic waves emitted by a telecommunications or broadcasting
system
D. Eggs, honey and other produce of wild animals which has not been taken into possession
by anyone.

16. Defraud means

 A. Not causing fraud
B. Causing potential loss
C. Commit a case of fraud upon a person
D. Misrepresentation by documents only causing actual or potential prejudice as the case
may be.

17. Any person who in any manner communicates with another person intending to persuade that
other person to commit a crime commits a crime of :
A. Threats
B. Conspiracy
C. Attempted defeating the course of justice
D. Incitement

18. Which of the following is not a case of defeating the course of justice:
A. Making a statement to a police officer falsely alleging that a crime has been committed.
B. Intentionally agrees with another person that in return for reward he or she will not report to
a police officer the commission of crime.
C. Not knowing that a police officer is investigating the commission of an offence, causes
such investigation to be defeated or obstructed.
D. Making a statement whether written or oral in connection with any case which is pending
before court intending the statement to prejudice the trial of the case

19. Unlawful dealing in dangerous drugs includes:

i. Supplies or administering or procure for any person dangerous drugs
ii. Cultivate, produce or manufacture dangerous drug for dealing
iii. Not visiting another person
iv. to consume a dangerous drug

A) (i) and (iii)

B) (i) and (ii)
C) (iii) only
D) (i)(ii) and (iv)

20. Dangerous drugs includes the following except:

A. Any coca bush, coca leaf
B. Raw opium or cannabis
C. Resin
D. Any plant of not a genus cannabis or Indian herb

21. Polygamous marriage in terms of codification and reform means:

A. Potentially polygamous marriage
B. Registered customary law marriage
C. Marriage that permits the husband to marry another woman while remaining married to the
wife
D. Unpolygamous marriage consisting husband and single

22. In terms of Codification and Reform Act prostitute does not mean:
A) Male prostitutes
B) Male or female person who asks for money after sex
C) A female person that allows other persons to have anal or extra-marital sexual intercourse
with a man
D) Female prostitutes only

23. Termination of pregnancy according to codification is:

A) Acceptance by the society
B) Not an offence at all
C) A crime targeting the mother of dead child only
D) An intentional act which when committed court may sentence accused to not less than 5
years in prison or both such sentence and fine.
24. According to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, Theft and Stock theft
continue to be committed by a thief:-
A. As long as he is still in possession of the stolen property of produce
B. Even if the thief subsequently losses possession of the property stolen
C. If he/she continues to steal
D. On disposal of the stolen loot
E. Who is in police custody

25. A gold licence “renewed” on or after 1st of December shall expire:-

A. On 31st December of that year

B. On 31st of December of the next following year
C. On the 1st of December next succeeding the date of renewal
D. On the 30th of November the following year

26. The following factors constitute the crime of Criminal Insult

i) The nature of the words or conduct

ii) Any previous relationship between the parties
iii) The age and sex of the person whose dignity was impaired or privacy was invaded
iv) The degree of offence caused to the persons whose dignity was impaired
v) The extent to which the words were repeated or the conduct was persisted

a) i, ii, iii and iv

b) i, ii, iii and v
c) i, ii, and iii
d) i, ii, iii, iv and v
e) i, iii, iv and v

27. Which of the following does not constitute law enforcement agency

A Police Constabulary
B Intelligence Service
C Police Force
D Defence Force
E Ancillary Service

28. What defences can X, charged for Malicious Damage to Property raise where he burns down his
matrimonial home after heated arguments with Y his spouse
A That he was a co-owner of the house
B Provocation
C There is no crime hence no need for a defence
D Existing marriage
E No defence

29. Who shall authorise prosecution in cases of rape, indecent assault or aggravated indecent assault
committed by a male person to his spouse
A No authority is required
B Chief Magistrate
C Attorney General
D The complainant
E The Prosecutor

30. Who shall authorize prosecution to be instituted against a spouse for stealing or unlawfully
borrowing or using property belonging to the other spouse or that forms part of the spouse's joint
estate?
A Director of Prosecutions
B Senior Public Prosecutor
C Attorney - General
D Any Public Prosecutor
 E Ombudsman

31. With reference to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, the term “prostitute”
means…
(A) A male or female person
(B) Female person only
(C) Male person only
(D) None of the above

32. Johannes forces Sarah to have sexual intercourse with him per anum realizing that she has not
consented. What offence, if any has he committed?
(A) Rape
(B) Indecent Assault
(C) Aggravated Indecent Assault
(D) No Offence

33. According to the Criminal Law codification and reform Act, Knowledge and realization of risk are
tested…
(A) Subjectively
(B) Objectively
(C) Reasonably
(D) Practically

34. In terms of the Criminal Law Codification and reform Act, Any person who incites any other person
to do any act, whether inside or outside Zimbabwe, with the intention of overthrowing the
Government shall be guilty of:
A. Incitement
B. Incitement to treason
C. Treason
D. Incitement to terrorism

35. X knowingly that he is infected with HIV has sexual intercourse with Jane who is also aware that she has
the AIDS virus. What offencewas committed by X.
A. Deliberate transmission of an STI.
B. No offence
C. Deliberate transmission of HIV.
D. None of the above.

36. Which of the following does not constituteviolence against women?

A. Physical, sexual or psychological harm.
B. Threats of physical, sexual or psychological harm.
C. Coercion or arbitrary deprivation of liberty.
D. Nontraditional practices harmful to women.

37. Which of the following people can make an application to the High Court for the removal from life
support in respect of a terminally ill patient?
(i) Spouse
(ii) Brother
(iii) Parent
(iv) Tutor
(v) Person in-charge of hospital

(A) (ii); (iii);(iv) and (v)

(B) None of them
(C) (iii) only
(D) All of them

38. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, [Chapter 9:23], a ‘person’ is …
(A) Any person who is living and capable of standing trial either as an accused or witness
 (B) A person against whose property or other interests a crime is committed, and includes the
State.
(C) A person against whose or other interests a crime is committed includes the State.
(D) Any person against whom an offence has been committed including the State.

39. In terms of the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Intention is tested…
(A) Subjectively
(B) Objectively
(C) Realization of real risk
(D) Practically

40. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23], the term ‘court’ refers
to……
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) A local court in terms of the Customary Law and Local Courts Act [Chapter 7:05]
(C) Any other Court or tribunal
(D) None of the above

41. In terms of the Criminal Law Codification & Reform Act chapter 9:23, Violating graves means the
following: -
A. Revaulting the tombstone.
B. Refusing to bury your relative on the basis of mistaken of identity which presses pressure on
another person to dig for more facts.
C. Realising that one is a party to the burial ceremony and one decides not to appear on that
ceremony besides having been warned verbally of the consequences.
D. Includes to destroy or damage the grave or immediate surroundings of the grave or take any
article from there.

42. Which of the following is not a permissible verdict for the crime of Culpable
Homicide?
A. Inciting suicide
B. Rape
C. Assault
D. Murder

43. Mary forces John to have intercourse with her. What Offence?
A. Rape.
B. Indecent assault.
C. Aggravated indecent assault.
D. All of the above

44. X made a false statement upon oath in judicial proceedings which were held before a court that was
not properly constituted. What offence was committed by X?

A. Perjury.
B. Contempt of court.
C. Defeating or obstructing the course of justice.
D. No offence.

45. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23], on concealment of birth and
exposure of infants define the term ‘child’ as one that…
(A) Does not include a foetus which has issued forth from its mother before the twenty-seventh
week of pregnancy
(B) Does not include a foetus which has issued forth from its mother before the twenty-eighth
week of pregnancy
(C) Does include a foetus which has issues forth from its mother after the twenty-eighth week
of pregnancy
(D) Does not include a child which has issued forth from its mother before the twenty-eighth
week of pregnancy.
46. James forcibly and to a serious extent disturbs the peace, security or order of the public. Which of
the following charge is appropriate in the circumstances?
(A) Public violence
(B) Disorderly conduct in a public place
(C) Causing Offence to a person of a particular role
(D) None

47. What is a “Statement” in terms of Crimes against the State?

(A) An expression of fact made either orally, in writing, electronically or by visual images
(B) An expression of fact or opinion made in writing
(C) An expression of fact or opinion either orally or in writing
(D) None

48. Upon the conclusion of criminal proceedings resulting in the conviction of a person of a dangerous
drugs crime, the court shall order that any dangerous drugs be forfeited to the State. Where the
dangerous drug other than cannabis shall, be delivered to for safe custody?
A. Any nearest police station.
B. Any nearest C.I.D offices.
C. The Officer Commanding Province where the drug was seized.
D. The Officer Commanding District where the drug was seized.

49. According to the Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act Chapter 9:23, “infant” means;
A. A person under the age of twelve years.
B. A person under the age of sixteen years.
C. Perjury.
D. A person under the age of eighteen years

50. Peter is charged of possessing dangerous weapons. How would the prosecution be handled?
(A) Only with the authority of the Attorney General
(B) Only after satisfying the Attorney General
(C) No need for consultation
(D) Only with the authority of Dispol

51. According to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act [chapter 9:23], a school teacher means
(A) The Headmaster
(B) The Head of the institution
(C) A school teacher employed at the respective school
(D) The head or deputy head of the school

52. In prosecuting corporations (corporate bodies), the following shall be considered a ‘director’ a
person who ………….
(i) Controls or governs that corporate body
(ii) The managing director of the corporate body and his deputies
(iii) Is a member of a body or group of persons which controls or governs that corporate body,
whether lawfully or otherwise
(iv) Any director who sits on the boards of the respective corporate body
(v) Where there is no body or group who is a member

(A) (i); (ii) and (v)

(B) (ii); (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i); (iii) and (v)
(D) (iv) only

[Link] deciding whether or not there is a causal link between a person’s conduct and the death of
another person, a court of law shall be guided by non of the following factors except
(A) A subsequent event which is normal, that is to say, which is likely in light of human
experience to follow the conduct, may be regarded as breaking the causal link unless it
was planned or anticipated by the person responsible for the conduct
 (B) It is within the range of ordinary human experience that particular persons may suffer from
ailments of physical suscebilities which make them more liable than other persons to die
from assaults or some other unlawful conduct
(C) The conduct of the person concerned in relation to cause of the death of the deceased
(D) Takes cognizance of all of the above said factors

[Link] terms of sexual crimes and Crimes against morality, the term ‘place’ includes
(i) House
(ii) Any premises
(iii) Enclosure
(iv) Any caravan or vehicle
(v) Boat or trailer
(vi) Vehicle or boat

(A) (ii); (iii) and (vi)

(B) (i); (ii); (iii) and (v)
(C) (i); (iii) and (vi)
(D) (i); (ii) and (iii)

55. According to the Criminal Codification and reform Act [chapter 9:23], a person charged with
murder, infanticide or culpable homicide mistakenly believed that a person whose death he/she
caused was someone else shall raise a defence of
(A) Mistaken identity
(B) Not constitute a defence to the charge
(C) Compulsion
(D) Mistake of fact or identity

56. 55A person may be found guilty as an accessory after the fact to a crime even if……
(A) The actual perpetrator is unaware of any assistance rendered by the person
(B) He does not understand the legality of his actions
(C) He did not actually participate in the crime committed due to his mental disorder
(D) None of the above

57. A qualified person in relation to any medical treatment or operation means….

(A) A certified medical practitioner
(B) A Government medical officer
(C) A person who by virtue of his/her qualifications or training, is in all the circumstances
qualified to give medical treatment or perform the medical operation
(D) A medically certified person who is a specialist in a specified medical area and is duly
registered to so practice with the Health Professions Council of Zimbabwe

58. What is the correct title of our new criminal code?

(A) Criminal Law (Reform) Act Chapter 9:23
(B) Criminal Law (Codified and Reform) Act Chapter 9:23
(C) Criminal Law (Codification and Reform Act)
(D) Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act [Chapter 9:23]

59. John forces Mary to suck his penis. What offence, if any has he committed?
(A) No offence
(B) Aggravated Indecent assault
(C) Indecent Assault
(D) None of the above

60. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act,[Chapter 9:23], the following acts
constitute Criminal nuisance
(i) Rings any bell
(ii) Goes about scolding people
(iii) Knocks at doors
(iv) Does any act of a like nature
(v) Utters insulting words in the public
 (vi) Skates in or upon any street, road, thoroughfare, sidewalk or pavement

(A) (i);(ii);(iii) and (vi)

(B) (i);(iii);(iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii);(v) and (vi)
(D) (i);(ii);(iii);(iv) and (v)

61 The corresponding crime in the code for violating a grave is…

(A) Violating a dead body
(B) Violating graves
(C) Violating Corpses
(D) Violating corpses and graves

62. The following offences are in connection with which bail may not be granted in terms of section
132(1) of the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23]
(i) Murder
(ii) Culpable Homicide
(iii) Any conspiracy, incitement or attempt to commit an offence specified in paragraphs 1 to 13
(iv) Robbery
(vi) Stock Theft

(A) (i);(iii);(iv) and (v)

(B) (i);(ii);(iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii);(iii) and (v)
(D) (iv) only

63. A person accused of robbery shall be entitled to rely upon a certain defence if he/she had been
accused of theft of the property concerned. What is the defence that the accused will rely upon?
(A) Mistake of fact
(B) Mistake of law
(C) Provocation
(D) Any defence that would have been available.

64. A parent, guardian, spouse or any person capable in law of giving consent on behalf of a mentally
disordered or intellectually handicapped female person may apply for an order authorizing her
sterilisation. To which of the following authority can this be applied?
(A) Secretary of Home Affairs
(B) Secretary of the Ministry of Health
(C) The High Court
(D) None of the above

65. With reference to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, the term “prostitute”
means…
(A) A male or female person
(B) Female person only
(C) Male person only
(D) None of the above

66. According to Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, who is a young person with
reference to sexual crimes?
(A) A girl under the age of 16
(B) A boy or girl under the age of 16
(C) A young person below 16 years
(D) None

67. Johaness forces Sarah to have sexual intercourse with him per anum realizing that she has not
consented. What offence, if any has he committed?
(A) Rape
(B) Indecent Assault
(C) Aggravated Indecent Assault
 (D) No Offence

68. According to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, the incapacity of a child
between the age of seven and below the age of fourteen may be rebutted if, at the time of the
commission of the offence for which such child is charged …
(i) To interpret the illegality of his actions
(ii) To be capable of conforming with the requirements of the law
(iii) To assist a mature person to commit a fifth schedule offence
(iv) To understand that his/her conduct was unlawful or morally wrong
(v) These minors are never criminally liable
(vi) To meet the requirements of the test for objectivity and subjectivity or realizing that there is
a real risk or possibility of committing an offence in the circumstance
(A) (i);(ii);(iv) and (vi)
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i);(iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv);(v) and (iv)

69. With reference to hijacking and other crimes involving aircraft, the term ‘crew’ means…
(A) The Pilot, engine men and flight lieutenants
(B) The Pilot and flight lieutenants
(C) Any official on the flight including air hostess
(D) Any person connected with the operation of the aircraft, and includes flight attendants and
air hostess.

70. Which of the following people can make an application to the High Court for the removal from life
support in respect of a terminally patient?
(i) Spouse
(ii) Brother
(iii) Parent
(iv) Tutor
(v) Person in-charge of hospital

(A) (ii); (iii);(iv) and (v)

(B) None of them
(C) (iii) only
(D) All of them

71. Martha kills a child within 8 months of its birth when her balance of mind is still disturbed by the
effects of giving birth. What offence, if any has she committed?
(A) No offence
(B) Murder
(C) Infanticide
(D) Concealing birth
72. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, [Chapter 9:23], the permissive verdicts
for corruptly using a false document are…
(i) Fraud
(ii) Uttering a forged document
(iii) Bribery
(iv) Corruptly using a false document
(v) Corruptly concealing a transaction from a principal
(vi) Any crime of which a person might be convicted if he/she were charged with bribery

(A) (iii) and (vi) only

(B) (i) ;( ii) ;( iii) and (vi)
(C) (i) ;( iii) ;( iv) and (v)
(D) (ii) ;( iii) ;( iv) and (vi)

73. A person convicted of attempted murder or of incitement or conspiracy to commit murder shall be
liable to be sentenced
(A) To imprisonment for life or any shorter period
 (B) To death if there are extenuating factors in the circumstances
(C) To death or to imprisonment for life or any shorter period
(D) To death in all circumstances

74. With reference to sexual intercourse within a prohibited degree of relationship, the term ‘second
cousin’ in relation to any person means
(A) The child or any descendent of the child of the uncle or aunt of such person
(B) The Child or any descendant of the child of the great uncle or great aunt of such person
(C) The child or any descendant of any uncle, aunt or great uncle or great aunt.
(D) The child or descendant of any uncle or any aunt

75. In proving the crime of perjury, a statement shall be false by reason of…
(A) Containing false facts about an issue
(B) Omission of facts relevant to proving pertinent ideas
(C) Omission of facts as well and insertion of untrue or incorrect facts
(D) Omission of facts as well as by assertion of untrue or incorrect facts

76. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act,[Chapter 9:23], defines a ‘person’ as in relation to…
(A) Any person who is living and capable of standing trial either as an accused or witness
(B) A person against whose property or other interests a crime is committed, and includes the
State.
(C) A person against whose or other interests a crime is committed includes the State.
(D) Any person against whom an offence has been committed and including the States

77. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act,[Chapter 9:23], in what circumstance is
a person compelled to give evidence in incriminating himself?
(A) In all cases involving sexual intercourse with a person within a prohibited degree of
relationship
(B) In all cases of rape involving his blood child
(C) In all cases of sexual nature involving immediate daughters
(D) In no cases at all

78. Henry incites his wife to kill herself because she has HIV and AIDS. What offence has he
committed if there is any?
(A) No Offence
(B) Murder
(C) Inciting or assisting suicide
(D) Domestic Violence

79. Stanley kills his wife because she has requested to be killed and is terminally ill with so much pain.
What offence, if any has he committed?
(A) Mercy killing
(B) Murder
(C) Inciting the suicide
(D) No offence

80. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23], poppy straw as …
(A) Powdered or granulated opium that also includes medical opium
(B) All parts (except the seeds) of the opium poppy after mowing
(C) The plant of the species Papaver Somniferous L
(D) Coagulated juice of the opium poppy

81. What is the correct position of the Roman Dutch Law now?
(A) The non-statutory Roman Dutch criminal law no longer applies
(B) The statutory Roman Dutch Law no longer applies
(C) Roman Dutch Law applies as and when the court sees fit
(D) None of the above

82. Mhosva commits a crime against public security of Zimbabwe while he is in South Africa. Can our
courts try him?
 (A) It is not impossible because the crime was committed wholly outside
(B) It is possible because all crimes against public security of Zimbabwe can be tried in
Zimbabwe
(C) It is not possible because this has no effect in Zimbabwe
(D) It is not possible because our courts have no jurisdiction

83. Liability for criminal conduct shall be…..

(A) As defined by the code only
(B) As defined by the code and any other enactment
(C) In terms of the code and Common Law
(D) In terms of the and Statute Law

84. What is the correct position on the causation of crimes?

(i) A person can only be guilty if his conduct caused the crime only
(ii) If his conduct caused or substantially contributed to a crime
(iii) It is no longer considered

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (v)
(D) All of them

85. Realisation of real risk or possibility has two components namely…

(i) Awareness
(ii) Recklessness
(iii) Provocative
(iv) Negligence

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) only

86. Knowledge and realization of risk are tested…

(A) Subjectively
(B) Objectively
(C) Reasonably
(D) Practically

87. Intention is tested…

(A) Subjectively
(B) Objectively
(C) Realization of real risk
(D) Practically

88. Subjective test is whereby a court looks at whether or not:-

(A) The person concerned actually possessed that state of mind at the relevant time
(B) The person of sound
(C) The person concerned possessed an average state of the mind
(D) He was lunatic

89. Negligence is tested…

(A) Objectively
(B) Reasonably
(C) Practically
(D) None of the above
90. What is the degree and burden of proof in criminal cases?
(A) Beyond a shadow of doubt
(B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
(C) Beyond a balance of probabilities
 (D) None of the above

91. Crimes against the State are found in which Chapter of the Code?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

92. Law Enforcement Agents in terms of crimes against the State include…
(i) The Police
(ii) An intelligence service
(iii) An intelligence service maintained by the Government
(iv) All the above

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iv)

93. What is a “Statement” in terms of Crimes against the State?

(A) An expression of fact made either orally, in writing, electronically or by visual images
(B) An expression of fact or opinion made in writing
(C) An expression of fact or opinion either orally or in writing
(D) None

94. Nyambo is charged of possession of dangerous weapons. How would the prosecution be handled?
(A) Only with the authority of the Attorney General
(B) Only after satisfying the Attorney General
(C) No need for consultation
(D) Only with the authority of Dispol
95. In respect of the offence causing disaffection among the police or defence force, the intention must
have been to…
(A) Cause withholding of services, loyalty or allegiance
(B) Cause mutiny
(C) Cause desertion
(D) Cause breaches of discipline

96. Toindepi forcibly and to a serious extent disturbs the peace, security or order of the public. Which
of the following charge is appropriate in the circumstances?
(A) Public violence
(B) Disorderly conduct in a public place
(C) Causing Offence to a person of a particular role
(D) None

97. A person who becomes aware of the bandit insurgents shall report such an occurrence within a
certain period of time, failure of which he is liable to a charge. What is the length of the period
within which a report needs to be filed?
(A) As soon as is reasonably practicable
(B) As soon as reasonable practicable and in some cases within 72 hours
(C) As soon as is reasonably practicable and in any event within 72 hours
(D) All of the above are relevant

98. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23], which of the following
does not meet the definition of the term ‘court’?
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) A local court in terms of the Customary Law and Local Courts Act [Chapter 7:05]
(C) Any other Court or tribunal
(D) None of the above
99. Which of the following statements is true in defining the term ‘assault’ in terms of the Criminal
Code?
(A) Infliction of bodily injury to the body of a different person
(B) Any act by a person that causes any substance to be consumed by another person without
the person’s consent
(C) Any harm causing pain or discomfort to the body by another person
(D) Any impairment of the body or its functions, whether temporary or permanent

100. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act [Chapter 9:23], on concealment of birth and
exposure of infants define the term ‘child’ as one that…
(A) Does not include a foetus which has issued forth from its mother before the twenty-seventh
week of pregnancy
(B) Does not include a foetus which has issued forth from its mother before the twenty-eighth
week of pregnancy
(C) Does include a foetus which has issues forth from its mother after the twenty-eighth week
of pregnancy
(D) Does not include a child which has issued forth from itsmother before the twenty-eighth
week of pregnancy.

101. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, a person may be tried,

convicted and punished for a crime, whether in terms of this Code or any other enactment, where
the crime or an essential element of the crime was committed :-

(i) Wholly inside Zimbabwe

(ii) Partly outside Zimbabwe, if the conduct that completed the offence took place inside
Zimbabwe
(iii) Wholly or partly outside Zimbabwe
(iv) Partly and Wholly in Zimbabwe
(v) Only wholly in Zimbabwe
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i) only
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (i), (iii) and (v)
E. (iv) and (v)

102.A permissible verdict for Subverting a Constitutional Government, with reference to the Criminal
Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23 is :-

A. Acts of Insurgents and Banditry

B. Terrorism and Banditry
C. Causing disaffection among Police Force or Defence Forces
D. Coup De tat
E. Showing no respect for a Constitutionally constituted Government

[Link] terms of the Magistrates Court Act whose responsibility is it administer oaths?
A. Public Prosecutor
B. Clerk of court in the Presence of the Magistrate
C. Interpreter
D. Defense Counsel
E. All of all the above
[Link] punishment of whipping may be imposed in the case of a conviction:-
F. For criminal injury
G. For culpable homicide
H. For attempted murder
I. Of a person under the age of 18 yrs
J. For all the above
[Link] the following who falls under the definition of “ principal” in terms of the Prevention of Corruption
act?.
A. The State only
B. Any Master as defined under the Masters and Servants Acts
 C. Any employer
D. The Principal accused
[Link] Conduct, according to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, may
consist of:-

A. An omission together with an Act

B. Both an act and an omission
C. Either an act or an omission
D. An act only
E. An act of commission and an act of omission

[Link] of the following persons may enter and search premises, vehicle or mine where explosives are
kept or manufactured?
1. Any police Officer
2. Any Inspector
3. A sub-inspector
4. A police Assistant Inspector and above
5. Member of the bomb disposal team(s)
K. 1, 2, and 4
L. 4 and 5
M. 2 only
N. 2 and 5
[Link] reference to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, the test for the
knowledge a s an element of the crime is :-

A. Real risk or possibility

B. Objective and Real risk or possibility
C. Both subjective and Objective
D. Objective
E. Subjective

[Link] gives the Police authority to stop and search any vessel according to the Criminal Law
Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23:-

A. It is not necessary as it is searched without a warrant by any Police Officer

B. Superintendent
C. The Officer Commanding Province
D. The Ship Captain
E. Secretary to the Ministry of Tourism

110. Every holder of a gold recovery works licence shall deliver all gold to the holder of a dealing licence.
A. Not later than the 1st of every month
B. Not later than the 7th of every month
C. Not later than the 15th of every month
D. Not later than the 10th of every month
E. By the last day of each month
111. According to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, Theft and Stock theft
continue to be committed by a thief:-
A. As long as he is still in possession of the stolen property of produce
B. Even if the thief subsequently losses possession of the property stolen
C. If he/she continues to steal
D. On disposal of the stolen loot
E. Who is in police custody

112. A gold licence “renewed” on or after 1st of December shall expire:-

E. On 31st December of that year

F. On 31st of December of the next following year
G. On the 1st of December next succeeding the date of renewal
H. On the 30th of November the following year
 I. On the 30th of June , the following year
113. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, define Camouflage Uniform as:-
A. Any green like leaves wearing apparel
B. Any military green sported wearing apparel
C. Any article of wearing apparel made of material carrying military-style camouflage
markings
D. Any wearing apparel resembling military uniforms
E. Any green like leaves coloured wearing apparel denoting military regalia

114. Who issues a permit to dispose or to acquire not gold in excess of one ounce?

A. The Minister
B. The Owner of the mine
C. The Governor of the Reserve Bank
D. None of the above
E. The Minister of mines
115. A person shall be found guilty of an offence of Criminal Abuse of duty as a Public Officer if he
according to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23:-
(i) Does anything that is contrary or inconsistent with his duty as a Public Officer
(ii) Is not always honesty
(iii) Fails to satisfactorily perform his duties
(iv) Omit to do anything which it his or her duty as a Public Officer
A. (ii) only
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iii)
E. (iv) only
116. What is a ‘school’ according to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23?
A. A primary school
B. A college
C. Both Primary and Secondary school
D. Government Schools
E. Any education institution of any kind

117. Which of the following does the law considers’ writing’?

1. Photography
2. Lithography
3. Calligraphy
4. Printing
5. Typewriting
A. All of the above
B. 1,2,4 and 5
C. 1,4,and 5
D. 1,2 and 3
E. 2,4 and 5
118. For the purpose of ascertaining the content of any enactment or other matter published in the Gazette,
reference may be made to :-
A. A copy of such enactment purporting to be the Government printer.
B. A master copy of such enactment kept by the Secretary to Parliament
C. The statutory law inventory of Gazettes
D. A copy of such enactment marinated by the High Court of Zimbabwe.
E. None of the above
119. The Common Law crime of CrimenInjuria has a corresponding crime in the Criminal Codification
and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23. Which one is this?
A. Criminal Defamation
B. Aggravated Indecent Assault
C. Indecent exposure
D. Criminal Insult
E. Criminal Injury to property
120. In terms of the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, a person convicted as an
accomplice:-
A. Is entitled to the same punishment as if he were an actual perpetrator
B. A lesser punitive punishment
C. Is used as a witness against the actual perpetrator always
D. Warned and discharged
E. Is not charged

121. In terms of the ‘Code’, “judicial officer” means the following except
A) The Magistrate presiding over a case.
B) An officer presiding over a tribunal
C) The President of Zimbabwe.
D) A Judge Presiding over the court.

122. X, a boy aged 12, enters a supermarket and takes an ice-cream and walks unnoticed. What crime
does X commit?
A) No offence, he is incapable of committing a crime.
B) Making off without payment
C) Theft
D) Stock Theft or Theft of Stock Produce

123. A mother carrying a 3 year old baby on her back is paying for her groceries at a till. The child reaches
out and picks a chocolate bar. Upon exit, the security guard discovers that the child was holding a
chocolate bar not paid for. What crime does the mother commit?
A) Incitement to commit Theft
B) Attempted Theft
C) Concealment of stolen property
D) No crime.

[Link] the crime of ‘Unlawful Entry into Premises’, entry does not include: -
A) Inserting any part of one’s body into premises.
B) Break open the door.
C) Inserting an instrument to fish property through open window.
D) Entry into premises while there is nothing to steal.
125.“Sexually transmitted disease” does not include,
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Herpes
D) HIV

[Link] ZRP as an organization is mainly concerned with which sub-branch of law?

A) Public Law
B) Private Law
C) Civil Procedure
D) Criminal Law.

[Link] means any of the following except: -

A) Local Court
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Magistrate Court

128. A threat to commit any of the following offences constitutes a crime except: -
A) Murder
B) Assault
C) Theft
D) Aggravated Assault.
[Link] did the Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act come into effect?
A) 1 June 1996
 B) 1 June 2006
C) 1 June 2005
D) 1 June 2007

130. Recruits running during a PT along Herbert Chitepo Ave started singing an obscene song. What
offence did they commit?
A) No offence
B) Public Violence
C) Public Indecency
D) Public Nuisance
131. Which of the following does not constitute ‘deal in’?
A) Offer
B) Sill
C) Donate
D) Hire

132. An ‘infant’ means: -

A) A person under the age of 7 years.
B) A person between 7 and 14 years.
C) A person above 16 years but below 18 years.
D) None of the above.

133. Which part of law regulates relationship between State and its subjects?
A) Law of persons
B) Delict
C) Public Law
D) Private Law.

134. Pick the odd one out.

A) Intoxication.
B) Automatism.
C) Youthfulness
D) Reasonableness.

135. Which one the following is not a state of mind?

A) Anger
B) Intention.
C) Knowledge
D) Realization of real risk.

136. Who authorizes prosecution of the little children?

a) The Attorney General.
b) The President.
c) The Officer in Charge.
D) The Chief Magistrate.

137. Crimes which do not require the mental element are called: -

A) Serious Crimes.
B) Dangerous Crimes.
C) Unfinished Crimes.
D) Strict liability offences.

138. Which defence affects intention?

A) Compulsion.
B) Necessity.
C) Minority.
D) Ignorance.

139. Of the following, which does not constitute unfinished crime?

 A) Attempt.
B) Threats.
C) Conspiracy.
D) Incitement.

140. Which age is deemed to lack criminal capacity and which cannot be prosecuted?
A) 12 years and below.
B) Under 7 years.
C) Between 7 and 12 years.
D) Under 14 years.
141. According to Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act Chapter 9:23 police means

A. Includes a Police Constabulary member or a Special Constable as defined in Section 2 of the

Police Act Chapter 11:10.
B. The Police Force or police officer.
C. Includes Police Reserve, Police Constabulary or Special Constable as defined in the Police
Act and Regulations.
D. All police officers of any rank to include Special Constable and Police Constabulary.

142. A child below the age of seven years shall be deemed to lack criminal capacity
hence shall:-
A. Be tried or convicted of any crime which he or she is alleged to have committed by a juvenile
court.
B. Be excused by the High Court for whatever he or she has committed after attaining the age of
seven years of age.
C. Not be tried or convicted of any crime alleged to have been committed before attaining age of
seven.
D. Be sent to probation first before trial to establish the blameworthy state of mind of the minor.
E. To lack the capacity to form the intention necessary to commit the offence.

143. According to Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act prostitute means: -

A. Any female person who for money or reward allows a man to have sexual intercourse with
her.
B. Any person who solicits men to have sexual intercourse with her.
C. Any female person who have intercourse with a male person either for a reward or not as long
as they are not married.
D. A male or female person who for money or reward allows other persons to have anal or
extra-marital sexual intercourse or engage in other sexual conduct with him or her or solicits
other persons to have and or extra-marital sexual intercourse or engage in other sexual
conduct with him or her.

144. James forged a document by putting a signature which purported to be made by

another person and he attempted to erase it but was arrested before the
obliteration. What offence if any was committed by James?
A. Fraud
B. Miscellaneous codification
C. Malicious damage to document or property of another.
D. Forgery.

145. Dangerous drugs includes : -

(i) Coca bush

(ii) Prepared opium
(iii) Cannabis resin
(iv) Raw opium
(v) A Scheduled drug
A. (i), (iii), (v) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (iii), (iv) and (v)
D. All of the above
 E. None of the above.

146.‘Property capable of being stolen’ does not include any of the following things except:-
A. Property that is common to everyone such as water in a public stream
B. Shares in any business undertaking.
C. Wild animals, birds, insects and fish that have not been reduced to
captivity
D. Eggs, honey and other produce of wild animals, birds insects and fish
which has not been taken into possession by anyone.
E. Property that has been finally and absolutely abandoned by its owner.

147. A polygamous marriage means:-

i. An unregistered customary law marriage
ii. A marriage celebrated in terms of the Marriages Act (Chapter 5:11)
iii. A marriage celebrated according to customary law and solemnised in terms of the
customary Marriages Act (Chapter 5:07)
iv. Any other marriage celebrated inside or outside Zimbabwe under a law which prohibits the
parties from marrying anyone else while they remain married to each other.

A. i, ii and iii.
B. i, iii
C. ii, iv
D. i Only.

148. According to the Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act, Chapter 9:23 which of the following
ministers administers the Act
A. Minister of Constitutional Affairs
B. Minister of Home Affairs
C. Minister of Justice, Legal and Parliamentary Affairs.
D. Minister of Local Government

149. According to the Code, where knowledge is an element of any crime, the test shall be
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Reasonableness
D. Balance of probabilities

150. Any person who incites any other person to do any act, whether inside or outside Zimbabwe, with the
intention of overthrowing the Government shall be guilty of:
A. Incitement
B. Incitement to treason
C. Treason
D. Incitement to terrorism

151. Any person who , in a public police intentionally engages in disorderly or riotous conduct commits the
crime of
A. Conduct
B. Disorderly conduct in a public police
C. Public violence
D. Public nuisance

152. X was arrested for making a statement that was false in a material particular in a public place and in
the presence of a police officer who was on duty. What offence did X commit-
A. Contempt
B. Deliberately supplying false information to a public authority
C. Undermining of police authority
D. Perjury

153. Violating graves means the following: -

 E. Revaulting the tombstone.
F. Refusing to bury your relative on the basis of mistaken of identity which presses pressure on
another person to dig for more facts.
G. Realising that one is a party to the burial ceremony and one decides not to appear on that
ceremony besides having been warned verbally of the consequences.
H. Includes to destroy or damage the grave or immediate surroundings of the grave or take any
article from there.

154. Any person who, while present at a public gathering has with him any stone, weaponry or offensive
material shall be charged of what offence?

A. Possession of article for criminal use.

B. Possession of offensive weapons at public gatherings
C. Intimidation.
D. No offence.

155. Which of the following is not a permissible verdict for the crime of Culpable
Homicide?
A. Inciting suicide
B. Rape
C. Assault
D. Murder

156. Chapter IV of the Code deals with crimes against public order. Which one of the
following is not covered under this chapter?
A. Public Violence
B. Intimidation
C. Criminal nuisance
D. Undermining authority of or insulting the President
157. Slight bodily injuries from customary or religious practices includes the following
except:
A. Genital mutilation
B. Male circumcision
C. Minor razor cuts for application of traditional medicine
D. All of the above
158. X was arrested for making a false statement to a police officer alleging that a
crime has been committed knowing that the allegation was false or realizing that
there was a real risk or possibility that it may be false. What offence did X commit?
A. Defeating or obstructing the course of justice
B. Making a false statement to a police officer
C. Contempt
D. Undermining of police authority
159. A person convicted of incitement, conspiracy or attempting to commit a crime
shall be liable to which form of punishment when compared to a person who
actually committed the crime in question?
A. Lesser punishment
B. The same punishment
C. More punishment
D. Caution and discharge

160. Which of the following is not a computer related crime as outlined in Code?

A. Unauthorised access or use of a computer

B. Deliberate introduction of a computer virus
C. Theft of a computer
D. Unauthorised manipulation of proposed computer programme.

[Link] cousin in relation to sexual intercourse within a prohibited degree means:

A. Child or any descendent of the child of the uncle or aunt of
such person.
B. A child or any descendant of the child of the great uncle or great
 aunt of such a person.
C. Collateral sister or brother.
D. All the above.

[Link] is a sexually- transmitted disease?

A. Diseases that is transmitted through sexual intercourse
B. Includes syphilis, Gonorrhoea, Herpes and all other forms but excludes HIV .
C. Includes all other sexually transmitted diseases including HIV
D. None of the above

163. John after realizing that there is a real possibility that he suffers from an STI has sexual
intercourse with Mary. What offence if Mary is infected?
A. No offence.
B. Deliberately infecting another with an STI.
C. Difficult to prove.
D. None of the above.
164. John knowingly that he is infected with HIV have sexual intercourse with Mary. Who is also aware that he
has AIDS. What offence7

E. No offence .
F. Deliberate transmission of an STI.
G. Deliberate transmission of HIV.
H. None of the above.

165. Mary forces John to have intercourse with her. What Offence?

D. Rape.
E. Indecent Assault.
F. Aggravated indecent assault.
G. All of the above.
[Link] by words or conduct seriously impairs the dignity of Mary. What offence?

A . Criminal Insult.
A. Criminal Defamation.
B. Not being nice to a woman.
C. None of the above.

167.X groundlessly or by purported use of none natural means accused Y of

Witchcraft. What offence?

A. Engaging in practices commonly associated with witchcraft

B. Indicating a witch or a wizard.
C. Employing non natural means
D. All the above
168.Y buries her child who died after birth without the Provisions of burial and Cremation Act. What offence?

A. Concealing birth of a child.

B. No offence as she did not kill
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

[Link] of the following is not a definition of livestock?

1. Any sheep, goat, pig, poultry, ostrich, pigeon, bovine

2. Any domesticated game
3. The carcass or any portion of a carcass
4. Giraffe
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2,3
C. All
 D. None
E. 4 only
[Link] and Mary are lawfully married and jointly own their property. John
subsequently sells the property, what defense does John have over the charge of Theft?

A. None
B. Joint ownership
C. Marriage
D. Being head of the family
171. John uses violence to steal from Peter who runs away, leaving the property on the ground. John later takes
the property. What charge/charges?

A. Theft and robbery

B. Robbery only
C. Assault and robbery
D. None of the above

172. John breaks a window to gain entry into the house of Mary. He takes a radio and leaves What offence was
committed by John?

1. Unlawful entry into premises

2. Theft
3. Robbery
4. Criminal trespass
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D. None of the above
173. It shall be aggravatory to malicious damage to property if

1. If fire is used
2. If explosives are used
3. If injury is caused to the persons in the room
4. If the owner of the property is the state
A. All of them .
B. 1,2,3
C. 3 and 4
D. None of the above
174. What is the corresponding crime in code for the common law crime of violating a dead body?

A. Malicious injury to a dead body.

B. Violating a dead body.
C. Violating corpses.
D. Tempering with a corpse.

175. What offence is committed when a person takes possession or control of property
capable of being stolen which is owned , possessed or controlled by another
person, intending to hold the property as security pending satisfaction of a debt
owed by that other person?
A. Theft
B. Unauthorized borrowing or use of property.
C. Robbery.
D. No offence since the property is only taken as security for a debt owed.
176. Which of the following is not a competent charge for a person accused of engaging in sexual
intercourse with a young person of or under the age of twelve years?
A. Rape
B. Aggravated indecent assault.
C. Indecent assault.
D. Performing an indecent act with a young person.
177. Y a male adult was on his way home from Njera business centre when he came
across a lost credit card belonging to Z. Y took possession of the credit card and
did not bother to surrender it to Z despite the fact that they were neighbours or
even to the police. What offence was committed by Y?

A. Theft by finding.
B. Unauthorized possession of a credit card.
C. Corruptly concealing from a principal a personal interest in transaction.
D. No offence since the credit card was a lost item.

178. Under what circumstances may a child between seven and fourteen years be held
criminally liable?

i. If the child was sufficiently mature to understand that his or her conduct was
unlawful or morally wrong.
ii. If the child was not sufficiently to be capable of conforming with the
requirements of the law.
iii. If the child was not aware that his or her conduct was unlawful or morally wrong.
iv. If the child was sufficiently mature to be capable of conforming with the requirements of the law.

A. i and ii
B. ii and iv
C. i and iv.
D. Non of the above.
179. From the list given below, which person is not entitled to possess, deal in or use
dangerous drugs.
A. Medical practitioner.
B. Dental practitioner.
C. Veterinary surgeon.
D. Any nurse.
180. According to the Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act Chapter 9:23, the term “ guardian”
means

i. A person who has lawful custody of a minor whether permanently or temporarily.

ii. A person in charge or care of a minor whether permanently or temporarily.
iii. A school teacher.
iv. Any person who is older than the minor.
A. i only.
B. i and ii
C. i, ii and iii
D. All of the above.

181. “Member of rank”, in relation to a disciplined force as outlined the code means,
A. Member in lawful authority over any other member.
B. Member of commissioned rank only
C. Member of the rank of Sergeant and above.
D. Any duly attested member of a disciplined force.

182. Upon the conclusion of criminal proceedings resulting in the conviction of a person
of a dangerous drugs crime, the court shall order that any dangerous drugs be
forfeited to the State. Where the dangerous drug other than cannabis shall, be
delivered to for safe custody?

E. Any nearest police station.

F. Any nearest C.I.D offices.
G. The Officer Commanding Province where the drug was seized.
H. The Officer Commanding District where the drug was seized.
183. An accomplice shall not be guilty of a crime committed by an actual perpetrator if,
i. The accomplice before the crime is committed , voluntarily desists from further
incitement of, conspiracy with, or assistance to the actual perpetrator.
ii. Renders wholly ineffective his or her previous incitement, conspiracy,
authorization or assistance.

iii. Gives warning of the crime to a police officer or other person with authority after the crime has
been committed.
iv. Gives warning of the crime to a police officer or other person with authority to
prevent the commission of the crime, in sufficient time to enable police officer or other person to
prevent its commission.
A. i
B. ii, iii and iv
C. i, ii and iv
D. All of the above.

184. X made a false statement upon oath in judicial proceedings which were held before a court that was
not properly constituted. What offence was committed by X?
E. Perjury.
F. Contempt of court.
G. Defeating or obstructing the course of justice.
H. No offence.

185. According to the Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act Chapter 9:23, “infant” Means;
E. A person under the age of twelve years.
F. A person under the age of sixteen years.
G. Perjury.
H. A person under the age of eighteen years
186. Mary exposes her infants of 3 years old in circumstances that death may occur and the infant dies. What
offence?

A. Exposing an infant
B. Murder
C. Infanticide
D. None of the above

187. From the following, what is not considered as property according to the Criminal
Law (Codification and Reform) Act Chapter 9:23?

A. Electricity.
B. Electromagnetic waves emitted by a telecommunications or broadcasting system.
C. Property that is common to everyone such as water in a public stream.
D. Shares in any business undertaking.

188. Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides the following rights except,

A. Right to life, liberty and security of a person.

B. Right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law.
C. Right not to be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
D. Right to be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.

189. A proper medical examination shall be offered to a detained or imprisoned person

A. Within 8 hours of detention or imprisonment.

B. Any time as long as the accused is still in detention.
C. Within 12 hours
D. As promptly as possible after his admission to the place of detention or imprisonment.

190. According to Declaration on the Violence against women, violence against women
include the following except
E. Physical, sexual or psychological harm.
 F. Threats of physical, sexual or psychological harm.
G. Coercion or arbitrary deprivation of liberty.
H. Non traditional practices harmful to women.

[Link] to the Criminal (Codification and Reform) Act [chapter 9:23], police means,
A Police Officer
B Police Constabulary
C Police Force
D Police Force or Police Officer
E None of the above

[Link] disorder means the following except…..

A Psychopathic disorder
B Mental illness
C Incomplete development of brain
D Any other disorder or disability of the mind
E None of the above

[Link], a 6 year old boy enters into a supermarket. He took a pack of biscuits, walked out of the
supermarket, opened the pack and started eating the biscuits. What offence can Eddie be charged
with?
A Theft
B Shoplifting
C Making off without payment
D No offence
E Criminal nuisance

[Link] Criminal (Codification and Reform) Act [chapter 9:23] gives authority to a school teacher to
administer moderate corporal punishment for disciplinary purposes upon a minor male pupil or
student, who is regarded as a school teacher?

i. deputy head of a school

ii. trained teacher at the school
iii. temporary teacher at the school
iv. head of a school
v. any teacher at the school

A i,ii,iii and iv
B i,ii,vi and v
C ii,iv and v
D iv only
E i and iv

[Link] to the Harmful Liquids Act, who may enter any land or premises for the purposes of
inspection.
I. Any police officer
II. Any police officer of or above the rank of Assistant Inspector
III. Any police officer of or above the rank of Inspector
IV. Any police officer with a special written authority from Superintendent and above.
V. Any police officer with a special written authority from a magistrate, a justice of
peace or a police officer of or above the rank of Assistant Inspector.

A i,iii and v
B ii, iv and v
C ii and v
 D iii and v
E i,ii,iv and v

196..Who is guilty of escaping from lawful custody from the following:

i. John who has been arrested for theft, jumps from a truck at a robot controlled intersection
and is arrested with the help of the public.
ii. Max arrested for assault and is being escorted by Cst Manu to the charge office and he
runs away before they got to the charge office.
iii. Chipo arrested for prostitution sneaks from the charge office while CstMoyo was busy
compiling a docket.

A ii and iii
B ii only
C i,ii and iii
D iii only
E i and iii

[Link] is the odd one?

A Threat
B Accomplice
C Incitement
D Attempt
E Conspiracy

198. All of the following are defences to crime except?

A Automatism
B Entrapment
C Intoxication
D Authority
E Necessity

199. The Road Motor Transportation Act defines “omnibus” as….

A a motor vehicle or trailer designed to carry more than seven passengers;
B a public service vehicle designed to carry more than seven passengers;
C any motor vehicle registered according to the Act;
D a motor vehicle or trailer designed to carry eight passengers or more;
E a vehicle which is capable of being used as a commuter omnibus;

200. The following are all regarded by the State as essential services except....
A any service relating to the generation, supply or distribution of
electricity;
B any fire brigade or fire service;
C any health, hospital or ambulance service;
D any service relating to the production, supply, delivery or
distribution of fuel;
E All are essential services.

201. Within what period must a person who becomes aware of the presence in Zimbabwe of
another person whom he or she knows to be an insurgent, bandit, saboteur or terrorist report to an
official?

A as soon as possible
B 72 hours
C 3 days
D 48 hours
E 24 hours
 202. Articles or products containing copper may be declared to be copper by notice in a
Statutory Instrument according to the Copper Act. Who issues the declaration?
A Minister of Home Affairs
B Minister of Mines
C The Registrar
D The President
E The Controller

203. The Criminal (Codification and Reform) Act [chapter 9:23], describes a “public
demonstration” as .......

i. a procession in a public place,

ii. a gathering in a public place
iii. a meeting in a public place
iv. an assembly in a public place

of persons and additionally, or alternatively, of vehicles, where the gathering is in pursuit of a

common purpose.
A i,ii and iii
B i,ii and iv
C i,iii and iv
D ii,iii and iv
E i,ii,iii and iv

204. Zorai, a commuter omnibus conductor is at charge office rank in Harare where he started
shouting at commuters using abusive and insulting words trying to force commuters to board his
omnibus. What offence has Zorai committed.
A Criminal nuisance
B Public Indecency
C Conduct likely to provoke the breach of peace
D Disorderly conduct in public place
E No offence

205. Mr Moyo enters Mai Musodzi Hall where about fifteen women are gathered for a political
meeting, he starts insulting the women until they all disperse before finishing their meeting. Mr
Moyo can be charged with......

A Public Violence
B Disorderly conduct in public place
C Disrupting a public gathering
D Criminal nuisance
E No offence

206. Upon an application, who may order the removal of a person from a life support system?
A Attorney General
B The High Court
C A medical practitioner
D A close relative
E None of the above

207. Who may revoke any permit or licence issued in terms of the Explosives Act?
A Police Officer of the rank of Chief Inspector and above
B Police Officer of the rank of Inspector and above
C Sub Inspector
D Minister of home Affairs
E None of the above
 208. Joel (17 years) had sexual intercourse with Chido (11 years), what offence did Joel
commit?
A Indecent assault
B Performing an indecent act with a young person
C Rape
D Aggravated indecent assault
E No Offence

209. In rape cases the court shall have regard to the following factors in determining the
sentence.
i. The age of the person who committed the rape.
ii. The age of the person raped.
iii. The extent of physical and psychological injury inflicted upon the person raped.
iv. Whether or not any weapon was used in the commission of the crime.
v. Whether the person committing the rape was ill.

A i,ii, iii and v

B i,ii,iii and iv
C ii,iii,iv and v
D ii and iii only
E i,ii,iii,iv and v

210. Emmanuel a male adult had anal intercourse with John who is 15 years old with his
consent, what offence was committed by Emmanuel?
A Sodomy
B Aggravated indecent assault
C Performing an indecent act with a young person
D Indecent assault
E No offence

211. Romario is at Rufaro stadium where he intends to watch a soccer match, while in the
queue he starts singing an obscene song and is arrested by CstChoma. What charge can be the
best for Romario.
A Criminal nuisance
B Disorderly conduct in a public place
C Public Indecency
D Criminal insult
E Singing is not an offence

212. What defence can be raised by a person charged of Deliberate infection of another with a
sexually transmitted disease?
[Link] person infected was a well known prostitute.
[Link] person infected knew that the accused was suffering from a sexually-transmitted disease.
[Link] person alleging the infection was already infected.
[Link] person infected consented to the act in question, appreciating the nature of the sexually-
transmitted disease and the possibility of becoming infected with it.

A ii and iv
B i,ii and iv
C ii,iii and iv
D i,ii,iii and iv
E iv only

213. What crime is defined by the following?

(i) any act by a person involving the application of force, directly or indirectly, to the body of
another person, whereby bodily harm is caused to that other person; or
(ii) any act by a person that causes, directly or indirectly, the injection
into or application to the body of another person of any substance without that
person’s consent; or
 (iii) any act by a person that causes any substance to be consumed by
another person without that person’s consent;
A Administering poison
B Assault
C Criminal Insult
D Criminal nuisance
E None of the above

214. The Firearms Act defines “acquiring” as……..

i. Purchasing
ii. Hiring
iii. Accepting as a gift
iv. Borrowing
A i, ii and iv
B i, ii and iii
C iii and iv
D ii, iii and iv
E i, ii, iii and iv

215. According to the Forest Act, other than the occupiers of adjoining land who else must be
notified of intention to burn standing vegetation?

A Environmental Management Agency (EMA)

B Minister of Environment and Natural Resources
C Any Police Officer
D Police Officer at the nearest police station
E None of the above

216. A court shall take into account the following factors in deciding whether an impairment of
dignity or invasion of privacy is sufficiently serious to constitute the crime of criminal insult,
except....
[Link] nature of the words or conduct;
[Link] extent to which the words were repeated or the conduct
was persisted in, as the case may be;
[Link] age and sex of the person whose dignity was impaired or
privacy was invaded;
[Link] previous relationship between the parties;
[Link] degree of offence caused to the wife or husband of the person whose dignity was impaired
or privacy was invaded by the words or conduct.

217. Identify continuing crimes from the following.

i. Stock Theft
ii. Robbery
iii. Theft
iv. Unlawful entry
A i and iii
B iii only
C i,ii and iii
D iv only
E i,ii,iii and iv

218. Robbery is said to have been committed in aggravating circumstances if the convicted
person……
i. Possessed a firearm during the commission or
ii. Possessed a knife during the commission or
iii. Inflicted a deep wound on the chin of the victim or
iv. Killed a person during the commission.

A i and iv
 B i, ii, iii and iv
C i, ii and iii
D i, iii and iv
E ii, iii and iv

219. In Fraud and Forgery cases, misrepresentation does not mean……

A A false statement of fact or law or a false expression of opinion;
B a false statement by a person who wishes to borrow money or any other thing as to
the purpose for which he or she requires the money or other thing;
C Any act or omission of any kind whatsoever which wrongly or incorrectly represents any
fact, law, character, circumstance or opinion;

D Answering on the part of a person who is supposed to remain silent, knowing that another
person has been or will be misled by the answer;
E None of the above

220. According to the Code, the flight of an aircraft is deemed to have ended….
A When the aircraft has just landed on an airport or aerodrome.
B When the first external door of the aircraft is opened after the aircraft comes to rest for
the first time after the beginning of the flight.
C When the aircraft has landed and the engine stopped from running.
D When the aircraft has reached its destination.
E All of the above.

221. Pick a Part 1 Liqourlicence according to the Liquor Act from the following?
A Camp and caravan park liquor licence.
B Casino liquor licence.
C Club liquor licence.
D Hotel liquor licence.
E Extended hours liquor licence.

222. According to the Liquor Act who may issue a Part 1 Liquor Licence?
A The Board
B The Minister
C The Secretary
D An Issuing Authority
E The President

223. According to the Second Hand Goods Act, a dealer in second hand goods is supposed to
keep goods purchased or received without changing the form for how long?
A 72 hours
B 7 days
C 4 days
D 24 hours
E 48 hours

224. Who can be charged with “Unlawful dealing in dangerous drugs” from the following?
i. Mhandu who had imported prepared cannabis from Mozambique.
ii. A truck driver hired to transport prepared cannabis and caught in the process.
iii. Michael who incites Chipo to consume a dangerous drug.
iv. Mai Craig who is found selling prepared cannabis.

A i,ii and iii

B i and iv
C i and iii
D ii, iii and iv
E i, ii, iii and iv

225. In Bribery and Corruption cases a “public officer” does not mean…
A Minister of Home Affairs
B Governor of Mashonaland West Province
C Vice President
D Lawyer
E Mayor of Bulawayo

226. In terms of crimes against the administration of justice, all of the following defines a
“reward” except………………
A Profit
B Interest
C Gift
D Benefit
E Indemnity

227. In crime matters, a person who, with the requisite state of mind actually does, completes or
omits to do anything, the doing, completion or omission of which constitutes that crime, is an…
A Accomplice
B Co-perpetrator
C Accused
D Actual perpetrator
E Accessory

228. All animals listed below are classified as problem animals in the Parks and Wildlife Act
except………
A Baboon
B Wild Dog
C Wild Pig
D Spotted hyena
E Black backed jackal

229. According to the Parks and Wildlife Act, a general permit may be issued to sell live animal
or trophy. Who may issue such a permit?
A The Authority
B The Minister
C The President
D The Minister in consultation with the Authority
E The Authority with the concurrence of the Minister

230. Authority for the prosecutions of children under 14 years must be given by the Attorney
General. In what case is this authority not necessary?
A Proceedings for cases of theft.
B Proceedings where the child is represented by a parent/guardian.
C Proceedings where the child is not a first offender.
D Proceedings for purposes of remand.
E Proceedings where the child is a deviant.

231. An authorized official, employee or agent of the State shall rely on the defence of public
authority only if……
A his/her action was duly authorized.
B it was lawful for the state to give the authority.
C that person had the authority from his/her superior.
D he/she was earnestly assisting the public.
E None of the above.

232. According to the Criminal law (Codification and reform) Act [chapter 9:23], on discipline of
children, a minor is a person ……
A under 16 years
B between 7 and 16 years
C under 18 years
D between 12 and 18 years
 E under 12 years

233. In relation to the defence of a person, “unlawful attack” means any…..

A unlawful conduct which endangers a person’s bodily integrity.
B unlawful conduct which endangers a person’s life.
C unlawful conduct which endangers a person’s freedom.
D All of the above.
E None of the above.

234. Which of the following actions constitute criminal nuisance?

i.A person who allows any refuse to be thrown on a public place.
ii. A person who rides a horse on a pavement.
iii. A person who fires any explosive in a public place without the permission of the
appropriate authority.
iv. A person who mischievously provokes a dog.

A i, ii and iv
B iii only
C ii and iii
D i,ii,iii and iv
E ii,iii and iv

235. What is the permissible verdict on a charge of attempted murder?

A Robbery
B Assault
C Public violence
D Aggravated assault
E None of the above

236. According to the Stock Theft Prevention Act every butcher and every buyer of skins or
hides shall keep a register. Who is permitted to inspect that register?
A An Official from the Ministry of Health.
B A police officer of the rank of Inspector and above.
C Any police officer.
D Any police officer with a written authority from a Superintendent.
E The local authority.

237. A holder of a firearm certificate is required to notify the change of address or occupation
within 21 days. To whom shall such notification be tendered?
A Police
B Police Officer of or above the rank of Inspector
C Minister
D Commissioner
E Controller

238. According to the Code a “publication” does not include………..

A Tape
B Magazine
C Book
D All of the above
E None of the above

239. Public violence is committed in aggravated circumstances if…….

i. There was an attack on the police or on other persons in lawful authority.
ii. Bodily injury or damage to property occurred.
iii. The person who has been convicted of the crime instigated an attack on the police or other
persons in lawful authority or instigated the infliction of bodily injury or the causing of damage to
property.
iv. Death occurred to a member in lawful authority.
A i, ii, iii and iv
B ii only
C i, ii and iii
D i and iv
E ii, iii and iv

240. A person who throws any missile at any person or motor vehicle with the intention or
realizing that there is areal risk or possibility of causing damage or injury shall be guilty of…….
A Criminal nuisance
B Obstructing or endangering free movement of persons or traffic.
C Public nuisance
D Assault
E Disorderly conduct on a public place

[Link] to Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act Chapter 9:23 police means
E. Includes a Police Constabulary member or a Special Constable as defined in Section 2 of the
Police Act Chapter 11:10.
F. The Police Force or police officer.
G. Includes Police Reserve, Police Constabulary or Special Constable as defined in the Police
Act and Regulations.
H. All police officers of any rank to include Special Constable and Police Constabulary.

241. A child below the age of seven years shall be deemed to lack criminal capacity hence shall
F. Be tried or convicted of any crime which he or she is alleged to have committed by a
juvenile court.
G. Be excused by the High Court for whatever he or she has committed after attaining the
age of seven years of age.
H. Not be tried or convicted of any crime alleged to have been committed before attaining age
of seven.
I. Be sent to probation first before trial to establish the blameworthy state of mind of the
minor.
J. To lack the capacity to form the intention necessary to commit the offence.

242. A person shall not be guilty of or liable to be punished for a crime unless: -
(i) His or her liability is based upon voluntary conduct.
(ii) His or her liability is based upon unlawful conduct that is upon conduct for which there is
no lawful excuse affording that person a complete defence to the criminal charge.
(iii) The crime is defined by the Codification Act.
(iv) The person committed the crime or was a party to its commission as provided in the
Criminal Law (Codification and Reform) Act or any enactment.
a) (iv), (iii) and (i)
b) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
c) (i), (ii), and (iv)
d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

243. What is the subjective test for a state of mind?

A. An examination by the court whatever or not the accused person is actually capable of
committing the crime for which he or she is alleged to have committed.
B. A test whereby a court decides whether or not the person concerned actually possessed that
state of mind at the relevant time, taking into account all relevant factors that may have
influenced that person’s state of mind.
C. A test whereby a court test subjectively whether accused person’s state of crime was
actually influenced by his/her conduct as a human being or taking into account any other
extenuating circumstances thought otherwise.
D. A test or examination to test intention, knowledge and realisation of real risk or possibility
thereto of an accused person to the commission of crime.

244. Where a person is charged with a crime the essential elements of which includes the essential
elements of some other crime, accused may : -
 A. Be found guilty and sentenced
B. If such facts are not proved, found guilty as charged.
C. Be found guilty of such other crime if the facts proved that he or she committed the crime
charged.

245. According to Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act prostitute means: -
E. Any female person who for money or reward allows a man to have sexual intercourse with
her.
F. Any person who solicits men to have sexual intercourse with her.
G. Any female person who have intercourse with a male person either for a reward or not as long
as they are not married.
H. A male or female person who for money or reward allows other persons to have anal or
extra-marital sexual intercourse or engage in other sexual conduct with him or her or solicits
other persons to have and or extra-marital sexual intercourse or engage in other sexual
conduct with him or her.

246. Upon a person convicted of Rape, the court shall have regard to the following factors in addition to
other relevant factors and circumstances:-

(i) The age of a person raped.

(ii) Whether the person raped.
(iii) The degree of force or violence used in the Rape.
(iv) Whether or not any weapon was used in the commission of rape.
(v) Whether or not the person committing the Rape was infected with STD at the time of the
Rape.
(vi) The extent of physical and psychological injury inflicted upon the person raped.
A. (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
B. (ii), (iv), (v) and (iii)
C. (iv), (v), (ii) and (i)
D. (vi), (iv), (iii) and (i)

247. Any person who by words or conduct seriously impairs the dignity of another person or seriously
invades the privacy of another person commits: -
A. Criminal defamation.
B. Assault of another person.
C. Indecent Assault.
D. Criminal Insult.

248. James forged a document by putting a signature which purported to be made by another person
and he attempted to erase it but was arrested before the obliteration. What offence if any was
committed by James?
E. Fraud
F. Miscellaneous codification
G. Malicious damage to document or property of another.
H. Forgery.

249. Dangerous drugs includes : -

(vi) Cola bush
(vii) Prepared opium
(viii) Cannabis resin
(ix) Raw opium
(x) Cola leaf
F. (i), (iii), (v) and (iv)
G. (i), (iv) and (iii)
H. (iii), (iv) and (v)
I. (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)and (v)

250. The fact that an accused person charged with a crime was obeying a lawful order when he
committed the offence shall not be a complete defence if: -
A. The accused person did or omitted to do the thing as a member of a disciplined force.
 B. The order was given to him/her by a member of the disciplined force and was of the same
rank.
C. If member was not under active operation in terms of obedience to orders.
D. None of the above answers is correct since requirements for obedience to lawful orders
spells out conditions different from the above.

251. A person shall be entitled to a complete defence to a charge even if he realised that the order
concerned was illegal if: -
A. His/her conduct was no more than was necessary to carry out the order.
B. The order was unreasonable that he or she could have refused to obey.
C. The accused was not engaged in the national operation.
D. The order was from a very senior member of the same disciplined force.

252. What is a disciplined force according to Criminal Law [Codification and Reform] Act?
(i) The prison service
(ii) The police service.
(iii) The defence service.
(iv) Any other force organised by the State which has its sole or main objective of the
preservation of public security and law and order in Zimbabwe and includes the police
force.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i), (ii), and (iv)
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D. (i), (iii) and (iv)

253. Any person who caused the death of another person intending to kill is charged with murder. The
fact that a person charged with Murder , Infanticide or Culpable Homicide mistakenly believed that
person whose death he or she caused was someone else shall
A. Constitute a complete defence.
B. Be accepted by the Court
C. Render him or her particularly blameworthiness.
D. Not amount to a defence to the charge.

254. Actually polygamous marriage means: -

A. A marriage celebrated in terms of the Marriage Act Chapter 5:11 or any other repealed
acts.
B. A marriage celebrated according to customary law and solemnised in terms of Customary
Marriage Act.
C. Unregistered customary marriage of two or more husbands and wives.
D. A polygamous marriage consisting of a husband and two or more wives.

255. Potentially polygamous marriage means: -

A. A potentially unregistered marriage of two or more wives on a single husband.
B. Unregistered marriages of wives who are blood related and have consented to such
polygamous marriage customarily.
C. One who is intending to marry two wives who has promised them all in the same manner
and all are prepared to come to their husband the same time.
D. A polygamous marriage consisting of a husband and single wife.

256. Any person who did not burry, abandons, or disposes of the body of a child with the intention of
hiding the fact of birth of such child is liable to the charge of: -
A. Concealment of births and not exposure if infants.
B. Killing of infants and neglect to burry such child.
C. Exposing an infant only.
D. Lesser offence of exposing a foetus only.

257. A person can be charge for bigamy if: -

A. He marries another wife when his wife is still alive.
 B. He actually knowing that the intended wife is legally married to another husband but
continuously to advance to prepare a wedding with her knowing all the facts concerning the
intended spouse.
C. Knowing that the marriage still subsists intentionally purports to enter into a monogamous
marriage with another person.
D. He has three wives which he customarily married without the knowledge of a charge of
bigamy.

258. Violating graves means the following: -

I. Revaulting the tombstone.
J. Refusing to bury your relative on the basis of mistaken of identity which presses pressure on
another person to dig for more facts.
K. Realising that one is a party to the burial ceremony and one decides not to appear on that
ceremony besides having been warned verbally of the consequences.
L. Includes to destroy or damage the grave or immediate surroundings of the grave or take any
article from there.

259. Property capable of being stolen does not include: -

E. Money, whether in the form of cash, notes or coins.
F. Shares in business undertakings
G. Electricity.
H. Eggs, honey and other procedure of wild animals which has not been taken into possession
by anyone.

260. A permissible verdict for Subverting a Constitutional Government, with reference to

the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23 is :-
F. Acts of Insurgents and Banditry
G. Terrorism and Banditry
H. Causing disaffection among Police Force or Defence Forces
I. Coup De tat
J. Showing no respect for a Constitutionally constituted Government

261. In terms of the Magistrates Court Act whose responsibility is it administer oaths?
(i) Public Prosecutor
(ii) Clerk of court in the Presence of the Magistrate
(iii) Interpreter
(iv) Defense Counsel
(v) All of all the above

A) (i) only
B) (i) and (ii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) (iv)
E) (v)

262. The punishment of whipping may be imposed in the case of a conviction:-

a. For criminal injury
b. For culpable homicide
c. For attempted murder
d. Of a person under the age of 18 yrs
e. For all the above
263. Of the following who falls under the definition of “ principal” in terms of the Prevention of
Corruption act?.
E. The State only
F. Any Master as defined under the Masters and Servants Acts
G. Any employer
H. The Principal accused

264. Criminal Conduct, according to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter
9:23, may consist of:-
F. An omission together with an Act
G. Both an act and an omission
H. Either an act or an omission
I. An act only
J. An act of commission and an act of omission

265. Which of the following persons may enter and search premises, vehicle or mine where
explosives are kept or manufactured?
A. Any police Officer
B. Any Inspector
C. A sub-inspector
D. A police Assistant Inspector and above
E. Member of the bomb disposal team(s)

a. i, ii, and iv
b. iv and v
c. ii only
d. ii and v

266. With reference to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, the test
for the knowledge as an element of the crime is :-
F. Real risk or possibility
G. Objective and Real risk or possibility
H. Both subjective and Objective
I. Objective
J. Subjective

267. Who gives the Police authority to stop and search any vessel according to the Criminal
Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23:-
F. It is not necessary as it is searched without a warrant by any Police Officer
G. Superintendent
H. The Officer Commanding Province
I. The Ship Captain
J. Secretary to the Ministry of Tourism

268. How is distance measured in terms of any enactment?

A) Horizontally from the North
B) Vertically from the East
C) Vertically and Horizontally
D) In a straight line on a horizontal plane
E) Anyhow

269. Every holder of a gold recovery works licence shall deliver all gold to the holder of a dealing
licence.
F. Not later than the 1st of every month
G. Not later than the 7th of every month
H. Not later than the 15th of every month
I. Not later than the 10th of every month
J. By the last day of each month

270. According to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, Theft and Stock
theft continue to be committed by a thief:-
F. As long as he is still in possession of the stolen property of produce
G. Even if the thief subsequently losses possession of the property stolen
H. If he/she continues to steal
I. On disposal of the stolen loot
J. Who is in police custody

272. A gold licence “renewed” on or after 1st of December shall expire:-

J. On 31st December of that year
K. On 31st of December of the next following year
L. On the 1st of December next succeeding the date of renewal
M. On the 30th of November the following year
N. On the 30th of June , the following year

273. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, define Camouflage
Uniform as:-
F. Any green like leaves wearing apparel
G. Any military green sported wearing apparel
H. Any article of wearing apparel made of material carrying military-style camouflage
markings
I. Any wearing apparel resembling military uniforms
J. Any green like leaves coloured wearing apparel denoting military regalia

274. Who issues a permit to dispose or to acquire not gold in excess of one ounce?
F. The Minister
G. The Owner of the mine
H. The Governor of the Reserve Bank
I. None of the above
J. The Minister of mines
275. A person shall be found guilty of an offence of Criminal Abuse of duty as a Public
Officer if he according to the Criminal Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23:-
(v) Does anything that is contrary or inconsistent with his duty as a Public Officer
(vi) Is not always honesty
(vii) Fails to satisfactorily perform his duties
(viii) Omit to do anything which it his or her duty as a Public Officer

F. (ii) only
G. (i) and (iv)
H. (i), (iii) and (iv)
I. (ii) and (iii)
J. (iv) only

276. Which of the following does the law considers’ writing’?

(i) Photography
(ii) Lithography
(iii) Calligraphy
(iv) Printing
(v) Typewriting
F. All of the above
G. i, ii, iv and v
H. i, iv and v
I. i, ii and iii
J. ii, iv and v

277. For the purpose of ascertaining the content of any enactment or other matter published in
the Gazette, reference may be made to :-
F. A copy of such enactment purporting to be the Government printer.
G. A master copy of such enactment kept by the Secretary to Parliament
H. The statutory law inventory of Gazettes
I. A copy of such enactment marinated by the High Court of Zimbabwe.
J. None of the above

278. The Common Law crime of Crimen Injuria has a corresponding crime in the Criminal
Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23. Which one is this?
F. Criminal Defamation
G. Aggravated Indecent Assault
H. Indecent exposure
I. Criminal Insult
J. Criminal Injury to property

279. If any person upon being required by a Police Officer, in terms of the Firearms Act, to
declare his name and address fails to do so, shall:-

A. Be detained for a period not exceeding 12 hours

B. Be detained for a period not exceeding 24 hours
C. Have the firearm seized
D. Detained until he appears in court
E. None of the above.

280. Who gives the Police authority to stop and search any vessel according to the Criminal
Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23:-
A. It is not necessary as it is searched without a warrant by any Police Officer
B. Superintendent
C. The Officer Commanding Province
D. The Ship Captain
E. Secretary to the Ministry of Tourism

281 In terms of criminal law (Codification and Reform Act accessory means
a) Either the actual perpetrator of crime or any assistant
b) A person who renders assistance to the actual perpetrator of a crime after it
has been committed
c) A persons that assist the actual perpetrator well before the crime has been
committed
d) Any person that aids or disassociate himself with the actual commission of a
crime
282. Children under the age of seven years in terms of Codification and Reform are:
a) Only criminally liable if a statement from a probation officer is attached to such
investigation
b) Deemed to be lack of criminal intent and shall be tried or convicted of any
crime alleged to have been committed by Victim Friendly Court or such courts
as the act may deem fit.
c) Shall be presumed to lack criminal capacity and shall not be tried for any crime
committed before attainment of seven years.
d) Liable to their criminal activities any of proven by a competent court in
Zimbabwe

283. A child under the age of 14 years but above 7 years is

a) Charged as an adult if alleged to have committed an offence of negligence.
b) Presumed to lack capacity to form the intention to commit the crime
c) Only a negligent person
d) Need all elements to be covered by a probation officer and the trial magistrate.

284. In terms of codification and Reform Act, a person shall not be guilty of crime unless
a) Crime is defined by the codification reform only
b) The person did not commit the crime or was a party to its commission as
provided by the Codification and Reform Act.
c) The crime is defined by Codification and Reform Act or any other enactment
d) His or her conduct was not based on unlawful conduct that is upon conduct for
which there is no lawful excuse affording that person a complete defence to the
criminal charge.
285. Where intention is an element of any crime the test is
a) Objective with a view to establish real intention
b) It is not subjective but wants to establish the intended goal of the accused
c) Subjected to the motive of the concerned person
d) Subjective and is whether or not the person whose conduct is in issue intended
engage in the conduct or produce the results he or she did.
286. According to Code Act Authority to prosecute crime of possession of dangerous
weapon or unlawfully possession or wearing a camouflage is sought from:
a) Minister of Defence in consultation with state security
b) Attorney General
c) The President
d) Ministry of Home Affairs only

287. Statement in terms of Codification and Reform includes the following:

a) Making any statement about or concerning the President or acting President
with the knowledge that there is real risk or possibly that the statement is false
b) Making any abusive, indecent or obscene statement about President’s office,
President or acting president
c) Making any statement that does not include gesture
d) Making any offensive statement against the president including act or gesture.
i) (a)and (d)
ii) (b) and (c)
iii) (d) only
iv) (a) and (b)

288. In terms of Codification and Reform public gathering means:

a) Public demonstration not a meeting
b) Meeting not a public demonstration
c) Public meeting or a public demonstration
d) Meeting for political issues

289. In determining whether or not disturbance of peace, security or order or invasion of

rights is sufficiently serious to constitute the crime of public violence the court shall
take into consideration except:
a) The nature and duration of the disturbance or invasion
b) The motive of the person involved in the disturbance or invasion
c) The manner in which the disturbance or invasion started
d) Whether or not there was an attack on the police or other persons in authority

290. Offensive weapon in term of codification and reform may include:

a) Any weaponry excluding thick knife
b) Any object made of glass and fibre
c) Any stone
d) Non of the above
291. A person convicted of murder shall be sentenced to death except:
a) When convicted person is above 18 years of maturity
b) Crime was committed during war
c) Court is of the opinion that there is no exterminating circumstances
d) Where the convicted person was under the age of 18 years during time of
commission of crime
292. Termination of pregnancy according to codification is:

a) acceptance by the society

b) not an offence at all
c) a crime targeting the mother of dead child only
b) an intentional act which when committed court may sentence accused to not less
than 5 years in prison or both such sentence and fine.
293. In terms of Codification and reform act prostitute does not mean:
a) male prostitutes
b) male or female person who ask for money after sex
c) a female person that allows other persons to have anal or extra-marital sexual
intercourse with a man
d) female prostitutes only

294. Unlawful sexual conduct means the following except:

a) Rape and indecent assault
 b) Sexual intercourse with a young person
c) Sodomy
d) Sexual intercourse with a prostitute after consent

295. In determining the sentence of a person convicted of rape, the Court shall take into
cognizance of
the following except:
a) Age of the rapist
b) Number of persons who took part in rape
c) Where the rapist is a blind person
d) Injury inflicted upon the person raped.

296. Polygamous marriage in terms of codification and reform means:

E. Potentially polygamous marriage
F. Registered customary law marriage
G. Marriage that permits the husband to marry another woman while remaining
married to the wife
H. Unpolygamous marriage consisting husband and single wife

297. Dangerous drugs includes the following except:

E. Any coca bush, coca leaf
F. Raw opium or cannabis
G. Resin
H. Any plant of not a genus cannabis or Indian herb

298. Unlawful dealing in dangerous drugs includes:

v. Supplies or administering or procure for any person dangerous drugs
vi. Cultivate, produce or manufacture dangerous drug for dealing
vii. Not visiting another person
viii. to consume a dangerous drug
i) (a) and (c)
ii) (a) and (b)
iii) (c) and (c)
i) (a)(b) and (c)

299. Criminal law (Codification and Reform Act: Chapter 9:23 describe an agent under
corrupt practices and bribery as follows except:
a) A public officer
b) The executor of the estate of a deceased person
c) Authorized dealer
d) Liquidator of a company or other body corporate that is being wound up dissolved
e) A person who voluntarily manages the affairs or business of another person
f) A director or secretary of a company
i) (a)(b)(c)
ii) (a)(b)(e)(d)(f)
iii) (d)(e)
iv) (b)(d)(e)

300. Which of the following is not a case of defeating the court of justice:
E. Making a statement to a police officer falsely alleging that a crime has been
committed.
F. Intentionally agrees with another person that in return for reward he or she will not
report to a police officer the commission of crime.
G. Not knowing that a police officer is investigating the commission of an offense,
causes such investigation to be defeated or obstructed.
H. Making a statement whether written or oral in connection with any case which is
pending before court intending the statement to prejudice the trial of the case.

301. Any person who in any manner communicates with another person intending to
persuade that
 other person to commit a crime commits a crime of :
E. Threats
F. Conspiracy
G. Attempted defeating the course of justice
H. Incitement

302. Any dangerous drug other than cannibas that has been sized by the police where no
criminal proceedings are instituted in connection with the drug the drug shall be
a) Returned to owner
b) Kept as exhibit
c) Forfeited to the state
d) Destroyed

303. Defraud means

E. Not causing fraud
F. Causing potential loss
G. Commit a case of fraud upon a person
H. Misrepresentation by documents only causing actual or potential prejudice as the
case may be.

304. Living stock includes all the following except

a) Any sheep
b) Poultry and borine
c) Rabbit
d) Red bulls

305. Property capable of being stolen does not include:

E. Money, cash notes or coins
F. Shares in any business undertaking
G. Electricity and electromagnetic waves emitted by a telecommunications or
broadcasting system
H. Eggs, honey and other produce of wild animals which has not been taken into
possession by anyone.

306. Any person who intentionally abandons an infant in such a place or in such
circumstances that
death may result from such act shall be charged of:
a) Murder
b) Culpable homicide
c) Attempted murder
d) Exposing an infant
307. A person who buries, abandons or disposes of the body of a child with the
intention of concealing the fact of as birth whether the child was still born or died
during or after birth shall:
E. Be excused of a murder charge
F. Not be liable to any charge
G. Be charged of concealing birth of a child
H. Causing abortion

308. A person who knowingly commits any sexual act with a bird shall be charged
of:
E. No charge
F. Rape
G. Sodomy
H. Bestiality

309. Any person who is a citizen of or ordinarily resident in Zimbabwe and does an
act outside Zimbabwe with the intention of overthrowing the government shall be
liable to a charge of:
 E. No charge since its outside Zimbabwe
F. Subversive statement
G. Terrorism
H. Treason

310. Taking of property or keeping of property by means of a threat of violence shall

constitute an offence of:
E. Robbery
F. No offence
G. Threat of violence
H. Threat of future violence

311. Peace officer includes the following except:

a) Any magistrate
b) Any chief within his or her community
c) Any prison officer
d) Any anti-corruption officer

312. A permissible verdict for Concealing treason, with reference to the Criminal Law
Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23 is :-
K. Acts of Insurgents and Banditry
L. Terrorism and Banditry
M. Causing disaffection among Police Force or Defence Forces
N. Harbouring, concealing or failing to report insurgent, bandit, saboteur or terrorist
O. Showing no respect for a constitutionally constituted Government

313. In terms of the Magistrates Court Act, judgement in relation to civil cases includes;
(i) a sentence
(ii) a decree order
(iii) rule
(iv) all of the above
(v) none of the above
A) (i) only
B) (i) and (ii)
C) (i) and (iii)
D) (iv)
E) (v)

314. In terms of the Magistrates Court Act, if the Attorney General is dissatisfied by the judgment of court in
criminal cases, what action is he supposed to take?
[Link] action since the decision of the court is final
[Link] may appeal to the High Court against the judgment
[Link] may appeal to the Chief Magistrate against such judgment.
[Link] may with the leave of a judge of the Supreme court,
appeal to the supreme court against that judgment.
P. None of the above

315. Of the following who does not fall under the definition of “agent” in terms of the Code.
I. A Director or secretary of the company
J. The trustee of an insolvent estate
K. The executor of an estate of a deceased person
L. None of the above.

316. A person is criminally liable for an omission in terms of the Criminal Law Codification and Reform
Act, Chapter 9:23, if:-
K. He/she had no legal duty to act positively
L. He/she had legal duty to act positively
M. He/she had legal duty to act negatively
N. He/she had no legal duty to act negatively
O. None of the above
 317. Who is the Minister in terms of Harmful Liquids Act?
A. Minister of Justice Legal and Parliamentary Affairs
B. Minister of Home Affairs
C. Minister of Mines.
D. Minister of Defence.

318. With reference to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, all crimes require
proof of some mental ingredient except in:-
K. Reliability crimes
L. Strict liability crimes
M. Legal crimes
N. None of the above
O. Subjective

319. In terms of Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, the crime of infanticide can be committed by
a mother who caused death of her own child within a certain period of giving birth. What is the
period?
K. Six weeks
L. Three months
M. Six months
N. Three weeks
O. One month

320. X had a non-consensual anal intercourse with his wife. What crime was committed by X?
A. Rape
B. Aggravated indecent assault
C. Indecent assault
D. Sodomy
E. No offence

321. X was arrested for the crime of Theft and upon being questioned by the Police he refused to disclose the
place where he had hidden the stolen property. What offence did he commit?

K. Defeating or obstructing the course of Justice

L. Theft because it is a continuous crime
M. Fraud because there is an aspect of misrepresentation
N. Perjury
O. No offence

322. According to the Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, one of the permissable
verdicts of the offence of Fraud is:-
K. Making off without payment
L. Making off with payment
M. Authorised borrowing or use of property
N. Receiving stolen property not knowing to have been stolen
O. All of the above

323. What is a Minor in terms of Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act?

O. A person under the age of sixteen

P. A person under the age of eighteen years
Q. A person under the age of 21 years
R. A person under the age of 17 years
S. All of the above

324. The Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23, defines Opium poppy as:-
K. Any green like leaves wearing apparel
L. A coagulated juice of the opium poppy
M. The plant of any species of the genus erythroxylon
 N. Powdered or granulated opium, but does not include medicinal opium
O. The plant of the species Papaversomniferrum L

325. Who issues a permit to dispose or acquire and possess gold in terms of Gold Trade Act?

K. The Minister
L. The Owner of the mine
M. The Governor of the Reserve Bank
N. Mining Commissioner
O. The Minister of mines

326. The crime of sexual intercourse or indecent act with a young person in terms of the Criminal
Codification and Reform Act, Chapter 9:23 occurs if:-
(ix) A male has extra-marital sexual intercourse or performs indecent acts with a young female
person
(x) A male performs indecent act on a young male person
(xi) A female performs indecent act with a female person
(xii) A female has extra-marital sexual intercourse or performs
indecent acts with a young male person
K. (ii) only
L. (i) and (iv)
M. (i), (iii) and (iv)
N. (i), (ii) and (iv)
O. All of the above

327. Which of the following is not a disciplined force in terms of the code?

K. Police force
L. Defence Forces
M. Prison Service
N. All of the above
O. None of the above

328. In criminal charges, defences may be categorized into the following:-

K. Defences affecting voluntary conduct.
L. Defences relating to the state of mind of the accused
M. Defences relating to unlawfulness
N. All of the above
O. None of the above

329. The Common Law crime of Arson has a corresponding crime in the Criminal Law Codification and
Reform Act, Chapter 9:23. Which one is this?
K. Malicious injury to property
L. Aggravated damage to property
M. Malicious damage to property
N. Causing damage or destruction to property
O. All of the above

330. In terms of the Firearms Act, “Transferring” includes;-

A. Letting on hire
B. Giving
C. Lending
D. Parting with
E. All of the above.

330. In terms of Criminal Law (Codification and Reform Act) Public authority does not include:
e) Peace officer
f) Public official
 g) Corporate body of a public character
h) None of the above

331. In terms of Criminal Law (Codification and Reform Act) potential prejudice means;
e) Injury, harm, detriment or damage of whatever kind.
f) Loss or damage of whatever kind
g) None involvement of risk.
h) Involving risk which is not too fanciful or remote, of causing prejudice

332. In terms of Codification and Reform, what factors are considered by the court in deciding whether
the child was sufficiently mature to have the required understanding and capacity;
e) The nature of the crime with which the child is charged.
f) The child’s general maturity and family background.
g) The child’s knowledge, education and experience;
h) The child’s behaviour before, during and after the conduct which forms the basis of the
charge.
i) All of the above.

333. In terms of Codification and Reform, whose authority is required, if Criminal prosecution is to be instituted
against a child who is between 7 and 14 years.
e) No authority is required
f) Probation Officer
g) Chief Magistrate
h) Attorney- General

334. In terms of codification and Reform Act, a Zimbabwean court has jurisdiction to try a crime
committed partly outside Zimbabwe if;
e) Crime is defined by the codification reform only
f) The conduct that completed the crime took place outside Zimbabwe
g) The conduct that completed the crime took place inside Zimbabwe
h) The crime is not very serious in terms of our law.

335. In terms of codification and Reform Act, for the defence of right tosucceed;
e) The mistaken belief has to be unreasonable belief.
f) The mistaken belief has to be a reasonable belief
g) The mistaken belief must be subjective
h) None of the above

336. In terms of Criminal Law Codification and Reform Act, whose authority is required to prosecute a
child who is between 7 and 14 years?
e) Probation officer
f) Attorney General
g) The President
h) Ministry of Home Affairs

337. Official in terms of Codification and Reform includes the following:

e) A member of a law enforcement agency
f) A member of Defence Forces
g) A Chief Executive of a private company
h) An Ancillary member of the Police Force as defined in terms of Section 2 of the Police Act
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. iv) only
D. (i) and (iv)

338. In terms of Codification and Reform “offensive weapon” means:

e) Any weaponry or offensive material
f) Any object made or adapted to be used for causing injury to the person.
g) Any stone
h) All of the above
 339. X incites his wife to kill her own child and his wife was found guilty of infanticide. What crime was
committed by X?
e) Infanticide
f) Culpable Homicide
g) Murder
h) Unlawful termination of pregnancy

340. “Potentially polygamous marriage” in terms of Codification and Reform Act means:
e) Polygamous marriage consisting of a husband and two or more wives.
f) Polygamous marriage consisting of one wife and two or more husbands
g) Polygamous marriage of a husband and a single wife
h) None of the above

341. In terms of Codification and Reform Act, what is the maximum penalty for the deliberate transmission of
STD other than HIV:
e) Prison up to 20 years
f) Life in prison
g) Fine not exceeding level 14 or 10 years in Prison
h) Prison up to 30 years

342. Which of the following is true about Negligence in terms of Criminal Law Codification and Reform
Act;
A) Negligence is the absence of state of mind
B) Negligence is not a state of mind
C) All of the above
D) Non of the above

343. In terms of Codification and Reform Act property does not include:
A) Wild animals
B) Birds
C) Property that has been finally and absolutely abandoned by its owner
D) All of the above

343. In terms of Codification and reform act, a girl under the age of 12 is;
e) Rebuttably presumed to be incapable of giving consent to sexual intercourse
f) Irrebuttably presumed to be capable of giving consent to sexual intercourse
g) Irrebuttably presumed to be incapable of giving consent to sexual intercourse
h) Rebuttably presumed to be capable of giving consent to sexual intercourse.

344. What is the permissible verdict for the crime of Living off or facilitating prostitution?
e) Rape
f) Procuring
g) Deliberate transmission of STD other than HIV
h) All of the above.

345. Bodily harm in terms of codification and reform means:

I. Any harm which does not cause pain or discomfort to the body
J. Any harm causing pain or comfort to the body
K. Any harm causing pain or discomfort to the body
L. All of the above

346. Dangerous drugs include the following;

I. Any coca bush
J. Raw opium or cannabis plant
K. Prepared opium
L. All of the above
M. A and C only

347. In terms of the code, categories of defences include:

 ix. Defences relating to lawfulness
x. Defences affecting involuntary conduct
xi. Defences relating to unlawfulness
xii. Defences affecting voluntary conduct
A) (i) and (iii)
B) (i) and (ii)
C) (iii) only
D) (iii) and (iv)

348. Criminal law (Codification and Reform Act: Chapter 9:23 describe law as:
j) Code or any other enactment
B. Nature or content of law.
C. Roman Dutch law
D. Criminal law only

349. What charge is appropriate for X who, for the purpose of obtaining an advantage for
himself, deliberately supplies false information to a public authority?
I. Defeating or obstructing course of justice
J. Obstructing a public official
K. Criminal abuse of duty
L. Deliberately supplying false information to public authority.

350. What is the appropriate charge if X makes statements with a case which is pending before the
court
I. Contempt of court
J. No offence
K. Defeating or obstructing course of Justice
L. Defeating or obstructing the Judicial proceedings

351. X borrowed a leather jacket from Y and after assuming the control of the property in question, he
left it outside his house and was eaten by termites. What crime was committed by X?
e) No Offence
f) Theft
g) Theft of trust property
h) Fraud

352. X enters a Restaurant, orders food which he consumes and later goes away without paying. What
charge is appropriate?
I. Fraud
J. Theft
K. Making off without paying
L. No offence as this is a civil matter.

353. Live stock includes the following;

e) Portion of a carcase of a sheep
f) Undomesticated pig
g) Bush Rabbit
h) Red bulls

354. Property capable of being stolen include:

A. Shares in any business undertaking
B. Water in public streams
C. Electricity and electromagnetic waves emitted by a telecommunications or broadcasting system
D. Eggs, honey and other produce of wild animals which has not been taken into possession by
anyone.

355. The permissible verdicts of Assault includes the following except;

e) Negligently causing serious bodily harm
f) Culpable homicide
g) Possessing dangerous weapon
 h) Disorderly conduct in a public place

356. What factor is considered in sentencing a mother who exposes her child who died as a result of
that;
I. The nature of the offence
J. The physical appearance of the mother
K. The difficulties which were created in caring for the infant in social, marital situation in
which the infant was born.
L. None of the above

357. Terminates in relation to pregnancy means

I. To cause death of a child.
J. To cause death of an embryo
K. To destroy the child
L. All of the above

358. X uses an express or implied threat to inflict harm to Y. What crime did he commit?
I. Attempted assault
J. Assault
K. Attempted Murder
L. Intimidation

359. The following are permissible verdicts of Theft except;

I. Unauthorised borrowing or use of property
J. Making off without payment
K. Malicious damage to property
L. Fraud