21-06-2026

1803CMD303001260007 MD

PHYSICS

1) Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is : A =
2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

2) The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How
much will be the maximum error in the estimate of the kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass
and speed?

(1) 11%
(2) 8%
(3) 5%
(4) 1%

3) The distance travelled by a body is proportional to the square of time. The body is moving with

(1) uniform acceleration

(2) uniform velocity
(3) variable acceleration
(4) all of the above

4) Initially a body is at rest. If its acceleration is 5ms–2 then the distance travelled in the 5th second is
:–

(1) 86.6 m
(2) 87.5 m
(3) 88 m
(4) 22.5 m

5) If energy(E), velocity(V) and time(T) are considered as fundamental quantities then dimension of
mass will be :-

0
(1) [E V–2 T ]
0
(2) [E2 V–2 T ]
(3) [E V2 T]
(4) [E–1 V2 T1]
6) If the velocity of a body is constant -
(A) |Velocity| = speed
(B) |Average velocity| = speed
(C) Velocity = average velocity
(D) Speed = average speed

(1) Only (A) is correct

(2) (A) and (B) are correct
(3) (C) and (D) are correct
(4) All are correct

7) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in an experiment is recorded as 1.63s, 1.56s, 1.42s,
1.71s and 1.80s respectively. The average absolute error is

(1) 0.1s
(2) 0.11s
(3) 0.01s
(4) 1.0s

8) If X = a + b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of X will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of density is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10)

The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 1.5%

11) The volumes of two bodies are (6.4 ± 0.2)m3 and (3.4 ± 0.1)m3 then find out sum and difference
of the volumes of both bodies :-

(1) (9.8 ± 0.3), (3.0 ± 0.1)

(2) (9.8 ± 0.1), (3.0 ± 0.2)
(3) (9.8 ± 0.3), (3.0 ± 0.3)
(4) (9.8 ± 0.4), (3.0 ± 0.3)

12) In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

13)

In the simple pendulum experiment, a student makes an error of 1% in the measurement of length of
the pendulum and an error of 3% in the measurement of time-period. The maximum percentage
error in the computed value of g would be:-

(1) 7%
(2) 4%
(3) 2%
(4) 10%

14) An ant is scramping on the stairs as shown in the figure. There are '4' stairs and each stair has
width of 12 cm and height of 5 cm. The distance travelled by the ant to scramp the stairs is :-

(1) 52 cm
(2) 68 cm
(3) 48 cm
(4) 20 cm

15) The velocity of a bullet is reduced from 200 m/s to 100 m/s while travelling a wooden block of
thickness 10 cm. The retardation, assuming it to be uniform, will be :

(1) 10 × 104 m/s2

(2) 12 × 104 m/s2
(3) 13.5 × 104 m/s2
(4) 15 × 104 m/s2

16) A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The
pitch of the screw gauge is :

(1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.5 mm

17) An experiment measured quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as t = . If
percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively 1%, 3%, 2%, then percentage error in t is :-

(1) 10%
(2) 4%
(3) 7%
(4) 13%

18) If v = x2 – 5x + 4, find the acceleration of the particle when velocity of the particle is zero :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

19) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

20) The best method to reduce random error is :

(1) To change the instrument used for measurement

(2) To take help of experienced observer
(3) To repeat the experiment many times and to take the average of results
(4) None of the above

21) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A person travels along a straight road for the first (1/3)th time with a speed v1 and the next (1/3)th
time with a speed v2 and last (1/3)th time with a speed v3. The mean speed V of the man is :-

(1)

(2)
V=
(3) V =
V=
(4)

23)

The displacement of a particle is given by

y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and acceleration are respectively

(1) b, – 4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

24) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale is :

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

25) A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at time t is given by x2 = 2 + t. Its
acceleration is given by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A man walks 30 m towards north, then 20 m towards east and in the last 30 m towards south
- west. The displacement from origin is :

(1) 10 m towards west

(2) 10 m towards east
(3) towards north west
(4) towards east north

27) The length of a strip measured with a meter rod is 10.0 cm. Its width measured with a vernier
callipers is 1.00 cm. The least count of the meter rod is 0.1 cm and that of vernier callipers is 0.01
cm. What will be the error in its area ?

(1) ±0.01 cm2

(2) ±0.1 cm2
(3) ±0.11 cm2
(4) ±0.2 cm2

28) If the error in the measurement of radius of sphere is 2% then the error in the determination of
surface area of sphere will be :-

(1) 2%
(2) 6%
(3) 4%
(4) 3%

29) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 54 km/h in 10 seconds, it covers a distance of :

(1) 20 m
(2) 400 m
(3) 75 m
(4) 1440 m

30) What is the reading of micrometer screwgauge shown in figure ?

(1) 2.31 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) If the de–Broglie wavelength of 4th Bohr orbit of H-atom is 2Å, the circumference of the orbit will
be :-

(1) 8 nm
(2) 2Å
(3) 8Å
(4) 2 nm

2)

The orbital diagram in which both pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Maximum number of spectral lines possible when an electron jumps from 5th excited state to
ground state in a sample containing only Hydrogen atom will be –

(1) 4
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 15

4) The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer series for hydrogen atom will be :

(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 1.89 eV
(3) 2.55 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

5) Following figure shows some energy levels of an atom. If the transition E3 to E1 gives emission of
ultraviolet radiation, which of the following transitions could give infrared radiation :-

(1) E4 to E3
(2) E3 to E1
(3) E4 to E2
(4) E2 to E1

6) Number of visible lines when an electron return from 5th orbit upto ground state in H–Spectrum.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 10

7) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/sec is :-

(1) 6.63 × 10–33 m

(2) 6.63 × 10–34 m
(3) 6.63 × 10–35 m
(4) 6.65 × 10–35 m

8) Which of the following has the largest de-Broglie wavelength (all have equal velocity) ?

(1) CO2 molecule

(2) NH3 molecule
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

9) Assertion (A) : The path of an electron in an atom can never be determined accurately.
Reason (R) : Both the exact position and exact velocity of an electron in an atom can be determined
simultaneously.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
10) In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum ?

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

11) The most intense line in the Brackett series of the spectrum of atomic hydrogen is the transition
:-

(1) n2 = ∞ → n1 = 1
(2) n2 = 8 → n1 = 4
(3) n2 = ∞ → n1 = 4
(4) n2 = 4 → n1 = 3

12) If an ion of 25Mn has a magnetic moment of 3.873 B.M. Then Mn is in which oxidation state. :-

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +5

13) The correct time independent Schrodinger's wave equation for an electron with E as total energy
and V as potential energy is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) 2s (P) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = 0

(B) 2pz (Q) n = 4, l = 2,m = –2 or + 2

(C) (R) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0

(D) (S) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(1) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

15)

Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents an impossible arrangement?

n ℓ mℓ ms

(1) 3 2 -2 + 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 + 1/2

(3) 3 2 -3 + 1/2

(4) 5 3 0 – 1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Calculate maximum and minimum number of electrons which may have magnetic quantum

number, m = 0 and spin quantum number in Na(Z = 11) :-

(1) 3, 2
(2) 4, 3
(3) 2, 1
(4) 3, 0

17) Which of the following information is not correct about principal quantum number (n) :-

(1) As value of "n" increases, the energy of the orbit increases

(2) As value of "n" increses, the distance from the nucleus increases
(3) As value of "n" increases, the velocity of electron increases
(4) The number of electrons in a particular shell is equal to 2n2

18) Which orbital have double dum-bell shape :-

(1) dxy
(2) pz
(3) dz 2

(4) s-orbital

19) Assertion (A) :- Any orbit can accomdodate. maximum 2 e–. Reason (R) :- Two electron in an
orbit can't have same spin.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

20) The anomalous pairs in Mendeleev's periodic table is/are _____.

(1) Co, Ni
(2) B, C
(3) K, Ca
(4) All the above

21) The number of angular and spherical nodes for 4py orbital will be :-

(1) 1, 3
(2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 2
(4) 3, 1

22) In which of the following pairs is the probability of finding the electron in xy-plane zero for both
orbitals ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

23)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

24) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1

(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

25) Lother Mayer's curve was plotted against

(1) Atomic volume v/s melting point

(2) Atomic volume v/s boiling point
(3) Atomic weight v/s atomic volume
(4) Atomic number v/s atomic weight

26) The metallic and non metallic elements which are liquid at room temperature respectively are :-

(1) Cs, Fr
(2) As, Fr
(3) Br, Hg
(4) Hg, Br

27) Which of the following triads do not follow Dobereiner's law of triads?

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Ca, Sr, Ba
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Cl, Br, I

28) Among the given elements, select those, which are at the peak value of Lother Meyer curves?

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Earth alkaline metals
(3) Halogens family
(4) Metalloids

29)

An ion M+3 has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s2 element M belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

30) According to Newland's law of octaves, the properties of Li were similar to :-

(1) Na
(2) Ca
(3) Mg
(4) Al

BOTANY

1) The mitochondria contain :-

(1) Site for photophosphorylation

(2) Site for aerobic respiration
(3) Pigment located at their cristae
(4) ds DNA in their outer compartment

2) The stroma of chloroplast has :-

(1) Enzyme for protein synthesis

(2) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Enzyme for dark reaction and oxidative phosphorylation

3) Which cell organelle is known as the “powerhouse of the cell”?

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) Mitochondrion
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

4) The plasma membrane is mainly composed of:

(1) Proteins only

(2) Lipids only
(3) Lipids and proteins
(4) Cellulose and proteins

5) In facilitated diffusion :

(1) ATP is always required

(2) Movement occurs against concentration gradient
(3) Specific carrier proteins are involved
(4) Cell wall is required

6) Nuclear pores are mainly involved in:

(1) ATP synthesis

(2) Protein digestion
(3) Exchange of materials between nucleus and cytoplasm
(4) Lipid synthesis

7) Which statement regarding plasmodesmata is correct?

(1) They occur in animal cells only

(2) They connect adjacent plant cells through cell walls
(3) They are made of cellulose fibres
(4) They prevent transport between cells
8) Proteins synthesized by ribosomes on RER are generally :

(1) Structural lipids

(2) Secretory proteins
(3) Steroidal hormones
(4) Cellulose fibres

9) Which one is NOT a function of Golgi apparatus?

(1) Glycosylation of proteins

(2) Packaging of materials
(3) Formation of lysosomes
(4) ATP synthesis

10) Select the incorrect statement regarding plasma membrane.

(1) It is selectively permeable.

(2) It is composed mainly of lipids and proteins.
(3) It is a rigid non-living structure.
(4) It follows the fluid mosaic model.

11) The membrane surrounding a vacuole is called:

(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Tonoplast
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Cell coat

12) The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by:

(1) Watson and Crick

(2) Singer and Nicolson
(3) Schleiden and Schwann
(4) Hooke and Brown

13) A chromosome with one arm much longer than the other is:

(1) Metacentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) Telocentric
(4) Holocentric

14) The fluid matrix inside the nucleus is called:

(1) Cytosol
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Stroma
(4) Matrix

15) Polysome is formed by :-

(1) A ribosome with several subunits

(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

16) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

17) Match the columns and identify the correct option:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc -shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA

(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma

(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria

(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

18) Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of erythrocytes of human being is :-

(1) 1.8
(2) 1.3
(3) 0.80
(4) 0.60

19) (a) granular structure

(b) first observed under the electron microscope as dense particles by George Palade
(c) composed of RNA and proteins
(d) not surrounded by any membrane
Above given statements are true for which cell organelle?

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Chloroplast

20) Here 'S' (Svedberg's unit) stands for sedimentation coefficient then what are [A] & [B] for
eukaryotic cell.3

(1) A – 40S B – 60S

(2) A – 60S B – 40S
(3) A – 80S B – 60S
(4) A – 40S B – 80S

21) Non pigmented part of chloroplast is called :-

(1) Thylakoids
(2) Grana
(3) Stroma
(4) Lamellae

22) Colour of pericarp and petals is due to :-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Chromoplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Elaioplast

23) DNA is not found in :–

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Ribosome

24) Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis?

(1) Rough ER
(2) Smooth ER
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Ribosome

25) The nucleus is separated from surrounding cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, which is :-

(1) Double layered without pores

(2) Single layered with pores
(3) Double layered with pores
(4) Single layered without pores

26) Which of the following is smallest cell ?

(1) RBC
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Bacteria
(4) WBC

27) Cell wall formed on the inner (towards membrane) side of a mature cell is :

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Secondary cell wall
(4) Plasmodesmata

28) Which of the following is not a part of endomembrane system :-

(1) Golgi-complex
(2) Vacuole
(3) Lysosome
(4) Choloplast

29) Due to presence of cristae in mitochondria :–

(1) Surface area increase of outer membrane

(2) Surface area increase of inner membrane
(3) Surface area decrease of outer membrane
(4) Surface area decrease of inner membrane
30) Elaioplasts help in storage of :-

(1) Fats and oils

(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids

ZOOLOGY

1) All of the following avian characters are correct, except :

(1) Long bones are hollow with air cavities

(2) Scales are present only in the hind limbs region
(3) Crop & gizzard are present
(4) Beak possesses homodont teeth

2) Assertion (A) :- Pristis have to swim continuously to avoid sinking.

Reason (R) :- Air bladder are absent in Pristis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3) Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception
in it ?

(1) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(2) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side.
(3) All cartilaginous fishes have streamlined body with tough skin containing cycloid scales
(4) All amphibians are aquatic as well as terrestrial with two pairs of limbs

4) Identify the correctly matched pair :

6–15 pairs gills slits, Jaws absent,

(1) Petromyzon
open circulatory system
Persistent notochord, Placoid scales,
(2) Scoliodon
internal fertilization
Oviparous, 4–chambered heart,
(3) Crocodilus
external fertilization
(4) Psittacula Oviparous, hairy body, Bisexual
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which of the following is limbless reptile ?

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Bufo
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Vipera

6) The given figure shows some characteristic feature marked as chordates. Identify the correct
labelling A, B, C and D :-

A B C D
Noto Post anal
1 Gill Slits Nerve cord
chord Part
Nerve Post anal
2 Noto chord Gill Slits
cord Part
Noto Post anal
3 Nerve cord Gill Slits
chord Part
Post anal
4 Gill Slits Nerve cord Noto chord
Part
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other partaining to feature stated
against them?

(1) Pteropus and ornithorhyncus = viviparity

(2) Garden lizard & crocodile = 4 chamber heart
(3) Hyla and Salamandra = Tail present
(4) Sea horse & flying fish = Poikilothermal

8) How many among following characteristics are common between chondricthyes and osteichthyes?
a. Streamlined body b. Four pair gills
c. Two chambered heart d. Poikilothermal
e. Internal fertilization f. Dioecious

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

9) Assertion :- In fishes, heart has two chambers

Reason :- Circulatory system in fishes is open.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

10) Which of the following have notochord persistent throughout life except

(1) Lancelet
(2) Dog fish
(3) Great white shark
(4) Tortoise

11) Which of the following possesses electric organs and belongs to class chondrichthyes?

(1) Torpedo
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Trygon
(4) Exocoetus

12) Read the given statements.

(i) Respiration by lungs supplemented by air sacs
(ii) Only hind limbs have scales.
(iii) Sexes are separate & internal fertilization.
(iv) Tympanum represent ear.
(v) Digestive tract has cloaca.
How many characters are found only in class aves?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

13)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II

I Corvus a Vulture

II Columba b Ostrich

III Psittacula c Parrot

IV Struthio d Pigeon

V Neophron e Crow
(1) I-d, II-e, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d, V-e
(3) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(4) I-e, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-a

14) Which of the following character not correctly matched ?

Chordata Non-Chordata

Post anal tail is Post anal tail is

1
present absent

2 Notochord present Notochord absent

Dorsal, hollow,
Solid, double,
3 tubular, single
ventral nerve cord
nerve cord

Heart is dorsal (if

4 Heart is ventral
present)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) See the following figures and select the right option with their respective classes-

(1) A – Cartilage fish, B – Hag fish

(2) A – Cartilage fish, B – Cartilage fish
(3) A – Bony fish, B – Cartilage fish
(4) A – Bony fish, B – Bony fish

16) Which among the following is true?

(1) Chordates have ventral hollow nerve cord

(2) All vertebrates have open circulatory system
(3) All chordates are vertebrates
(4) All vertebrates are chordates.
17) Jawless vertebrates belong to the group

(1) Agnatha
(2) Gnathostomata
(3) Lagomorpha
(4) Prototheria

18) Select the correct option to identify A, B, C in the given chart:-

(1) A-Pisces, B-Tetrapoda, C-Ostracodermi

(2) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces, C-Tetrapoda
(3) A-Tetrapoda, B-Ostracodermi, C-Cyclostomata
(4) A-Cyclostomata, B-Ostracodermi, C-Tetrapoda

19) Salamandra belongs to which class :-

(1) Tetrapoda
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptiles
(4) Pisces

20) Find out incorrect match from column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scales
(1) Petromyzon
absent

Air bladder
absent but
(2) Pristis
operculum is
present

Air bladder
and
(3) Hippocampus operculum
both are
present
 Skin is
scaleless,
and
(4) Rana
tympanum
represents
the ear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Choose the correct statement about the figure given below

(1) All members of this class are endoparasites on some fishes.

(2) Body is with scales and paired fins.
(3) They have elongated body bearing 4-5 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
(4) Circulatory system is closed type.

22) Which statement is incorrect about the figure given below ?

(1) Notochord is present only in Larval tail

(2) It is a member of subphylum vertebrata
(3) Heart is situated on the ventral surface of body
(4) It is found only in marine environment

23) Which statement is false ?

(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(2) In urochordata notochord extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life
(3) The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embyronic period
(4) Phylum chordata is divided into urochordata, cephalochordata and vertebrata.

24) Which fish is kept in aquarium ?

(1) Betta
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Pterophyllum
(4) Both (1) and (3)
25)

Select the correct option of classification of Rana tigrina upto genus :-

(1) Chordata → vertebrata → Amphibia → gnathostomata → Rana

(2) Chordata → vertebrata → gnathostomata → Amphibia → Rana
(3) Chordata → Amphibia → gnathostomata → vertebrata → Rana
(4) Chordata → vertebrata → Amphibia → tetrapoda → Rana

26) Which class contains animals that are both marine & fresh water ?

(1) Chondricthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Mammalia
(4) Reptilia

27) Most primitive chordates are

(1) Hemichordates
(2) Urochordates
(3) Cephalochordates
(4) Cyclostomes

28) The reptilian skin is characterised by

(1) Mucous gland

(2) Scutellum
(3) Dry cornified skin
(4) Feathers

29) Cyclostomes are unique because they posses

(1) Paired fins

(2) Jawless circular mouth
(3) Operculum
(4) All of the above

30) Which of the following is exclusive feature of birds ?

(1) 4-chambered heart

(2) Oviparity
(3) Presence of feathers
(4) Pulmonary respiration
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 1
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 1

BOTANY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 2 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explain : First error full quantity ⇒ A = 2.5 m/s ± 0.5 m/s
Second error full quantity ⇒ B = 0.10 sec ± 0.01 sec
Error full value of multiplication ⇒ C = AB = ?
Concept : This question is based on error propagation & its applications (error in
multiplication)
Solution : True value of multiplication
⇒ C = AB = (2.5 m/s)(0.10 sec) = 0.25m
Percentage error in multiplication

⇒ = =
(20%) + (10%)

= 30%

Absolute error in multiplication ⇒ ΔC = 30% of C = = 0.075 m ≈ 0.08m

So, error full value of multiplication ⇒ C = 0.25 m ± 0.08 m

Final answer : Option (1)

2) Maximum percentage error in the measure of kinetic energy

=
= 2% + 2 × 3% = 8%

3) Explaining : if distance travelled by a body is proportional to square of time. find correct

option
Concept : This question is based on equation of motion in uniform acceleration
Solution :
if x ∝ t2

&
Final Answer : (1)

4)

5) Question Explanation : Find dimensional formula of Mass in terms of E, V, and T.

Concept: This question is based on dimensional analysis
Solution:
m ∝ Ex Vy Tz
0
M1L T0 ∝ [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
0 0
M1L T ∝ Mx L2x + y T–2x–y + z
Compare power of M ⇒ x = 1

Compare power of L

2x + y = 0
2(1) + y = 0 ⇒ y = –2
Compare power of T

–2x – y + z = 0
– 2(1) – (–2) + z =0
z=0
0
[M]=[E]1[V]−2[T]

Final Answer: Option (1)

6) Answer- (4)
Explanation:→ To find the correct option from according to given statements about velocities
and speed.
Concept :→ If a body has constant velocities it mean the beds is morning with Constant
speed in same direction.
Formula :→ Not require.
Calculation :→ Same as Q.B.

7) 1. Explanation of the Question:

The recorded periods of a simple pendulum are given. We need to find the average absolute
error of these measurements.

2. Concept:
Average absolute error measures the average difference between each recorded value and the
mean of all values.

3. Formula:

Average Absolute Error =

4. Calculation:

1. Calculate the Mean: Mean =

2. Absolute Error:

3. Sum of Absolute Error: 0.006 + 0.064 + 0.204 + 0.086 + 0.176 = 0.536

4. Average Absolute Error: Average Absolute Error =

Final Answer: The average absolute error is 0.107s.
8) X = a + b ⇒ Δx = Δa + Δb

Now

9)

1+2+1=4

10) Explaining : Find percentage error in mechanical energy.

Concept : This question is based on propagation of errors.
Solution : E = K + U = 100 + 200 = 300.0 J
ΔE = ΔK + ΔU = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0 J

Final Answer : (3)

11)

Question Explanation: Find sum and difference of volumes with their errors.
Concept: Error analysis (Units & Measurements).
Formula Used:
For addition/subtraction: ΔZ = ΔA + ΔB

Solution:
V₁ = 6.4 ± 0.2 m³, V₂ = 3.4 ± 0.1 m³

Sum: V₁ + V₂ = 6.4 + 3.4 = 9.8

Error in sum: ΔV = 0.2 + 0.1 = 0.3 → 9.8 ± 0.3

Difference: V₁ − V₂ = 6.4 − 3.4 = 3.0

Error in difference: ΔV = 0.2 + 0.1 = 0.3 → 3.0 ± 0.3

Final Answer: Option (3)

12)

Question Asking About:

Unit of force Pn new system product of unit and numerical value remains unchanged in each
system of units.

Formula:
n1u1 = n2u2
where u1 → SI unit , u2 → new unit
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

∵ =

⇒ 1 new unit = 0.1 N

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

13)

Answer is "7%"

14)

Explain the Question : An ant climbs 4 stairs, moving along each stair's width and height;
find total distance traveled.
Concept : This question is based on distance along a path = sum of horizontal and vertical
components if motion is along edges.
Solution : Distance per stair = Width + Height
Width w = 12 cm, height h = 5 cm
Distance per stair = 12 + 5 = 17 cm
Total distance for 4 stairs :
dtotal = 4 × 17 = 68 cm
Final answer : 2

15)

v2 = u2 + 2as
(100)2 = (200)2 + 2a × 0.1
∴ a = –15 × 104 m/s

16)

Pitch = 0.5 mm

17)

Avg. Atomic weight

= 85.5

18)
 v = x2 – 5x + 4 = 0
x2 – 4x – x + 4 = 0
x = 1, 4

a=
a = (x2 – 5x + 4)(2x – 5)

ax=1 = 0, ax=4 = 0

19)

Answer is "6.41 mm"

20) Random error is reduced by making large number of observations and taking mean of all
the results.

21)

22)
[∵ Equal time interval]

23) y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4

and
Hence, at t = 0, vinitial = b and ainitial = 2c.

24)

Answer is "1 mm"

25) x2 = 2 + t

2x =1

v=

a=v

a= v=
26) ;
;

⇒ (10 m west)

27) Explain the question : Measured length of a rectangular strip ⇒ ℓ = 10.0 cm

Absolute error in measurement of length ⇒ Δℓ = 0.1 cm
Measured width of the rectangular strip ⇒ b = 1.00 cm
Absolute error in measurement of width ⇒ Δb = 0.01 cm
Absolute error in calculation of area of the rectangular strip ⇒ ΔA = ?
Concept : This question is based on error in multiplication
Solution :
True value of area ⇒ A = ℓ × b = (10.0 cm) × (1.00 cm)
= 10.0 cm2

Percentage error in area ⇒

=
= (1%) + (1%)
= 2%
= ± 2%
Absolute error in area ⇒ ΔA = 2% of A

= cm2
= 0.2 cm = ± 0.2 cm2
2

Final answer : 4

28)

Explain Question : For a sphere, the surface area

A = 4πr2

Percentage error in measurement of its radius ⇒

Percentage error in calculation of its surface area ⇒

Concept : This question is based on percentage error in mathematical operations.
Solution :
Here, A ∝ r2

So,
= +2(2%)
=4%
Final answer : 3

29)
 Explain Question : Asking about the distance cover by a car moving with uniform
acceleration.
Concept : This question is based on equation of motion with uniform acceleration.
Explanation : Given that, u = 0, t = 10sec.
a = uniform but not known,

v = 54 × = 15 m/s

s=

s= s = 75 m
Final answer : 3

30)

Answer is "2.31 mm "

CHEMISTRY

31)

2πr = nλ
2πr = 4 × 2 = 8Å

32)

Answer is " "

33) Explain the Question : The question ask for the maximum number of spectral lines when
an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 5th excited state to the ground state.
Concept : This question is based on maximum number of spectral lines is given by the formula
:
Number of lines = (n2 – n1) (n2 – n1 + 1)/2
where n2 = principal quantum number of higher energy level, n1 = principal quantum number
of lower energy level.
Solution :
Ground state : n1 = 1
5th excited state : n2 = 6 (since n2 = 1 + 5)
Using the formula :
Number of lines = (n2 – n1) (n2 – n1 + 1)/2
Number of lines = (6 – 1) (6 – 1 + 1)/2
Number of lines = (5 × 6) / 2
Number of lines = 30 / 2 = 15
Final Answer : 4

34)
Second line of Balmer series :-
n1 = 2 n2 = 4

35) Explain the Question :

Higher energy level transitions release photons with greater energy (shorter wavelengths,
such as ultraviolet radiation).
Lower energy level transitions release photons with lower energy (longer wavelengths, such
as infrared radiation).
Concept : This question is based on Hydrogen spectrum.
Solution :
1. Option 1: E4→ E3:
This transition occurs between two relatively close levels (E4 and E3).
The energy difference is small, making this transition likely to emit infrared radiation.
2. Option 2: E3→ E1:
This is the given ultraviolet transition. It emits high-energy radiation and cannot correspond
to infrared radiation.
3. Option 3: E4→ E2 : • This transition has a larger energy difference than E4 →E3, but it might
stilt be smaller compared to E3 →E1. This is the given visible transition.
4. Option 4: E3→ E2 : • This transition has a relatively larger energy difference, compared to
E4→ E3. This is the given visible transition.
The transitions that could give infrared radiation are: E4→ E3
Final answer : 1

36) n2 – n1 = no. of lines

5–2=3
for balmer (visible lines) (n1 = 2)

37)

Question Explanation: You are given the mass and velocity of a particle and asked to
calculate its de-Broglie wavelength.
Concept:
de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by: λ = h / (m v)

Solution:
Given:
m = 1 g = 10⁻³ kg
v = 100 m s⁻¹
h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s

λ = h / (m v)
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / (10⁻³ × 100)
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / 10⁻¹
λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³³ m
Final Answer: Option 1
 38)

Explain Question:
Question is asked which particle has the largest de Broglie wavelength when all have the same
velocity.
Concept:
This question is based on de Broglie wavelength: λ = h/mv
Solution:
At same v, λ∝1/m​ ⇒ smaller mass ⇒ larger wavelength.
Mass order: Electron ≪ Proton ≪ NH₃ < CO₂
Smallest mass ⇒ Electron ⇒ largest λ.
Final Answer: (3)

39)

Question Explanation: Evaluate the correctness of the Assertion and Reason and their
relation.

Concept: Heisenberg uncertainty principle

Solution:
Heisenberg uncertainty principle: exact position and exact velocity (momentum) of an
electron cannot be determined simultaneously; hence definite path is not possible.
Assertion (A): True — electron path cannot be determined accurately.
Reason (R): False — exact position and exact velocity cannot be known simultaneously.

Final Answer: Option 3

40)

Question Explanation : Wavelength is minimum when energy difference between levels is

maximum, using energy-wavelength relation.
Concept : This question is based on Energy difference (ΔE) ∝ 1/λ; larger ΔE → smaller λ.
Solution :
Bohr model: ΔE ∝ (1/n₁² – 1/n₂²).

A. n=6→4: ΔE = 13.6(1/4² – 1/6²) = 13.6(0.0625 – 0.0278) ≈ 0.47 eV.

B. n=4→2: ΔE = 13.6(1/2² – 1/4²) = 13.6(0.25 – 0.0625) = 2.55 eV.
C. n=3→1: ΔE = 13.6(1 – 1/9) = 13.6(0.8889) ≈ 12.1 eV.
D. n=2→1: ΔE = 13.6(1 – 1/4) = 13.6(0.75) = 10.2 eV.

Maximum ΔE = 12.1 eV (3→1).

Final Answer : Option (3)

41)

Question Explanation : Identify the most intense spectral line transition in the brackett
series of hydrogen atom.
Concept : This question is based on most intense line is called the series limit transition.
Solution :
1. Brackett series definition:
The brackett series corresponds to transitions where the final energy level is n1 = 4.
2. Most intense line → Transition from n2 = ∞ → n1 = 4
This produces the highest energy photon in the series (shortest wavelength, highest
intensity)
Final Answer : Option (3)

42)

Answer is "+4"

44)

n → principal quantum no.

l → Azimuthal quantum no.
m → magnetic quantum no.

45) m may be –ℓ to + ℓ only

46)

47) Explain the Question : Identify the incorrect statement about principal quantum number
n.
Concept : This question is based on principal quantum number n determines energy, size and
electron Velocity.
Solution :
1. Statement 1 : "Energy increases with n" correct.
2. Statement 2 : "Distance from nucleus increases with n" correct.
3. Statement 3 : "Velocity of electron increases with n" incorrect.

In Bohr model, → velocity decreases with increasing n.

4. Statement 4 : "Number of electrons in shell = 2n2" correct.
Final Answer : 3

48)

Question Explanation :

The question asks which type of atomic orbital is non-directional.

Concept : This question is based on shape of orbitals.

Solution :
 A. s-orbitals: These are spherical in shape and have no specific directional orientation. The
probability of finding an electron is the same in all directions from the nucleus.

B. p-orbitals: These have dumbbell shapes and are oriented along the x, y, and z axes (px,
py, pz). They have directional character.

C. d-orbitals: These have more complex shapes, often with four lobes or a dumbbell with a
donut shape. dz is not double dum-bell.
2

Final Answer : Option (1)

49)

Explain Question : Given assertion and reason about electrons in an orbit, evaluate their
correctness.

Concept : This question is based on Pauli's Exclusion Principle.

Solution : Both the assertion and reason are incorrect. According to the Pauli's Exclusion
Principle any orbital can accommodate maximum two electrons not any orbit.

Final Answer : option (4)

50)

Theory based

51)

Question Explanation: Find number of angular and radial (spherical) nodes for 4py orbital.

Concept:

A. Angular nodes = ℓ

B. Radial (spherical) nodes = n – ℓ – 1

Solution:

A. 4py → n = 4, ℓ = 1

B. Angular nodes = ℓ = 1
 C. Radial nodes = 4 – 1 – 1 = 2

Final Answer: Option (3)

52)

Explain Question:To find out a pair of orbital having zero probability of electrons in xy -
plane.
Concept: Nodal plane.
Solution:
⇒ xy plane has zero probability of finding an electron i.e. it is a nodal plane.

⇒ orbital nodal plane

3dyz xy, xz

2pz xy

4dzx xy, yz

3pz xy

dz2 no nodal plane.

Final Answer: Option (3).

53)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

54) Question Explanation: Identify which of the given electron configurations belongs to an
s-block element.

Concept: Electronic Configuration.

Solution:
1s22s22p63s23p63d10 4s1 → Cu(29) → d-block
1s22s22p6 3s23p6 4s1 → K(19) → s-block

Final Answer:
Option (2)

55) Explain Question:

Identify the variables Lother Meyer used for his periodic curve.

Concept:
This question is based on Lother Meyer's Curve.
 Solution: Lother Meyer plotted the physical property of atomic volume against the atomic
weight of elements, noticing that elements with similar properties occupied similar positions
on the curve.
Final Answer: option (3)

56) Explain Question: Identify the metallic and non-metallic elements liquid at room
temperature.
Concept: General facts about periodic table.
Solution: Mercury (Hg) is the only common metal that is liquid at room temperature. Bromine
(Br) is the only non-metal that is liquid at room temperature.
Final Answer: 4

57) Explain Question:

Identify the element group that disobeys Dobereiner's triad rule.

Concept:
This question is based on Dobereiner's triad rule.

Solution:
Dobereiner’s triads must:

A. Belong to the same group (similar properties)

B. Have middle atomic mass ≈ average of other two

Fe, Co, and Ni → Atomic masses are very close, and they are not in same group

Final Answer: option (3)

58)

Explain Question:
Identify the elements located at the peaks of the Lothar Meyer curve.

Concept:
This question is based on Lothar Meyer Curve.

Solution:

Lothar Meyer plotted atomic volume against atomic mass. The curve's peaks represent
elements with the largest atomic volumes, which are the highly electropositive alkali metals
(Li, Na, K, etc.).

Final Answer: option (1)

59) Question Explanation: Find the block of element M from its ion's configuration.
Concept: Electronic Configuration
Solution: The ion M3+ has 30 electrons ([Ar]3d104s2). The neutral atom M has 33 electrons
(Z=33), which is Arsenic. Its configuration is [Ar]3d104s24p3, making it a p-block element.
Final Answer: Option (2)
 60) Explain Question: Find element with similar properties to Li according to Newland’s law
of octaves.
Concept: This question is based on Newland's Octaves.
Solution: Newland’s law states every 8th element has similar properties. Li (Z=3) → 8th
element is Na (Z=11).
Final Answer: 1

BOTANY

61) Solution : Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell and serve as the site for aerobic
respiration. Photophosphorylation occurs in chloroplasts. The double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) is
located inside the matrix (inner compartment), not the outer compartment.
Final Answer : (2)

62) Solution : The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of
both carbohydrates and proteins. It also contains small, double-stranded circular DNA
molecules and ribosomes. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in mitochondria, not
chloroplasts.
Final Answer : (3)

63)

Mitochondria generate ATP through cellular respiration.

64) According to the fluid mosaic model, the plasma membrane consists mainly of lipids and
proteins.

65) Specific carrier proteins are involved

67) They connect adjacent plant cells through cell walls

68) Secretory proteins

69) ATP synthesis

70) It is a rigid non-living structure.

ZOOLOGY

91)

Answer is "Beak possesses homodont teeth"

92)

NCERT XI Pg.# 48,47

93) Nurture Module no. 2

94) NCERT–I Pg. # 56

95) NEW NCERT (XI) Pg. # 49

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 55 (Fig. 4.16)

97)

NCERT XI Pg.# 48

98) NCERT Pg. # 56, 57 (a,c,d,f are common)

99)

Answer is "Assertion is True but the Reason is False."

100) New NCERT Pg # 46 - 49

101) Explanation: Animals that belong to class chondrichthyes are marine with streamlined
body and have cartilaginous endoskeleton. Some of them have electric organs (e.g., Torpedo)
and some possess poison sting (e.g.,Trygon).
Final Answer : (1)

102)

NCERT XI, Pg # 58

103)

Question Explanation: Matching scientific names to common bird names.

Concept: Binomial nomenclature for Aves.

Solution: This question tests the knowledge of the common names of certain birds and their
respective scientific names.

A. Corvus is the scientific name for crow.

 B. Columba is the scientific name for pigeon.

C. Psittacula is the scientific name for parrot.

D. Struthio is the scientific name for ostrich.

E. Neophron is the scientific name for vulture.

Final Answer: I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a

104) Explain Question:

Identify the incorrectly matched character between chordates and non-chordates.

Concept:
This question is based on Chordata, Non-Chordata.

Solution:
The correct answer is option 3.

In Chordates → nerve cord is dorsal, hollow, tubular, single.

In Non-chordates → nerve cord is ventral, solid, double.

So, column (3) is incorrectly matched.

Final answer : 3

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48, Fig. 4.20

106) Question Explanation:

This question is asking which statement correctly describes a feature or relationship of
chordates and vertebrates.

Concept :
Kingdom Animalia: Phylum Chordata – general characteristics and classification.

Explanation:

A. Option 1: Chordates have dorsal hollow nerve cord, not ventral → Incorrect.
B. Option 2: Vertebrates have a closed circulatory system, not open → Incorrect.
C. Option 3: Not all chordates are vertebrates (e.g., Amphioxus, Ascidia are non-vertebrate
chordates) → Incorrect.
D. Option 4: All vertebrates are chordates → Correct, because vertebrates are a subphylum of
Chordata.

Final Answer: Option 4

107) Explain Question:
Identify the group to which jawless vertebrates belong.

Concept:
This question is based on Vertebrate classification.

Solution:
The correct answer is option 1.

Jawless vertebrates (like Petromyzon and Myxine) are placed under Agnatha.
Gnathostomata → jawed vertebrates.
Lagomorpha → order of mammals (hares, rabbits).
Prototheria → egg-laying mammals (platypus, echidna).

Final answer : 1

108) Question Explanation :

The question is asking to identify A, B and C in the flow chart of sub-phylum vertebrate
classification.

Concept :
Sub-phylum vertebrate classification.

Solution :
According to the flow chart : A - Cyclostomata, B-Pisces, C-Tetrapoda.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

109)

Question Explanation : It asks the taxonomic class of Salamandra (salamander).

Concept : This question is based on Amphibia
Solution : Salamandra is an amphibian (tailed amphibian, order Urodela).
Final answer : 2

110)

Question Explanation : This question asks about identifying the incorrect match among
animals with their features.

Concept : This Question is based on Chordates

Explanation :Pristis (saw fish, Chondrichthyes) → Air bladder absent (correct) but operculum
is also absent (hence incorrect).

Final answer : 2
 111)

Explain Question: Identify the correct anatomical or physiological feature of the jawless fish
shown.
Concept: Cyclostomata
Solution: The correct answer is option 4 — Circulatory system is closed type.

A. Cyclostomes like lampreys and hagfish possess a closed circulatory system with a two-
chambered heart, allowing efficient blood flow.

Option 1. All members of this class are endoparasites on some fishes-Incorrect.

A. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes.

Option 2. Body is with scales and paired fins-Incorrect.

A. Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.

Option 3. They have elongated body bearing 4–5 gill slits for respiration- Incorrect.

A. They have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.

Final answer: 4

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 55 Para 4.2.11, Fig 4.17

113)

Question explanation
The question is asking which of the given statements about chordates and vertebrates is
incorrect.

Concept
Characteristics and classification of phylum Chordata.

Solution
Statement 2 is false: in urochordates, the notochord is present only in the larval tail and is not
persistent throughout life.

Final answer: 2

114)

NCERT Page no. 57

115) NCERT-XI, Pg#56, 57, 58

116) Answer is "Osteichthyes"

117) NEW NCERT Pg # 52

118) Answer is "Dry cornified skin"

119) Answer is "Jawless circular mouth"

120) NEW NCERT Pg # 49