21-06-2026

1001CPA404021260002 PA

Mental Ability

Section-1

1) In the following question, there is a set of four figures labelled A, B, C and D called the Problem
Set followed by a set of four other figures labelled 1,2,3 and 4 called the Answer Set. Fig. (C)
contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will substitute this
question mark so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C and D taken in order. The number of

the selected figure is the answer. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER

FIGURES

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In the following question, there is a set of four figures labelled A, B, C and D called the Problem
Set followed by a set of four other figures labelled 1,2,3 and 4 called the Answer Set. Fig. (C)
contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will substitute this
question mark so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C and D taken in order. The number of
the selected figure is the answer. PROBLEM FIGURE
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In the given question, there are four figures given. Among them, three are alike and one is
different. Find the one which is different.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In given problem, out of the four figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4), three are similar in a certain
manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from
the rest.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In the following question consists of two sets of figures. There is a definite relationship between
first two figures. Establish a similar relationship between next two figures by selecting a suitable
figure from the options that would replace the question mark (?).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In the following question consists of two sets of figures. There is a definite relationship between
first two figures. Establish a similar relationship between next two figures by selecting a suitable
figure from the options that would replace the question mark (?). Question figure

:?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) In the following question, a series of letters and numbers is given, the terms of which follow
certain definite pattern in groups. However, some terms in the series are missing, which are given in
the same order as one of the alternatives below the series. Choose the correct alternative. 1 2 A _ 6 _
F G _ 4 C_ 8 _ H I

(1) B, 7, 3, D, 9
(2) D, 8, 6, C, 7
(3) E, 8, 7, D, 9
(4) W, 8, 7, I, 6

8)

Find the missing group of letters in the following series :

ZBF, WDE, TFD, ?, NJB

(1) QHC
(2) QCH
(3) HQC
(4) QHD

9) Which term will replace the question mark in the series:

ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?

(1) ZKU
(2) ZKW
(3) ZAB
(4) XKW

10) In the following question, three group of letters are alike, while one is different.
Identify the one which is different.

(1) STYLUS
(2) CRYINC
(3) PHYSIC
(4) RHYTHM

Section-2
1) In the following question there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The
same relationship exists between the third and the fourth term which will replace the question mark.
Select the correct term from the alternatives given.
KHOT : 45 : : VILE : ?

(1) 48
(2) 68
(3) 76
(4) 84

2) In the following question there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The
same relationship exists between the third and the fourth term which will replace the question mark.
Select the correct term from the alternatives given.
DKNH : HFPF : : LSFQ : ?

(1) RTSO
(2) EPIH
(3) PNHO
(4) CLQR

3) Find the odd one out:

(1) 263
(2) 111
(3) 242
(4) 383

4) In the following question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834

(1) 26
(2) 74
(3) 218
(4) 654

5) Find the next term the given series.

151 , 158 , 172 , 182 , 193 , ?

(1) 215
(2) 314
(3) 206
(4) 304

Physics

Section-1
1) At noon, the sun appears white as:

(1) blue colour is scattered the most.

(2) red colour is scattered the most.
(3) light is least scattered.
(4) all the colours of the white light are scattered equally.

2) A fisherman is standing on the bank of a lake. To a fish under water, viewing obliquely the man
appears

(1) above than what his actual position.

(2) below than what his actual position.
(3) at same place
(4) Depends on the obliquity

3) If the path of parallel light through a concave lens is as shown in the figure, where η, η1 and η2 are

refractive indices, then _________

(1) η > η1 = η2
(2) η = η1 < η2
(3) η = η1 > η2
(4) η < η1 = η2

4) Which of the following statement is NOT correct ?

A medium with larger refractive index is optically denser than a medium with smaller refractive
(1)
index.
(2) The speed of light is less in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
(3) Refraction is due to the change in speed of light as it enters from one medium to another.
(4) The absolute refractive index of a medium is simply called its refractive index.

5) A lens has a focal length of –50 cm. What is the and power of the lens ?

(1) Concave lens, 2 D

(2) Concave lens, 1 D
(3) Concave lens, 6 D
(4) Concave lens, 3 D

6)
Two lenses of powers + 6.0 D and – 4.0 D are put in contact with each other. The power of the
combination is :

(1) + 2.0 D
(2) – 2.0 D
(3) + 5.0 D
(4) – 5.0 D

7) In the figure given below, there are two convex lens L1 and L2 having focal length of f1 and
f2 respectively. The distance between L1 and L2

will be

(1) f1
(2) f2
(3) f1 + f2
(4) f1 – f2

8) The diagram given below shows a converging lens producing an upright, virtual image of an

object. Which optical instrument uses the above

arrangement?

(1) Simple microscope

(2) A magnifying glass
(3) Telescope
(4) All of these

9) Which of the following correctly represents graphical relation between sine of angle of incidence
(i) and sine of angle of refraction (r) for a given medium ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) When two lenses are placed in contact, the focal length of the combination is equal to the sum of
the focal length.
(ii) No cones cells are present in human eye.
(iii) When light rays are incident on the eye, maximum deviation takes place at the cornea.
(iv) When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it slows down.

(1) only (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

Section-2

1) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm
and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again?

(1) 2 cm upward
(2) 1 cm upward
(3) 4.5 cm downward
(4) 1 cm downward

2) A long sighted person has a minimum distance vision of 50 cm. He wants to reduce it to 25cm.
What should be the focal length of the lens?
(1) Convex lens of focal length 25cm
(2) Convex lens of focal length 100cm
(3) Convex lens of focal length 50cm
(4) Convex lens of focal length 75cm

3) A 2 cm long pin is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12
cm. The distance of the pin from the lens is 15 cm. Then the size of the image is :

(1) 2 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 8 cm

4) A convex lens and a concave lens are placed in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of the power of
the convex lens to that of the concave lens is 4:3. If the focal length of the convex lens is 12 cm, the
focal length of the combination will be

(1) 16 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 32 cm
(4) 48 cm

5) If far point of an eye is at 4 m, then identify the defect of eye and lens needed to correct this?

(1) Myopia and needs + 0.25 D lens.

(2) Myopia and needs – 0.25 D lens.
(3) Hypermetropia and needs – 2.5 D lens.
(4) Hypermetropia and needs + 2.5 D lens.

Chemistry

Section-1

1) When a chemical species loses one or more electrons, it is said to have been

(1) Oxidised
(2) Reduced
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Hydrolysed

2) Which of the following reactions is not a redox reaction?

(1) Mg + Cl2 → MgCl2

(2) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
(3) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(4) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + 2Cl2

3) What is rust ?

(1) Sodium oxide

(2) Hydrated ferric oxide
(3) Copper oxide
(4) Silver oxide

4) On diluting an acid concentration of H+ per unit volume

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remain unaffected
(4) Depends on type of acid used

5) _______gas is evolved when zinc granules are treated with sodium hydroxide.

(1) Oxygen
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Sodium oxide
(4) Hydrogen oxide

6) What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube ?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases.
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases.
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same.
(iv) Salt formation takes place.

(1) (i) only

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

7) Match Column I with II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II (pH

(Substance) value)

(a) Vinegar (i) 7.4

(b) Milk (ii) 4.0

(c) Blood (iii) 6.5

(d) Toothpaste (iv) 8.0

(a) (b) (c) (d)

 (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8)

When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas. The metal is

(1) K
(2) Na
(3) Ag
(4) Zn

9) Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength?

(1) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid

(2) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(3) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(4) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid

10) _________element form oxide which would indicate pH values less than seven using moist pH
paper.

(1) Magnesium
(2) Sulphur
(3) Copper
(4) Hydrogen

Section-2

1) Tick the odd one out group on the basis of basicity.

(1) HCl, HBr, HI, HF

(2) H2CO3, H2SO4, H2SO3
(3) HCl, HNO3, H3PO4, HNO2
(4) HCOOH, CH3COOH, C2H5COOH, HCl

2) When some concentrated sulphuric acid is added to 1g solid NaCl, a gas 'P' is formed. What will
be the effect of P on dry litmus paper?
(1) Turns blue litmus to red.
(2) Turns red litmus to blue.
(3) No effect on litmus paper
(4) None of these

3)

Observe the following flowchart carefully :-

Identify X, A, B and C
X A B C

(1) HCl ZnCl2 NaOH CH3COOCl

(2) H2SO4 ZnSO4 H2SO4 CH3COOSO4

(3) NaOH Na2ZnO2 NaCl CH3COONa

(4) NaCl Na2ZnO2 NaOH CH3COONa

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas which of the following
statements are true about the gas evolved ?
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(iv) It has a pungent odour.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

5) pH paper is separately dipped into 2 different solutions X and Y. Colour of pH paper turned pale
green in X and blue in Y. X and Y are most probably

(1) X-Water, Y-NaOH

(2) X-NaOH, Y-H2O
(3) X-HCl, Y-NaOH
(4) X-NaOH, Y-HCl
 Biology

Section-1

1) Refer the given Venn diagram and select the correct option.

(1) P-Man
(2) Q-Earthworm
(3) R-Cockroach
(4) P-Frog

2) If the thoracic wall but not the lungs are punctured then –

(1) The lungs get inflated

(2) The man dies as the lungs get collapsed
(3) The breathing rate decreases
(4) The breathing rate increases

3) The given diagram shows respiratory system of man. Which of the following correctly shows the

functions labelled W, X, Y and Z?

W-Facilitates movement of air by expansion and contraction

X-Traps dust and helps to filter inhaled air
(1)
Y-Prevents the windpipe from collapsing
Z-Help in exchange of gases
 W-Helps in gaseous exchange
X-Traps dust and helps to filter inhaled air
(2)
Y-Serves as a common passage for air and food
Z-Protect the lungs from damage
W-Prevents the windpipe from collapsing
X - Serves as a common passage for air and food
(3)
Y-Helps in upward and downward movement of ribcage
Z - Trap dust and help to filter inhaled air
W-Facilitates movement of air by expansion and contraction
X-Helps in gaseous exchange
(4)
Y-Serves as a common passage for food and air
Z-Protect the lungs from damage

4) Which of the following gas has highest affinity for haemoglobin?

(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) CO
(4) All of these

5) Study the given experimental set-up. By

measuring the moment of the oil drop in the apparatus, what can be investigated?

(1) CO2 is used during germination

(2) Heat is released during germination
(3) Oxygen is used during germination
(4) Water is produced during germination

6) Refer the given experimental set-up in which a ring of bark along with the phloem is removed
from the stem and select the incorrect statement regarding this.
(1) Swelling of the stem occurs above the ring due to accumulation of nutrients.
(2) Downward translocation of food is blocked.
(3) Roots are starved and killed first due to non-availability of food.
The experiment demonstrates that phloem is responsible for upward conduction of water and
(4)
minerals.

7) Refer to the given experimental set up. Which of the following statements regarding this is not

true?

(1) The purpose of flask 1 is to remove carbon dioxide from the air
(2) Only solution in flask 2 will show a visible change in colour
(3) Any carbon dioxide found in flask 3 is produced by the insect
(4) The purpose of flask 2 is to test the air entering flask 3 for carbon dioxide

8) The diagram shows the cross-section of an air sac and a capillary in a lung.

Which one of the following correctly describe

the concentration of oxygen in X, Y and Z ?

X Y Z
(1) high high low
(2) high low high
(3) low high high
(4) low high low
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) 23% of CO2 transportation in the blood occurs as

(1) bicarbonate ion

(2) dissolved in plasma
(3) as oxyhaemoglobin
(4) as carbaminohaemoglobin

10) Which of the following cell produce heparin ?

(1) monocytes
(2) basophils
(3) eosionophils
(4) neutrophils

Section-2

1)

Observe the following figure and identify the correctly labelled parts

(1) D-Mitral value, C-Pulmonary vein

(2) A-Superior vena cava, E-Inferior vena cava
(3) F-Tricuspid valve, C-Pulmonary artery
(4) B-Pulmonary artery, G-Septum

2) The given figure shows internal structure of human heart. Select option that correctly matches
the labels P, Q, R and S in the figure with given list (i - iv) indicating their function.
(i) Pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs for oxygenation.
(ii) Receives deoxygenated blood from different body parts through vena cava.
(iii) Receives oxygenated blood through pulmonary vein.
(iv) Have thickest walls and pumps blood into aorta.

P Q R S

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Lymph nodes are important components of the lymphatic system. What is their primary function?

(1) Production of lymph

(2) Filtration of blood
(3) Filtration of lymph and activation of immune responses
(4) Digestion of dietary fats

4) Two arteries and two veins are labelled in the diagram [Link] two
are veins ?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) C and D

5) Refer to the given flow chart which summarises the process of formation of blood clot. Identify P,
Q, R, S and T.

(1) P – Prothrombin, Q –Thromboplastin, R – Prothrombinase, S – Blood, T – Fibrin

P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombinase,
(2)
R – Prothrombin, S – Liver, T – Fibrin
P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombin,
(3)
R – Prothrombinase, S – Plasma, T – Fibrin
P – Prothrombin, Q –Prothrombinase,
(4)
R – Thromboplastin, S – Liver, T – Fibrin

Mathematics

Section-1

1) Find the total number of factors of 540.

(1) 24
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) None of these

2) The length, breadth and height of a room are 8m 25cm, 6m 75cm and 4m 50cm, respectively.
Then the longest rod which can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly is

(1) 60 cm
(2) 75 cm
(3) 57 cm
(4) 82 cm

3) The LCM of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. The sum of the numbers is

(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 40
(4) 64

4) Find the digit in the units place of (676)99.

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

5) Three farmers have 490 kg, 588 kg and 882 kg weights of wheat respectively, then the maximum
capacity of a bag so that the wheat can be packed in exact number of bags is

(1) 57 kg
(2) 89 kg
(3) 75 kg
(4) 98 kg

6) The H.C.F. of 22 × 33 × 55, 23 × 32 × 52 × 7 and

24 × 34 × 5 × 72 × 11 is

(1) 22 × 32 × 5
(2) 25 × 34 × 53
(3) 23 × 32 × 5 × 7 × 11
(4) 25 × 34 × 53 × 72 x 11

7) If 2x = 4y = 8z and xyz = 288, then the values of x, y and z are

(1) x = 6, y = 6, z = 4
(2) x = 12, y = 6, z = 4
(3) x = 6, y = 12, z = 6
(4) None of these

8) Which is the unit digit of 715 – 381?

(1) 5
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 9

9) If 3 is the least prime factor of number b and 7 is the least prime factor of number a, then the
least prime factor of a + b, is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 10

10) A mason has to fit a kitchen with square marble tiles of the largest possible size. The size of the
kitchen is 21 yard by 28 yard. What would be the size of the tile (in yards) required that has to be
cut and how many such tiles are required respectively?

(1) 7, 20
(2) 7, 12
(3) 20, 43
(4) 91, 6

11) If = , then x =

(1) 84
(2) 28
(3) 21
(4) 14

12) If x = ,y= ,z= , then:

(1) x < y < z

(2) y < z < x
(3) z < x < y
(4) None

13) If =a+ , then (a, b) = ................

(1) (12, –1)

(2) (1, 12)
(3) (–1, 12)
(4) (–12, 1)

14) If one zero of the quadratic polynomial

p(x) = 4x2 – 8mx – 9 is negative of the other, then the value of m is

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 0
(4) 1

15) If α and β are zeros of the polynomial

x2 + 6x + 9, then form a polynomial whose zeros are –α and –β.

(1) x2 + 6x – 9
(2) x2 – 6x – 9
(3) x2 – 6x + 9
(4) x2 + 3x – 9

16) The zeros of the polynomial are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

17) The sum and product of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial are 3 and –10 respectively. The
quadratic polynomial is

(1) x2 – 3x + 10
(2) x2 + 3x – 10
(3) x2 – 3x – 10
(4) x2 + 3x + 10

18) If α and β are the zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 2x + 3, then value of α2 + β2 is

(1) –4
(2) –3
(3) –2
(4) –1

19) If p(x) = x2 + 5x + 2, then p(3) + p(2) + p(0) is

(1) 40
(2) 44
(3) 8
(4) 42

20) The value of k such that the quadratic polynomial x2 – (k + 6)x + 2(2k + 1) has sum of the zeroes
as half of their product, is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) –5
(4) 5

Section-2
1) The least perfect square which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 is :

(1) 900
(2) 1200
(3) 2500
(4) 3600

2) Which one of the following rational numbers have the non terminating decimal representation :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A
completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and C in 198 seconds, all starting at the same
point. After what time will they meet again at the starting point.

(1) 2772 min

(2) 46 min 12 sec
(3) 46 sec
(4) None of these

4) The LCM of two numbers is 2700. Which of the following can not be their HCF ?

(1) 300
(2) 400
(3) 900
(4) 450

5) Which among the following is greatest , , ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) all are equal

6) If and abc = 1 then is equal to

(1) –2
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0
7) The value of is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3)
(4) None

8) If α, β are zeroes of polynomial x2 – p(x + 1) – k

such that (α + 1) (β + 1) = 6, then find the value of k

(1) 5
(2) –5
(3) 4
(4) 6

9) If 2 and are the sum and product of its zeroes respectively, then the quadratic polynomial p(x)
is

(1) x2 – 2x – 4
(2) 4x2 – 2x +1
(3) 2x2 + 4x – 1
(4) 2x2 – 4x –1

10) If the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c has equal zeros, then the value of c is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

Mental Ability

Section-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A. 4 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 4

Section-2

Q. 11 12 13 14 15
A. 4 3 4 4 3

Physics

Section-1

Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A. 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 1

Section-2

Q. 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 3 4 4 2

Chemistry

Section-1

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 2 2 4 3 3 1 2

Section-2

Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 2 1

Biology

Section-1

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
A. 4 2 1 3 3 4 2 3 4 2
 Section-2

Q. 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 3 3 3 2

Mathematics

Section-1

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 4

Section-2

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

Mental Ability

1)

By observation

2)

By observation

3)

By observation

4)

By observation

5)

By observation

6) By observation.

7) From the alternatives, it is clear that the series can be divided into groups of 4 terms each _
each group comprising of two numbers followed by two letters, as shown below:
12A_/6_FG/_4C_/8_HI
Clearly, the first number in each group represents the position of the letter in the third place,
in the English alphabet.
Thus, the third missing term is the number corresponding to the position of C in the English
alphabet i.e., 3, which is given in (1).
Substituting other terms of (1) into the series, we get
12AB/67FG/34CD/89HI
Observe that the second number in each group represents the position of the letter in the
fourth place, in the English alphabet.

8)
9)

10) Except option (4) all have vowel.

11) K H O T
11 + 8 + 15 + 20 = 54 reverse 45.
VILE
22 + 9 + 12 + 5 = 48 reverse 84.

12) Similarly

13)

Question Explanation: This problem requires finding the number that does not follow the
internal digit logic of the group.
Concept: Odd One Out (Digit Relationships):
Find a rule based on the digits of the numbers. In this case, the pattern is First Digit × Last
Digit =Middle Digit
The number that breaks this rule is the odd one.
Solution:
Check the pattern (First Digit × Last Digit = Middle Digit) for each number.
263: 2 × 3 = 6. (This matches the middle digit 6).
111: 1 × 1 = 1. (This matches the middle digit 1).
242: 2 × 2 = 4. (This matches the middle digit 4).
383: 3× 3 = 9. (This does NOT match the middle digit 8).
Therefore, 383 is the odd one out.
Final Answer: 4

14)

15)

Here, the series is,

Physics

16) Question Explanation:

Explain why the sun appears white at noon.
Concept:
Scattering of light in the atmosphere and its dependence on distance traveled.
Solution:
The appearance of the sun is due to the scattering of its light by the atmosphere. At noon, the
sun is directly overhead, meaning the sunlight travels the shortest distance through the
Earth's atmosphere to reach the observer. Due to this short distance, very little scattering of
blue light occurs. Since most colors reach the eye without being significantly scattered or
removed, the light retains its original composition (all VIBGYOR colors) and the sun appears
white (or its actual color).
Final Answer:
Option (3)

17) When an object lying in a rare medium is seen by from an optically denser medium its
depth appears to be more than its real depth.

18) Question Explanation:

Comparing refractive indices based on light path.
Concept:
Refraction and Lens Behavior.
Solution:
Light travels straight without bending when moving between and , meaning these two
media have equal refractive indices. At the second surface, the light converges. A concave lens
typically diverges light; for it to converge light, it must be exiting into a medium with a higher
refractive index than the lens material .
First surface: No bending
Second surface: Convergence instead of divergence surrounding medium is denser than
lens Final Answer:
(Option 2)

19) The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than in a denser medium.

20) f = –50 cm = – 0.5 m

Power of a lens = = = –2D

Focal length is negative, therefore it is a concave lens and the power is 2 D.

21)

The power of the combination is + 2.0 D.

22) Question Explanation:

Distance between two lenses for a parallel ray to exit parallel.
Concept:
Ray optics and combined lens system.
Solution:
For the ray of light, initially parallel to the principal axis, to exit the second lens parallel to
the principal axis, the light ray must be incident on from its first principal focus. This ray is
produced by . If the ray is initially parallel to the principal axis, it passes through the second
principal focus of , which is at distance from . Thus, the principal focus of must
coincide with the first principal focus of . The distance between the lenses must be .
Calculation:
Distance
Final Answer:
Option (3) is correct.

23) Question Explanation:

Identify the instrument that uses a converging lens to form an upright, virtual, and magnified
image.
Concept:
Image Formation by Convex Lens (Magnifying Glass principle)
Solution:
The diagram shows a converging (convex) lens where the object is placed between the optical
center and the principal focus (F). This specific object placement results in the formation of an
image that is upright (erect), virtual, and magnified. This principle is the basis for a simple
magnifier or magnifying glass.
Final Answer:
Option (2) is correct.

24) According to snell's law. =µ

sin i ∝ sin r
i.e. graph between sin i and sin r has linear relationship as in graph in option (1).

25)

When light rays are incident on the eye, maximum deviation takes place at the cornea. This
statement is correct.

26)

27)

Question Explanation: Determine focal length to correct long-sightedness (hypermetropia).

Concept: Lens Formula and Power of Lens
Solution: A long-sighted person needs a convex lens to increase the converging power of the
eye. The lens should form a virtual image of an object placed at the normal near point (25 cm)
at the person's defective near point (50 cm).
Calculation: Object distance (where the person wants to read): u = – 25 cm
Image distance (where the lens should form the image): v = – 50 cm (Virtual image formed at
the person's near point)

Using the lens formula

f = + 50 cm
since the focal length (f) is positive, a convex lens is required.
Final Answer : Convex lens of focal length 50 cm

28) Question Explanation:

Find image size using the lens formula.
Concept:
Lens Formula and Magnification.
Solution:
First, we use the lens formula to find the image distance (v). Then, we use the magnification

formula to find the size of the image (hi). Remember to use the sign convention (focal
length f is positive for convex, object distance u is negative).
Calculation:
Given: h0 = +2cm, f = +12 cm, u = –15cm

Lens Formula:

v = +60 cm

Magnification (m):

hi = – 8cm
The size (magnitude) of the image is 8 cm. The negative sign means it is inverted.
Final answer: Option (4)

29)

Let the focal length of convex lens and concave lens be f1 and f2 respectively.
 fcombination = 48 cm

30) Question Explanation: Identifying the vision defect and the required lens power for a
given far point.
Concept: Correction of Myopia.
Solution: A far point that is closer than infinity ( 4 m) indicates Myopia (nearsightedness).
This condition is corrected with a concave lens, which has a negative power.
Calculation: The required focal length of the lens is f=−(far point)=−4 m.
The power of the lens is P = 1/f = 1/(-4) = -0.25 D.
Final Answer: Myopia and needs -0.25 D lens.

Chemistry

31)

When a chemical species loses one or more electrons, it is said to have been oxidised

32)

AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

It is double displacement reaction

33)

Chemical formula of rust is Fe2O3. xH2O

34) Explain Question: The question asks what happens to the concentration of H⁺ ions
per unit volume when an acid is diluted.
Concept: This question is based on Effect of dilution on acid concentration
Solution:

A. Dilution increases the volume of the solution.

B. The number of H⁺ ions per unit volume decreases because the same amount of acid is
spread over a larger volume.

Final Answer: (2) Decreases

35)

Hydrogen gas is evolved when zinc granules are treated with sodium hydroxide.

36)
When a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube then
(i) The temperature of the solution increases.
(ii) Salt formation takes place.

37)

pH of vinegar = 4.0
pH of milk = 6.5
pH of blood = 7.4
pH of toothpaste = 8.0

38)

When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas in case of silver
metal because it is less reactive

39)

increasing order of acidic strength

Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid

40)

Sulphur element form oxide which would indicate pH values less than seven using moist pH
paper.

41)

Basicity of HCl, HNO3, HNO2 is 1.

Basicity of H3PO4 is 3.

42)

NaCl + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl(g)

Gas P is HCl. It has no effect on dry litmus paper.

43)

NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
(X) (A)
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(B)
NaOH + CH3COOH → CH3COONa + H2O
(C)
 44)

Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a carbon dioxide gas.
Carbon dioxide gas -
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.

45)

X - neutral (water)
Y - basic (NaOH)

Biology

46) Explain Question:

The question asks to refer the venn diagram and select the correct option.
Concept:
The concept is Exchange of gases in Animals.
Solution :
P-Frog
The area labelled 'P' represents an organism that respire through both lungs and skin. Among
the given options, the frog fits this description perfectly.
Final Answer:
Option (4) is correct.

47)

Explain Question:
The question asks the consequences of thoracic wall puncture but not the lungs.
Concept:
The concept is mechanism of breathing.
Solution:
The puncture in thoracic wall would mean the wound to the pleural/chest wall. This would
eventually lead to the damage of pleural membrane which in turn would disrupt the pressure
balance of gases, which would lead to the collapsing of the lungs and eventually death of the
person.
Final Answer:
option (2) is correct.

48) Explain Question:

To find functions of labelled parts W, X, Y and Z.
Concept:
The concept is Human respiratory system.
Solution :
W is diaphragm which facilitates movement of air by expansion and contraction.
X- is nasal cavity which traps dust and helps to filter inhaled air.
Y-is tracheal rings which prevents the wind pipe (trachea) from collapsing.
Z- is alveoli which helps in gaseous exchange.
Final Answer:
option (1) is correct.

49)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the gas that binds most strongly with
haemoglobin.

Concept: Respiratory Pigments (Haemoglobin)

Solution: Carbon monoxide (CO) has the highest affinity for haemoglobin—about 200–250
times greater than oxygen. When CO binds with haemoglobin, it forms carboxyhaemoglobin,
which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood and can be fatal.
Final answer: CO

50) Explain Question:

Identify the aim of the given experimental set-up.
Concept:
The concept is Respiration.
Solution:
In the given experimental set-up, germinating peas will undergo aerobic respiration, in which
they will use up oxygen and release carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide released will be absorbed
by sodium hydroxide present in this test tube. As germinating peas will consume oxygen
present in test tube, a suction force will be developed. Due to pressure difference, the
coloured oil drop will move towards the test tube. Thus, this experiment will help to
investigate the amount.
Final Answer:
So, Option (3) is correct.

51)

The experiment demonstrates that phloem is responsible for upward conduction of water and
minerals.

52) Question Explanation:

The question is asking to identify the incorrect statement regarding the given experimental set
up.

Concept:
This concept based on Respiration

Solution:
Only flask 4 will show visible change in colour
Only solution in flask 2 will show a visible change in colour.
The purpose of flask 1 is to remove carbon dioxide from the air as KOH absorbs carbon
dioxide.
Solution in flask 2 will not show a visible change in colour because no carbon dioxide enters in
flask 2. It is absorbed by the solution of flask 1.
 Any carbon dioxide found in flask 3 is produced by the insect because no carbon dioxide comes
from flask 2.
The purpose of flask 2 is to test the air entering flask 3 for carbon dioxide because if any
carbon dioxide enters in flask 2 it will turn milky so it will check the entry of carbon dioxide in
flask 3.
Final answer
Option (2) is correct

Final answer :
Option (2) is correct

53)

X Y Z
(3) low high high

54)

as carbaminohaemoglobin

55)

basophils

56)

Explain Question:
Question asks to identify the correctly labelled parts of human heart.
Concept:
Structure of heart
Solution:
A - Superior vena cave
B - Pulmonary artery
C - Tricuspid value
E - Interior vena cave
D - Mitral value
C - Pulmonary vein
G - Septum
Final answer
Option (1) is correct

57) P is right atrium which receives deoxygenated blood.

Q is right ventricle which pumps blood to lungs.
R is left atrium which receives oxygenated blood.
S is left centricle which pumps blood into aorta.

58) Filtration of lymph and activation of immune responses

 59) B and D are veins.

60)

P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombinase,
R – Prothrombin, S – Liver, T – Fibrin

Mathematics

61)

540 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5
540 = 22 × 33 × 51
Therefore, total number of factors of 540 is
(2 + 1) (3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 24

62)

Length = 8 m 25 cm
= 825 cm = 3 × 5 × 5 × 11
Breadth = 6m 75cm
= 675 cm = 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5
Height = 4m 50cm
= 450 cm = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5
Longest Rod = HCF (825, 675, 450) = 75 cm

63) The two numbers are 2x and 3x.

As 48 is the L.C.M. of 2x and 3x.
∴ 2 × 3 × x = 48
x=8
∴ The sum of numbers
2 × 8 + 3 × 8 = 16 + 24 = 40

64) (676)99
Units digit is same as units digit of 699
Cyclicity of 6 is 1 = 61 = 6
Option (4) is correct.

65) Maximum capacity of bag = HCF (490, 588, 882)

490 = 2 × 5 × 7 × 7
588 = 2 × 2 × 7 × 7 × 3
882 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 7
HCF = 2 × 7 × 7
= 49 × 2
= 98

66) H.C.F. of
22 × 33 × 55, 23 × 32 × 52 × 7, 24 × 34 × 5 × 72 × 11
= 22 × 32 × 5
∴ Option (1) is correct

67) Find value of x, y & z

Given: 2x = 4y = 8z & xyz = 288
Concept: if am = an then m = n
Solution:
2x = 4y = 8z and xyz = 288
2x = 22y = 23z
x = 2y, 2y = 3z and x = 3z

Now, xyz = 288(2y). y.

4y3 = 3 × 288
y3 = 3 × 72
y = (216)1/3
∴ y = (6)

So, x = 2y &
x = 12
So, option (2) is correct answer.

68)

The cyclicily of 7 is 7, 9, 3, 1
715 = (712) × (7)3
15
∴ The units digit of 7 is 1 × 3 = 3
The cyclicity of 3 is 3, 9, 7, 1
381 = (3)80 × (3)1
∴ The unit's digit of 381 is 1 × 3 = 3
∴ The unit digit of 715 - 381 = 3 - 3 = 0
Hence option 2 is the correct answer.

69) Let a = 3m (odd)

and b = 7n (odd)
Since 3 is the least prime factor of 'a' therefore the number 'a' must be odd (because if no. is
even then least prime factor will be 2) similarly 'b' must be odd
So a + b = odd + odd = even.

70) Size of largest possible square tile

= HCF (21, 28) = 7 yard

No. of tiles =
= = 12 tiles

71) =
Squaring both sides, we get

⇒
Now, comparing we get
or x = 21

72) x = , y= , z=
, ,
So; , ,
therefore, x > z > y

73)

⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒ a = –1 and b = 12

74)

Let zeroes be a & –a

so, sum = a – a = 0 … (1)

4x2 – 8mx – 9

sum = =

sum = 2m
using (1)

2m = 0
∴m=0

75)

x2 + 6x + 9

α + β = – 6, αβ = 9

Polynomial with zeroes –α & –β

x2 – (–α – β)x + (–α)( –β)

x2 + (α + β)x + αβ

x2 + (–6)x + 9
⇒ x2 – 6x + 9

76) Given: Polynomial: 4x2 + 5 x - 3 To find : Zeros of the polynomial

Solution :
4 × (–3) = –12

×
Final Answer:
Option (3) is correct

77)

Required polynomial = k(x2 – sum of roots)x + product of roots}

= k{x2 – 3x – 10}
for k = 1
= x2 – 3x – 10

78) α + β = 2
αβ = 3
α2 + β2 = (α + β)2 – 2αβ
= (2)2 – 2.3
=4–6
= –2

79) p(x) = x2 + 5x + 2
p(3) = (3)2 + 5(3) + 2
= 9 + 15 + 2
= 26
p(2) = (2)2 + 5(2) + 2
= 4 + 10 + 2
= 16
p(0) = (0)2 + 5(0) + 2 = 2
p(3) + p(2) + p(0) = 26 + 16 + 2 = 44

80) Question Explanation:

The value of k

Given:
The quadratic polynomial x2 – (k + 6) x + 2 (2k + 1) sum of zeros is half of their product.

Concept:

This question is based on sum of zeros =

Product of zeros =

Solution:

ATQ, sum of zeros =

⇒
⇒ +k + 6 = 2k + 1
⇒ +6 –1 = 2k – 1
∴k=5

Final answer : Option: (4)

81)

Prime factorization of 3600 = 24 × 32 × 52

Hence 3600 is divisible by all 3,4,5,6,8

82)

Except 45 all Denominators have prime factorization in the from of 2n × 5n

so have non terminating decimal representation.

83) ATQ, LCM of 252, 308 and 198

252 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7
308 = 2 × 2 × 7 × 11
198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
Required LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 11
= 2772 seconds = 46 min 12 sec.

84)

LCM is always multiple of HCF.

Here, 2700 is not a multiple of 400

85)

Square of greater number is greater

So, is greater.

86)

Let =k

87) Let
or

88)

x2 – px – p – k
x2 – px – (p + k)
Given (α + 1) (β + 1) = 6
αβ + α+ β + 1 = 6

From equation α + β = – , αβ = –
– (p + k) + p + 1 = 6
–p–k+p+1=6
–k+1=6
–k=5
k = –5
Final Answer
Option (2)

89)

Sum of zeroes = 2

product of zeroes =
p (x) = k[x2 –(sum of zeroes) x + product of zeroes]

=k

=k

= [2x2 – 4x – 1]
= 2x2 – 4x – 1 {Assuming k = 2}

90) Let zeros of given polynomial are α and α.

So, α + α = ⇒ 2α = ⇒α=

and α2 =

⇒ =c