24-06-2026

7601CMD303001260004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A man walks 30 m towards north, then 20 m towards east and in the last 30 m towards south -
west. The displacement from origin is :

(1) 10 m towards west

(2) 10 m towards east
(3) 60 m towards north west
(4) 60 m towards east north

2)

The velocity-time graph of a body moving along a straight line is as follows :-

The displacement of the body in 5 s is :-

(1) 5 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 3 m

3)

The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always :-

(1) Less than one

(2) Equals to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one

4) A particle starts from rest, its acceleration at time t = 0 is 10 m/s2 which varies as shown with
time. Then the maximum speed of the particle is:

(1) 15 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 25 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

5) A particle moves along x-axis as x = t2 – 2t + 5 Find distance travelled by the object from t = 0 to t
= 3 sec.

(1) 7 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 8 m

6) A particle moves along a straight line. Its position at any instant is given by x = 32t − where x
is in metres and t in seconds. Find the acceleration of the particle at the instant when particle is at
rest.

(1) − 16ms−2
(2) − 32ms−2
(3) 32 ms−2
(4) 16ms−2

7) An athelete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 sec. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min 40 sec. :

(1) zero
(2) 2R
(3)
(4)

8) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinate varies with time t according to
the equation x = (8 – 4t + 6t2) metre. The velocity of the particle will vary with time according to the
graph :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time 't' are given by and . The
speed of the particle at time 't' is given by

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/sec north to 40 km/sec east in 20sec.
What is the magnitude of average acceleration during this time ?

(1) 0.5 km/sec

(2) 3.5 km/sec
(3) 2.5 km/sec
(4) 12.5 km/sec

12) If a body starts from a point and returns back to the same point, then its

(1) Average velocity is zero but not average speed.

(2) Average speed is zero, but not average velocity.
(3) Both average speed and velocity are zero.
(4) Average speed and velocity depend upon the path.

13) A body starts moving with a velocity v0 = 10 ms–1. It experiences a retardation equal to 0.2v2. Its
velocity after 2s is given by-

(1) +2 ms–1
(2) +4 ms–1
(3) –2 ms–1
(4) +6 ms–1

14) If a body starts from rest and travels 120 m in the 8th second, then acceleration is:

(1) 16 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 0.227 m/s2
(4) 0.03 m/s2

15) A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration Its speed after 10s is :-

(1) 10 units
(2) 7 units
(3) units
(4) 8.5 units

16) One object is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 100 m/s and another object with
an initial velocity of 10 m/s. The maximum height reached by the first object will be that of the other.

(1) 10 times
(2) 100 times
(3) 1000 times
(4) 10, 000 times

17) A ball thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s from the top of a tower returns to the
earth in 6 sec. Find the height of the tower ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 40 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 100 m

18) The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second :

(1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4

19) From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in time t1. A second stone
thrown down with the same speed reaches the ground in time t2. A third stone released from rest
reaches the ground in time t3. Then:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Assertion: If a body is projected vertically upward then the rate of change of its velocity is
constant during its flight.
Reason: The average acceleration of the body during its total journey is zero.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

21) A particle is falling freely under gravity. In first t second it covers distance d1 and in the next t
second it covers distance d2, then t is given by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled in time

is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

23) Figure shows the position of a particle moving on the x-axis as a function of time :-

(1) The particle has come to rest 4 times

(2) The velocity at t = 8 s is negative
(3) The velocity remains positive for t = 2 s to t = 6 s
(4) The particle moves with a constant velocity

24) Which of the following speed-time graph is practically possible for a body in motion ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) The velocity displacement graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown. The most

suitable acceleration–displacement graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The displacement–time graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous velocity of

the particle is negative at the point :

(1) C
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F

27) The x–t graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure.
The v–t graph of the particle is correctly shown by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up
vertically to a height . Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity v varies with the
height h above the ground as :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Two balls are dropped from different heights at different instants. Second ball is dropped 2
seconds after the first ball. If both balls reach the ground simultaneously after 5 seconds of dropping
the first ball, then the difference between the initial heights of the two balls will be : (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 58.8 m
(2) 78.4m
(3) 98.0 m
(4) 117.6 m

30) A man holds four balls 180 m above the ground and drops them at regular intervals of time so
that when the first ball hits ground, the fourth ball is just leaving his hand. At this time, the second
and third balls from the ground are at the positions

(1) 160 m and 100 m respectively

(2) 80 m and 20 m respectively
(3) 20 m and 80 respectively
(4) 100 m and 160 m respectively

31) Assertion : If the displacement of the body is zero, the distance covered by it may not be zero.
Reason : Displacement depends only on end points ; distance (path length) depends on the actual
path.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

32) The acceleration time graph for a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The maximum velocity of the particle will be :
(1) 6 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

33) The acceleration versus time graph of a particle is as shown. The respective velocity–time graph

of the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) a-t graph of a particle is shown. The respective v-t graph of particle is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A particle have initial velocity 10 m/s. Its acceleration time graph is shown. Find out its velocity

at t = 10 sec ?

(1) 160 m/s

(2) 30 m/s
(3) 80 m/s
(4) 240 m/s

36) If T be the total time of flight of a projectile and H be the maximum height attained by it from
the point of projection, then H/T will be-
(u = projection velocity and θ = projection angle) :-

(1) (1/2) u sinθ

(2) (1/4) u sinθ
(3) u sinθ
(4) 2u sinθ

37) Particle is projected upward with velocity 100 m/s at an angle of 30° with horizontal. Find the
time when its velocity is perpendicular to the acceleration :-

(1) 10 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 15 s

38) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) A particle is projected under gravity at an angle of projection 45°. If for ground to ground
projectile motion its range is 36 m. Then maximum height attained by particle : ––

(1) 6 m
(2) 9 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 8 m

40) The equation of a projectile is The angle of projection and range is :-

(1)
30°,

(2)
60°,

(3)
45°,
(4) none

41) A projectile is given an initial velocity of . The equation of its path is : (g = 10m/s2).

(1) y = 2x – 5x2
(2) y = x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(4) y = 2x – 25x2
42)

A ball is projected so as to pass a wall at a distance a from the point of projection at an angle of 45°
and falls at a distance b on the other side of the wall. If h is height of wall then

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A particle is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower. It strikes ground as shown. Angle θ is :

(1) 30°
(2) 37°
(3) 45°
(4) 53°

44) Figure shows a projectile thrown with speed u = 20 m/s at an angle 30º with horizontal from the
top a building 40 m high. Then the horizontal rang of projectile is :-

(1) 20 m
(2)
(3) 40m
(4) 20m

45) At what angle to the horizontal should a ball be thrown so that its range R is related to the time
of flight T as, R = 5T2 ? (g = 10 m/s2) :–

(1) 45º
(2) 30º
(3) 60º
(4) 90º

CHEMISTRY

1) Smallest of the following is :

(1) H_
(2) F–
(3) O2–
(4) Li–

2) Negative enthalpy change is not possible for which of the following changes?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following does not show amphoteric behaviour?

(1) Zn(OH)2
(2) Cl2O7
(3) Al2O3
(4) Pb (OH)2

4) Atomic radii of II period elements are represented in a graph as follows :

Identify elements at the position of a, b, c & d :-

(1) Ne, F, B, Li
(2) Li, B, F, Ne
(3) Be, C, N, O
(4) O, N, C, Be

5) The correct increasing order of the ionic radii is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above and
below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

7) Lanthanide contraction means:

(1) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to poor shielding d-subshell electron.
(2) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to high shielding of d-subshell electron.
(3) Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.
(4) Contraction of atom of element before lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.

8) Among O, O+, O+2 and O–2, the species having largest and smallest value of ΔHeg are respectively:

(1) O+ and O
(2) O+2 and O–2
(3) O and O–2
(4) O and O+2

9) The shielding nature of d-electron is ______ when principal quantum number is same

(1) More than s-electrons

(2) More than p-electrons
(3) Less than s-electrons
(4) Same as ƒ-electrons

10) Suppose an orbital may accomodate 3 electrons then the number of elements in IV period :-

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 12
(4) 45
11) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) [Xe]4f145d106s2 → Transition element

(2) [Rn]5f146d17s2 → Inner transition element
(3) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2 → Normal element
(4) [Xe]4f145d26s2 → d-block element

12) From the ground state, electronic configuration of the elements given below, pick up the one
with highest value of second ionization energy :

(1) 1s22s22p63s2
(2) 1s22s22p63s1
(3) 1s22s22p6
(4) 1s22s22p5

13) Configuration of Br– is : [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p6. The electronic configuration of Br2+ would be identical
with the element :

(1) Se
(2) As
(3) Ga
(4) Ge

14) In the following electronic configuration ;

ns2(n – 1)d0–1 (n – 2)f1–14
If value of (n – 1) = 6 the configuration will be of:

(1) Lanthanides
(2) d-block
(3) Actinides
(4) s-block

15) 4th shell of atom contains 4s, 4p, 4d and 4f subshell, which subshells are not filled in any 4th
period element ?

(1) 4p, 4d, 4f

(2) 4s, 4p
(3) 4p, 4f
(4) 4d, 4f

16) Predict the position of an element has the electronic configuration [Ar] 4d10 5s2 5p3 :

(1) Period 4, group 6

(2) Period 5, group 15
(3) Period 5, group 17
(4) Period 4, group 10
17) If total 100 elements are present in periodic table then how many of them contain e– in 4d
subshell.

(1) 60
(2) 62
(3) 64
(4) 80

18) After the filling of np orbital next orbital filled will be :

(1) ns
(2) np
(3) (n–1)d
(4) (n+1)s

19) After the filling of np orbital next orbital filled will be :

(1) ns
(2) np
(3) (n–1)d
(4) (n+1)s

20) Which of the following order of radii is correct

(1) Li < Be < Mg

(2) H+ < Li+ < H–
(3) O < F < Ne
(4) Na+ > F– > O–2

21) X is placed in 14th group and 5th Period its outermost configuration is :-

(1) 5s2 5p5

(2) 5s2 4d10 5p2
0
(3) 4f12 5d 6s2
(4) 4d5 5s1

22) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

23) The correct order of ionic radius is :-

(1) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– < N3–

(2) N3– < F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
(3) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
(4) N3– < O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+

24) Only liquid non-metal in periodic table is :-

(1) Cl
(2) Br
(3) Hg
(4) Ga

25) The element whose electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 is a/an :-

(1) Metal
(2) Metalloid
(3) Inert gas
(4) Non metal

26) In which of the following process energy release?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C, D are given below :

A = 1s2 2s2 2p6 B = 1s2 2s2 2p4
C = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 D = 1s2 2s2 2p5 Which of the following is the correct order of increasing
tendency to gain electron :-

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) D < B < C < A
(4) D < A < B < C

28) Arrange Ne, N and Be in correct increasing order of E.A. :

(1) Ne < N < Be

(2) N < Be < Ne
(3) Ne < Be < N
(4) N < Ne < B

29) Among the following statement identify incorrect statement?

(1) O has least electron affinity in its group.

(2) I has largest E.A. among halogen.
(3) S– has higher I.E than O–
(4) None of these

30) Which of the following order of EA is correct ?

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) O > S > Se > Te
(3) Li > Na > K > Rb
(4) All of the above

31) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

32) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

33) For electron affinity of halogens which of the following is correct :-

(1) Br > F
(2) F > Cl
(3) Br > Cl
(4) F > I

34) Second electron affinity of an element is :–

(1) Always exothermic

(2) Endothermic for few elements
(3) Exothermic for few elements
(4) Always endothermic

35) Which is correct order of EN :-

(1) P > Si
(2) C > N
(3) C > Br
(4) Sr > Ca

36) Which one of the following order of given properties is correct ?

(1) Atomic radius - Li < Be < B

(2) Ionisation potential - Li < Be < B
(3) Electron affinity - Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity - Li < Be < B

37)

Correct order of first ionisation energy is :-

(1) C > N > O

(2) Mg > Al > P
(3) Li < Be < N
(4) Tl > B > In

38) Which of the following order of I.P. is correct :

(1) FΘ < Cl < ClΘ < F

(2) Cl– < FΘ < Cl < F
(3) FΘ < ClΘ < Cl < F
(4) F < FΘ < ClΘ < Cl

39) Select the correct statement from the following:-

(a) IE2 > IE1 is always true for neutral atom.
(b) IE1 of He is maximum.
(c) EA1 of Cℓ is maximum.
(d) Cs is most electronegative element.
Choose the correct answers from the following options :-

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d

40) Maximum difference of EN is present in which of the following pair.

(1) B, Al
(2) Al, Ga
(3) Ga, In
(4) In,Tl

41) A neutral atom (Ar) is converted to (Ar+3) by the following process

Ar Ar+ Ar+2 Ar+3
The correct order of E1, E2 and E3 energies is :-

(1) E1 < E2 < E3

(2) E1 > E2 > E3
(3) E1 = E2 = E3
(4) E1 > E2 < E3

42) Decreasing order of size of ions is :

(1) Br– > S– > Cl– > N3–

(2) N3– > S–2 > Cl– > Br–
(3) Br– > Cl– > S–2 > N3–
(4) N3– > Cl– > S–2 > Br–

43) If Zeff of Na is x then Zeff of K is :

(1) x + 0.65
(2) x – 0.65
(3) x + 0.15
(4) x

44) First ionisation enthalpy of Be and B is respectively-

(1) 8.29, 8.29

(2) 9.32, 9.32
(3) 8.29, 9.32
(4) 9.32, 8.29

45) The electronic configuration with the highest ionization enthalpy is :

(1) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3

(2) [Ne] 3s23p1
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p3

BIOLOGY

1) Which criterion is not used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

2) In two kingdom classification. The main character of the members of plantae was :-
(1) Autotrophic in nature
(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Starch as reserve food
(4) Non motile organisms

3) "Darwin of 20th century" proposed :-

(1) Static concept of species

(2) Biological concept of species
(3) Phylogenetic concept of classification
(4) Numerical concept of classification

4) Which of the following are the functions of mesosomes ?

(i) Cell wall formation
(ii) DNA replication
(iii) Cell divison
(iv) Cell respiration

(1) only i and ii

(2) only i, ii and iii
(3) only ii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

5) Consider the following features and identify the kingdom :- Eukaryotic, Multicellular, absorptive
nourishment, have cell wall, heterotrophic

(1) Plantae
(2) Fungi
(3) Animalia
(4) Protista

6) Which of the following is the descending correct order of taxonomic categories.

(1) Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

(2) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family
(3) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family
(4) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Family, Order

7) Consider the following statements. Which of the following statements are related to universal
rules of nomenclature ?
(a) Biological names are generally in Latin.
(b) The first word in a biological name represents the generic name while the second component
denotes the specific epithet.
(c) Both the words in a biological name, when printed, are separately underlined, to indicate their
latin origin.
(d) Generic name starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.
(1) Only b, c & d
(2) Only c & d
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) Only a, b & d

8) Which of the following is not true with reference to taxonomy ?

(1) A taxon always belongs to a category

(2) A category always indicates a taxonomic rank
(3) In taxonomic hierarchy various taxa are arranged in their descending order.
(4) When we go species to kingdom, similarities increased.

9) Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris represent :-

(1) They are member of same species

(2) They are species of different genus
(3) They are different species of same genus
(4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus and tigris represent variety

10) The number of species that are known and described, range between :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 lakh

(2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(3) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(4) 17 - 18 million

11) Who gave biological concept of species :

(1) Aristotle
(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) John Ray
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

12) Choose the correct from followings :-

(1) Mangifera, is a name of species

(2) Polymoniales, is a name of family
(3) Dicotyledonae, is a name of division
(4) Triticum, is a name of genus

13) In whittaker's five kingdom system of classification, eukaryotes are distributed among :-

(1) Two kingdoms

(2) Three kingdoms
(3) Four kingdoms
(4) All five kingdoms
14) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International code of biological nomenclature

(2) International code of bacterial nomenclature
(3) International code of botanical nomenclature
(4) Indian code of botanical nomenclature

15)

Which of the following 'suffixes' used for unit of classification in plants indicates of taxonomic
category of 'Family'?

(1) – ales
(2) – onae
(3) – aceae
(4) – ae

16) How many are the examples of species in the list given below
Mammals, Wheat, Rice, Plants, Animals, Dog, Cat, Mango, Reptiles, Amphibians, Man, House fly,
Sapindales, Convolvulaceae.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

17) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Family (i) tuberosum

(b) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales

(c) Order (iii) Solanum

(d) Specific epithet (iv) Plantae

(e) Genus (v) Solanaceae

(1) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v

18)

How many domains are assigned to prokaryotes in three domain classification ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Six

19) Find out the correct option from given table ?

Family Order Class

Felidae,
(1) Carnivora Chordata
Canidae

(2) Anacardiaceae Mangifera Dicotyledonae

(3) Muscidae Musca Mammalia

(4) Convolvulaceae Polymoniales Dicotyledonae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) The suffix "ales" is used for :-

(1) Class
(2) Phylum
(3) Division
(4) Order

21) Two plants belongs to same division but different orders. they may have same ?

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Species
(4) Class

22) According to five kingdom system, unicellular eukaryotes are the members of kingdom:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Animalia
(4) Fungi

23) Which of the following is/are unit of classification?

(1) Kingdom
(2) Species
(3) Genus
(4) All of the above
24) Which taxonomic term may be suggested for any rank of classification ?

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Species
(4) Taxon

25)

Cell wall of bacteria is made up of :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Chitin
(4) Glycogen

26) Both the words in a biological name when handwritten are underlined, or printed in italics to
indicate :-

(1) They are endangered

(2) They are living
(3) Their Latin origin
(4) Now they are extinct

27) Branch connected with Characterisation, Nomenclature, Identification and Classification is:-

(1) Morphology
(2) Physiology
(3) Taxonomy
(4) Cytology

28) Life style in extreme habitats exhibited by :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

29) According to two kingdom system of classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed
under:-

(1) Kingdom – Protista

(2) Kingdom – Monera
(3) Kingdom – Fungi
(4) Kingdom – Plantae

30) Which of the following is not a correct match?

 Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Typhoid Bacteria Salmonella

(2) Cholera Bacteria Vibrio

(3) Citrus canker Fungus Ascomycetes

(4) Tetanus Bacteria Clostridium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Biological classification of plants and animals was first proposed by Aristotle on the
basis of simple morphological characters.
Statement II : Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification.
He divided animals into two groups, those which had red blood and those that did not.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

32) Bacteria placed in plantae in two kingdom system due to:

(1) Small nucleus

(2) Nuclear membrane
(3) Cell wall
(4) Gamete formation

33) The bacterial cell is very simple in ___A___ but very complex in ___B___.
Select the option in which A and B are correctly identified.

A B

(1) Behaviour Structure

(2) Reproduction Structure

(3) Shape size

(4) Structure Behaviour

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

The system of classification proposed by Bentham and Hooker is

(1) Artificial
(2) Natural
(3) Phylogenetic
(4) Numerical

35) The group of heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking cell wall will be :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

36) Linnaeus is related to :-

(1) 2–Kingdom classification

(2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Systema Naturae
(4) All of the above

37) Bacterial cell envelop consist of tightly bound three layer structure which is :-

(1) Slime layer, capsule only

(2) Cell wall only
(3) Cell membrane only
(4) Glycocalyx, Cell wall, Cell membrane

38) Statement-I :- Bacteria are sole members of kingdom Protista

Statement-II :- Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

39) Which one of the following obligate category in taxonomic hierachy will have minimum number
of common character

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Phylum
(4) Kingdom

40) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t to bacteria :-

(1) Ribosomes are of 70s type

(2) Periplasmic space is analogous to lysosome
(3) Plasmid is formed by the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell
(4) Mesosomes help in cell wall formation

41) Statement-I: There are five obligate categories in hierarchy of taxonomy.

Statement-II: Classification is single step process.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

42) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : Families are characterized on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features.
Statement-II : Members of Felidae and Canidae are grouped under common class due to presence
of canine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are false

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is true
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

43) Select the wrong statements :

(I) Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
(II) Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibits a few similar characters.
(III) Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae.
(IV) Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Ernst Mayr.

(1) II, III, IV Only

(2) I, II, III Only
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) I and II only

44) Statement I : The term systematics refers to study of diversity of organisms and their
phylogenetic relationship.
Statement II : The systematics is proposed by Carolus linnaeus.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
45) Statement I : Name of the author appears after the specific epithet and written as in an
abbreviated form..
Statement II : Mango plant species was first described by Linnaeus is Mangifera indica Linn.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect

46) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Colomnar epithelium is present in stomach and intestine

(2) Cilia move the particles in specific direction
(3) Cilia are present in fallopian tube and bronchioles
(4) In PCT simple squamous epithelium is present

47) Select the option of location in which the given epithelia is found :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Fallopian tubes

48) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a. 1.
junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b. Gap junctions 2. to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

c. Tight junctions 3. communicate with
each other
(1) a–3, b–2, c–1
(2) a–2, b–3, c–1
(3) a–2, b–1, c–3
(4) a–1, b–3, c–2

49) The tissue present in the lining of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary gland is :-
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

50) Identify A, B and C following figures of simple epithelium tissue :-

A-Ciliated columnar, B-Squamous,

(1)
C-Cuboidal
A-Cuboidal , B-Squamous,
(2)
C-Ciliated columnar
A-Squamous, B-Cuboidal,
(3)
C-Ciliated columnar
A-Ciliated columnar, B-Cuboidal,
(4)
C-Squamous

51) True about compound epithelium is :-

(1) Limited role in secretion and absorption

(2) Provide protection against mechanical stresses
(3) Cover moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(4) All of the above

52) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, trachea and bronchi
is:-

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

53)

Neuroglial cells make up more than-

(1) One-third the volume of neural tissue in our body and, form and protect the neurons.
(2) One-half the volume of neural tissue in our body and, form and support the neurons.
(3) One-half the volume of neural tissue in our body and, protect and support neurons.
(4) One-third the volume of neural tissue in our body and, protect and support neurons.
54) Epithelial cells are characterised by -

(1) Absence of blood supply and blood vessels

(2) Little intercellular space
(3) Present on basement membrane
(4) All of the above

55) Assertion : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

Reason : Gap junctions facilitate the cells not to communicate with each other.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

56) Transitional epithelium includes a specific type of junction called as :-

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Interdigitations
(4) Adhering junction

57)

Histology term given by ....

(1) Malpighi
(2) Mayer
(3) Bichat
(4) Ruysch

58) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a loose connective tissue.

Identify the correct option :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Fibroblast Collagen fibres Macrophage Mast cell

(2) Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell Macrophage

(3) Collagen fibres Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell

(4) Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage Mast cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Following diagram represent which type of connective tissue :-

(1) Dense regular

(2) Dense irregular
(3) Areolar
(4) Adipose

60) Which of the following comes under dense regular connective tissue :-
(a) Tendon
(b) Ligament
(c) Areolar tissue
(d) Adipose tissue

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and d
(4) a, b, c, d

61) Mark the correct statement with reference to ligament -

(1) Made up more elastic fibres

(2) Mainly connect bone to bone
(3) Excessive stretching or pulling causes sprain
(4) All of these

62) Assertion : Most of the exocrine glands are multicellular glands.

Reason : Transitional epithelium is waterproof epithilium and is also called urothelium.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

63)

Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) b-cell body, c-dendrite, d-neuroglia, a-axon
(2) b-cell body, a-dendrite, d-neuroglia, c-axon
(3) d-cell body, c-dendrite, b-neuroglia, a-axon
(4) d-cell body, a-dendrite, b-neuroglia, c-axon

64) Which of the following cells of loose connective tissue produce & secrete matrix:

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) RBC
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Platelets

65) Hump of camel and blubber of whale are madeup off -

(1) Skeletal tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Cartilage
(4) Adipose tissue

66) Ear pinna & tip of nose consist of :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

67) Transverse canals that connect Haversian canals are : –

(1) Lacunae
(2) Lamellae
(3) Volkmann's canals
(4) Neural canal

68) Which is the strongest cartilage of the body?

(1) White fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage.
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage.

69) Choose the most accurate regarding the cartilage :-

(1) Matrix is only solid

(2) Matrix is solid and pliable
(3) Matrix is solid, pliable and resists compression
(4) Matrix is soft and non-pliable

70)

Such diagram represents :-

(1) Trabecular pattern of spongy bone

(2) Trabecular pattern of compact bone
(3) Haversian canal system of spongy bone
(4) Haversian canal system of compact bone

71) 'C' shaped rings of trachea are the example of which cartilage ?

(1) Elastic
(2) Hyaline
(3) White fibrous
(4) Calcified

72)

Fill in the blanks:

a. The .....1.... tissue is closely attached to skeletal bones.
b. The ....2.... fibres taper at both ends (fusiform).
c. The ....3.... fibres are found in wall of internal organs such as stomach and intestine.
d. Communication junctions of intercalated discs are found in ....4.... tissue.

(1) 1 and 3-skeletal muscle, 2-smooth muscle, 4-cardiac muscle

(2) 2 and 4-skeletal muscle, 3-smooth muscle, 1-cardiac muscle
(3) 1-skeletal muscle, 2 and 3-smooth muscle, 4-cardiac muscle
(4) 1 and 4-skeletal muscle, 3-smooth muscle, 4-cardiac muscle

73) The chief matrix producing cell of connective tissue is :

(1) Mast cells
(2) Plasma cells
(3) Fibroblast cell
(4) Macrophages

74)

Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Wall of blood
a. 1. Striated muscle K.
vessels

b. 2. Unstriated muscle L. Nodal tissue

Striated involuntary
c. 3. M. Biceps
muscle

(1) a-3-L, b-1-К, с-2-М

(2) a-1-M, b-2-K, c-3-L
(3) a-3-L, b-1-М, с-2-К
(4) a-1-K, b-3-L, c-2-M

75) Major inorganic component of bone _____:-

(1) Ca3(PO4)2
(2) CaCO3
(3) Mg3(PO4)2
(4) KCl

76) Lacunae are found in :-

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Both 1 & 2

77) Matrix of cartilages is secreted by :-

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) Mast cells
(3) Chondroblast cells
(4) Elastin fibers

78) Which of the following cell can detect, receive and transmit different kind of stimuli?

(1) Nephron
(2) Neuron
(3) Neuroglia
(4) Macrophage

79) Recognize the figure and find out correct labelling :-

(1) 'a' – Unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.
(2) 'a' – Unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(3) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(4) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.

80) How many of the following are multicellular gland ?

Mammary gland, Salivary gland, Goblet cell, Paneth cell, Sweat gland,
Sebaceous gland
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

81) Most of the embryonic skeleton is composed of which cartilage?

(1) Hyaline
(2) Elastic
(3) White fibrous
(4) Calcified

82)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ligaments connects bone to bone.
Statement II : Tendons connects bone to musscle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

83) Maximum and minimum power of repair and regeneration are found in respectively -

(1) Connective tissue ; Epithelial tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue ; Neural tissue
(3) Neural tissue ; Epithelial tissue
(4) Muscular tissue ; Connective tissue

84)

Match the following and choose the correct option :-

(a) Elastic cartilage (i) Tip of nose

(b) White fibrous cartilage (ii) Head of femur

(c) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Costal cartilage

(d) Calcified (iv) Pubis symphysis

options :-
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

85) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is found in :-

(1) Ducts of glands

(2) Tubular parts of nephrons
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

86)

Yellow, white and reticular fibres, respectively are made up of which proteins ?

(1) Elastin, Reticulin, Collagen

(2) Reticulin, Elastin, Collagen
(3) Collagen, Elastin, Reticulin
(4) Elastin, Collagen, Reticulin protein

87)

Which of the following is incorrect statement about cartilage ?

(1) Cartilage producing cells are arranged on periphery of cartilage known as chondroblast.
(2) These are active cells & divide to form chondrocytes, and synthesize the matrix of cartilage.
(3) Elastic cartilage is the most common cartilage of human body.
(4) White fibrous cartilage is the strongest cartilage.

88) Nature of salivary gland is :-

(1) Unicellular, Exocrine

(2) Multicellular, Endocrine
(3) Multicellular, Exocrine
(4) Unicellular, Exocrine

89) Which muscle has intercalated disc :-

(1) Skeletal muscles

(2) Visceral muscles
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) Cardiac muscles

90) Histamine secreting cells are :-

(1) Plasma cell

(2) Adipose cell
(3) fibroblast
(4) Mast cell
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 4 3 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 4 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 4 4 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 1 4 3 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain Question:
The question asks to find the displacement [from the] origin with the help of vector addition.

Concept:
Polygon law (vector addition).

Solution:
30m towards north,
20m towards east,

towards S-W,

Net Displacement:

Final Answer: Option (1)

2) Displacement is area under v-t graph :

× (1) × (–2) + 1 × 1 = 3 m

3)

∴ Distance ≥ |Displacement|

or

4) As under a–t curve = Δv

i.e., = vm = 25 m/s

5) x = t2 – 2t + 5

v= = 2t – 2 = 0
⇒t=1
x]t=0 = 5m
x]t = 1 = 1–2+5 = 4m
x]t = 3 = 9 – 6 + 5 = 8 m
Distance = 1 + 4 = 5m

6) Explanation Question:
Find the acceleration of a particle at the precise moment it comes to rest, given its position
function.
Concept:
This question is based on kinematics - calculus
Formula :

Velocity: v =

Acceleration: a =
Solution:
Position

Velocity

Time when the particle is at rest: v = 0

32 – 8t2 = 0 ⇒ 8t2 = 32 ⇒ t2 = 4 ⇒ t = 2 seconds (since t ≥ 0).
Differentiate the velocity function to find the acceleration function:

Acceleration at t = 2 seconds:
a(2) = –16(2) = –32m/s2

v= = 32 – 8t2
v = 0 at t = 2s

a= = – 16t
at t = 2s, a = –32 m/s2
Final Answer: (2)

7)

Displacement = 0.

8) Average speed =
 =

9) As x = 8 – 4t + 6t2

or v = 12t – 4

As t = 0, v = –4. Also v ∝ t

Hence, (1) represents the correct graph

OR

x = 8 – 4t + 6t2
v = –4 + 12t

10)

11)

12) In round trip displacement is zero.

13)

V = 2m/sec

14)
15)
So speed

16)

17)

18) Answer : 2
Explanation : To find the ratio of the distance travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd,
3rd and 4th second.
Concept : Motion under gravity (using equation of motions)

Formula :

Calculation :

⇒ S1st, S2nd, S3rd, S4th

= [2(1) – 1] : [2(2) – 1] : [2(3) – 1] : [2(4) – 1]
=1:3:5:7

19)

Taking downward motion of the first stone

form A to ground , we have

h = -ut1 + ............. (i)

Taking downward motion of second stone
From A to ground , we have

h = -ut2 + ............ (ii)

Third stone

h= .............. (iii)
multiplying Eq. (i) by t2 and Eq. (ii) by t1 adding , we get

h(t1 + t2) = g t1t2 (t1 + t2)

h = g t1 t2 ..... (iv)
From eq. (iii) and (iv)
 = t1 t 2

20)

Conceptual.

21)

22) Velocity of particle will become zero in time the given time is greater

than the time

Hence, distance > |displacement|

Distance =

23) Slope = is zero at 4 times.

24)

Correct answer is option (2)

25) is negative

is constant

But, v is decreasing with x

∴ is decreasing

26)
At C tanθ +ve At E θ > 90° (–ve slope)
At D θ = 0° At F θ < 90° (+ve slope)
∴ At E Vinst is negative

27) x = –t(t – 2T)

x = –t2 + 2Tt

and

28) For the given condition initial height and velocity of the ball is zero. When the ball moves
downward its speed increases and it will be maximum when the ball hits the ground & just
after the collision it becomes half and in opposite direction. As the ball moves upward its speed
again decreases and becomes zero at height . This explanation match with graph (1).

29)

Correct answer is option (2)

30)

100 m and 160 m respectively

31)

If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

32) Explaining : find maximum velocity using a - t graph

Concept : This question is based on = area under a - t graph
Solution :
v – u = at = Area under a – t graph

⇒ v – 2 = × 4 × 2 ⇒ v = 6 m/s
Final Answer : (1)

33)
ai < af ⇒ θi < θf

34)

a ∝ t'
v ∝ t2
graph is parabola suitable options is (1)

35) Δv = area

vf – vi = (20 × 5) + (20) (5)

vf – 10 = 150
vf = 160 m/s

36) Total time of flight = T = ,

Maximum height attained H =

Now =

37) Velocity will be perpendicular to acceleration at highest point.

38) vx will remain same while vy will reverse

so

39)
θ = 45° & R = 36 m
H=9m

40)

QUESTION EXPLANATION : From the projectile’s equation , find the

angle of projection and range.
 CONCEPT : Compare with standard projectile equation y = x tanθ − .

FORMULA : FOR RANGE AND ANGLE

Compare with , y = x tanθ

SOLUTION:

y=

y=

Compare with , y = x tanθ

tanθ = ⇒ θ = 60°

R=
Answer : (2)

41) ⇒ ux = 1, uy = 2

42)

R=a+b

y = x tan θ

h = a tan 45°

43) Explain Question:

To find angle θ.

Concept:
Horizontal velocity remains constant.

Solution:
50 cos θ = 30

θ = 53°

​Final Answer: Option (4)

 44) –40 = 10t –
⇒ 5t2 – 10t – 40 = 0
⇒ t2 – 2t – 8 = 0
⇒ t2 – 4t + 2t – 8 = 0
⇒ t(t – 4) + 2 (t – 4) = 0
⇒ (t + 2) (t – 4) = 0
t = 4 sec.
R = ux × t
= 20 cos30º xt

= 20 ×

45) R = 5T2

tan θ = 1

CHEMISTRY

46)

Correct answer is option (2)

47)

Correct answer is option (4)

48)

Correct answer is option (2)

49)

Correct answer is option (1)

50) In isoelectronic species size ∝

: Size
Z : 20 19 17 18

51) Z = 103 is an actinide

52)

Question Explanation: Gradual decrease in atomic size across the lanthanide series.
Concept: Lanthanide Contraction.
Solution: Lanthanide contraction is the steady and gradual decrease in the atomic and ionic
radii of the elements following lanthanum (from Cerium to Lutetium). This occurs because, as
the atomic number increases, the new electrons enter the 4f-subshell. These f-electrons
have a very poor shielding effect due to their diffused shape. Consequently, they cannot
effectively shield the outer electrons from the increasing nuclear charge, causing the entire
electron cloud to contract toward the nucleus.
For isoelectronic or similar series:

In lanthanides, as atomic number (Z) increases, the screening constant σ for 4f electrons is
very low, making . This leads to:

Final Answer: 3. Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of f-
subshell electron.

53)

Question Explanation:
We need to compare electron gain enthalpy (ΔHeg) of O, O⁺, O²⁺ and O²⁻.

Concept:
This question is based on electron gain enthalpy and stability of species.

Solution:

A. O⁺ and O²⁺ are positively charged → strong attraction for extra electron → very high
ΔHeg.

B. O neutral has moderate ΔHeg.

C. O²⁻ already has excess electrons → strong repulsion → very low (most negative) ΔHeg.
Thus, largest ΔHeg = O²⁺, smallest ΔHeg = O²⁻.

Final Answer : Option (2)

54) Explain Question : We have to compare shielding/ constant (σ) of given electron.
Concept : This question is based on shielding/ constant (σ).
Solution :
σ order : se– > p'e > d'e > f'e
Reason: left to right orbitals become more diffused.
Final answer : Option (3)

55) IV period :
no. of orbital = 9
(one orbital occupy 3 electron)
then no. of elements = 9 × 3 = 27

56) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 – Hg (Non typical transition element)

57)

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
For IP2 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
1s2 2s2 2p6
Max. stable
elec. conf.
Max. IP2
2 2 6
(3) 1s 2s 2p
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5
1s2 2s2 2p5
1s2 2s2 2p4

58)

Correct answer is option (2)

59)

Actinides

60)

Correct answer is option (4)

61)

Period 5, group 15

62) Explain Question: In a 100-element table, how many have 4d electrons?

Concept: This question is based on electron configuration
Solution: The 4d subshell begins filling at atomic number 39 (Yttrium). In a table with 100
elements, all elements from 39 to 100 will have 4d electrons.
Final Answer: 2
63)

Correct answer is option (4)

64)

Correct answer is option (4)

65)

H+ < Li+ < H–

66)

5s2 4d10 5p2

67) Explain the Question :

Identify the strongest acid among the given hydrogen halides
Concept : This question is based on acidity trends.
Solution :
Acidity increases down the halogen group because the H-X bond weakens as the halogen
atom's size increases, making proton donation easier. Hl has the weakest bond.
Acidic strength order - HF < HCl < HBr < Hl
Final Answer : 3

68) Explanation : ionic size order is asked

Concept : +ve chage ; –ve charge ∝ size

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

(ionic size)
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

69) Fact

70)

Explain Question:
Identify element type with configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2.

Concept:
Electronic Configuration.

Solution:
• 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 → last electron is filled in s–subshell.
 • Element is of s-block, hence it is a metal.
• If atomic number is seen = 12, which is Mg, and Mg is a metal.

Final Answer: Option (1)

71)

Question Explanation: Electron gain/loss and energy release.

Concept: Energy is released when an atom gains an electron (electron affinity).
Solution:

Option Process Energy Released?

No (second electron gain, energy released

1
absorbed)

2 No (ionization requires energy)

3 Yes (electron gain, energy released)

4 Usually No (repulsion, energy absorbed)

Final Answer : Option (3)

72)

Question Explanation: Arrange elements by increasing electron gain tendency (electron

affinity).
Concept: This question is based on Electron affinity trend
Solution: The tendency to gain electrons generally increases across a period and is highest
for elements needing few electrons to complete an octet (halogens like D), or those that can
achieve a stable half-filled or full subshell.
Order of increasing tendency to gain electron- noble gas < metal < chalcogen < halogen
The correct order is A (Ne) < C (Na) < B (O) < D (F)
Final Answer: Option (1)

73) Explain Question: Arrange Ne, N, and Be in increasing electron affinity order.
Concept: This question is based on Electron affinity
Solution: Ne (noble gas) has almost zero EA, Be has filled subshell (low EA), N has higher EA
than Be due to p3 configuration. Correct increasing order: Ne < Be < N.
Final Answer: option(3)

74) Question Explanation: Identify the false statement.

Concept: Electron Affinity
Solution: Among halogens, electron affinity is highest for chlorine. Iodine, being the largest
common halogen, has the weakest attraction for an incoming electron and therefore has the
lowest, not the largest, electron affinity.
Final Answer: Option (2)

75) Explain Question: Identify the correct sequence of electron affinity (EA) for elements.
 Concept: This question is based on electron affinity
Solution: Electron affinity generally decreases down a group. Alkali metals (Li > Na > K >
Rb) follow this trend correctly. Halogens (Cl > F) and Chalcogens (S > O) have anomalies.
Final Answer: (3)

76)

B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

77) 1. Explain the Problem: We need to identify the option where the given order of
elements does not match the trend of the specified property.
2. Concept:

A. Ionic size: Generally increases down a group and decreases across a period.
B. Ionization enthalpy: Generally increases across a period and decreases down a group.
C. Electron gain enthalpy: Generally becomes more negative (more exothermic) across a
period and less negative down a group.
D. Metallic radius: Generally increases down a group.

3. Solution:

A. Option 1: Correct. Ionic size increases as we move down a group and from right to left across
a period.
B. Option 2: Correct. Ionization enthalpy generally increases across a period from left to right.
C. Option 3: Incorrect. While electron gain enthalpy generally becomes more negative across a
period, there are exceptions. Chlorine has a more negative electron gain enthalpy than
fluorine due to smaller size and inter-electronic repulsions.
D. Option 4: Correct. Metallic radius generally increases down a group.

Therefore, the incorrect order is option 3: I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain
enthalpy).

78) Problem explanation :

Determine the correct trend for the electron affinity of halogens from the given options.
Concept:
2. Concept: The atomic radius of an element is influenced by its nuclear charge (atomic
number) and the shielding effect of its electrons. As the nuclear charge increases, the atomic
radius generally decreases, but the ionization state also plays a role:
• Smaller ions (like A2-, B3+, and C4+) will have a smaller atomic radius because the loss of
electrons results in a higher effective nuclear charge acting on fewer electrons, pulling them
closer to the nucleus.
• Higher charges result in smaller ionic radii due to greater attraction between the nucleus
and remaining electrons.
Given:

• Z3 - Z1 = 2 and implying that the atomic

numbers of A, B, and C form an arithmetic progression.
3. Solution:
1. The atomic number of C ( Z3) is inf erred from its electronic configuration [Ar] 3d 2 4s2,
suggesting it is a transition metal with an atomic number of 22 (Titanium, Ti).
2. The atomic number of A (Z1) will be Z3 - 2 = 22 - 2 = 20 (which corresponds to Calcium, Ca).
3. Using we can find Zz: Z2 = Z1 +Z32 = 20 + 222

= 21(which corresponds to Scandium, Sc). which corresponds to

Scandium, Sc}).Z2 = 2Z1+Z3 = 220 + 22 = 21(which corresponds to Scandium, Sc).
Now, comparing the ionic radii of A2+ (Ca2+), B3+ (Sc3+), and C4+ (Ti4+):
• A2 + (Ca2+): As a group 2 element, the Ca2+ ion is relatively larger due to fewer protons in the
nucleus.
• B3+ (Sc3+): Sc3+ has a higher charge and smaller radius than Ca2 ...
• C4+ (Ti4+): Ti4+ has the highest charge and will be the smallest of the three.
Thus, the correct order of ionic radii is: A2 + > B3+ > C4 +
The correct answer is:

79)

Ans is (D)
Second electron affinity of an element is always endothermic

80)

81)

At. Radius → Li > Be > B

I.P.→ Li < B < Be
E.A. → Be < B < Li

82)

Correct answer is option (3)

83)

FΘ < ClΘ < Cl < F

84) Explain the Question :

Evaluate four statements about periodic properties of elements.
Concept : This question is based on periodic trends.
Solution :
IE2 > IE1 is always true. He has the highest IE1. Cl has the highest EA. Cs is one of the least
electronegative elements, not the most.
Final Answer : 3

85)
 Explanation -
The question asks to find the element pair among the given options that exhibits the largest
difference in their electronegativity values.

Concept -
Electronegativity Now let's calculate the electronegativity differences for each pair :

Solution -

A. B, Al : |2.04 - 1.61| = 0.43

B. Al, Ga : |1.61 - 1.81| = 0.20

C. Ga, In : |1.81 - 1.78| = 0.03

D. In, Tl : |1.78 - 2.04| = 0.26

Comparing the electronegativity differences, the maximum difference is observed in the pair
B, Al.

Final Answer - Option (1)

86)

For A particular atom successive I. P values always increase. So E1 < E2 < E3

87)

The correct order of size of ions is

Br– > S– > Cl– > N3–

88)

Correct answer is option (4)

89)

Correct answer is option (4)

90)

[Ne] 3s2 3p3

BIOLOGY
91)

Question Explanation: Identifying the factor that was not one of the five explicitly listed
core criteria used by R.H. Whittaker for his classification.

Concept: This question is based on Whittaker's Five Kingdom Criteria.

Solution: R.H. Whittaker's Five Kingdom Classification was based on five primary,
interconnected criteria:

A. Cell structure (Prokaryotic/Eukaryotic)

B. Thallus (Body) organization (Unicellular/Multicellular)

C. Mode of nutrition (Autotrophic/Absorptive Heterotrophic/Ingestive Heterotrophic)

D. Reproduction

E. Phylogenetic relationships

While Mode of nutrition directly relates to the Ecological role (Producers → Plantae,
Consumers → Animalia, Decomposers → Fungi/Monera), the term Ecological role itself was a
broader concept that provided the rationale for his classification (especially splitting Fungi
from Plantae) rather than a separate, explicit technical criterion like the other three listed
options. The core, defined criteria were the first five listed above.

Final Answer: Option (4)

92) NCERT XI, Page # 17

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 2

94) NCERT XI Pg.# 129 para. 8.4.1

95)

Correct answer is option (2)

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 8
97)

Explain Question: Question is asking about which statements are related to universal rules of
nomenclature

Concept: Nomenclature

Solution:

(a) Biological names are generally in Latin. -correct

(b) The first word in a biological name represents the generic name while the second
component denotes the specific epithet. -correct

(c) Both the words in a biological name, when printed, are separately underlined, to indicate
their latin origin. -False

When printed, biological names are italicized, not underlined.

Underlining is only used when handwritten — and both words are underlined together, not
separately.

(d) Generic name starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small
letter. -correct

Only a, b & d are correct statements

Final answer: 4

98)

When we go species to kingdom, similarities increased.

99)

NEW NCERT XI pg no.6

100)

Question Explanation: Question is asking about the described range of number of species

Concept: Diversity of living world

Solution: The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7-1.8 million.
This refers to biodiversity or the number and types of organisms present on earth.

Final answer: option (3)

101)

Allen module.
102)

Triticum, is a name of genus

103)

Four kingdoms

104)

NCERT Page # 06

105)

Correct answer is option (3)

106)

NCERT XI Pg. # 7,8,11

107) NCERT Pg. # 11

108) NCERT-XI Pg. # 10

109) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 10, 11

110)

Correct answer is option (4)

111)

Correct answer is option (4)

112)

Protista

113)

NCERT XI Pg. # 8

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 8, para 1.3

115)

NCERT XI Pg # 11

116) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 7

117) NCERT-XI, Pg No. 8

118) NCERT XI Page # 18

119)

Explain Question :
The question asks: According to the Two Kingdom System of classification (by Linnaeus),
where are Chlamydomonas and Chlorella placed?

Concept :
This question is based on Two Kingdom System.

Solution :
The correct answer is 4 – Kingdom Plantae
In the two Kingdom system by Linnaeus, all autotrophic organisms (including unicellular algae
like Chlamydomonas and Chlorella) were placed under Kingdom Plantae, as only plants and
animals were recognized.

Final Answer : option (4) Kingdom Plantae.

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 20

121)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

122)

Cell wall

123)

Explain Question : The bacterial cell is very simple in A but very complex in B. You are to
select the correct pair (A and B) that completes this statement accurately

Concept : This question is based on Kingdom Monera

Solution : The correct answer is 4. A = Structure, B = Behaviour

Explanation: Bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour Bacteria
are structurally simple:
–No nucleus or membrane-bound organelles
Prokaryotic cell structure
So, A = Structure

Despite their simplicity, bacteria show complex behavior:

– Adaptation, resistance, gene exchange (conjugation, transformation)
So, B = Behaviour

Final Answer : option (4) A = Structure, B = Behaviour

124) Explain Question : Identifying a classification system.

Concept : Bentham and Hooker's System.

Solution : The classification system proposed by George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker
is a natural system of classification. It is based on studying all the observable and natural
characteristics of a plant, including internal and external features, rather than just a few
superficial ones. This system was widely used, especially in herbariums.

So, the correct answer is 2. Natural

Final Answer : option (2)

125)

Animalia

126) NCERT Pg. # 16, 8

127)

Glycocalyx, Cell wall, Cell membrane

128) NCERT Pg.# 18-19

129)

Kingdom

130)

Module pg no.24,29,30

131)

Question Explanation: Question is asking given two statements about taxonomic

category,select correct or incorrect statement.

Concept: Taxonomic category

Solution:
Statement-I: There are five obligate categories in hierarchy of taxonomy.
There are seven obligate categories

Statement-II: Classification is single step process.

Classification is not a single step process but involves hierarchy of steps in which each step
represents a rank or category
Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Final answer: option (4)

132) NCERT Pg # 09

133)

II, III, IV Only

134)

Both statement I and II are correct

135) NCERT XI, Page # 5

136)

Question Explanation : Select the incorrect statement ?

Concept :
This question is based on Types of Epithelium.

Solution :
Option (4) is incorrect
Because In PCT Simple cuboidal Epithelium is found.

Final Answer : option (4)

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

138) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about Match type of cell junctions with their correct functions.

Concept :
Cell junctions connect cells and help in adhesion, communication and barrier formation.
 Solution :
a. Adhering junctions → 2.
These hold neighboring cells together, acting like cement.
b. Gap junctions → 3.
These allow communication between cells through exchange of ions and molecules
c. Tight junctions → 1.
These prevent leakage of substances between adjacent cells.

Final Answer : Option (2)

139)

Question Explanation : Which type of tissue lines kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands?
Concept: The question is based on epithelial tissues.
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Simple cuboidal epithelium lines kidney tubules and ducts of glands, where it helps in
secretion and absorption.

Final Answer: Option 3

140)

Question explanation
The question is asking to identify the three types of simple epithelial tissues labeled
A, B, and C.

Concept
Structural organisation in animals

Solution
A represents squamous epithelium, B represents cuboidal epithelium, and C
represents ciliated columnar epithelium. This matches option 3.

Final answer
Option 3

141) NCERT XI, Pg # 102

142)

Question explanation
The question is asking about the type of epithelium that lines the fallopian tubes, trachea, and
bronchi.

Concept
Cell junction

Solution
These structures need movement of mucus or ovum, which is done by cilia. Hence they are
lined by ciliated epithelium.

Final answer
Option 3

143)

One-half the volume of neural tissue in our body and, protect and support neurons.

144)

All of the above

145)

A is true but R is false.

146)

Interdigitations

147)

Correct answer is option (2)

148)

Correct answer is option (4)

149) NCERT XIth Pg.#103, Figue-7.5(b)

150) NCERT Pg. # 103

151)

All of these

152)

Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

153)

b-cell body, c-dendrite, d-neuroglia, a-axon

154)

Explain Question : The question is asking which cells of loose connective tissue are
responsible for producing and secreting the matrix.
Concept : This question is based on structural Organisation in Animals – Connective tissue.

Explanation : Fibroblast cells are the main cells of loose connective tissue that produce and
secrete fibers and ground substance of the matrix.
Final answer : 1

155)

Adipose tissue

156) NCERT Pg. # 104, Para # 2

157) Module No. 2

158)

White fibrous cartilage

159)

Question Explanation: Identify the most accurate statement regarding the cartilage matrix.

Concept: properties of cartilage

Solution:

A. Matrix is only solid → Incorrect , Cartilage is not completely rigid.

B. Matrix is solid and pliable → Incorrect , It is pliable, but also resists compression.

C. Matrix is solid, pliable and resists compression → Correct , True for all types of cartilage
(hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic).

D. Matrix is soft → Incorrect , Too vague; cartilage is firmer than soft tissue but not as hard
as bone.

Final Answer: Option 3

160)

Question Explanation: We have to identify what the given diagram of bone structure
represents.

Concept: Specialised connective tissue

Solution: Compact bone is made up of tightly packed osteons (Haversian systems), each with
a central Haversian canal surrounded by concentric lamellae. In contrast, spongy (trabecular)
bone has a lattice‑like network of trabeculae and no Haversian systems. Thus the given
diagram showing a Haversian canal system with concentric lamellae corresponds to compact
bone.

Final answer: Option 4

161)

Hyaline

162)

1-skeletal muscle, 2 and 3-smooth muscle, 4-cardiac muscle

163)

Fibroblast cell

164)

a-3-L, b-1-М, с-2-К

165)

Ca3(PO4)2

166)

Question Explanation: Lacunae are found in

Concept: BONE AND CARTILAGE

Solution: Lacunae are small spaces or cavities within the matrix of bone and cartilage. These
spaces house individual cells:

A. In bone: Lacunae contain osteocytes (bone cells).

B. In cartilage: Lacunae contain chondrocytes (cartilage cells).

Final answer: Option 4

167)

Chondroblast cells

168)

Question Explanation : The question asks which cell can detect, receive, and transmit
different kinds of stimuli.

Concept : Neuron (nerve cell) function

Solution :

A neuron is a specialized cell that can:

A. Detect stimuli through its receptors

B. Receive signals via dendrites

C. Transmit impulses along its axon to other neurons or effector cells

Final Answer: (2)

169) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 102, Fig. 7.2(b)

170) Explain Question:

The question asks how many of the listed glands are unicellular (single-celled) gland.
​
Concept:
Types of glands – unicellular vs multicellular

Solution:
• Goblet cell – unicellular, secretes mucus
• Paneth cell – unicellular, secretes enzymes in intestine
• Mammary gland – multicellular
• Salivary gland – multicellular
• Sweat gland – multicellular
• Sebaceous gland – multicellular
So, only 2 cells are unicellular glands.

Final Answer: Option (3)

171)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the main type of cartilage that forms most of
the skeleton in the embryonic stage.

Concept : This question is based on Specialised connective tissues.

Solution : In the embryo, most of the skeleton is initially made up of hyaline cartilage, which
is later replaced by bone through the process of ossification.

Final Answer : option (1)

172) NCERT XI Pg # 103 & 104

173)

Question explanation:
The question is asking which tissue type has cells that are compactly packed with very little
intercellular matrix.

Concept:
Epithelial tissue

Solution:
Epithelial tissue has cells tightly packed with minimal intercellular space, unlike connective
tissue which has abundant matrix.
Final answer:
2. Epithelial tissue

174)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

175)

Question Explanation: You are asked where cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the
body.
Concept: Types of epithelium
Solution: Simple cuboidal epithelium lines ducts of glands, tubular parts of nephrons,
including PCT and DCT.

Final answer: Option 4 – All of these

176)

Elastin, Collagen, Reticulin protein

177)

Elastic cartilage is the most common cartilage of human body.

178) NCERT (Eng.) Pg. # 102, Para no. 7

179)

Cardiac muscles

180)

Connective tissue