[Link].

IN - DGCA CAR -66 MODULE 12 PART -06

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

12.09a, Equipment and Furnishings Q. 6. When testing emergency slide bottles.

(ATA 25).
A- any pin could be checked by connecting
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directly to ground.
B- one pin must be grounded to the
Q. 1. Cargo and baggage compartments in cartridge body at one time.
which a fire is completely confined come C- all three pins must be shorted together
under. and grounded to the cartridge body.
A- Class C. Correct Answer is. all three pins must be
B- Class D. shorted together and grounded to the
C- Class B. cartridge body.
Correct Answer is. Class D. Explanation. Testing of the cartridges is the
Explanation. JAR 25.857. same procedure as testing fire bottle
cartridges. CAIPs EEL/1-73.6.3 on.

Q. 2. Aircraft emergency escape slides are

usually pressurised with. Q. 7. Where would you find information
A- oxygen. regarding galley equipment?.
B- helium. A- AWN 99.
C- CO2. B- BCARs.
Correct Answer is. CO2. C- ANO.
Explanation. All inflatable emergency Correct Answer is. AWN 99.
equipment are inflated with CO2. Explanation. CAP 747.

Q. 3. Vertical projected separation between Q. 8. How often are life jackets inspected?.
seat rows must be.
A- 4 inches. A- In accordance with the manufacturers
B- 3 inches. specification.
C- 5 inches. B- In accordance with the AMM.
Correct Answer is. 3 inches. C- Every 12 months.
Explanation. AWN 64 Para 4.3 (now in Correct Answer is. In accordance with the
CAP747). manufacturers specification.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-2 4.1 and CAIPs
AL/3-12 4.1.
Q. 4. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders
of.
A- CO2. Q. 9. Toilets must have a smoke detection.
B- air.
C- Nitrogen. A- aural and visual warning in the main
Correct Answer is. CO2. cabin.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-12. 4 b All B- light in the cockpit.
inflatable safety equipment use CO2. C- connected to a pump to pump the smoke
out.
Correct Answer is. light in the cockpit.
Q. 5. The minimum passenger aisle width Explanation. JAR 25.854 says a) or b).
for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20
or more is.
A- 15. Q. 10. Where would you find information on
B- dependant upon aircraft type. life-raft deployment?.
C- 24. A- JARs.
Correct Answer is. 15. B- Cabin safety on-board card.
Explanation. JAR 25.815. C- Cabin operations manual.
Correct Answer is. Cabin operations
Page

manual.
Explanation. NIL.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

Q. 11. How do you clean seat belts?. Q. 16. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated
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using.
A- With MEK. A- CO2.
B- With white spirit. B- nitrogen.
C- With warm water with low alkalinity C- compressed air.
soap. Correct Answer is. CO2.
Correct Answer is. With warm water with Explanation. AL/3-12 2.
low alkalinity soap.
Explanation. NIL.
12.09b, Equipment and Furnishings
(ATA 25).
Q. 12. After a successful ditching, the
liferafts deployment will.
A- be rapid and obvious with easily and
readily displayed instructions adjacent to the
liferafts. Q. 1. What is the minimum separation
B- be briefed by the cabin crew. between a seat back cushion and another
C- have detailed instructions in a booklet in seat or fixed structure?.
a seat pocket. A- 28 inches.
Correct Answer is. be rapid and obvious B- 24 inches.
with easily and readily displayed instructions C- 26 inches.
adjacent to the liferafts. Correct Answer is. 26 inches.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. AWN 64 Para 4.1.

Q. 13. Type and Quantity of emergency Q. 2. Cargo nets are manufactured from.
equipment to be carried is specified in which
document?. A- hessian.
A- CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7. B- nylon.
B- Schedule 4 of the ANO. C- polypropylene.
C- Airworthiness Notice 79. Correct Answer is. nylon.
Correct Answer is. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Explanation. Cargo nets are made from
nylon or polyester (not polypropylene).
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 3. A galley trolley will be designed to.

Q. 14. Where the aircraft passenger seating
capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 A- does not matter as the trolleys move.
then:. B- not exceed the floor limits more than 3
A- 1 megaphone is required. times in one hour.
B- 3 megaphones are required. C- not exceed the floor loading limits.
C- 2 megaphones are required. Correct Answer is. not exceed the floor
Correct Answer is. 2 megaphones are loading limits.
required. Explanation. AWN 99 para 5.6.
Explanation. JAR Ops 1.810.

Q. 4. When loading a cargo aircraft.

Q. 15. Megaphones must be stowed so they
can withstand an inertia force of. A- the weight limits of the aircraft could be
A- 15g. exceeded under careful monitored
B- 9g. circumstances.
C- 12g. B- the CofG limits of the aircraft could be
Page

Correct Answer is. 9g. exceeded under careful monitored

Explanation. JAR 25.561 and 25.1421. circumstances.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

C- the manufacturer specifies the maximum A- you can only fit seats facing forward.
floor loads. B- you can fit seats facing forward or
Correct Answer is. the manufacturer rearward.
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specifies the maximum floor loads. C- you can only fit seats as stated in the
Explanation. NIL. Declaration of Design and Performance
(DPP).
Correct Answer is. you can only fit seats
Q. 5. Galley equipment which does not as stated in the Declaration of Design and
need electrical power is called. Performance (DPP).
A- controlled equipment. Explanation. AWN 64 Para.2.2.
B- uncontrolled equipment.
C- minimum equipment.
Correct Answer is. uncontrolled Q. 10. Attendant call is achieved by pressing
equipment. a button on the passenger service unit
Explanation. AWN 99 4.1, 4.2. (PSU). To reset the light.
A- the button is pushed again.
B- the button is pulled out.
C- a reset switch on the attendants panel is
Q. 6. Galley trolleys must have placards operated.
indicating. Correct Answer is. the button is pushed
A- location, position, flight number. again.
B- maximum weight, position, flight Explanation. NIL.
number.
C- Must be stowed for take-off, landing and
turbulence. Q. 11. On large aeroplanes, containerised
Correct Answer is. Must be stowed for cargo is held down by.
take-off, landing and turbulence. A- rope.
Explanation. AWN 99 5.11. B- side cart guides and fore and aft latches.

C- netting.
Q. 7. PTV type entertainment equipment. Correct Answer is. side cart guides and
fore and aft latches.
A- has no capacity for digital information Explanation. NIL.
processing and transmitting.
B- is installed with seat electronic unit and
multiplexing techniques. Q. 12. A galley catering trolley with electrics
C- is not the part of maintenance schedule. is classed as.
A- an uncontrolled item.
Correct Answer is. is installed with seat B- a controlled item.
electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. C- neither, as it is removable.
Correct Answer is. a controlled item.
Explanation. PTV = Personal Television. Explanation. AWN99 Para 4.1.

Q. 8. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must Q. 13. The minimum vertical projected
have closed container lids at temperatures separation between seat rows is.
above. A- 7 inches.
A- 65 °C. B- 3 inches.
B- 55 °C. C- 5 inches.
C- 45 °C. Correct Answer is. 3 inches.
Correct Answer is. 45 °C. Explanation. CAP 747 GR No.2 Dimension
Explanation. CAP 455 AWN No.99 5.2. C.

12.10, Fire Protection (ATA 26).

Page

Q. 9. With regard to forward/rearward

passenger seat installation.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

C- the system is the same but the

extinguishant is different.
Q. 1. On pulling the fire handle, the aural Correct Answer is. the system and the
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warning. extinguishing system are the same.

A- goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, Explanation. JAR 25 1203 f2.
bleed air and generator goes off.
B- stays on, the light extinguishes, the
generator goes off line. Q. 6. When a fire test on a Systron Donor
C- goes off, the light remains on, the fire detector system is carried out.
generator goes off line. A- a signal passes through the unbroken
Correct Answer is. goes off, the light centre conductor to produce the warning.
remains on, the generator goes off line. B- it checks the integrity of the contacts.
Explanation. B757 AMM. C- the signal passes through the centre and
back through the outer to give warning.
Correct Answer is. it checks the integrity
Q. 2. Engine wing firebottles should be of the contacts.
charged with nitrogen at 15 °C to. Explanation. Jeppesen a+p Technician
A- 1250 psi. Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a
B- 600 psi. systron-donner [Link] is the same
C- 1500 psi. system the CAA call a sensor/responder
Correct Answer is. 600 psi. system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2.2.4 in para
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft d.
Systems Page 9-7. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Systems 3rd EditionPage 166";.
Q. 7. When inspecting lavatory
installations.
Q. 3. A fire that can be put out by a crew A- the ashtray should not be located close
member in a cargo bay is in a. to the toilet paper holder.
A- class A compensation. B- No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to
B- class D compensation. the ashtrays only.
C- class B compensation. C- the ashtray must be made of a
Correct Answer is. class B compensation. thermoplastic material.
Correct Answer is. the ashtray should not
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft be located close to the toilet paper holder.
Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25.857. Explanation. AWN 83 5.4.

Q. 4. In a capacitive fire detection system, Q. 8. Lavatories must have, in the disposal

if. container.
A- there is a break, the system will not A- Freon extinguisher with white ball
work. markings indicating when discharged.
B- there is a break, the system will work but B- Freon extinguisher with black ball
not test satisfactory. markings indicating when discharged.
C- there is a short to earth, the system will C- water/glycol extinguisher with white ball
work but not test satisfactory. markings indicating when discharged.
Correct Answer is. there is a break, the Correct Answer is. Freon extinguisher with
system will work but not test satisfactory. black ball markings indicating when
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4.2.1. discharged.
Explanation. The temperature sensitive
strip changes color from white to black at the
Q. 5. A fire detection zone wiring can pass indicated temp. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1. JAR
through another fire zone when. 25-854 a, b.
A- the system and the extinguishing system
are the same.
Page

B- the system is different but the Q. 9. A fire detection loop must be capable
extinguishant is the same. of.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

A- using master warning visual and aural Q. 14. Fire tests on aircraft internal
signals. furnishings must be carried out.
B- detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 A- every two years.
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seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 B- every five years.

seconds the condition is no longer present. C- only when equipment items fail random
tests.
C- using master warning visual signals only. Correct Answer is. only when equipment
items fail random tests.
Correct Answer is. using master warning Explanation. NIL.
visual and aural signals.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems
Pallett Page 163. Q. 15. A cockpit check on the engine firewire
system is a.
A- calibration check.
Q. 10. A Systron-Donner fire detection B- continuity check.
system uses. C- function check.
A- helium gas. Correct Answer is. continuity check.
B- oxygen gas. Explanation. B747-400 AMM.
C- nitrogen gas.
Correct Answer is. helium gas.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Q. 16. When the fire handle is operated it.
Systems. Jeppesen Page 9-22.
A- cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator
remains on line to provide electrical power.
Q. 11. A toilet is fitted with thermal
protection. B- cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel
A- to protect against freezing at altitude. and operates fire extinguishers.
B- to protect against the dangers of smoke C- operates fire extinguisher only.
and fire in the event of an overheat. Correct Answer is. cuts off field current,
C- to protect against continuous flushing. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire
Correct Answer is. to protect against the extinguishers.
dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an Explanation. NIL.
overheat. [Link]
Explanation. AWN 57 Para.2.3. [Link]

Q. 12. What external warning is there for an Q. 17. What is the contamination monitor
APU fire?. for, in a Systron Donner fire detection
A- Aural. system?.
B- Both aural and a red light. A- Volts drop.
C- Red light. B- Dirty contacts.
Correct Answer is. Both aural and a red C- Integrity comparator.
light. Correct Answer is. Dirty contacts.
Explanation. AL/3-26 2.8. Explanation. EEL/1-7 2.2.4 (d).

Q. 13. Engine fire bottle pressure switches Q. 18. Fireproofing of cabin material should
are operated by. be done.
A- AC or DC. A- every 2 years.
B- DC. B- when a sample fails.
C- AC. C- every 5 years.
Correct Answer is. DC. Correct Answer is. when a sample fails.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.
Page

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

Q. 19. What test is carried out to ensure Q. 24. Smoke detectors consist of a.
serviceability of a squib?.
A- Bottles are fired. A- lamp detecting 2% smoke.
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B- Safety ohmmeter is used to check B- photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke.

voltage.
C- A continuity check. C- photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke.
Correct Answer is. A continuity check. Correct Answer is. photoelectric cell
Explanation. Trick question. A continuity detecting 10% smoke.
check is carried out - with a safety Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft
ohmmeter. But a safety ohmmeter does not Systems Page 9.2.
check voltage.

Q. 25. In a toilet smoke condition, what

Q. 20. In a gas firewire system, what causes would be the indication?.
the firewire caption to come on when heat is A- Either a light or an audible warning in the
applied?. cabin.
A- Continuity. B- Light in the cabin.
B- Pressure. C- Audible warning in the cabin.
C- Capacitance increase. Correct Answer is. Either a light or an
Correct Answer is. Pressure. audible warning in the cabin.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Explanation. JAR 25.854.
Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg
System.
Q. 26. What do you check when carrying out
an insulation check on a continuous firewire
Q. 21. Toilet fire detection issues can be loop?.
found in. A- The firewire, sensor & controller.
A- AWN 83. B- The outside of the firewire to earth.
B- CAAIPs. C- The firewire.
C- AWN 80. Correct Answer is. The firewire.
Correct Answer is. AWN 83. Explanation. Pallets Aircraft Electrical
Explanation. AWN 83 - now transferred to System Third Edition page 163 fig 10.17.
CAP 747 GR no 20.

Q. 27. When the fire-handle switch is pulled,

Q. 22. The outside casing of a firewire has. a.
A- red warning light stays on. Generator,
A- same potential as ground. hydraulics & fuel stays on.
B- 28 VDC potential above ground. B- red warning light goes off. Generator
C- 115 VDC potential above ground. goes offline.
Correct Answer is. same potential as C- red warning light stays on. Generator,
ground. hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. red warning light stays
on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
Explanation. B737 MM. Warning light is an
Q. 23. A cargo compartment which will indication of fire. Light goes off only when
contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. fire is extinguished.

A- A.
B- D. Q. 28. What are the minimum number of fire
C- C. bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?.
Correct Answer is. D.
Explanation. JAR 25.857. A- 3 BCF.
B- 4 Fire Extinguishers.
Page

C- 4 Methyl Bromide.
Correct Answer is. 4 Fire Extinguishers.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

Explanation. JAR OPS 1.790, AWN 60.

Q. 34. How many fire extinguishers are
required on an aircraft having 401 - 500
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passengers?.
Q. 29. How often do hand-held extinguishers A- 6.
have to be weighed?. B- 8.
A- Bi-annually. C- 5.
B- Every 5 years. Correct Answer is. 6.
C- Annually. Explanation. JAR 25.851.
Correct Answer is. Annually.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3 and
7.1. Q. 35. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on.

A- all fires in fuselage.

Q. 30. The weight of an extinguisher is B- engines only.
stamped. C- baggage holds only.
A- on bracket. Correct Answer is. all fires in fuselage.
B- on head fitting. Explanation. AL/3-10 3.3.
C- on base of body.
Correct Answer is. on head fitting. 12.11, Fuel Systems (ATA 28).
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-10, para 6.3.

Q. 31. How can fire extinguisher be Q. 1. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in.
identified as being used?.
A- Check the tell-tale wire. A- the closed position.
B- Weighed. B- the open position.
C- Check the pressure. C- its last position.
Correct Answer is. Weighed. Correct Answer is. the closed position.
Explanation. AL/3-10 6.3. Explanation. Fuel crossfeed valves must be
closed for flight.

Q. 32. Portable fire extinguishers are

operated by. Q. 2. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are
A- turning upside down and squeeze used on.
button/trigger. A- low pressure systems.
B- breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal B- high pressure systems.
then operated by the handle. C- air or vapour systems.
C- one single operation until fire Correct Answer is. air or vapour systems.
extinguisher is empty.
Correct Answer is. breaking the tell Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-17 5.8.3.
tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the
handle.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 3. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated.

A- by internal cooling.
Q. 33. How many fire extinguishers are B- by air.
required on an aircraft with 501 C- by the fuel.
passengers?. Correct Answer is. by the fuel.
A- 6. Explanation. NIL.
B- 7.
C- 5.
Correct Answer is. 7. Q. 4. Fuel cross feed valves are operated
Page

Explanation. JAR 25.851. by the.

A- 28 V DC bus.

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B- 115 V AC. Correct Answer is. brown black slime.

C- battery. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
Correct Answer is. 28 V DC bus. Airframe Textbook Page 15-38.
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Explanation. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1,

A320 FCOM 28.30 pg1.
Q. 10. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured
by.
Q. 5. Fuel systems that are interconnected A- bolts.
must have. B- contact adhesive.
A- separate venting for each tank. C- press type rivets.
B- no airspace. Correct Answer is. press type rivets.
C- air spaces interconnected. Explanation. AL/3-15 4.1.3 says press studs
Correct Answer is. air spaces or cords.
interconnected.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-17.
Q. 11. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity
indicating system is carried out with.
Q. 6. As fuel level increases, system
capacitance. A- tanks completely full.
A- decreases. B- tanks completely empty.
B- no change. C- tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
C- increases. Correct Answer is. tanks empty apart from
Correct Answer is. increases. unusable fuel.
Explanation. The dielectric constant of Explanation. AL/10-3 11.14.1.e.
kerosene is more than that of air. B757 MM
Chapter 28-41-00.
Q. 12. After a tank bag has been replaced, a
fuel flow test should be carried out at.
Q. 7. When refuelling.
A- the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off A- tank outlet.
the supply when the tank is full. B- engine inlet.
B- it is important not to fill the expansion C- tank shut-off valve point.
space in the tank. Correct Answer is. engine inlet.
C- it is important to fill the expansion space Explanation. NIL.
in the tank.
Correct Answer is. it is important not to fill
the expansion space in the tank. Q. 13. In biologically contaminated fuel,
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician corrosion takes place.
Airframe Textbook Page 15-18. A- below the fungal colonies.
B- the top of the tank.
C- the bottom 2 inches of the tank.
Q. 8. When using Biopor microbial fuel Correct Answer is. below the fungal
growth treatment. colonies.
A- it is added to the fuel and burnt. Explanation. AL/3-15 para 8.3.
B- it is applied dry and left.
C- it is applied wet and flushed out.
Correct Answer is. it is added to the fuel Q. 14. If an aircraft has ability to transfer
and burnt. fuel in flight, provision must be made to.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine
Powerplants 7-3. A- shut off fuel before structural damage.
B- provide overflow facility to dump fuel.
C- stop engine from using tank during
Q. 9. Microbial growth is. transfer.
A- red dots. Correct Answer is. shut off fuel before
Page

B- brown black slime. structural damage.

C- green sludge. Explanation. JAR 25.957.

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Q. 20. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe

to prevent vaporisation?.
Q. 15. In a fuel system with interconnected A- An anti-corona device.
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vents. B- A corona device.

A- an expansion space is not required. C- A nozzle.
B- the expansion space must be 2% of the Correct Answer is. An anti-corona device.
tank capacity.
C- the expansion space must be 10% of the Explanation. NIL.
tank capacity.
Correct Answer is. the expansion space
must be 2% of the tank capacity. Q. 21. What happens to the capacitance in a
Explanation. JAR 25.969. fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?.

A- Depends on altitude.
Q. 16. Fuel tanks interconnected must have. B- Increases.
C- Decreases.
A- vents to allow overfueling. Correct Answer is. Decreases.
B- protection against overfill for tanks and Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
fuel system. Electronics Eismin Page 353.
C- tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to
engine inlet.
Correct Answer is. protection against Q. 22. When an aircraft is put into storage
overfill for tanks and fuel system. for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks
Explanation. JAR 25.969. should.
A- have some fuel left in to prevent sealant
from deteriorating/drying out.
Q. 17. When a FADEC system loses air data B- be full.
input it goes to. C- be empty.
A- soft reversion. Correct Answer is. have some fuel left in
B- hard reversion. to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying
C- mechanical reversion. out.
Correct Answer is. soft reversion. Explanation. AL/3-15 9.3.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 23. Integral fuel booster pumps.

Q. 18. Pressure refuelling is carried out at. A- require ram air cooling.
B- lets the fuel do cooling.
A- 20 PSI. C- require no cooling.
B- 40 PSI. Correct Answer is. lets the fuel do cooling.
C- 15 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 40 PSI. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. AL/3-17 5.4 says 'up to 50
psi'.
Q. 24. The purpose of a scavenge system
within a fuel system is.
Q. 19. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer A- to ensure that all unused fuel is returned
from. to the tanks efficiently.
A- tank to tank. B- to ensure that all available fuel can be
B- left tank to right tank. used.
C- any tank to any engine. C- to ensure that any water in the fuel is
Correct Answer is. any tank to any engine. constantly dispersed thus reducing
microbiological contamination.
Explanation. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. Correct Answer is. to ensure that any
water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus
Page

reducing microbiological contamination.

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12.9 Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) A B 12.10 Fire Protection (ATA 26) 12.11 Fuel Systems (ATA 28) 12.12 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29))

Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Correct Answer is. cabin air is bled around
Systems Page 6.17. the tank.
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Explanation. NIL.

Q. 25. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel

warning light indicates. Q. 30. When a fuel jettison valve is in
A- pump failure. transit, the magnetic indicator would show.
B- the tank does not pressurise.
C- ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail. A- amber and in line.
B- amber and cross line.
Correct Answer is. ice blockage, filter C- green and in line.
popped or pump fail. Correct Answer is. amber and cross line.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 26. How is fuel supplied to a turbine

engine?. Q. 31. When considering the basic categories
A- By a fuel boost pump. of fuel tank construction, which of the
B- By suction from the engine driven fuel following is most prone to leaks?.
pump. A- Rigid.
C- By a gravity feed pump. B- Integral.
Correct Answer is. By a fuel boost pump. C- Flexible.
Correct Answer is. Integral.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

Q. 27. A fuel tank suction valve will open Q. 32. On removal of a fuel tank booster
when. pump, fuel is observed running out of the
A- the booster pump fails. boost pump canister, this could be caused
B- both the engine driven and booster pump by.
fail. A- the pressure outlet check valve is not
C- the engine driven pump fails. correctly seated.
Correct Answer is. the booster pump fails. B- fuel draining out of the pressure switch
bleed.
Explanation. NIL. C- fuel leaking past the inlet screens.
Correct Answer is. the pressure outlet
check valve is not correctly seated.
Q. 28. To prevent water condensation in a Explanation. NIL.
fuel tank.
A- the tank should be filled as full as
possible. Q. 33. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted
B- the tank should be filled with the with.
minimum fuel possible. A- two 28 V DC motors.
C- the filler cap should be left open. B- two three-phase AC motors.
Correct Answer is. the tank should be C- two single phase AC motors.
filled as full as possible. Correct Answer is. two 28 V DC motors.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

Q. 29. To protect the centre tank fuselage Q. 34. A shroud vent and overload drain
area from a vapour build up. would normally be found on.
A- ram air is circulated around the tank. A- fuel tank vent pipes.
B- a shroud vent and overboard drain is B- fuel jettison system.
fitted. C- the APU fuel feed.
Page

C- cabin air is bled around the tank. Correct Answer is. fuel tank vent pipes.
Explanation. NIL.

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Correct Answer is. use the maximum

volume for fuel and have the minimum
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Q. 35. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the amount of weight.

engine for the purpose of engine removal Explanation. NIL.
you would.
A- close the cross bleed valve.
B- close the HP fuel lock. Q. 40. On Large transport aircraft fuel is
C- pull the fire handle. delivered to each engine using.
Correct Answer is. pull the fire handle. A- a parallel system.
Explanation. After first pulling teh firebottle B- the same system for each engine.
CBs. C- a separate system for each engine.
Correct Answer is. the same system for
each engine.
Q. 36. A leak from a fuel tank which Explanation. "This question can be
manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is interpreted an many ways, and all three
classified as a. answers arguably correct.
A- stain. However, based upon the fact that the
B- seep. fuel system can feed any engine from any
C- run. tank, we have interpreted it as 'every
Correct Answer is. run. engine is fed from the same system'."
Explanation. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5.4.1.
12.12, Hydraulic Power (ATA 29).

Q. 37. Calcium Chromate tablets can be

fitted in integral tanks. Before installation
the linen bag should be wetted with.
Q. 1. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic
A- Water. system.
B- Methylated Spirit. A- is to prevent creep in jack operated
C- Kerosene. services which have several selected
Correct Answer is. Water. positions.
Explanation. NIL. B- is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe
fracture.
C- is to relieve the pump of load when the
Q. 38. A check valve is fitted to a fuel operation of services is complete and the
jettison system to. accumulator charged with fluid.
A- prevent the centre from being defuelled. Correct Answer is. is to relieve the pump
of load when the operation of services is
B- prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. complete and the accumulator charged with
fluid.
C- automatically stop the fuel jettison Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 5.2.
operation after a period of time.
Correct Answer is. prevent the dumping of
the outer tanks. Q. 2. Hydraulic pressure can be restored
Explanation. NIL. by.
A- compressing the air charge in an
accumulator.
Q. 39. The advantages of integral fuel tanks B- the use of a pressure/heat exchanger.
are that they. C- compressing the fluid in a reservoir.
A- are cheaper to manufacture, more Correct Answer is. compressing the air
durable and easier to maintain. charge in an accumulator.
B- use the maximum volume for fuel and Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7.
have the minimum amount of weight.
C- are easier to design and construct and
Page

use the maximum volume of fuel. Q. 3. What is the colour of the band on a
hydraulic seal?.

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A- Yellow. Q. 8. How is the hydraulic pump

B- Green. depressurising solenoid actuated?.
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C- White. A- Energised both open and closed

Correct Answer is. Green. depending on cockpit selection.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician B- Energised Open.
Airframe Textbook Page 8-44. C- Energised Closed for fail-safe.
Correct Answer is. Energised Closed for
fail-safe.
Q. 4. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic Explanation. The depressurising valve
system will. (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is
A- allow continued press to essential energised closed, to fail-safe open.
systems during times of reduced supply.
B- dampen pressure inputs.
C- maintain a high pressure to all systems. Q. 9. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid
frothing?.
Correct Answer is. allow continued press A- By pressurising.
to essential systems during times of reduced B- Vent Reservoir to atmosphere.
supply. C- Pass over a tray.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Correct Answer is. By pressurising.
Airframe Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5.3. Airframe Textbook 8-16.

Q. 5. Where is the temperature overheat Q. 10. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft

switch located in a hydraulic pump?. hydraulic systems.
A- are only ever used in an emergency.
A- In the pressure line. B- store fluid under pressure.
B- In the suction line. C- provide additional fluid if leaks occur.
C- In the case drain. Correct Answer is. store fluid under
Correct Answer is. In the case drain. pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7.
Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8.

Q. 11. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would

Q. 6. What happens if a component has an be made of.
internal hydraulic leak?. A- natural rubber.
A- Fluid loss. B- synthetic rubber.
B- Increase in fluid pressure. C- butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or
C- Increase in fluid temperature. Teflon.
Correct Answer is. Increase in fluid Correct Answer is. butyl rubber, ethylene
temperature. propylene or Teflon.
Explanation. Increase in temperature is an Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3.3.1.
indication of internal leaks.

Q. 12. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to

Q. 7. What happens to hydraulic fluid when overheating is high in.
it is overheated?. A- acidity.
A- Increase acidity. B- alkalinity.
B- Increase viscosity. C- viscosity.
C- Increase alkalinity. Correct Answer is. acidity.
Correct Answer is. Increase acidity. Explanation. Overheating causes acidity.
Explanation. Hi acidity is a common
problem revealed after an oil system
analysis. Q. 13. A normal hydraulic system will.
Page

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A- show pressure and source of hydraulics. C- use the same/correct hydraulic fluid.
Correct Answer is. use the same/correct
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B- show fluid temperature and quantity. hydraulic fluid.

C- illuminate a light in the cockpit when the Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft
system is ready. Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2.
Correct Answer is. show pressure and
source of hydraulics.
Explanation. Some systems show Q. 19. When replacing a flexible pipe.
temperature, but they are not 'normal'.
A- do a bonding check.
B- tighten only hand tight.
Q. 14. A constant volume hydraulic system C- use two spanners to stop pipe from
uses what to relieve pressure in system twisting.
when no services are being used?. Correct Answer is. use two spanners to
A- Pressure relief valve. stop pipe from twisting.
B- Return line back to pump. Explanation. AL/3-13 6.5.
C- ACOV.
Correct Answer is. ACOV.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 12.2. Q. 20. How do you remove air from
hydraulic fluid?.
A- Vent to atmosphere.
Q. 15. The control of hydraulically powered B- Pass through a restriction.
emergency electrical generator frequency is C- Pass over a tray.
by. Correct Answer is. Pass over a tray.
A- restriction valve. Explanation. NIL.
B- angle of swashplate.
C- IDG.
Correct Answer is. angle of swashplate. Q. 21. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic
Explanation. NIL. pump is.
A- energised to the run position.
B- used to prevent anything happening until
Q. 16. Hydraulic systems normally operate there is hydraulic pressure.
at. C- de-energised to start the pump.
A- 1800 PSI. Correct Answer is. de-energised to start
B- 3000 PSI. the pump.
C- 300 PSI. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft
Systems Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7. Q. 22. A constant delivery pump has its
output varied with.
A- regulators.
Q. 17. When flushing hydraulic systems. B- gears.
C- servo pressure.
A- flush with methylated spirit. Correct Answer is. regulators.
B- flush with any hydraulic oil. Explanation. Constant delivery is constant
C- flush with same hydraulic oil. flow rate.
Correct Answer is. flush with same
hydraulic oil.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 23. A variable angled pump starts at.

A- half way position.

Q. 18. When replenishing a hydraulic B- minimum stroke.
system. C- maximum stroke.
A- use any hydraulic fluid. Correct Answer is. maximum stroke.
Page

B- use any hydraulic fluid made by the Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.

same manufacturer.

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Q. 24. A check flow valve in a hydraulic

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system prevents. Q. 29. What constitutes a hydraulic power

A- pump cavitation. pack?.
B- reverse flow. A- Variable swashplate pump.
C- overpressure. B- Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter.
Correct Answer is. reverse flow. C- Hydraulic oil accumulator.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Reservoir, pump,
selector valve, filter.
Explanation. Jeppeson A & P Technician
Q. 25. A duplex seal consist of. Airframe P8-15.
A- a square section rubber ring within a
steel washer.
B- a hard rubber square section ring with a Q. 30. If an accumulator loses air pressure
soft rubber square section inner ring. there will be.
C- a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched A- rapid depressurisation of system.
between two Teflon rings. B- pump cavitation.
Correct Answer is. a rubber 'T' section ring C- rapid fluctuations of instruments.
sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Correct Answer is. rapid fluctuations of
Explanation. NIL. instruments.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 26. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising

valve energised?. Q. 31. A marker number on a pipe indicates.
A- When selected on.
B- When there is sufficient hydraulic A- the thickness of the wall on the pipe.
pressure available. B- the specification of the pipe throughout
C- When selected off. the pipe run.
Correct Answer is. When selected off. C- the type of fluid used to pressure test the
Explanation. AL/3-21 4.2. pipe.
Correct Answer is. the specification of the
pipe throughout the pipe run.
Q. 27. A fixed volume axial pump contains Explanation. NIL.
the following rotating parts.
A- Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block.
Q. 32. "One reason for fitting an
B- Swash Plate & Valve Block. accumulator in an hydraulic system is
C- Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder to."
Block. A- minimize the possibility of pump
Correct Answer is. Drive Shaft, Swash cavitation.
Plate & Cylinder Block. B- absorb pressure surges.
Explanation. AL/3-21 Figure 2. C- relieve excess pressure.
Correct Answer is. absorb pressure
surges.
Q. 28. An hydraulic closed system is one Explanation. NIL.
where.
A- pressure is maintained at the selector
valves at all times. Q. 33. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an
B- there is no pressure at the selector hydraulic system to.
valves when no functions are required. A- prevent a leak back of pressure.
C- most of the major components of the B- prevent excess temperature.
system are included in a self contained unit. C- relieve excess pressure.
Correct Answer is. relieve excess pressure.
Correct Answer is. pressure is maintained
Page

at the selector valves at all times.

Explanation. AL/3-21 12.1-12.3.

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Explanation. Thermal relief valves relieve

the pressure build-up due to excessive
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temperature. Q. 39. The end fittings on a NRV are

normally different to.
A- facilitate bleeding of the system.
Q. 34. A component in a hydraulic system B- allow a full flow from the valve.
which ensures instantaneous action when a C- prevent incorrect installation.
service is selected is. Correct Answer is. prevent incorrect
A- accumulator. installation.
B- engine driven pump. Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10.
C- selector.
Correct Answer is. accumulator.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 40. A hydraulic accumulator is charged
with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. When
the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is
Q. 35. A shuttle valve is used for. reached, the air pressure is.
A- preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. A- 4000 PSI.
B- 3000 PSI.
B- maintaining fluid press when the C- 1000 PSI.
emergency system fails. Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI.
C- change over from main to auxiliary Explanation. NIL.
system in the case of failure.
Correct Answer is. change over from main
to auxiliary system in the case of failure. Q. 41. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is
Explanation. AL/3-21 6.4. caused by.
A- low accumulator pressure.
B- moisture in the fluid.
Q. 36. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic C- relief valve set too high.
system are used to. Correct Answer is. low accumulator
A- restrict the rate of pressure build up. pressure.
B- control the rate of system operation. Explanation. NIL.
C- limit the maximum pressure.
Correct Answer is. control the rate of
system operation. Q. 42. Hand pumps are normally single
Explanation. AL/3-21 6.2. cylinder double acting because of the.

A- two NRVS fitted.

Q. 37. The purpose of a mechanical B- relief valve.
sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. C- piston ram displacement.
Correct Answer is. two NRVS fitted.
A- landing gear and doors. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6.
B- safety switches.
C- brake anti-skid units.
Correct Answer is. landing gear and doors. Q. 43. During a leak test of an hydraulic
system, system pressure.
Explanation. NIL. A- is not important.
B- must be minimum working.
C- must be at maximum.
Q. 38. The purpose of a non-return valve is Correct Answer is. must be at maximum.
to.
A- direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. Explanation. NIL.
B- restrict the movement of components.
C- isolate one component from another.
Correct Answer is. direct fluid to the Q. 44. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps.
Page

hydraulic actuator.
Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10.

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A- require an automatic cut-out valve in the C- any hydraulic fluid available.

system. Correct Answer is. only the specified fluid.
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B- require an automatic cut-out valve and

accumulator in the system. Explanation. NIL.
C- are self idling.
Correct Answer is. require an automatic
cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. Q. 50. The essential components of a
hydraulic system of the constant delivery
Explanation. NIL. type are an.
A- accumulator and automatic cut-out
valve.
Q. 45. Mechanical sequence valves are B- accumulator and shuttle valve.
operated by. C- accumulator and relay valve.
A- a striker pin. Correct Answer is. accumulator and
B- the pilot. automatic cut-out valve.
C- the operation of a NRV. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. a striker pin.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 51. An automatic cut-out valve will.

Q. 46. Pressure relay valves are fitted. A- limit pump wear.

B- prevent the hydraulic lock forming.
A- before a pressure gauge. C- raise fluid boiling point.
B- before a pressure sequence valve. Correct Answer is. prevent the hydraulic
C- before a pressure relief valve. lock forming.
Correct Answer is. before a pressure Explanation. NIL.
gauge.
Explanation. AL/3-21 13.3.2.
Q. 52. A maintaining valve is fitted to a
hydraulic system.
Q. 47. Before checking the initial pressure in A- to maintain a back pressure to the
the hydraulic accumulator. accumulator.
A- the reservoir must be checked for correct B- relieve excessive pressure to return.
level. C- to ensure a supply of fluid to essential
B- the fluid pressure must be released. services in the event of system failure.
C- all air must be bled from the system. Correct Answer is. to ensure a supply of
Correct Answer is. the fluid pressure must fluid to essential services in the event of
be released. system failure.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

Q. 48. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized Q. 53. A thermal relief valve.

to. A- senses fluid temperature change.
A- provide a reserve of stored energy. B- senses fluid pressure.
B- maintain a constant fluid level. C- provides cooling for the fluid.
C- minimize the possibility of pump Correct Answer is. senses fluid pressure.
cavitation.
Correct Answer is. minimize the possibility Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
of pump cavitation. Textbook 8-14.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7.

Q. 54. Hydraulic systems are normally

Q. 49. In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is flushed with.
permissible to use. A- methylated spirits.
Page

A- only the specified fluid. B- the same type of fluid as used in the
B- any fluid of the same specific gravity. system.

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C- any clean hydraulic fluid.

Correct Answer is. the same type of fluid Q. 60. The force exerted by a hydraulic
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as used in the system. cylinder is equal to.

Explanation. NIL. A- area * volume.
B- area * pressure.
C- pressure * stroke.
Q. 55. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid Correct Answer is. area * pressure.
requires which kind of seals?. Explanation. NIL.
A- Butyl Rubber.
B- Synthetic Rubber.
C- Natural Rubber. Q. 61. A tandem PFCU.
Correct Answer is. Butyl Rubber. A- has two control surfaces under its
Explanation. AL/3-21 3.3. control.
B- has the rams parallel.
C- has the actuator rams co-axial.
Q. 56. A RAT hydraulic pump is for. Correct Answer is. has the actuator rams
co-axial.
A- landing gear and auto-brake systems. Explanation. NIL.
B- nose wheel steering.
C- flying controls if hydraulic power lost.
Correct Answer is. flying controls if Q. 62. The reason why slack must be left in
hydraulic power lost. a flexible hose during installation, is a
Explanation. NIL. flexible hose under pressure.
A- expands in length and diameter.
B- contracts in length and diameter.
Q. 57. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is C- contracts in length and expands in
taken from. diameter.
A- a tap into a convenient return line. Correct Answer is. contracts in length and
B- a stack pipe higher than the normal level. expands in diameter.
Explanation. A&P Mechanics General
C- the bottom of the reservoir. Handbook page 115.
Correct Answer is. the bottom of the
reservoir.
Explanation. AL3-21 8.1. Q. 63. An automatic cut-out valve is
necessary in a hydraulic system with.

Q. 58. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are A- a fixed volume pump.

normally. B- pressures above 3000 PSI.
A- single acting. C- a variable volume pump.
B- low pressure. Correct Answer is. a fixed volume pump.
C- double acting.
Correct Answer is. double acting. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Jeppeson A & P technician
Airframe P8-23.

Q. 59. To enable an hydraulic system to

operate two components requiring different
pressures.
A- a pressure reducing valve is used.
B- a pressure regulating valve is used.
C- a pressure relief valve is used.
Correct Answer is. a pressure reducing
valve is used.
Page

Explanation. NIL.

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