21-06-2026

9610WMD802650260006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two different conductors have same resistance at 0°C. It is found that the resistance of the fiirst
conductor at t1°C is equal to the resistance of the second conductor at t2°C. The ratio of the
temperature coefficients of resistance of the conductor, α1/α2 is :

(1)
n

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In a metre bridge experiment, resistances are connected as shown in the following figure. The
balancing length l1 is 55 cm. Now, an unknown resistance x is connected in series with P and the

new balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The value of x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time according to Q = at – bt2. The total
heat produced in R until the current becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) In the circuit, potential difference across 4V and 8V cells are respectively

(1) 3.75 V, 7.5 V

(2) 4.25 V, 7.5 V
(3) 4.25 V, 8,5 V
(4) 3.75 V, 8.5 V

5) In the circuit shown in Figure the ammeter reads a current :

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 0.3A
(4) 0.2A

6) In the shown figure, select incorrect statement.

(1) if R = 5Ω, current through galvanometer is zero.

(2) if R = 20Ω, current through galvanometer is nonzero.
(3) if R =5Ω, power developed by battery is 80 watt.
(4) if R =20Ω, power developed by battery is zero.
7) What is the potential of junction O ?

(1) 3 V
(2) zero
(3) – 6 V
(4) 1 V

8) The same mass of copper is drawn into two wires 2mm and 3mm thick. The two wires are
connected in series & current is passed through them. The ratio of heats produced in the two wire is
:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In the given network shown in the figure, the equivalent resistance is :

(1) 2 R/3
(2) R/3
(3) 5 R/3
(4) None

10) The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is :-
(1) 15Ω
(2) 30Ω
(3) 20Ω
(4) 10Ω

11) A battery of emf 48 V unknown internal resistance is connected to a rheostat whose resistance
can be varied in a long range. A graph is plotted between power developed across rheostat and
resistance of rheostat which is shown in figure. The internal resistance of the battery in Ω is:

(1) 1.44
(2) 2.88
(3) 5.76
(4) 11.52

12) As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is connected to a battery of 24 V with an internal
resistance of 3Ω. The currents through the resistors R4 and R5 are I4 and I5 respectively. The values

of I4 and I5 are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) In the shown circuit, the power dissipated in resistor R3 is 30W. The reading of ammeter and
voltmeter are 500 mA and 10V respectively. Ammeter, voltmeter and battery are ideal. Which of the

following is INCORRECT.

(1) the resistance R1 is 20Ω

(2) the resistance R3 is 7.5 Ω
(3) emf of battery is 15V
(4) power supplied by battery is 30.5 W

14)

A cylindrical wire has a resistance R and resistivity ρ. If its length and diameter are both halved,
its resistivity will now be:

(1) 3ρ
(2) 4ρ
(3) 2ρ
(4) ρ

15) The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be:-

(1) 0.17 A
(2) 0.33 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) 0.67 A

16) The figure shows a network of four resistances and three batteries Choose the correct

alternative
(1) The potential difference VC – VF = 6V.
(2) No current flows in the branch CF.
(3) Current flows in the branch from F to C.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

17) In the given circuit calculate potential difference between the points P and Q.

(1) 3 V
(2) 4 V
(3) zero
(4) 8 V

18) The equivalent resistance between A and B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) In fig. a network of currents is shown. The magnitude of currents is shown here. The current I

will be :–

(1) –3A
(2) 3A
(3) 13A
(4) 20A

20) If a wire is stretched, so that its length is 20% more than its initial length, the percentage
increase in the resistance of the wire is :

(1) 40%
(2) 10%
(3) 44%
(4) 25%

21) Resistors R1 and R2 have an equivalent resistance of 6 ohms when connected in the circuit shown

below. The resistance of R1 could be (in ):-

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 4

22) A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance R. Resistance R can
be adjusted to any value greater than or equal to zero. A graph is plotted between the current (i)
passing through the resistance and potential difference (V) across it. Select the correct

alternative(s).

(1) internal resistance of battery is 5Ω

(2) emf of the battery is 20V
(3) maximum current which can be taken from the battery is 4A
(4) V-i graph can never be a straight line as shown in figure.

23) Two cells X and Y are connected to a resistance of 10Ω as shown in the figure. The terminal

voltage of cell Y is :-

(1) zero
(2) 2V
(3) 4V
(4) 10V

24) Find the current through 2Ω :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 amp
(3) 2 amp
(4) 4 amp

25) Which arrangement of four identical resistances should be used to draw maximum energy from a
cell of voltage V :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In the circuit shown in figure, the heat produced in 5ohm resistance is 10 calories per second.

The heat produced in 4 ohm resistance is :-

(1) 1 cal/sec
(2) 2 cal/sec
(3) 3 cal/sec
(4) 4 cal/sec

27) A current of 5A passes through a copper conductor (resistivity = 1.7 × 10–8Ω-m) of radius of
cross-section 5 mm. Find the mobility of the charges, if their drift velocity is 1.1 × 10–3 m/s.

(1) 1.5 m2/V–s

(2) 1.3 m2/V–s
(3) 1.0 m2/V–s
(4) 1.8 m2/V–s

28) The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is
(1)

(2)

(3) 2r + 4R

(4)

29) In an experiment of meter bridge, a null point is obtained at the centre of the bridge wire, when
a resistance of 10 ohm is connected in one gap, the value of resistance in other gap is :-

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 5 Ω

(3)
Ω
(4) 500 Ω

30) In the given circuit, the galvanometer G will show zero deflection if :-

(1) R1R2 = R3R4

(2) R1R3 = R2R4
(3) R1R4 = R2R3
(4) Galvanometer can't have zero current for any relation between the resistances

31) The resistance of two conductors in series is 40 Ω and this becomes 7.5 Ω in parallel, the
resistances of conductors are:

(1) 20 Ω, 20 Ω
(2) 10Ω, 30 Ω
(3) 15 Ω, 25 Ω
(4) 18 Ω , 22 Ω

32) The current flowing in the given circuit is 0.1 A. The potential difference between the points X

and Y is

(1) 4.0 V
(2) 3.0 V
(3) 2.5 V
(4) 2.0 V

33) An electric bulb marked 40 W and 200 V, is used in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V. Now its
power is :

(1) 10 W
(2) 20 W
(3) 40 W
(4) 100 W

34) Four resistances and make the arms of a quadrilateral ABCD. Across AC
is the battery circuit, the emf of the battery being 4V and internal resistance negligible. The

potential difference across BD is

(1) 1 V
(2) –1 V
(3) –0.2 V
(4) 0.2 V

35) A voltmeter of resistance 400 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across the 100Ω
resistor in the circuit shown in figure. What will be the reading of the voltmeter ?

(1) 12V
(2) 24V
(3) 36V
(4) 6V

36) The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B versus
increase of charge Q stored in them. Which of the capacitors has higher capacitance?
(1) Capacitor A
(2) Capacitor B
(3) Both (1) and (2) are having equal capacitance
(4) None of these

37) The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium of a capacitor can withstand without break
down (of its insulating property) is called its :

(1) polarisation
(2) capacitance
(3) dielectric strength
(4) dielectric constant

38) Capacitance (C) depends on :

(1) Geometrical configuration of the system of the two conductors

(2) Charge configuration of the system of two conductors
(3) Nature of the insulator (dielectric) between two conductors
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is :

(1) 2.0 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.25 A
(4) 0.15 A

40)

In case of meter bridge experiment, balance length for 2Ω & 3Ω is ℓ and for xΩ & 3Ω is (ℓ + 10)cm.
The value of x is : -

(1) 3Ω
(2) 30Ω
(3) 33Ω
(4) 39Ω

41) Figure shows a meter-bridge. Initially null point was achieved at point P as shown in the figure.

When an unknown resistance "R" is connected in

parallel with 3Ω the null point was shifted by 22.5 cm. Then the value of unknown resistance is : -

(1) 2Ω
(2) 3Ω
(3) 2.5Ω
(4) 5Ω

42) A current I1 flowing through side PQ of an equilateral triangle PQR having three wires of

resistances 2W each is 2A. Then the current I2 and I3 respectively are : -

(1) 2A,4A
(2) 4A,6A
(3) 1A,2A
(4) 2A,6A

43) Resistance of a wire at 0 °C, 100 °C and temperature ‘t’ is found to be 10 Ω, 10.2 Ω and 10.95 Ω
respective. The value of t is __________.

(1) 748°C
(2) 748 K
(3) 475 K
(4) 475°F

44) Choose the most appropriate combination of emf(E) and internal resistance(r) of a battery from
the options given below, if terminal voltage of the battery is 8V, when connected through an external
resistance of 8W as shown in the figure.

(1) 10V, 2 Ω
(2) 10V, 1 Ω
(3) 8V, 1 Ω
(4) 8V, 5 Ω

45) Two resistors are connected in series across a battery as shown in figure. If a voltmeter of
resistance 2000 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across 500 Ω resister, the reading of

the voltmeter will be____V.

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 8 V

CHEMISTRY

1) Choose correct statement(s) regarding the following reaction

(i) is oxidising agent

(ii) is reducing agent
(iii) Oxidation number of per 'S' atom in is increase by two
(iv) Oxidation number of per 'Cr' atom in is decrease by three

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) iii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) only iv

2) Purple-coloured of KMnO4 is due to

(1) d-d-transition
(2) Charge transfer from O to Mn
(3) Due to both d-d-transition and charge transfer
(4) None of these

3) During estimation of oxalic acid by KMnO4, self indicator is

(1) KMnO4
(2) Oxalic acid
(3) K2SO4
(4) MnSO4

4) X and Y are :

(1) CrO5 and H2O

(2) Cr2O3 and H2O
(3) CrO2 and H2O
(4) CrO and H2O

5) Transition elements are usually characterised by variable oxidation states but Zn does not show
this property because of

(1) Completion of np-orbitals

(2) Completion of (n–1)d orbitals
(3) Completion of ns-orbitals
(4) Inert pair effect

6) Amongst the following species, maximum covalent character is exhibited by

(1) NaCl
(2) ZnCl2
(3) HgCl2
(4) CdCl2

7) The aqueous solution of CuCrO4 is green because it contains

(1) green Cu2+ ions

2–
(2) green CrO4 ions
2+ 2–
(3) blue Cu ions and green CrO4 ions
2+ 2–
(4) blue Cu ions and yellow CrO4 ions

8) Which of the following is incorrectly match?

Catalyst Process
 (1) V2O5 Contact process

(2) CuCℓ2 deacon process

(3) Finely divided Fe Vegetable oil to ghee

(4) TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 Zieglar Natta Catalyst

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The electrons which take part in order to exhibit variable oxidation states by transition metals
are

(1) ns only
(2) (n–1)d only
(3) ns and (n–1)d only but not np
(4) (n–1)d and np only but not ns

10) Metal having highest melting point :

(1) Mn
(2) Cr
(3) Fe
(4) Zn

11) In a transition series, as atomic number increases, paramagnetism

(1) Increases gradually

(2) Decreases gradually
(3) First increases to a maximum and then decreases
(4) First decreases to a maximum and then increases

12) Many transition metals form interstitial compounds. The characteristics of these interstitial
compounds are:
(I) They have high melting points as compared to pure metals.
(II) They are very hard.
(III) They retain metallic conductivity.
(IV) They are chemically more reactive than pure metals.
Then correct option(s) is/are :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III
(3) II, IV
(4) IV only

13) The atomic number of potassium is 19 and that of Mn (Manganese) is 25. Although the colour of
MnO4– is dark violet yet the K+ is colourless. This is due to fact that

(1) Mn is a transition element, while K+ is not

¯ +
(2) MnO4 is negatively charged, while K has a positive charge.
¯ +
(3) The effective atomic number of Mn in MnO4 is 26, while for K , the atomic number is 18
(4) The Mn with a high positive oxidation state allow charge transfer transition.

14) Each of the following ion contains vanadium in +5 oxidation state except

+
(1) VO2
+
(2) V(OH)4
(3) VO2+
2–
(4) [VO3·OH]

15) Given below are two statements , one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Tungsten has a very high melting point.
Reason (R) : Tungsten is a covalent compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

16) Given below are two statements , one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cu+2 ion is coloured in aqueous solution.
Reason (R) : Four water molecules are coordinated to Cu+2 ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

17) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that :

(1) Zr and Hf have same atomic sizes

(2) Zr and Hf lie in the same group
(3) Zr and Hf have different atomic sizes
(4) Zr and Hf have different properties

18) Mischmetal is an alloy consisting mainly of :

(1) Lanthanoid metals
(2) Actionoid and transition metals
(3) Lanthanoid and actinoid metals
(4) Actinoid metals

19) Given below are two Statement : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.
Reason (R) : The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The E° value for Ce4+ / Ce3+ is +1.74 V.
Statement-II : Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

21) Which of the following statements is true for the electrochemical, Daniell cell?

(1) Electrons in the external circuit flow from copper electrode to zinc electrode
(2) Current flows from zinc electrode to copper electrode outside the cell.
(3) Cations (Cu2+) move towards copper electrode.
(4) Cations (Cu2+) move towards zinc electrode

22) Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell? (T = 298 K)
Sn + 2Ag+ → Sn2+ + 2Ag

(1) Increase in the size of silver rod

(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(4) None of the above

23) Given below are two statements :

1M aqueous solutions of each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2, Mg(NO3)2 are electrolysed using inert
electrodes.

Given: , and .
Statement (I) : With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be
Ag, Hg and Cu.
Statement (II) : Magnesium will not be deposited at the cathode instead oxygen gas will be evolved
at the cathode.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

24) Match the terms given in Column I with the units given in Column II.

Column I Column II

(i) Λm (a) Scm–1

(ii) ECell (b) m–1

(iii) κ (c) S cm2 mol–1

(iv) G* (d) V
(1) (i) → (c) (ii) → (d) (iii) → (b) (iv) → (a)
(2) (i) → (d) (ii) → (c) (iii) → (a) (iv) → (b)
(3) (i) → (c) (ii) → (d) (iii) → (a) (iv) → (b)
(4) (i) → (d) (ii) → (c) (iii) → (b) (iv) → (a)

25) for Daniell cell. Which of the following expressions are correct description of state
of equilibrium in this cell ?
(i) 1.1 = Kc

(ii)
(iii) Kc = 4
(iv) log Kc = 1.1

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)

26) In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion : ECell should have a positive value for the cell to function.
Reason : For a reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG = +ve

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

27) If the molar conductance values of Ca2+ and Cl– at infinite dilution are respectively 120 × 10–4 m2
mho mol–1 and 80 × 10–4 m2 mho mol–1 then that of CaCl2 is : (in m2 mho mol–1)

(1) 118.88 × 10–4

(2) 154.66 × 10–4
(3) 280 × 10–4
(4) 200 × 10–4

28) From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.

(1) Rusting of iron object

(2) Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water
(3) Tarnishing of silver
(4) Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments

29) The standard electrode potentials, E° of Fe3+/Fe2+ and Fe2+/Fe at 300 K are +0.77 V and –0.44 V,
respectively. The E° of Fe3+/Fe at the same temperature is:

(1) 1.21 V
(2) 0.33 V
(3) –0.036 V
(4) 0.036 V

30) Match the electrolyte solutions in Column I with their principal electrolysis products at the
respective electrodes in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Molten NaCl (1) O2 gas at the anode
(B) Aqueous NaCl (2) Cl2 gas at the anode
(C) Dilute H2SO4 (3) Na metal at the cathode
(D) Aqueous CuSO4 (4) Cu metal at the cathode
Choose the correct option from the choices given below:
(1) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(4)
(2) (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(2)
(3) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1)
(4) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4)

31) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion Specific conductivity of an electrolytic solution decreases with dilution whereas molar
conductivity increases with dilution.
Reason Specific conductivity is the conductance of a specific amount of the electrolyte whereas
molar conductivity is for 1 mole of the electrolyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion

(2) Assertion is ·True, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True, Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False, Reason is True.

32) Strong electrolytes are those which :

(1) dissolve readily in water

(2) conduct electricity
(3) dissociate into ions even at high concentration
(4) dissociate into ions at high dilution.

33) Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of :

(1) free electrons

(2) free ions
(3) free molecules
(4) free atoms of Na and Cl

34) A certain current liberates 0·504 g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of oxygen can be
liberated by the same current in the same time ?

(1) 2·0 g
(2) 0·4 g
(3) 4·0 g
(4) 8·0 g

35) One faraday of electricity is passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten
NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells connected in series. The mole ratio of Al, Cu and Na
deposited at the respective cathodes is

(1) 2 : 3 : 6
(2) 6 : 2 : 3
(3) 6 : 3 : 2
(4) 1 : 2 : 3

36) Pt |H2(1atm)|H+ (0.001M)||H+ (0.1M)|H2 (1atm)|Pt

what will be the value of Ecell for this concentration cell ?

(1) 0.1182 V
(2) – 0.1182 V
(3) 0.0591 V
(4) – 0.0591 V
37) A device that converts energy of combustion of fuel like hydrogen and methane directly into
electrical energy is known as :-

(1) Electrolytic cell

(2) Mercury cell
(3) Ni-Cd cell
(4) Fuel cell

38) The molar conductivity of a 0.1 mol/dm3 solution of KNO3 with specific conductance of 4 × 10–3
Scm–1 at 298 K is :-

(1) 11.52 Scm2 mol–1

(2) 20 Scm2 mol–1
(3) 40 Scm2 mol–1
(4) 13.48 Scm2 mol–1

39) Which of the following expression correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite

dilution of Ca3 (PO4)2 Given and are the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of the
respective ions :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an electrolytic cell ?

(1) Applying an external opposite potential greater than E°cell

(2) Exchanging the electrodes at anode and cathode.
(3) Applying an external opposite potential lower than E°cell
(4) Reversing the flow of ions in salt bridge.

41) A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. What is the
mass of copper deposited at the cathode ?
(Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g/mol)

(1) 0.492g
(2) 0.325g
(3) 0.873g
(4) 0.296g

42) What will occur if a block of copper metal is dropped into a beaker containing a solution of 1M
ZnSO4 ?
(1) The copper metal will dissolve and zinc metal will be deposited.
(2) The copper metal will dissolve with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
(3) The copper metal will dissolve with the evolution of oxygen gas.
(4) No reaction will occur.

43) When lead accumulator is charged, it acts as :

(1) an electrolytic cell

(2) a galvanic cell
(3) a Daniel cell
(4) none of the above

44) Mark the correct choice of electrolytes represented in the graph :

(1) 1-strong electrolyte, 2-weak electrolyte

(2) 1-weak electrolyte, 2-weak electrolyte
(3) 1-weak electrolyte, 2-strong electrolyte
(4) 1-strong electrolyte, 2-strong electrolyte

45) How many faradays are required to reduce 1 mol to Br¯ ?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

BIOLOGY

1) Find out the total number of chromosomal disorder from the following :
Sickle cell anaemia, Turner's syndrome, Cystic fibrosis, Phenylketonuria, Down's syndrome,
Colourblindness, Klinefelter's syndrome, Thalassemia.

(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

2) Which of the following characteristics represent inheritance of blood groups in humans ?

(a) Dominance
(b) Co-dominance
(c) Multiple allele
(d) Incomplete dominance
(e) Polygenic inheritance

(1) (b), (c) and (e)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (c) and (e)

3) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–male Drosophila, b–female Drosophila

(2) a–female Drosophila, b–male Drosophila
(3) a–male butterfly, b–female butterfly
(4) a–female butterfly, b–male butterfly

4) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct

identification of A, B & C :

A-Artificial cross pollination;

(1)
B-Hybrid offsprings; C-Emasculation.
A-Emasculation; B-Bagging & tagging;
(2)
C-Hybrid offsprings.
 A-Emasculation; B-Artificial cross
(3)
pollination; C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Bagging & tagging; B-Emasculation;
(4)
C-Hybrid offsprings.

5) Assertion :- When two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same chromosome, the
proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-parental type.
Reason :- This is due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion: The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the
parental character in a monohybrid cross in the F1- generation.
Reason: The law of dominance explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2 – generation.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

7) Assertion (A) : Phenylketonuria is an in born error of metabolism and inherited as the autosomal
recessive trait.
Reason (R) : The disease is caused by mutation in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenyl
alanine oxidase.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

8) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be :-
(A) 75% plants are Tall.
(B) 25% plants are Dwarf.
(C) 50% plants are homozygous.
(D) 50% plants are heterozygous.
Select the correct option.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

9) Mendel's work remain unrecognised till 1900 due to all except :-

(1) His work could not be widely publicised
(2) His work was not supported with required data
(3) He could not provide any proof for existence of factors
(4) His concept of genes as stable and discrete units was not accepted by his contemporaries

10) Mendel selected _____ true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for
_____ character with contrasting traits.

(1) 7, one
(2) 14, two
(3) 7, two
(4) 14, one

11)

It is well known that Queen Victoria of England: was a carrier for haemophilia. Since this is an X-
linked disease, it can be predicted that:

(1) All of her sons would have that disease.

(2) All her daugthers would have been carriers.
(3) Her father must definitely have had haemophilia.
(4) Haemophilia would have occurred in more of her male than her female descendents.

12) Among the seven characters in pea plant, studied by Mendel, the number of characters related
to flower, pod and seed respectively were :-

(1) 2, 2, 2
(2) 2, 2, 1
(3) 1, 2, 2
(4) 1, 1, 2

13) In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation,
pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation showed white, red and
pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) This experiment does not follow co-dominance.

(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
(3) Genotypic ratio in F2 is (1 : 2 : 1)
(4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment.

14) The map unit distance between A and C is 30 cM, between B and C is 20 cM, between A and B is
50 cM, between B and D is 10 cM and between C and D is 30 cM.
What will be the arrangement of ABCD genes on chromosome?

(1) ABCD
(2) ACBD
(3) BACD
(4) CABD

15) Two linked genes A and B are 25 map units apart in a dihybrid plant. How many recombinant
plants will be produced by test cross of a plant with AaBb genotype, if total 2000 plants are obtained
after cross?

(1) 1500
(2) 500
(3) 250
(4) 1000

16) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct

identification.

(1) C = ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A = XO Males, XX females
(3) B = XY females, XX males
(4) C = ZZ females, XX males

17) Chromosomal theory of inheritance is the united form of :

(1) Knowledge of mendelian principles and mitotic cell division.

(2) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Bateson's principles.
(3) Knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Mendelian principles.
(4) Knowledge of chromosomal assortment and Tschermak's principles.
18) Given below is, the figure of Drosophila melanogaster. It was
found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by
Morgan, because.

(1) A single mating produces two young flies

(2) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male
(3) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
(4) It reproduces parthenogenetically only

19) Assertion (A) : The behavior of chromosomes during cell division supports Mendel's laws of
inheritance.
Reason (R) : Chromosomes and genes are present in pairs, and alleles are found on homologous
sites of homologous chromosomes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

20) Assertion (A) : During Anaphase of meiosis I, chromosomes segregate independently of each
other.
Reason (R) : The independent alignment of chromosome pairs at the metaphase plate leads to the
independent assortment of chromosomes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

21) Assertion (A): In Pedigree analysis the inheritance of a particular trait represented over
generations.
Reason (R): DNA, which carries genetic information, is not involved in the inheritance of traits.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

22) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sutton united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles
and called it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
Statement II: Morgan’s work with Drosophila melanogaster did not contribute to the experimental
verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

23) In an experiment, AaBb (F1) was test crossed with aabb. In the progeny, genotypes Aabb, aaBb
were more frequent than AaBb & aabb. The genotypes of the parents of F1 should be:-

(1) AABB & aabb

(2) AAbb & aaBB
(3) AAbb & AABB
(4) AABB & aaBB

24) In a monohybrid cross 75% plants were obtained of similar trait in F2. If a dihybrid cross is made
by adding one more independent character then in F2, what percentage of progeny will show this
trait?

(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 9%

25) When two parents are used in two experiments in such a way that in one experiment “A” is used
as the female parent and “B” is used as the male parent, in the other experiment “A” will be used as
the male parent and “B” as the female parent. Such type of a set of experiments is called-

(1) back cross

(2) reciprocal cross
(3) test cross
(4) out cross

26) If a normal man marries a woman who is heterozygous for haemophilia then probability of their
son being haemophilic is :-

(1) 0.75
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 0.5

27) In dihybrid cross, types of gametes in F1, phenotype and genotype in F2 are respectively :-

(1) 4, 4, 9
(2) 4, 4, 4
(3) 4, 9, 4
(4) 2, 4, 9

28) A child with mother of blood group A and father of blood group AB, will not have which of the
following blood group:

(1) A
(2) O
(3) B
(4) AB

29) Thalassemia and sickle-cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis.
Select the correct statement.

(1) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.

(2) Both are due to a quantitative defect globin chain synthesis.
(3) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
(4) Sickle-cells anaemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.

30) Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal
abnormality/linkage ?

(1) Sickle cell anaemia –X linked

(2) Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
(3) Colour blindness – Y linked
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome –44 autosomes +XXY

31) Blood group of a man is 'O' and that of his wife is AB then their children have only blood group:-

(1) O, AB
(2) O, A, AB
(3) O, B, A
(4) A, B

32) How many types of gametes will be produced by a plant having genotype AaBbDdEE?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

33)

AaBbCc, aaBBCc, AABBcc, AaBBCC, AABbcc

How many of the above genotypes can produce mullato type skin colour :-
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

34) Given below is the pedigree of an autosomal dominant disorder-Myotonic dystrophy.

In this pedigree the genotype of all affected

children will be –

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

35) A gene that shows it's effect on more than one character is :-

(1) Polygene
(2) Pleotropic gene
(3) Multifactor gene
(4) Multiple gene

36) The phenotype of any character will not be affected if the modified allele produces :

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) Non-functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme at all
(4) 2 and 3 both

37) Presence of recombinants is due to :-

(1) crossing over

(2) linkage
(3) lack of independent assortment
(4) all of the above

38) In a diploid organism how many different alleles of a gene are possible at maximum :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Many
(4) Variable in different chromosome
39) Sickle cell anemia and β-thalassemia disease are ......... and ....... defects concerning β-globin,
respectively.

(1) Qualitative ; quantitative

(2) Quantitative ; qualitative
(3) Quantitative ; quantitative
(4) Qualitative ; qualitative

40) Predict from the following chart :

(1) Character is sex linked recessive

(2) Character is autosomal recessive only
(3) Character is recessive and may be x-linked or autosomal
(4) Character is holandric & carried by Y-chromosome.

41) Read the following statement :-

(i) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for about seven year.
(ii) Green seed colour in pea plant is dominant character.
(iii) Mendel observed that all F1 progeny plants were tall.
(iv) In Mendel experiment, both parental traits were expressed in F1 generation.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :-
Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are
located on different chromosomes.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes do not assort independently.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

43) Assertion (A) : Law of segregation can be studied by monohybrid cross.

Reason (R) : The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental
characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

44) Match the following terms of Column I with meanings of Column II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Alleles (i) Units of heredity

(b) Genes (ii) Slightly different forms of the same gene

Genetic constitution of an organism for a

(c) Genotype (iii)
particular character

Morphological appearance of an organism

(d) Phenotype (iv)
for a particular character
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

45) Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table:

No. of No.
Cross type
genotypes of phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid (I) 9 (1) 8

(B) Dihybrid (II) 27 (2) 4

(C) Trihybrid (III) 3 (3) 2

Choose the correct option:
(1) A-III-3, B-I-2, C-II-1
(2) A-II-1, B-III-2, C-I-3
(3) A-I-2, B-III-1, C-II-3
(4) A-III-3, B-II-1, C-I-2

46) Statement-A: Mendel's work suggested that factors were discrete units, he could not provide
any physical proof for their existence.
Statement-B: A cross between red flower and pink flower of snapdragon, results into red and pink
flowers in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively.

(1) Both statement-A and statement-B are correct.

(2) Both statement-A and statement-B are incorrect.
(3) Statement-A is correct, but statement-B is incorrect.
(4) Statement-A is incorrect, but statement-B is correct.

47) Statement-I : In Mendel's monohybrid cross the constrasting traits did not show any blending
at either F1 or F2 stage.
Statement-II : In monohybrid cross all the offsprings of garden pea were either tall or dwarf, none
were of in between height.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

48)

For the monohybrid mendelian cross select out the incorrect statement :

(1) There is reappearance of that trait in F2 which was not expressed in F1.
(2) F2 trait were identical to their parental type.
(3) F2 traits did not show any blending.
(4) It shows inheritance of two genes.

49) Read the following statements about hybridization technique of mendel and select the correct
statement:-
(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents is required.
(B) Emasculation of only male parent is required.
(C) Emasculation of bisexual flower is required. (D) Emasculation is not necessary.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All correct

50) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :-
(a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population is generally recessive in nature.
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs.
(c) Modified allele is also called as mutant allele.
(d) F1 plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel's experiment.

(1) All are correct

(2) a, c & d are correct
(3) b, c & d are correct
(4) Only d is correct

51) Consider the four statements (A–E) :-

(A) Mendel's experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data he
collected.
(B) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties.
(C) Punnet square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes
of offsprings in a genetic cross.
(D) Law of dominance is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that both
the parental traits are recovered in F2 generation though one of these is not seen at F1 stage.
The correct statements are :-

(1) C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) D only

52)

Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given:

Column I Column II
(Cross) (Phenotypic ratio)

A. Rr × Rr 1. 1:1

B. Rr × rr 2. 3:1

C. RrYy × RrYy 3. 1:1:1:1

D. RrYy × rryy 4. 9:3:3:1

(1) A = 2, B = 4, C = 3, D = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 4
(3) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, D = 1
(4) A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 3

53)

Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Incomplete Dominance (i) Quantitative character

(b) Codominance (ii) Snapdragon

(c) Pleiotropy (iii) Different type of sugar on RBC

(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) Mutation in gene for phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
54) Select the correct match -

I II

(a) Mating

(b) Monozygotic twins

(c) Five unaffected offspring

(d) Abortion or still birth

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, d
(4) b, c, d

55) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. Down's syndrome I. 11th chromosome

B. α-Thalassemia II. 'X' chromosome

C. β-Thalassemia III. 21st chromosome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome IV. 16th chromosome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

56) In the given genetic basis of human blood group table, find out which offspring belongs to blood
group A,B, AB and O.

Allele from Allele from Genotype

[Link].
Parent-1 Parent-2 of offspring

I IA IA IAIA

II IA IB IAIB
0 0
III IA I IAI

IV IB IA IAIB
 V IB IB IBIB
0 0
VI IB I IBI
0 0 0
VII IO I II

A B AB O

(1) I,III V,VI II,IV VII

(2) I,IV VI,II II,III V

(3) VII II,IV V,VI I,III

(4) I,III II,IV V,VI VII

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Match the columns and select correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Chromosomal theory of inheritance (i) G. Mendel

(b) Principles of Inheritance (ii) Alfred Sturtevant

(c) Rediscovery of Mendelian principles (iii) C. Correns, DeVries, Tschermak

(d) Chromosomal map (iv) Sutton and Boveri

(1) a (iii) ; b (ii) ; c (i) ; d (iv)
(2) a (iv) ; b (i) ; c (iii) ; d (ii)
(3) a (iv) ; b (i) ; c (ii) ; d (iii)
(4) a (ii) ; b (i) ; c (iii) ; d (iv)

58) Match the following column -

Column-I Column-II

(1) XX – XO (a) Birds

(2) ZW – ZZ (b) Grasshopper

(3) XX – XY (c) Human

Haploid Diploid
(4) (d) Honey bee
mechanism
(1) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – d
(2) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c
(3) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
(4) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
59) Match the columns and choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

a. 1. Consanguineous mating

b. 2. Affected female

c. 3. Mating

d. 4. Unaffected female

Parents with male child

e. 5.
unaffected

6. Sex unspecified
(1) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–5, e–4
(2) a–2, b–1, c–6, d–3, e–4
(3) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–5, e–2
(4) a–3, b–1, c–6, d–5, e–4

60) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A father will never pass the gene for haemophilia to his sons.
Reason (R) : Haemophilia is sex-linked (X-linked) recessive trait.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

61) Assertion : Honey bee have haplo-diploid sex-determination system.

Reason : Male honey bee are diploid having 32 chromosomes and Female are haploid i.e., having 16
chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Assertion (A): Incomplete dominance results in a phenotype that resembles neither of the
parents.
Reason (R): In incomplete dominance, the F1 generation shows blending of traits.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

63) How many types of gametes will be produced by a genotype AaBbCCDD ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Sixteen

64) In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in
F1 generation?

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 50 : 50
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

65) Which type of gametes are produced by TTRrYy ?

(1) Try, Try, TrY, Try

(2) TRY, TRy, TrY, Try
(3) TRY, TRY, TrY, TrY
(4) TRY, TRY,TrY, TRy

66) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :-
(a) Phenotype is the external manifestation of gene product.
(b) Individuals with similar phenotypes may have different genotypes.
(c) Individuals with different phenotypes usually have similar genotypes.
(d) Phenotype is not influenced by environment.
(e) Phenocopy have same genotype.

(1) b, c & d are correct

(2) a, b & e are correct
(3) c & d are correct
(4) Only a & b are correct

67) Find the incorrect statement :-

(1) Test cross is performed to know the genotype of dominant phenotype.

(2) All the non-allelic genes show independent assortment
(3) A true breeding line produces only one type of phenotype on selfing.
(4) Mendel worked on Garden pea.

68) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Due to independent assortment of genes a gamete contains both allelic as well as non allelic
genes.
(B) In a dihybrid cross only 6.25% progeny of F2 show parental genotype.
(C) In dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed size in garden pea, 50% of the F2 progeny have
intermediate size starch grain in seed.
(D) Result of dihybrid cross formed the basis of Mendel's postulate of independent assortment.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

69) Identify the correct statement :-

(A) In case of incomplete dominance phenotypic ratio had changed from 1 : 2 : 1 to 3 : 1
(B) In codominance the F1 generation resembles both parents.
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant is an example of incomplete dominance.
(D) In pleiotropy many genes control single phenotype.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A and D only

(2) B and C
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) B, C and D

70) Which of the following statement is true for colourblindness?

(1) It is due to mutation in certain genes present on Y-chromosome.

(2) It occurs in about 8% of female and about 0.4 % of male.
(3) The son of a carrier woman has 50% chance of being colourblind.
(4) It is an autosomal linked disorder.

71) A boy is colour blind, his sister is normal and non-carrier.

(i) What are the chances that both his parents are normal phenotypes ?
(ii) What are the chances of mother being carrier?
(iii) What are the chances of his younger brother being colour blind?

(1) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-100%

(2) (i)-100%, (ii)-100%, (iii)-50%
(3) (i)-50%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-50%
(4) (i)-100%, (ii)-50%, (iii)-100%

72) Assertion (A) : Morgan worked on Drosophila melanogaster.

Reason (R) : Drosophila is very suitable for studies because they complete their life cycle in about 2
months.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) Read the following statement for a trihybrid plant in which all the three genes show complete
linkage :-
(a) On selfing, it produces 1:1 phenotypic ratio.
(b) On test cross, it produces 3:1 genotypic ratio.
(c) It produces some new combination in offsprings.
(d) It produces only two types of gametes.
Select the correct statements :-

(1) only a & b

(2) a, b & d
(3) only d
(4) only c & d

74) Read following statements & choose incorrect one :

(1) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.

(2) In case of co-dominance the F1 generation resembled either of the two parents.
(3) Phenotypic ratio in F2 of Mendelian dihybrid cross is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) In Human skin colour seven types of phenotype are formed.

75) How many dominant traits among these were used by Mendel in his experiments ? (i) Round
seeds
(ii) Dwarf plants
(iii) Axial flower
(iv) Large size starch grain
(v) White flowers
(vi) Constricted pods
(vii) Terminal flower
(viii) Violet flowers
(ix) Tall plants

(1) Five
(2) Eight
(3) Three
(4) Four

76) How many of following are the examples of codominance?

(A) O blood group
(B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant
(D) Seed shape in pea
(E) Coat colour in cattles

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

77) Pedigree analysis is applicable for how many of the following Mendelian disorders :
Turner syndrome, Down syndrome,
Cystic fibrosis, Albinism, Haemophilia,
Colorblindness, Phenylketonuria

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

78) Which type of sex determination mechanism is observed in grasshoppers?

(1) XY type
(2) XO type
(3) ZW type
(4) ZZ type

79) Assertion (A): The cross between a tall plant from F₂, with a dwarf plant is called a test cross.
Reason (R): A test cross is used to determine the genotype of an organism showing a dominant
phenotype.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

80) Assertion (A): The ABO blood grouping in human beings is a good example of co-dominance.
Reason (R): When IA and IB alleles are present together, they both express their own types of
sugars.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

81) Statement I: Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of synthesising too few globin molecules.
Statement II: Sickle-cell anaemia is a qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning
globin.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct
82) Statement I: Mendel's work on the inheritance of characters was published in 1865 but
remained unrecognised till 1900.
Statement II: In 1900, de Vries, Correns, and von Tschermak independently rediscovered Mendel's
results.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

83)

Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
correct

(1) ◆ = male affected

(2) = mating between relatives
(3) = unaffected male
(4) = unaffected female

84) In a monohybrid cross of tall and dwarf pea plants, what proportion of the F₂ generation is
dwarf?

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/4
(4) 1/3

85) What is the genotypic ratio of the F₂ generation in a case of incomplete dominance, such as
flower colour in Snapdragon?

(1) 3:1
(2) 9:3:3:1
(3) 1:2:1
(4) 1:1

86) Which type of sex determination mechanism is observed in grasshoppers?

(1) XY type
(2) XO type
(3) ZW type
(4) ZZ type

87) Which amino acid is substituted by Valine in the beta globin chain to cause sickle-cell anaemia?

(1) Tyrosine
(2) Phenylalanine
(3) Glutamic acid
(4) Histidine

88) Assertion (A): Genes located on the same chromosome always assort independently.
Reason (R): Morgan found that when two genes are situated on the same chromosome, the
proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher than the non-parental type.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

89) Assertion (A): Phenylketonuria is an example of a pleiotropic gene.

Reason (R): The disease manifests itself through multiple phenotypic expressions like mental
retardation and reduction in hair and skin pigmentation.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

90) Assertion (A): In human beings, the sex of the child is determined by the genetic makeup of the
sperm.
Reason (R): Females produce only one type of ovum with an X-chromosome, whereas males
produce 50% sperms with X-chromosome and 50% with Y-chromosome.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 2 2 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 1 1 4 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 1 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation: to find the ratio of temperature coffieient of resistance.

Concept : Resistance in Conductor.
Formula : R = R0 [1 + ∝ (T2 –T1)
Calculation : given [T1 = 0]
R 1 = R2
[When first conductor has temp t1 and conductor has temp t2]
R 1 = R2
Ro [ 1 + α1 (t1 – 0) ] = Ro [1 + 22 (t2 – 0) ]
α1 t1 = α2 t2

Final Answer : option (4).

2) Explaining: Given: A meter bridge experiment with balancing length .

Asked: New balancing length.

Concept:
Solution:
In first case P (100-ℓ1) = ℓ1 (Q) 3(100-ℓ1) = ℓ1 (Q)
3(100-55) = 55Q
300 - 3 × 55 = 55Q
300-165 = 55Q

Now in second case

(P + X) (100-75) = Q × 75

(3 + X) (25) =

X+3

⇒
Final Answer: (3)

3) Explaining: Given: Q = at – bt2

Asked: Total heat produced.

Concept:
Solution:

i= [at – bt2] = a – 2bt

time at which current will be zero a – 2bt = 0
t = a/2b

Heat generated H = =
Final Answer: (1)

4) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit with cells are in series

Asked: Terminal potential difference.
Concept: Vt = E – ir and Vt = E + ir
(Discharging) (Charging)
Solution:

VA = E + ir = 4 + (0.5)(0.5) = 4.25 volt

VB = E – ir = 8 – (0.5)(1) = 7.5 volt
Final Answer: (2)

5) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit.

Asked: Reading of Ammeter

Concept:
Solution:

As shown in figure all the resistances are short circuited.

∴ Reading of Ammeter,
Final Answer: (2)

6) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit

Asked: The incorrect statement
Concept: WB(Wheatstone Bridge)
Solution: If R = 20Ω
WB → unbalanced
∴ Current through cell will be non-zero, so power developed by battery is non-zero.
Final Answer: (4)

7) Explaining: Given an electric network.

Concept: KCL at junction.
Solution:
Let potential at point 'O' be V then

Apply KCL at Pt. O i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

=0
6 – V + 6 – 2V + 6 – 3V = 0
V = 3 Volt
Final Answer: (1)

8) Explaining: The same mass of copper is drawn into two wires 2mm and 3mm thick
Asked: The ratio of heat production

Concept:
2
and H = I Rt
Solution:
Mass = Volume × density
m = Vd = Aℓd

ℓ∝

∵ R=

In series H = I2Rt ⇒ H ∝ R ∝

= 81 : 16
Final Answer: (4)

9)

Explain Question : We have to calculate equivalent resistance of given circuit.

Concept : This question is based on parallel combination of resistors

Solution :
 Here, "3" Resistor will be across AB in Parallel & the one across AA will be removed as short
circuited.

⇒
Final answer : Option (2)

10) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit.

Asked: Value of R

Concept: P =
Solution:

P= ⇒ 30 = ⇒ Req = Ω

Req = = ⇒ 3R = 2R + 10 ⇒ R = 10Ω
Final Answer: (4)

11) Explaining: Given: Graph of P vs R

Asked: Internal resistance of a battery
Concept: Condition of maximum power transfer
Solution:

=
Final Answer: (2)

12) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit with resistances connected in series and / or
paralle.
Asked: Value of current
Concept: Series and parallel combination
Solution:
Equivalent resistance of circuit
Req = 3 + 1 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 12Ω
Current through battery

Final Answer: (4)

13) Explaining: Given an electric circuit with ideal (VM) and (AM)
Concept: Circuit analysis
Solution:
Current through R1 = 500mA & voltage = 10 V

V = IR1
Voltage across R3 = Voltage across R1 + Voltage across R2

Power =

Power supplied by battery =

Final Answer: (4)

14) Explaining: Asked resistivity if length and diameter are both halved.
Concept: Resistivity does not depend on dimemenssion of wire.
Solution:
Resistivity of wire does not depend on length and area of cross-section of the wire. Resistivity
of wire depends on material of the wire.
Final Answer: (4)

15) Explain Question:

Asking about current drown from 5 volt battery as shown figure.

Concept:
Balanced wheat stone bridge.

Solution:
Its a balanced Wheat stone bridge
Req = 10Ω ;

I= = = 0.5 A

Final answer: option (3)

16) Explaining: Given: An electric circuit

Asked: Correct alternative
Concept: Basic circuit analysis
Solution:

i1 + i2 + i3 = 0
i1 = – (i2 + i3)

i1 = –
i1 = [–4 –3] = 7A;
VC – VF = 6V
Final Answer: (1)

17) Explaining: Given: A single loop circuit

Asked: Potential difference between 'P' & 'Q'
Concept: Combination of cells and basic analysis.
Solution:

Final Answer: (1)

18) Explaining: Given: An electric network

Asked: Equivalent resistance
Concept: Combination of resistances
Solution:

RAB =
Final Answer: (4)

19) Explaining: Given an electric network

Asked: Current
Concept: KCL
Solution:
Apply KCL
Iilc = IoIg
12 + 3 + 5 = i = 20A
Final Answer: (4)

20) Explaining: Given: A wire is stretched

Asked: Percentage increase in the resistance of the wire

Concept: or
Solution:
In case of stretching : R ∝ ℓ2
ℓ1 = ℓ + 0.2 ℓ = 1.2ℓ

= = (1.2)2 = 1.44

= × 100% = (1.44 – 1) × 100 = 44%

Final Answer: (3)

21) Explanation - In this question we have to find the value of resistance R1

Concept - Combination of Resistance (Series and parallel)

Formula -

or (for parallel combination)

Calculation - In the given figure both resistances R1 and R2 are in parallel

or ---(1) [Req = 6Ω (given)]

Apply hit and trial method (1) Take R1 =1Ω and put me value in eqn

⇒ R2 = 6+6R

R2 = Ω ( which is not possible)

(2) Take R1 = 5Ω

⇒ 5R2 = 30+ 6R2

R2 = -30Ω (which is not possible)

(3) Take R1 = 8Ω

⇒ 8R2 = 48+ 6R2

⇒ 2R2 = 48

⇒ R2 = 24Ω ( possible value of R2)

(4) Take R1 = 4Ω

⇒ 4R2 = 24+ 6R2

⇒ R2 = -12Ω ( which is not possible )

Hence possible value of R1 = 8Ω for which R2 is valid Conclusion. The correct answer is option
3

Time = 2min

Level - Easy

22) Explaining: Given: Graph of V vs i

Asked: Correct statement
Concept: V = E – ir
Solution:
In case of discharging of a cell
V = E – ir
For E ; i = 0 ; V = 10 V ⇒ 10 = E – 0 ⇒ E = 10V
For i = 2A ; V = 0

0 = 10 – (2) (r) ⇒ r = = 5Ω
Final Answer: (1)

23) Explaining: Given an single loop electric circuit

Asked: Terminal potential difference
Concept: Vt = E – ir
Solution:

V = E – ir =

=
Final Answer: (1)

24) Question Asking About:

Determine the magnitude of the current flowing through the 2Ω resistor in the provided
circuit, which contains two voltage sources and three resistors.

Concept :
Question about KVL

Formula :
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) : The algebraic sum of the voltages around any closed loop in a

circuit is zero .
Ohm's Law : V - IR

Calculation :
In both loops of circuit current I1 and I2 are observed as

I1 = = 2A

I2 = = 2A
Hence no current will flow from 2Ω resistor

Final Answer :
Option (1)

25) Explaining: Given: Different combination of four resistances.

Asked: Combination draws maximum energy

Concept:
Solution:

⇒
Final Answer: (2)

26) Explaining: Given a current divider circuit

Asked: The heat produced in 4Ω resistance.
Concept: Heat = i2Rt
Solution:

i2 =

⇒ i1 =

P4 = = 4= =2 cal/sec

Final Answer: (2)

27)

Explain Question : We need to find the mobility of charge carriers in a copper wire, given the
current, resistivity, radius and drift velocity.

Concept : This question is based on Mobility , and E = Jp, where J =

Solution :
Given data :
I = 5A, ρ = 1.7 × 10–8 Ω-m, r = 5mm = 5 × 10–3 m, vd = 1.1 × 10–3 m/s
Area of cross section :
A = πr2 = 3.14 × (5 × 10–3)2 = 7.85 × 10–5 m2
Current density :

= 6.37 × 104 A/m2

Electric field :
E = Jρ = 6.37 × 104 × 1.7 × 10–8 = 1.08 × 10–3 V/m
Mobility :

/V-s
Final answer : 3
28) Explaining: Given a electric network with symmetrical arrangement
Asked: Effective resistance
Concept: resistance can be removed from equipotential line.
Solution:
The circuit can be redrawn as follows:-

Final Answer: (1)

29) Explaining: In a MB experiment resistance on one gap and balanced point is given.

Concept:
Solution:
Wheastone bridge is balanced, therefore

or 1 = ⇒ S = 10 ohm
Final Answer: (1)

30) Explaining: Given a balanced WB.

Asked: Condition for balanced WB

Concept:
Solution:

Equivalent circuit
Final Answer: (2)

31) Explaining: Equivalent resistance of series and parallel are given.

Asked: The individual resistance.

Concept: RS = R1 + R2 and RP =
Solution:
Let resistances be R1 and R2 then
RS = R1 + R2 = 40
and RP = = 7.5
⇒ R1R2 = (7.5) (40) = 300

Now R1 – R2 =

=
R1 = R2 = 20
then R1 = 30 Ω and R2 = 10Ω
Final Answer: (2)

32) Explaining: Given a single loop circuit.

Asked: Potential difference
Concept: KVL : ΣΔV = 0
Solution:
Vx + (20) (0.1) + (5) (0.1) – Vy = 0
Vx – Vy = – (2 + 0.5) = – 2.5 V
Final Answer: (3)

33) Explaining: An electric bulb (Pr, Vr) is used in supply voltage VA.
Asked: Power consumption

Concept:
Solution:

R= = 1000 Ω

P= = 10 W
Final Answer: (1)

34) Explaining: Given an electric circuit.

Asked: Potential difference
Concept: Parallel combination and KVL
Solution:
Current through arm ABC,
= 4/(40 + 60) = 0.04 A
Potential difference across A and B
VA – VB = 0.04 × 40 = 1.6 V
Current through arm ADC,
= 4/(90 + 110) = 4/200 A
Potential difference between A and D,

∴ VB – VD = (VA – VD) – (VA – VB)

= 1.8 – 1.6 = 0.2 V
Final Answer: (4)

35) Explaining: Given: Circuit with real VM

Asked: Reading of VM
Concept: Resistance combination and voltage divider.
Solution:

= (4) (6) = 24V

Final Answer: (2)

36) Explaining: Given: Graph of V vs Q

Asked: The capacitance
Concept: Slope of V vs Q gives capacitance
Solution:
Form the given graphs, find the voltages, VA and VB, on capacitors A and B corresponding to
charge Q on each of the capacitors. Clearly,

and or
Since, VB > VA, CA > CB i.e., the capacitor A has the higher capacitance.
Final Answer: (1)

37)

Question Explanation: The question asks for the specific term used to describe the upper
limit of an electric field that an insulating material (dielectric) can handle before it fails and
starts conducting electricity.
Concept : Dielectrics, Electrostatics, Dielectric Breakdown, Dielectric Strength.
Solution : Every insulating material has a limit to how much electrical stress it can endure.
When the electric field exceeds a certain threshold, the electrons are ripped away from their
parent atoms, causing the insulator to become a conductor-a process known as dielectric
breakdown. The maximum electric field intensity that the material can withstand without
undergoing this breakdown is defined as its dielectric strength.

Final Answer: Option (3)

38) Question Explanation:

Determine the factors that influence the capacitor C of a capacitor system.

Concept:
C depends on physical geometry and the medium between conductors.
Solution:
Capacitance depends on the size, shape and separation of conductors (geometrical
configuration)
It also depends on the permittivity of the material between them (nature of insulator).
It is independent of the change or potential.

Final Answer: Option (4)

39) Explanation: Given: Resistive circuit with Wheatstone bridge circuit imbedded in it.
Asked: The current passing through the battery.
Concept: KVL, KCL, Ohm’s Law and balanced condition of WB.
Solution:
Simplified Diagram

Final Answer : (3)

40) Explanation: Given: meter bridge experiment conditions.

Asked: The value of x.
Concept: balanced condition of MB.
Solution:

ℓ = 40 cm

x = 3Ω
Final Answer : (1)

41) Explanation: Given: meter bridge experiment conditions.

Asked: The value of R.
Concept: balanced condition of MB.
Solution:

Initially,
Now when 'R' connected in parallel

∴ R = 2Ω
Final Answer : (1)
42) Explanation: Given: Resistive network.
Asked: the current I2 and I3 respectively.
Concept: KVL, KCL and Ohm’s Law.
Solution:

Final Answer : (2)

43) Explanation: Given: Resistance of a wire at 0 °C, 100 °C and temperature ‘t’.
Asked: The value of t.
Concept: Resistance R = R0(1 + αΔT).
Solution:
We know that
Resistance R = R0(1 + αΔT)

Taking temperature 0°C and 100°C at a time

…(i)

Taking temperature 0°C and t°C we get

[using (i)]

∴ = 475°C

Final Answer: (2)

44) Explanation: Given: A single loop circuit with practical emf source.
Asked: The emf(E) and internal resistance(r).
Concept: KVl, KCl and ohm’s Law.
Solution:

Vt = E – Ir
=10 – 1 (2)
= 8V
 Only option (1) satisfied the above equation.
Final Answer: (1)

45) Explanation: Given: A electric circuit.

Asked: The reading of the real voltmeter.
Concept: Replace VM by equivalent resistance.
Solution:

V1 = I × 400 =
=8V
Final Answer: (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Choose correct statement(s) regarding the following reaction

Concept : This question is based on oxidizing nature of
Solution :
; Cr+6 reduce to Cr+3 .
; S+4 oxidize to S+6.
Final Answer : (1)

47) Explaining : Purple-coloured of KMnO4 is due to

Concept : This question is based on Colouration of KMnO4
Solution : KMnO4 is coloured compound due to charge tranfer from O to Mn, (ligand to metal
charge transfer).
Final Answer : (2)

48) Explaining : During estimation of oxalic acid by KMnO4, self indicator is

Concept : This question is based on chemistry of KMnO4.
Solution : KMnO4 acts as self indicator.
Final Answer : (1)

49) Explaining : X and Y are :

Concept : This question is based on reactions of K2Cr2O7
 Solution : K2Cr2O7 + H+ CrO5 + H2O
(blue colour)
Final Answer : (1)

50) Explaining : Transition elements are usually characterised by variable oxidation states
but Zn does not show this property because of
Concept : This question is based on variable oxidation state of d-block metals.
Solution :
Zn doesn't show variable oxidation because of completely filled of (n – 1)d orbitals.
Final Answer : (2)

51) Explaining : Amongst the following species, maximum covalent character is exhibited by
Concept : This question is based on covalent character.
Solution :
NaCl is an ionic compound. In case of ZnCl2, CdCl2, HgCl2 down the group Zeff increases so,
covalent character increases.
Final Answer : (3)

52) Explaining : The aqueous solution of CuCrO4 is green because it contains

Concept : This question is based on colouration of coordination compound.
Solution :
When copper(II) chromate (CuCrO4) dissolves in water, it dissociates completely into its
constituent transition metal ions:

CuCrO4(s) Cu2+(aq) + (aq)

The overall green color of the solution is a result of subtractive color mixing of the
individual colors of these two ions:
Cu2+ Ions: In an aqueous solution, copper (II) ions form a hydrated complex [Cu(H2O)6]2+,
which imparts a distinct blue color.
Ions: The chromate ions are inherently yellow in color due to charge-transfer
transitions.
Final Answer : (4)

53) Explaining : The question involves identifying which of the given catalysts is incorrectly
matched with its respective industrial process. Each option lists a catalyst and the process in
which it is commonly used.
Concept : The roles of catalysts in industrial processes:
1. V2O5 in the Contact Process:

A. Correct: V2O5 is used as a catalyst in the Contact Process for the oxidation of SO2 to SO3
during sulfuric acid production.

2. CuCℓ2 in the Deacon Process:

A. Correct: CuCℓ2 is used in the Deacon Process, which converts HCℓ to C2 gas using oxygen.

3. Finely divided Fe for Hydrogenation of Vegetable Oils:

A. Incorrect: Finely divided Ni, not Fe, is used as the catalyst for the hydrogenation of vegetable
 oils to form ghee.

4. TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 in the Ziegler-Natta Process:

A. Correct: TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3 or other aluminum alkyls is used in the Ziegler-Natta process for
polymerizing olefins like ethene.

Solution :

A. The incorrectly matched option is (3) Finely divided Fe for Vegetable oil to ghee.
B. Correct catalyst: Finely divided Ni.

Final Answer: (3)

54) Explaining : The electrons which take part in order to exhibit variable oxidation states by
transition metals are
Concept : This question is based on reason for variable oxidation state d-block metals.
Solution :
The electrons which take part in order to exhibit variable oxidation states by transition metals
are ns and (n–1)d only but not np
Final Answer : (3)

55) Explaining : Metal having highest melting point :

Concept : This question is based on melting point of d-block metals.
Solution : Melting point of Cr is highest because it has highest number of unpaired electrons
available for metallic bonding.
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : In a transition series, as atomic number increases, paramagnetism.

Concept : This question is based on magnetic nature of transition elements.
Solution :
Paramagnetism first increases to a maximum till Cr as number of unpaired electrons increases
but from Mn to Zn no. of unpaired electron decreases. Hence paramagnetism decreases.
Final Answer : (3)

57) Explaining : Many transition metals form interstitial compounds. The characteristics of
these interstitial compounds are:
Concept : This question is based on interstitial compounds.
Solution : interstitial compounds are chemically inert.
Final Answer : (1)

58) Explaining : The atomic number of potassium is 19 and that of Mn (Manganese) is 25.
Although the colour of MnO4– is dark violet yet the K+ is colourless. This is due to fact that
Concept : This question is based on colouration of d-block metal compound.
Solution : KMnO4 is coloured due to The Mn with a high positive oxidation state allow charge
transfer transition.
Final Answer : (4)

59) Explaining : Each of the following ion contains vanadium in +5 oxidation state except
Concept : This question is based on oxidation state.
Solution :
: V5+
: V5+
VO2+ : V+4
[[Link]]2– : V+5
Final Answer : (3)

60) Explaining : Analyse both the statements.

Concept : This question is based on Physical properties of transition element.
Solution :
Tungsten has large number of unpaired electron. hence, metallic bonding in its quite strong.
Tungsten is a d-block transition metal element, not a covalent compound.
Final Answer : (3)

61) Explaining : Evaluate both the statements.

Concept : This question is based on d-d transition & coordination number.
Solution :
Cu+2 has a d9 configuration. The presence of unpaired electron allows for d-d transitions. In an
aqueous solution, the Cu+2 ion forms a hexa-aqua complex.
Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that :
Concept : This question is based on lanthanide contraction.
Solution : The almost identical radii of Zr & Hf, a consequence of the lanthanide contraction.
Final Answer : (1)

63) Explaining : Mischmetal is an alloy consisting mainly of :

Concept : This question is based on alloy formation.
Solution : Alloy of lanthanide with iron called mischmetal.
Final Answer : (1)

64) Explaining : Evaluate the assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on actinoid contraction.
Solution : In 5f series, left to right across the period ionic size decreases due to actinoid
contraction.
Final Answer : (4)

65) Explaining : Evaluate both the statements.

Concept : This question is based on E° value for Ce
Solution :
The E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is 1.74 eV. because the most stable oxidation state of lanthanide
series elements is +3. It means Ce3+ is more stable than Ce+4.
Final Answer : (4)
66) Explaining : Find out the correct statement for Daniell cell.
Concept : This question is based on Electrochemical cell
Solution :

The electrons flow from negative electrode (anode) to positive electrode (cathode). The
direction of current flow is opposite to that of electron flow.
Final Answer : (3)

67) Explaining : Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell? (T = 298 K)
Sn + 2Ag+ → Sn2+ + 2Ag
Concept : This question is based on Nernst Equation.
Solution :

As [Ag+]↑, log term value decreases. Thus, Ecell↑ .

Final Answer : (3)

68) Explaining : Evaluate the given statements.

Concept : This question is based on application of electrochemical series.
Solution :
In an electrolytic cell with inert electrodes, reduction occurs at the cathode. The ion with the
highest (most positive) reduction potential will be reduced (or deposited) first. Therefore, as
we increase the applied voltage, the metals will begin to deposit in the order of their reduction
potentials.
The order of reduction (deposition) will be:
First, silver (+0.80 V)
Next, mercury (+0.79 V)
Then, copper (+0.24 V)
So, Statement (I) is correct.
For magnesium, the reduction potential is very negative (–2.37 V). In aqueous solution, before
reaching such a negative potential, water will be reduced. The cathodic reaction for water
typically is:
2H2O + 2e¯ → H2 + 2OH¯
which leads to the evolution of hydrogen gas, not oxygen. (Oxygen is produced at the anode
during the oxidation of water.)
Thus, Statement (II) is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

69) Explaining : Match the terms given in Column I with the units given in Column II.
Concept : This question is based on units of electrochemical terms.
Solution :
(i) Λm → (c) S cm2 mol–1
(ii) ECell → (d) V
(iii) κ → (a) Scm–1
(iv) G* → (b) m–1
Final Answer : (3)
70) Explaining : for Daniell cell. Which of the following expressions are correct
description of state of equilibrium in this cell ?
Concept : This question is based on relation of with equilibrium constant (Kc).
Solution :
According to Nernst equation:

at Equilibrium; Ecell = 0 and Qc = Kc

∴ or
For Daniell cell ; = 1.1 V and n = 2

∴ 1.1 =
Final Answer : (2)

71) Explaining : Evaluate assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on emf of cell and cell spontaneity.
Solution :
For a cell reaction to happen naturally, its Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) must be negative
(ΔG < 0).
Since ΔG = –nFEcell, a negative ΔG means Ecell must be positive.
Ecell = Ecathode – Eanode
To get a positive Ecell value, Ecathode must be greater than Eanode (Ecathode > Eanode).
Final Answer : (3)

72) Explaining : Find molar conductance of CaCl2

Concept : This question is based on Kohlrausch’s Law
Solution :
CaCl2 = λ° Ca2+ + 2λ° Cl–
= (120 × 10–4) + 2(80 × 10–4)
= 280 × 10–4 m2 mho mol–1
Final Answer : (3)

73) Explaining : From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.
Concept : This question is based on corrosion.
Solution : Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water is not an example of corrosion.
Final Answer : (2)

74) Explaining : calculate E° of Fe3+/Fe

Concept : This question is based on standard electrode potentials using ΔG° of the reaction.
Solution :
+3 2+
e¯ + Fe → Fe E° = 0.77 V
+2
2e¯ + Fe → Fe E°= –0.44 V
3e¯ + Fe+3 →Fe E°= ?
 Final Answer : (3)

75) Explaining : Match the electrolyte solutions in Column I with their principal electrolysis
products at the respective electrodes in Column II.
Concept : This question is based on electrolysis.
Solution :

S.N Electrolyte Product obtained at anode Product obtained at cathode

(A) Molten NaCl Cl2 Na
(B) Aqueous NaCl Cl2 H2
(C) Dilute H2SO4 O2 H2
(D) Aqueous CuSO4 O2 Cu
Final Answer : (1)

76) Explaining : Evaluate assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on effect of dilution on specific and molar conductance.
Solution :
Correct Statement-2. Specific conductivity is the conductance of 1 cm3 of the solution
whereas molar conductivity is the conductance of a solution containing 1 mole of the
electrolyte.
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explain the question: Identify the correct property that defines strong electrolytes.
Concept: This question is based on electrolytes
Solution:
Strong electrolytes are substances that completely ionize or dissociate into ions when
dissolved in water. Strong electrolytes produce ions even at higher concentrations and show
nearly 100% dissociation in aqueous solution.
Final Answer: 3

78)

Explain the question: Why molten sodium chloride conducts electricity.

Concept: This question is based on electrolytes
Solution:
In the molten state, ionic compounds dissociate into free ions. These ions move under an
electric field and conduct current.
Final Answer: 2

79) Explaining : A certain current liberates 0·504 g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams
of oxygen can be liberated by the same current in the same time ?
Concept : This question is based on Faraday's Law of Electrolysis.
Solution :
Thus, if 1 mole of H2 is liberated, O2 liberated = mole

= 0·125 × 32 g = 4·0 g
Final Answer : (3)

80)

Explaining : One faraday of electricity is passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of
CuSO4 and molten NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells connected in series. The mole
ratio of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the respective cathodes is
Concept : This question is based on Faraday's Law of Electrolysis.
Solution :
Al3+ + 3e– —→ Al
Cu2+ + 2e– —→ Cu
Na+ + e– —→ Na

Thus, 1 F will deposit mol of Al, mole of Cu and 1 mole of Na. Hence, molar ratio.

= =2:3:6
Final Answer : (1)

81)

Explanation the Question: The question asks to calculate the cell EMF (Ecell) for the given
hydrogen concentration cell.
Concept: This question is based on Nernst Equation for a Concentration Cell
Solution:
Overall Reaction (n=2): 2H+(aq. 0.1M) → 2H+(aq. 0.001M)

Ecell = 0 –

Ecell = – × (–4)
Ecell = – (0.02955) × (–4)
Ecell = +0.1182 V
Final Answer : (1)

82) Explaining : A device that converts energy of combustion of fuel like hydrogen and
methane directly into electrical energy is known as :-
Concept : This question is based on Fuel cell.
Solution : Fuel cell
Final Answer : (4)

83) Explain the question : We need to find molar conductivity (Λm) if concentration and
specific conductance (K) are given.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Λm = 40 S cm2 mol–1
Final answer : (3)

84) Explaining : Which of the following expression correctly represents the equivalent

conductance at infinite dilution of Ca3 (PO4)2 Given and are the equivalent
conductance at infinite dilution of the respective ions :-
Concept : This question is based on application of Kohlrausch's Law.
Solution :
Ca3 (PO4)2 → 3Ca2+ +

∴
Final Answer : (1)

85) Explaining : How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an electrolytic cell ?
Concept : This question is based on electrochemical and electrolytic cell
Solution :
An electrochemical cell can be converted into an electrolytic cell by applying an external
potential greater than E°cell. The entire cell reaction will be reversed. The oxidised species
will be reduced and the reduced species will be oxidised.
Final Answer : (1)

86)

Explaining : A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes.
What is the mass of copper deposited at the cathode ?
Concept : This question is based on Faraday's Law of electrolysis.
Solution :
Q=I×t
= 1.5 × 10 × 60
= 900C
Reaction occuring at the cathode is :
Cu+2 + 2e– → Cu
2F = 2 × 96500 deposit 1 mole Cu(63.5g)
⇒ 900 C will deposit = 0.296 g
Final Answer : (4)
 87)

Explaining : What will occur if a block of copper metal is dropped into a beaker containing a
solution of 1M ZnSO4?
Concept : This question is based on oxidising and reducing power
Solution :
In the reaction of copper with zinc ions, zinc is more active (easily oxidised) than copper; thus,
no reaction will take place.
Final Answer : (4)

88) Question Explanation : Identify the role of lead accumulator battery during recharging

Concept: This question is based on lead accumulator (lead storage battery)

Solution: During charging, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy — the external
source drives non-spontaneous reactions. Hence, it behaves as an electrolytic cell.

Final Answer: Option 1

89) Explaining : Select the correct choice of electrolytes represented in the graph
Concept : This question is based on Kohlrausch’s Law
Solution :
Conductance of strong electrolyte solution increases linearly on dilution, however that of weak
electrolyte solution increases exponentially on dilution.
Final Answer : (3)

90) Explaining : Calculate number of faradays required to reduce 1 mol to Br¯

Concept : This question is based on faraday’s law of electrolysis
Solution :

1 mol of requires 6 mole e–, i.e., 6 faraday charge

Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91)

Chromosomal disorders are caused due to abnormalities in chromosome number or structure.

From the given list:

A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Down's syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome

These three are chromosomal disorders.

All others are Mendelian/gene disorders.
Hence, total chromosomal disorders = 3.
 92)

The inheritance of blood groups in humans (ABO system) follows specific genetic principles,
including:

A. Dominance: The IA and IB alleles are dominant over the i allele.

B. Codominance: When both IA and IB are present, they express themselves together (Blood
group AB).
C. Multiple Allelism: The gene has three alleles (IA, IB, i).

Correct Answer: (2) (a), (b), and (c)

Explanation of the Correct Answer:
Dominance (a) → IA and IB are dominant over i.
Co-dominance (b) → IA and IB expressed together in blood group AB.
Multiple Alleles (c) → Three alleles (IA, IB, i) exist for one gene.

93) Solution : The figure represents male and female Drosophila.

A. Male Drosophila has a smaller body and darker posterior abdomen.

B. Female Drosophila is larger with a lighter striped abdomen.

Therefore:
a → male Drosophila
b → female Drosophila
Final Answer : (1)

94) Explanation: The figure show artificial cross pollination (hybridisation) technique.
Concept : Mendel's experiment
Final Answer : (3)

95)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason statements
and select the correct options.
Concept: Linkage.
Solution: Assertion :- When two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same
chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-
parental type.
Reason :- This is due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes.
Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Final answer : (1)

96) Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason
statements and select the correct option.
Concept: Monohybrid cross.
Solution:
Assertion: The law of dominance is used to only one of the parental characters in al
monohybrid cross in the F1-generation.
Reason: The low of dominance explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2-generation.
So, the correct answer is : 2 Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a
 correct explanation of the assertion.
Final answer: (2)

97) Solution : Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism inherited as an autosomal

recessive trait, so Assertion (A) is correct.
However, the disease is caused due to mutation in the gene coding for the enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase, not phenylalanine oxidase. Because of this, phenylalanine
cannot be converted into tyrosine and accumulates in the body.
Therefore, Reason (R) is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

98)

Explain question : The question asks which statements are correct for the cross Tt × Tt in
pea plants
Concept : This question is based on Monohybrid cross
Explanation : In Tt × Tt
Genotypic ratio = 1TT : 2Tt : 1 tt → 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt
Phenotypic ratio = 3 tall : 1 dwarf → 75% tall 25% dwarf
Homozygous = TT + tt = 25% + 25% = 50%
Heterozygous = 50% (Tt)
Final answer : (2)

99)

Explain Question : The question asks to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1
(first filial) generation and the F2 (second filial) generation.

Concept : This question is based on History of Mendel

Solution :
His work was not supported with required data because Mendel's work was meticulously
conducted and supported by extensive experimental data gathered from his pea plant
experiments. The issue was more about the lack of understanding and acceptance of his
quantitative approach by the scientific community at the time.

Final Answer : option (2)

100) Explaining : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea varieties, 2 for each of the 7
characters.
Concept : Each character had two contrasting traits, making 14 varieties in total.
Solution : 14 plants, each pair differing in 1 contrasting trait.
Final Answer : (4)

101) Solution : Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. Queen Victoria was a carrier,
meaning she had one normal X chromosome and one haemophilic X chromosome.

A. Sons receive only one X chromosome from the mother, so some sons could inherit
 haemophilia.
B. Daughters receive one X chromosome from both parents, so not all daughters would be
carriers.
C. Her father need not necessarily have haemophilia.

Since males have only one X chromosome, X-linked recessive disorders appear more commonly in
males than females. Therefore, haemophilia would occur more in male descendants.
Final Answer : (4)

102) Solution : Mendel studied seven contrasting characters in pea plants.

A. Flower-related characters = 2
A. Flower colour
B. Flower position
B. Pod-related characters = 2
A. Pod colour
B. Pod shape
C. Seed-related characters = 2
A. Seed colour
B. Seed shape

Hence, the number of characters related to flower, pod and seed respectively are 2, 2, 2.
Final Answer : (1)

103) Solution : Law of segregation is universal.

Final Answer : (4)

104) Solution : Given map distances:

A. A–C = 30 cM
B. B–C = 20 cM
C. A–B = 50 cM
D. B–D = 10 cM
E. C–D = 30 cM

Since A–C + C–B = 30 + 20 = 50 cM, C lies between A and B.

Also, B–D = 10 cM and C–D = 30 cM, so B lies between C and D.
A ← 30 → C ← 20 → B ← 10 → D
Thus, the gene arrangement becomes: A — C — D — B
Hence, the correct arrangement is ACBD.
Final Answer : (2)

105)

Explain Question – How many recombinant plants will result from a test cross of an AaBb
plant.
Concept – This question based on linkage mapping and recombination frequency.
Solution : 1 map unit = 1% recombination
25 map unit = 25% recombination freq.
Number of recombination = Total offspring × R.f.
 =
= 500
Final Answer : (2)

106) Explain Question: The question asks to find the correct option.
Concept: Sex Determination.
Solution: A= XX females, XY males. B = XY Males, XX females. C = ZZ males, ZW females So,
the Correct answer is: 1.
Final answer: (1)

107) Solution : The chromosomal theory of inheritance combines Mendel’s principles of

inheritance with the behaviour of chromosomes during cell division.
It states that genes are located on chromosomes and chromosomes segregate and assort
independently during gamete formation, similar to Mendel’s factors.
Hence, it is the united form of knowledge of chromosomal segregation and Mendelian
principles.
Final Answer : (3)

108) Solution : Drosophila melanogaster was highly suitable for Morgan’s experiments
because it has:

A. Short life cycle (about two weeks)

B. Produces many offspring
C. Easy maintenance in laboratory
D. Distinct visible characters

A short life cycle allowed rapid observation of inheritance patterns over many generations.
Final Answer : (3)

109) Explain Question – The question asks whether the assertion and reason about
chromosome behavior and Mendel’s laws are true and correctly explained.

Concept – Chromosome Theory of Inheritance

Solution –
Assertion A: The behavior of chromosomes during cell division supports Mendel’s laws → True.
Chromosomes segregate and assort independently during meiosis, just like Mendel’s factors
(genes).
Reason R: Chromosomes and genes are present in pairs, and alleles are located on
homologous sites of homologous chromosomes → True, and this is exactly why chromosome
behavior explains Mendel’s laws.
Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Final Answer – Option 1

110) Explain Question – The question asks whether the assertion and reason about
 chromosome segregation and independent assortment in meiosis I are true and correctly
explained.
Concept : Independent Assortment in Meiosis I
Solution : Assertion (A) : During Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes segregate
independently of each other → True.
Reason (R) : This independence is due to the random alignment of homologous pairs at the
metaphase plate in Metaphase I → True, and this is the correct explanation. R correctly
explains A.
Final Answer : (1)

111) Question Explanation: Analyzing statements on genetics.

Concept: Pedigree Analysis
Solution: The Assertion is true as pedigree analysis is a graphical chart used to trace a trait
through generations. The Reason is false, as DNA is the genetic material responsible for
carrying and transmitting heritable traits.
Final Answer: (3) A is true but R is false

112) Explain Question – The question asks whether Sutton and Morgan contributed to the
chromosomal theory of inheritance and its experimental verification.
Concept – Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
Solution : Statement I is true: Sutton correlated Mendel’s laws with chromosome behavior
during meiosis and proposed the chromosomal theory.
Statement II is false: Morgan’s work with Drosophila melanogaster provided experimental
proof for Sutton’s theory, especially through linkage and recombination studies.
Final Answer : (4)

113) Solution : In the test cross AaBb × aabb, the progeny types Aabb and aaBb are more
frequent than AaBb and aabb. This indicates linkage between A and b genes and between a
and B genes in the F1 individual.
Therefore, the parental combinations must have been:

A. AAbb
B. aaBB

So, F1 becomes AaBb with linked genes in trans arrangement (Ab / aB).
Final Answer : (2)

114)

Question Explanation: The question asks what percentage of progeny will show the same
trait when an additional independent character is added to form a dihybrid cross.

Concept: Independent assortment in Mendelian crosses.

Solution:
In a monohybrid cross, a dominant trait appears in 75% of F₂.
When adding another independent character (dihybrid cross), each trait still segregates
independently.
Thus, the percentage for the original trait remains 75%.
 Final Answer: Option (2). 75%

115) When two parents are crossed in such a way that in one experiment A is used as female
and B as male, and in another experiment A is male and B is female, the cross is called a
reciprocal cross.
It is used to study the role of sex in inheritance.

116) Solution : Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder.

A. Normal man = (XY)

B. Heterozygous woman = (Xh X)

Possible sons:

A. (XY) → normal
B. (Xh Y) → haemophilic

Out of two possible sons, one is haemophilic.

Therefore, probability = = 0.5

Final Answer : (4)

117) Solution : In a dihybrid cross:

A. Gamete types produced = 4

B. Number of phenotypes in F2 = 4
C. Number of genotypes in F2 = 9

Hence, the correct sequence is 4, 4, 9.

Final Answer : (1)

118)

Father with blood group AB has genotype (IA IB).

Mother with blood group A may have genotype (IA IA) or (IA i). Possible blood groups of
children:
A, B, AB
Blood group O requires genotype (ii), but the father with AB blood group cannot provide (i)
allele.
Therefore, the child cannot have blood group O.

119)

Thalassemia is caused due to reduced synthesis of one of the globin chains, so it is a

quantitative defect in globin synthesis.
Sickle-cell anaemia occurs due to substitution of a single amino acid in β-globin chain, making
it a qualitative defect.
Hence, thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.

120) Solution : Klinefelter's syndrome –44 autosomes + XXY.

 Final Answer : (4)

121) Man with blood group O has genotype (ii).

Woman with blood group AB has genotype (IA IB). Possible offspring genotypes:

A. (IA i) → Blood group A

B. (IB i) → Blood group B

Therefore, their children can have only blood groups A and B.

122)

Question Explanation: The question asks how many gamete types a plant with a given
genotype can produce.

Concept: Number of gametes = 2n (where n = number of heterozygous gene pairs).

Solution:
Genotype: Aa Bb Dd EE
Heterozygous pairs = 3 (A, B, D)
Thus, the number of gametes = 23 = 8

Final Answer: Option (2)

123)

Question Explanation: Identifying genotypes for an intermediate phenotype.

Concept: Polygenic inheritance
Solution: Mullato skin color is an intermediate phenotype in polygenic inheritance, meaning it
results from a mix of dominant and recessive alleles. With three genes (A, B, C) controlling
skin color, each dominant allele adds a unit of 'darkness'. The darkest skin (AABBCC) has six
dominant alleles, while the lightest (aabbcc) has none. An intermediate or mullato phenotype
is produced by having three dominant and three recessive alleles.
AaBbCc, aaBBCc, AABbcc : Have three dominant alleles (A, B, C).
Final Answer: (2)

124)

Solution :

Autosomal Dominant
AA – Affected
Aa – Affected
aa – Normal
Final Answer : (2)

125)

Explain Question: The question asks that a gene that shows it's effect on more than one
character.
Concept: Pleiotropy
Solution: A gene that shows it's effect on more than one character is Pleotropic gene.
So, the correct answer is: 2. Pleotropic gene
Final answer : (2)

126)

The phenotype of a character depends on the functioning of enzymes produced by genes.

If a modified allele still produces a normal functional enzyme, the metabolic pathway remains
unaffected and the phenotype does not change.
However, a non-functional enzyme or absence of enzyme can alter the phenotype by disrupting
normal biochemical reactions.

127)

1. Asking About → Dependency for recombinants

2. Concept → Recombination α
C.O. = Crossing over
Final Answer : (1)

128)

Question Explanation: The question asks that how many maximum different alleles of a gene
are possible in a diploid organism.
Concept: Mendelism.
Solution: In a diploid organism, each individual has only two copies of each gene, so it can
carry a maximum of two different alleles.
So, the correct answer is: 2. Two.
Final answer : (2)

129)

Question Explanatin: The question asks to fill the blanks with the correct option.
Concept: Sickle cell anaemia/ β-thalassemia
Solution: Sickle cell anemia and β-thalassemia disease are ..Qualitative ... and
...Quantitative... defects concerning β-globin.
So, the correct answer is: 1. Qualitative ; quantitative
Final answer : (1)
130) Question Explanation: The question asks to predict the mode of inheritance (autosomal
recessive, autosomal dominant, or sex-linked) based on a pedigree chart.
Concept: Human genetics : Pedigree
Solution:

Affected offspring from unaffected parents: This is the most prominent clue. Recessive traits
can "hide" in carriers (heterozygotes) and then reappear when two carriers have a child
together.
Trait often skips generations: This is related to the first point. The trait seems to disappear and
then reappear later in the pedigree.
Final answer: (2)

131)

(i) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden pea plants for about seven years —
correct.
(ii) Green seed colour is dominant — incorrect; yellow seed colour is dominant over green.
(iii) All F1 progeny were tall in a cross between pure tall and dwarf plants — correct.
(iv) Both parental traits were expressed in F1 generation — incorrect; only dominant trait
appeared in F1.
Therefore, only two statements are correct.

132)

Question Explanation: The question asks the correctness of Assertion–Reason statements.

Concept: Independent assortment & gene linkage.

Solution:
Assertion (A): False — Mendel’s law of independent assortment does hold for genes on
different chromosomes.
Reason (R): True — Genes that are close together on the same chromosome do not assort
independently.

Thus, A is wrong and R is correct.

Final Answer : (4)

133)

Explain Question:
The question asks in analyse the given assertion and reason statements and select the correct
option.

Concept:
Monohybrid Cross.
Solution:
Assertion(A): Law of segregation can be studied by monohybrid cross.
Reason (R): The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental
characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
So, the correct answer is :1

Final answer: Option (1)

134)

Question Explanation : Match the terms in Column I with their correct meanings in Column
II: alleles, genes, genotype and phenotype. In other words — identify which definition
corresponds to each term.

Concept : Mendelian/genetics terminology

Solution : Gene
gene as the basic unit of heredity — a segment of DNA on a chromosome that controls a
specific character. → matches (i).

Allele
alleles as alternate (slightly different) forms of the same gene that occupy the same locus on
homologous chromosomes (for example, A and a). → matches (ii).

Genotype
Genotype is the genetic constitution of an organism for a particular character (the allelic
combination, e.g., AA, Aa or aa). It is the information carried in genes. → matches (iii).

Phenotype
Phenotype is the morphological appearance or observable expression of a character (what you
see — tall/short, red/white flowers etc.), resulting from the genotype plus environment. →
matches (iv).

Final answer : Option 2 — a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

135) Question Explanation: Match each cross type (monohybrid, dihybrid, trihybrid) with the
correct number of genotypes and phenotypes produced (typical F₂ ratios with simple
dominance and independent assortment).
Concept: Mendelian crosses — Number of genotypes and phenotypes in F2 (Monohybrid /
Dihybrid / Trihybrid)
Explanation : A (Monohybrid) → III (3) ; phenotype → (3) (2)
B (Dihybrid) → I (9) ; phenotype → (2) (4)
C (Trihybrid) → II (27) ; phenotype → (1) (8)
Final answer : (1)

136) Solution : Statement-A is correct because Mendel proposed that inheritance is

controlled by discrete units called factors (genes), but he could not physically demonstrate
them.
Statement-B is incorrect because in snapdragon, flower colour shows incomplete
dominance. A cross between red and pink flowers produces red and pink flowers in the ratio 1
: 1.
Final Answer : (3)

137) Question explanation: This question asks about the results of Mendel’s monohybrid
cross and whether the traits showed blending or remained distinct.
Concept: Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance – Law of Dominance (Monohybrid Cross).
Solution: Statement I: Correct – Mendel observed no blending of contrasting traits (e.g., tall
× dwarf → all tall in F₁).
Statement II: Correct – All F₁ plants were tall, not intermediate in height, proving complete
dominance.
Final Answer : (1)

138)

Explain Question : The question asks to select incorrect statement for the monohybrid
mendelian Cross.
Concept : Monohybrid Cross.
Solution : In Monohybrid mendelian Cross offspring show inheritance of single gene.
So, the incorrect statement is : 4
Final answer : (4)

139)

Explain Question: The question asks to select the correct Statement and choose the correct
option.
Concept : Monohybrid Cross.
Solution : The correct statement is: C. Emasculation of bisexual flower is required.
So, the correct answer is: 3
Final Answer : (3)

140) Explaining : (a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population & is
generally dominant.
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs → ✅
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele → ✅ (mutations often cause recessiveness).
(d) F₁ plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel’s experiments → ✅
Final Answer : (3)

141)

Question Explanation: Identifying correct statements about Mendel's work and genetic
principles.

Concept: Mendelian Genetics.

 Solution:

A. (A) is correct: Mendel's large sample sizes provided strong evidence for his conclusions.
B. (B) is correct: He used 14 true-breeding varieties (2 for each of the 7 traits he studied).
C. (C) is correct: A Punnett square is a tool to predict the genotypic outcomes of a cross.
D. (D) is incorrect: The non-blending of traits and their reappearance in the F2 generation is the
basis for the Law of Segregation, not the Law of Dominance.

Final Answer : (3)

142)

Explanation:

A. A (Rr × Rr): This is a monohybrid cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
B. B (Rr × rr): This is a monohybrid test cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1.
C. C (RrYy × RrYy): This is a dihybrid cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.
D. D (RrYy × rryy): This is a dihybrid test cross involving heterozygous and homozygous
recessive individuals, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1:1:1.

So, the correct combination is A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 3.

143) Explain Question: Match Column I and Column II and select the correct option.
Concept: Mendelism ( Genetics)
Solution:

A. Incomplete Dominance. (ii) Snapdragon

B. Co dominance. (iii) Different types of sugar
C. Pleiotropy (iv) Mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme.
D. Polygenic inheritance. (i) Quantitative character

Final answer: (2)

144) Asking About : Pedigree symbol match

Concept : Family tree represented by symbols

Solution / Explanation :

→ Mating,

→ Five unaffected offspring

Hence, option (2) is correct.

145) Solution : A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

A. Down's syndrome III. 21st chromosome

B. α-Thalassemia IV. 16th chromosome

 C. β-Thalassemia I. 11th chromosome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome II. 'X' chromosome

Final Answer : (3)

146) Explain Question: The question asks to find out which of the given options belongs to
blood group A, B, AB and O.
Concept: Blood groups ( Multiple alleles).
Solution: The correct blood groups are :
A: I, III B: V,VI AB: II,IV O: VII
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Final answer: (1)

147) Solution : a–(iv), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(ii)

Chromosomal theory of inheritance → proposed by Sutton and Boveri.
Principles of inheritance → given by Gregor Mendel.
Rediscovery of Mendelian principles → done by Carl Correns, Hugo de Vries and Erich von
Tschermak.
Chromosomal map → prepared by Alfred Sturtevant.

148) Explain Question: The question asks to match Column I with Column II.
Concept: Sex Determination.
Solution:

A. XX – XO → (b) Grasshopper.
B. ZW – ZZ → (a) Birds.
C. XX – XY → (c) Humans.
D. Haploid Diploid mechanism. → (d) Honey Bee.

So, the correct answer is: 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – d

Final answer: (1)

149) Consanguineous mating → represented by double line mating symbol.

Affected female → represented by shaded circle.
Mating → represented by single horizontal line.
Parents with male child unaffected → represented by normal square connected below parents.
Sex unspecified → represented by diamond shape.
Thus, the correct matching is: a–3, b–1, c–6, d–5, e–4.

150) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) correctly explains (A) because haemophilia is
X-linked, and this explains why a father cannot pass the gene to his sons.

151)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason statements
and select the correct option.
Concept: Sex Determination.
Solution: Assertion : Honey bee have haplo-diploid sex-determination system.
Reason : Male honey bee are diploid having 32 chromosomes and Female are haploid i.e.,
having 16 chromosomes.
Honey bees follow a haplo-diploid sex-determination system.
Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
So, the correct answer is: 3.
Final answer : (3)

152)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason statements
and select the correct option.
Concept: This question is based on Incomplete Dominance.
Solution: Assertion (A): Incomplete dominance results in a phenotype that resembles neither
of the parents.
Reason (R): In incomplete dominance, the F1 generation shows blending of traits.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Final answer: 1

153) Aa Bb CC DD
2 × 2 × 1 × 1 = 4 types of gametes

154)

The correct answer is : 2. 50 : 50

Explanation: In this cross, the heterozygous yellow-seeded plant (Yy) is crossed with a green-
seeded plant (yy). The possible offspring will inherit one allele from each parent. The ratio of
yellow-seeded (Yy) to green-seeded (yy) plants in the F1 generation will be 50:50.

155)

Explain Question: The question asks that which type of gametes are produced by TTRrYy.

Concept: Gamete Formation.

Solution:

The types of gametes produced are: TRY, TRy, TrY, Try

So, the Correct answer is: 2.

Final answer: 2.

156)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements about phenotype and genotype
are correct.
Concept: Phenotype–genotype relationship.
Solution: (a) True — phenotype is external expression of genes.
(b) True — the same phenotype can arise from different genotypes.
(c) False — different phenotypes do not usually have similar genotypes.
(d) False — environment does influence phenotype.
(e) False — phenocopy = same phenotype, different genotype.
Correct statements = a & b
Final Answer : (4)

157) Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement about
Mendelian genetics.
Concept: Mendelian Principles – Test Cross, Independent Assortment, True Breeding
Solution: 1. Correct – Test cross is used to determine the genotype of a dominant phenotype.
2. Incorrect – Not all Non-allelic genes show independent assortment; Independent
assortment applies only to genes located on different chromosomes or those far apart on the
same chromosome.
3. Correct – True breeding lines give only one phenotype on selfing.
4. Correct – Mendel worked on Garden pea.
Final Answer : (2)

158) Explain Question: The question asks to find the correct statements.
Concept: Dihybrid Cross.
Solution: The correct statements are;
(C) In dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed size in garden peas, 50% of the F2 progeny have
intermediate size starch grain in seed.
(D) The result of dihybrid cross formed the basis of Mendel's postulate of independent
assortment.
So, the correct answer is: 3. Two.
Final answer : (3)

159) Explain Question - The question asks which statements about inheritance patterns
(incomplete dominance, codominance, pleiotropy) are correct.

Concept - incomplete dominance, codominance, pleiotropy

Solution -
(A) Incorrect → ratio is 1:2:1, not 3:1.
(B) Correct → codominance shows both parental traits.
(C) Correct → starch grain size is incomplete dominance.
(D) Incorrect → pleiotropy means one gene → multiple phenotypes.

Final Answer - Option 2

160) Explain Question: The question asks about the correct statement for colourbilndess.
Concept: Colourblindness.
Solution: The correct statement is:
3. The son of a carrier women has a 50% chance of being colourblind.
So, the correct answer is:3
Final answer: (3)
 161) Explain: Given: boy is colour blind. sister is normal and carrier.
Concept – This question based on X- linked recessive inheritance.
Solution:
(i) Mother father
(XcX) (XY)
↓
Boy (XcY)
Both phenotypically normal (100%)
(ii) Colour blind Son , mother have (XC) her genotype = XC X (carrier) (100% chances)
(iii) Carrier mother (XcX) and normal father (XY).

XC X
X XCX XX
Y XCY XY
Son: 50% Normal
50% Colour blind
Final Answer : (2)

162) Explain Question: Question asks about the correctness of an assertion and its reason
related to Morgan’s work on Drosophila melanogaster.

Concept:Chromosomal theory of inheritance

Solution:Assertion (A) is true because Morgan worked on Drosophila melanogaster.

Reason (R) is false because the life cycle of Drosophila is about 2 weeks, not 2 months.

Final answer: Option 3

163)

In complete linkage, all three genes remain together on the same chromosome and are
inherited as a single unit without recombination. Therefore:

A. New combinations are not produced ❌

B. A trihybrid plant with complete linkage produces only parental type gametes ✅
C. Hence, only two types of gametes are formed ✅

The statements about 1:1 phenotypic ratio and 3:1 genotypic ratio are incorrect.
Therefore, only statement (d) is correct.

164) Explain Question – The question asks which statement among the given options is
incorrect.
Concept – Dominance, codominance, dihybrid ratio, and polygenic inheritance (skin colour).
Solution : Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene → Correct (depends on context
of alleles).
In case of co-dominance the F1 generation resembled either of the two parents → Incorrect,
because in codominance F1 resembles both parents simultaneously (e.g., AB blood group).
Phenotypic ratio in dihybrid cross is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 → Correct.
In Human skin colour seven types of phenotype are formed → Correct (polygenic inheritance).
 Final Answer : (2)

165) Question Explanation : Identify how many of them were dominant traits used by
Mendel in his experiments.
Concept : Mendel’s Seven Contrasting Traits – Dominant vs Recessive
Solution : Mendel studied 7 pairs of contrasting traits. Their dominant traits are:
Round seeds, Yellow seeds, Violet (purple) flowers, Axial flowers, Green pods, Inflated pods,
Tall plant
Final answer : (4)

166) Explain Question – The question asks how many of the given traits are examples of
codominance according to genetics.
Concept – Codominance
Solution : (A) O blood group → Not codominance (O is recessive).
(B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier → Codominance (both normal HbA and mutant HbS expressed).
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant → Incomplete dominance, not codominance.
(D) Seed shape → Mendelian dominance, not codominance.
(E) Coat colour in cattle → Codominance (roan coat shows both red and white).
So, codominance examples = (B) and (E).
Final Answer : (2)

167) Solution : Pedigree analysis is mainly used to study inheritance patterns of genetic
disorders passed from parents to offspring.
Applicable disorders from the given list are :

A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Albinism
C. Haemophilia
D. Color Blindness
E. Phenylketonuria

Turner syndrome and Down syndrome are chromosomal disorders and are generally analysed
through karyotype analysis.
Therefore, pedigree analysis is applicable for 5 disorders.
Final Answer : (3)

168) Solution : Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males
have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas females have a pair of X-
chromosomes.
Final Answer : (2)

169) Solution : Mendel crossed the tall plant from F₂ with a dwarf plant to determine its
genotype, calling it a test cross. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to
predict the genotype of the test organism.
Final Answer : (1)

170) Solution : Co-dominance is when the F1 generation resembles both parents. In ABO
blood groups, when IA and IB are present together, they both express their own types of sugars
due to co-dominance.
Final Answer : (1)

171) Solution : Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a
quantitative problem of synthesising too few globin molecules while the latter is a qualitative
problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin.
Final Answer : (1)

172) Solution : Mendel published his work in 1865, and it remained unrecognised until 1900
when three scientists (de Vries, Correns, and von Tschermak) independently rediscovered it.
Final Answer : (1)

173) = mating between relatives

174) In the F₂ generation, the proportion of plants that were dwarf was 1/4th, while 3/4th of
the plants were tall, giving a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.

175) In Snapdragon, the F₂ genotypic ratio is 1 (RR) : 2 (Rr) : 1 (rr), which is exactly the same
as the expected Mendelian monohybrid genotypic ratio.

176) Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males have only
one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes.

177) Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the beta globin chain to cause sickle-cell
anaemia.

178) Genes on the same chromosome do not always assort independently; they show linkage.
Morgan observed that linked genes have a higher proportion of parental combinations.

179) A pleiotropic gene exhibits multiple phenotypic expressions. Phenylketonuria is caused by

a single gene mutation but results in multiple phenotypic symptoms like mental retardation
and reduced pigmentation.

180) Since females produce only X-bearing ova, the fertilization by either an X-bearing sperm
(resulting in a female) or a Y-bearing sperm (resulting in a male) determines the sex of the
offspring.