READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Candidate’s Name: ___________________________________________________

Mobile Number: _____________________________________________________

CBL Roll Number: ___________________________________________________

OMR Sheet Number: _________________________________________________

Full Length Test 8

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff.
However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently
fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR
sheet. Use of ink Pen or any other Pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. There are 100 questions in this question booklet.
5. Each candidate is required to attempt 100 questions in 120 minutes, by marking correct responses
on the OMR sheet.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and
there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the
candidate should immediately bring this fact to the notice of the invigilation Staff and obtain a new
booklet.
7. The Paper consists of total 100 Marks. Each question shall carry 1 mark. There are four options
for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR
response sheet.
8. There is NEGATIVE MARKING (0.25) mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

1) Consider the following statements – • An overall improvement in health and
1. Stationary population pyramids are sanitation throughout the country brought
characterized by their more rectangular down the mortality rate.
shape which indicate that the population is • The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the
not growing. period of population explosion in India, which
2. Expansive population pyramids was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate
characterized by an obvious triangular but a high fertility rate of population in the
shape, with a broad base that tapers country.
toward a narrow top. • Post 1981 till the present, the growth rate of the
3. Inverted population pyramid describes low country’s population though remained high,
fertility rate and high life expectancy. started slowing down gradually.

Choose the correct statement/statements – 3) Consider the following statements –

(A) 1 and 2 only 1. India’s population grew by 17.7 per cent

(B) 2 and 3 only during 2001-11.
(C) 1 and 3 only 2. Among the major states, highest decadal
(D) All of the above growth in population has been recorded in
Bihar.
Ans. D 3. Uttar Pradesh is the top populous state in
• All of the above statements are correct. India.
Choose the correct statement/statements –
2) Consider the following Phases of Population (A) 1 and 2 only
Growth in India- (B) 2 and 3 only
1. The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as (C) 1 and 3 only
a period of stagnant or stationary phase of (D) All of the above
growth of India’s population.
Ans. D
2. The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as
the period of population explosion in India. 4) Consider the following statements –
3. The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as 1. Least populous state according to census
the period of steady population growth. 2011 is Sikkim.
Choose the correct statement/statements – 2. Least populous state according to census
2011 is Lakshadweep.
(A) 1 and 2 only
3. Highest urban population is found in
(B) 2 and 3 only
Maharashtra.
(C) 1 and 3 only
4. Highest rural population is found in Uttar
(D) All of the above
Pradesh.
Ans. D
Choose the correct code –
• The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
period of stagnant or stationary phase of (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
growth of India’s population, since in this (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
period growth rate was very low, even (D) All of the above
recording a negative growth rate during 1911-
1921 (– 0.03%) due to the influenza epidemic Ans. D
during 1918–19 which killed about 12.5 million
persons or 5% of the total population of India
at that time.
• The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the
period of steady population growth.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

5) Consider the following statements according to and Kashmir (862), Rajasthan (888) and
census 2011- Gujarat (890).
1. Lowest literacy rate is in Bihar. 7) Which of the following languages are the part
2. The density of population in the country has of “Classical languages in India”-
also increased from 325 in 2001 to 382 in
1. Tamil
2011 in per sq km.
2. Hindi
3. The minimum population density works out
3. Sanskrit
in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Malayalam
Choose the correct statement/statements – 5. Odia
(A) 1 and 2 only Choose the correct code –
(B) 2 and 3 only
(A) 1,2,3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2,3,4 and 5 only
(D) All of the above
(C) 1,3,4 and 5 only
Ans. D (D) All of the above
• The density of population in the country has Ans. C
also increased from 325 in 2001 to 382 in 2011
• Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu,
in per sq km. Among the major states, Bihar
Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have
occupies the first position with a density of
been given the status of classical language.
1106, surpassing West Bengal which occupied
the first position during 2001. 8) Consider the following statements-
• Delhi (11,320) turns out to be the most densely 1. According to Article 246 of the Indian
inhabited followed by Chandigarh (9,258), Constitution, The census of the population
among all states and UT’s, both in 2001 and is a Union subject.
2011 Census. The minimum population density 2. The provision of “The Census Act of 1948”
works out in Arunachal Pradesh (17) for both governs how the census is carried out.
2001 and 2011 Census. 3. Office of the Registrar General and Census
6) Consider the following statements - Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home
Affairs is responsible to conduct decadal
1. The sex ratio of population in the country in
census.
2011 stands at 940 female against 1000
males. Choose the incorrect statement/statements –
2. The number of females per 1000 males in (A) 1 and 2 only
Haryana in 2011 stands at 879. (B) 2 and 3 only
3. The worst performing state in regard to sex (C) None of the above
ratio in the age group of 0 to 6 years is (D) All of the above
Haryana.
Ans. C
Choose the correct statement/statements –
• All of the above statements are correct.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only 9) Which of the following ports are under the
(C) 1 and 3 only category of “Major Ports”
(D) All of the above 1. Kolkata port
Ans. D 2. Paradip port
3. Vadhavan port
• The worst performing states in regard to sex 4. Kandla port
ration in the age group of 0 to 6 years are
Haryana (834 females), Punjab (846), Jammu Choose the correct code –

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 (A) 1,2 and 3 only • National Waterway 5
(B) 2,3 and 4 only • It connects Orissa to West Bengal using the
(C) 1,3 and 4 only stretch on Brahmani River, East Coast Canal,
(D) All of the above Matai river, and Mahanadi River Delta.
Ans. D • National waterway 6
• It is the proposed waterway in Assam state and
• Major ports in India. will connect Lakhipur to Bhanga in river Barak.
1. Kolkata Port 11) Consider the following statements –
2. Paradip Port
3. New Mangalore Port 1. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor
4. Cochin Port (EDFC) starts at Ludhiana in Punjab and
5. Jawaharlal Nehru Port ends at Dankuni in West Bengal.
6. Vadhavan Port. 2. Western Dedicated Freight Corridor
7. Mumbai Port. (WDFC) starts at Dadri in Uttar Pradesh to
8. Kandla Port. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust in Mumbai.
9. Vishakhapatnam Port. 3. The longest rail route in India is from
10. Chennai Port Dibrugarh in Assam to Kanyakumari in
11. Tuticorin port Tamil Nadu.
12. Ennore port Choose the correct code –
13. Mormugao port
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
10) Match the following – (C) 3 only
(D) All of the above
1. National waterways – 1:Dhubri to Sadiya
2. National waterways– 2:Allahabad to Haldia Ans. D
3. National waterways–4:Kollam to • All of the above statements are correct.
Kottapuram
12) Consider the following statements –
Choose the incorrect code –
1. India is the second largest producer of silk
(A) 1 and 2 only in the world after China.
(B) 2 only 2. India Produced mainly Tasar silk.
(C) 3 only 3. Mulberry silk is produced extensively in the
(D) All of the above states of Karnataka, West Bengal and
Ans. D Jammu & Kashmir.

• National Waterways 1 or NW1 Choose the correct code –

• It starts from Allahabad(Prayagraj) to Haldia (A) 1 and 2 only
with a distance of 1620 km. (B) 2 only
• National Waterways 2 (C) 1 and 3 only
• It is a stretch on the Brahmaputra river from (D) All of the above
Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam state.
Ans. C
• National waterways 3 or the West Coast Canal
• It is located in Kerala state and runs from • The major activities of sericulture comprise of
Kollam to Kottapuram. food-plant cultivation to feed the silkworms
• National Waterway 4 which spin silk cocoons and reeling the
• It is connected from Kakinada to Pondicherry cocoons for unwinding the silk filament for
through Canals, Tank, and River Godavari value-added benefits such as processing and
along with Krishna river. weaving.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

• India is the second largest producer of silk in 15) Match the following –
the world after China. 1. Ruhr Valley : Iron and steel industries..
• India has the distinction of producing all the 2. Valdivostok : Ship building
four types of silk i.e. (a) Mulberry silk (91.7%); 3. Shanghai : Cotton textiles
(b) Tasar silk (1.4%); (c) Eri silk (6.4%); and (d) 4. Ottawa : Paper industry
Muga silk (.5%) which are produced by
different species of silkworms. Choose the correct code –
• Mulberry silk is produced extensively in the (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
states of Karnataka, West Bengal and Jammu (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
& Kashmir. (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
• Similarly, Tasar silk worms are reared (D) All of the above
traditionally by the tribes of Madhya Pradesh,
Ans. D
Bihar, Orissa and Jharkhand; Muga and Eri silk
are produced exclusively in Assam. The food 16) Match the following –
plant of silkworms is Mulberry for producing 1. Milpa : Mexico
Mulberry silk. 2. Roca : Brazil
13) Consider the following statements – 3. Ladang : Vietnam
4. Ray : Indonesia
1. The United States is the world’s largest
locomotive producer. Choose the correct code –
2. Lorraine region of France is known for its (A) 1,2 and 3 only
iron and steel industry. (B) 2,3 and 4 only
3. The greatest automobile manufacturing (C) 1 only
region of the USA, centred at Detroit. (D) All of the above
Choose the correct code –
Ans. C
(A) 1 and 2 only
• ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America
(B) 2 only
• ‘Conuco’ in Venzuela,
(C) 1 and 3 only
• ‘Roca’ in Brazil,
(D) All of the above
• ‘Masole’ in Central Africa,
Ans. D • ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia,
• All of the above statements are correct. • ‘Ray’ in Vietnam
In INDIA –
14) Match the following –
• ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh,
1. Dalian : China • ‘Podu’ or ‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh,
2. Sao Paulo : Brazil • ‘Pama Dabi’ or ‘Koman’ or Bringa’ in Odisha,
3. Kwanto : Japan • ‘Kumari’ in Western Ghats,
4. Milan : Italy • ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in South-eastern Rajasthan,
Choose the correct code – • ‘Khil’ in the Himalayan belt,
• ‘Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand, and
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only • ‘Jhumming’ in the North-eastern region.
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
• All are the important industrial centres of
respective countries.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

17) Consider the following statements – 1. Biomagnification is the process by which
substances become more concentrated in
1. Intensive subsistence farming is practised
the bodies of consumers as one moves up
in areas of high population pressure on
the food chain.
land.
2. Bioaccumulation occurs within a trophic
2. When same plant gives more than one
level, and is the increase in concentration
cycle of output, we call it plantation
of a substance in certain tissues.
agriculture.
3. Monoculture is one of the characteristics of Choose the incorrect code –
Commercial farming.
(A) 1 only
Choose the correct code – (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(A) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only Ans. D
(D) All of the above
• Both of the above statements are correct.
Ans. D
19) Which of the following biosphere reserves of
• Intensive Subsistence Farming India have been recognized internationally
o This type of farming is practised in under Man and Biosphere Reserve program –
areas of high population pressure on
1. Gulf of Mannar
land.
2. Sunderban
o It is labour intensive farming, where
3. Nanda Devi
high doses of bio-chemical inputs and
4. Nokrek
basic irrigation are used for obtaining
5. Pachmarhi
higher production.
o More draught animals, hence more Choose the correct code –
domestication of animals. (A) 1,2,3 and 4 only
o Soil nutrient management by mulching (B) 2,3,4 and 5 only
and channels/furrows. (C) 1,2,3 and 5 only
(D) All of the above
• Plantation agriculture
o When same plant gives more than one Ans. D
cycle of output, we call it plantation. There are total 12 biosphere reserves of India
o Plantation is also a type of commercial which have been recognized internationally under
farming. In this type of farming, a single Man and Biosphere Reserve program:
crop is grown on a large area.
1. Nilgiri (First to be included)
o The plantation has an interface of 2. Gulf of Mannar
agriculture and industry. 3. Sunderban
o Plantations cover large tracts of land, 4. Nanda Devi
using capital intensive inputs, with the 5. Nokrek
help of migrant labourers. 6. Pachmarhi
o All the produce is used as raw material 7. Similipal
8. Achanakmar - Amarkantak
in respective industries.
9. Great Nicobar
o Capital intensive agriculture. 10. Agasthyamala
o Labour intensive agriculture and also 11. Khangchendzonga
can not be mechanized. 12. Panna biosphere reserve (Latest)

18) Consider the following statements –

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

20) Match the following mathematicians , Hugo Duminil-Copin , June
Huh , James Maynard received the prestigious
1. Bedouin : Arabs
Fields Medals.
2. Tuaregs : Sahara
3. Bushmen : Kalahari • Fields medal is often described as the Nobel
Prize in mathematics.
Choose the correct code – • The Fields Medal is awarded every four years
(A) 1 and 2 only to one or more mathematicians under the age
(B) 2 and 3 only of 40.
(C) 1 and 3 only • Fields Medal is awarded at the International
(D) All of the above Congress of the International Mathematical
Union (IMU).
Ans. D
• There are two of Indian origin:
• All of the above matched tribes are correctly • Akshay Venkatesh of the Institute for
matched. Advanced Study at Princeton (2018)
21) Match the following • Manjul Bhargava of the Department of
Mathematics at Princeton University (2014).
1. Pustaz : Hungary and surrounding
regions 23) Consider the following statements regarding
2. Prairies : North America “Global gender gap index 2022”
3. Pampas : Argentina and Uruguay 1. It is released by WEF (World Economic
4. Bush-veld : Northern South Africa Forum).
Choose the correct code – 2. India is ranked at 135 out of 146 countries.
3. Iceland topped the index.
(A) 1,2 and 3 only
(B) 2,3 and 4 only Choose the correct statement/statements-
(C) 1,3 and 4 only (A) 1 and 2 only
(D) All of the above (B) 2 and 3 only
Ans. D (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
• These are the temperate grasslands in the
respective countries. Ans. D

22) Consider the following statements regarding • Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF)
“Field Medal”- ranked India at 135 out of 146 countries in its
Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for 2022.
1. It is often described as the Nobel Prize in • India’s overall score has improved from 0.625
mathematics. (in 2021) to 0.629, which is its seventh-highest
2. It is awarded every four years to one or score in the last 16 years.
more mathematicians under the age of 40.
• In 2021, India was ranked 140 out of 156
3. Till now, no Indians have received this countries.
prize.
• Iceland has retained its position as the world’s
Choose the correct statement/statements- most gender-equal country, among 146
nations on the index.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only • Finland, Norway, New Zealand and Sweden
(C) 1 and 3 only are the top five countries on the list
(D) All of the above respectively.
• Afghanistan is the worst-performing country in
Ans. A the report.
• Recently, Ukrainian mathematician Maryna
Viazovska along with other three

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

• Overall GGG is closed by 68.1%. At the current environmental health and sustainability of
rate of progress, it will take 132 years to reach countries.
full parity. • The EPI, a biennial index, was started in 2002
as Environmental Sustainability Index by the
24) Consider the following statements regarding
World Economic Forum in collaboration with
“Dragon Fruit”-
the Yale Center for Environmental Law and
1. Mizoram tops among the States that Policy and the Columbia University Center for
cultivate this fruit. International Earth Science Information
2. The fruit is native to India. Network.
3. The world’s largest producer and exporter • The 2022 EPI leverages 40 performance
of dragon fruit is Vietnam. indicators grouped into 11 issue categories.
Choose the correct statement/statements- • These issue categories are in turn aggregated
into 3 policy objectives:
(A) 1 and 2 only
• Environmental Health, Ecosystem Vitality,
(B) 2 and 3 only
Climate Change.
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above 26) Consider the following statements regarding
“NIPUN Scheme” –
Ans. C
1. The scheme is launched by “Ministry of
• Recently, the Centre has decided to promote
housing and Urban Affairs”.
the growth of dragon fruit, which is recognized
2. The objective is to train construction
as a "super fruit" for its health advantages.
workers, through fresh skilling and
• The plant is native to southern Mexico and
upskilling programmes.
Central America. Today, it is grown all over the
3. The initiative is under the National urban
world.
livelihood mission.
• At the moment, Mizoram tops among the
States that cultivate this fruit. Choose the correct statement/statements-
• The world’s largest producer and exporter of (A) 1 and 2 only
dragon fruit is Vietnam, where the plant was (B) 2 and 3 only
brought by the French in the 19th century (C) 1 and 3 only
25) Consider the following statements regarding (D) All of the above
“Environment Performance Index 2022”- Ans. D
1. India is ranked lowest among 180 • The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
countries. launched an innovative project National
2. The index is topped by Sweden. Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman
3. It has been published by the Yale Center workers (NIPUN).
for Environmental Law and Policy and the • NIPUN is an initiative under the Deendayal
Center for International Earth Science Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods
Information Network. Mission DAY-NULM to train over one lakh
Choose the correct statement/statements – construction workers, through fresh skilling and
upskilling programmes.
(A) 1 and 2 only
• The initiative aims at creating a future labour
(B) 2 and 3 only
force for the construction industry which will
(C) 1 and 3 only
propel innovation and large-scale development
(D) All of the above
in the country.
Ans. C
• The Environment Performance Index (EPI) is
an international ranking system that measures

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

27) Consider the following statements- (D) All of the above
1. Liquid mirror telescope has been Ans. A
commissioned in India at Devasthal
• The 26th Commonwealth Heads of
Observatory Campus, Nainital in
Government Meeting (CHOGM) was hosted by
Uttarakhand.
Rwanda on June 24-25 at its capital city, Kigali.
2. Liquid mirror telescope is indigenously
• The Meeting, held every two years, had earlier
developed by India.
been postponed twice due to Covid-19
3. Japan’s ‘Fugaku’ has become the world’s
Pandemic.
fastest computer.
• The theme for the 2022 meeting was
Choose the correct statement/statements- ‘Delivering a common future: Connecting,
(A) 1 and 2 only innovating, transforming’.
(B) 2 and 3 only • The Commonwealth is a free association of
(C) 1 and 3 only sovereign states made up of the UK and many
(D) All of the above of its former dependencies.
• Although now any country can join the group.
Ans. A
The Queen of the UK is the formal head of the
• A US-built supercomputer titled ‘Frontier’ Group.
dethroned Japan’s ‘Fugaku’ as the world’s • It currently has 56 members.
fastest computer that achieved a computing
speed of 1.1 Exaflops (EXA FLoating point
29) Consider the following statements regarding
OPerations per Second).
“Tiangong space station”
• A unique Liquid-Mirror Telescope has been
commissioned in India at Devasthal 1. This is the initiatives of Japan.
Observatory Campus, Nainital in Uttarakhand. 2. It will be placed in low Earth orbit between
• It is the only liquid mirror telescope that is 340 and 450 kilometers above the earth.
operational anywhere in the world. 3. It will be sent to designated orbit by the
• Located at an altitude of 2450 metres, the Shenzhou-14 spacecraft.
telescope will keep a close watch on the skies Choose the correct statement/statements -
overhead to identify transient or variable
(A) 1 and 2 only
objects such as asteroids, space debris,
(B) 2 and 3 only
supernovae, and gravitational lenses.
(C) 1 and 3 only
• The major instrumentation funding for the
(D) All of the above
telescope has been jointly provided by Belgium
and Canada while India is responsible for the Ans. B
operations and the upkeep of the telescope. • Recently, China’s strategically significant
• It is a stationary telescope. space station project entered the final phase as
28) Consider the following statements regarding three astronauts entered the orbiting module of
“Commonwealth Heads of Government the Tiangong Space Station.
Meeting (CHOGM)”- • They were launched into the designated orbit
by the Shenzhou-14 spacecraft.
1. The meeting for 2022 was held in Rwanda.
• A space station is a spacecraft capable of
2. It currently has 56 members.
supporting crew members, designed to remain
3. The meeting is held every year.
in space for an extended period of time and for
Choose the correct statement/statements – other spacecraft to dock.
(A) 1 and 2 only • The Tiangong space station is a Chinese
(B) 2 and 3 only space station being built in low Earth orbit
(C) 1 and 3 only

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 between 340 and 450 kilometers above the • India was ranked 121 out of the 163 countries.
earth. It was ranked 117 in 2020 and 120 in 2021.
• China is going to operationalize its new • It is a global assessment of countries' progress
Tiangong multi-module space station for at towards achieving the Sustainable
least ten years. Development Goals.
• It is published by a group of independent
30) Which of the following countries are the experts at the Sustainable Development
members of “Partners in blue pacific”– Solutions Network (SDSN).
• The 2022 SDG Index is topped by Finland,
1. USA followed by three Nordic countries –Denmark,
2. Russia Sweden and Norway.
3. Japan • East and South Asia is the region that
4. United Kingdom progressed most on the SDGs since their
Choose the correct statement/statements- adoption in 2015.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only 32) Consider the following statements regarding
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only “World Press Freedom Index 2022”-
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. The index was published by Reporters
(D) All of the above Without Borders(RSF).
Ans. C 2. Norway topped the index.
3. India ranked 142nd Rank out of 150
• US and its allies- Australia, New Zealand,
countries.
Japan and the United Kingdom — have
launched a new initiative called ‘Partners in the Choose the correct statement/statements-
Blue Pacific’ for “effective and efficient (A) 1 and 2 only
cooperation” with the region’s small island (B) 2 and 3 only
nations. (C) 1 and 3 only
• The PBP is a five-nation “informal mechanism” (D) All of the above
to support Pacific islands and to boost
diplomatic, economic ties in the region. Ans. D

31) Consider the following statements regarding • On the World Press Freedom Day (WPFD)
“Global Sustainable Development Report, (3rd May), the 20th edition (since 2002) of the
2022”- World Press Freedom Index was published by
Reporters Without Borders(RSF).
1. India was ranked 121 out of the 163 • The day also marks the 1991 Windhoek
countries. Declaration (adopted byUNESCO).
2. The index is topped by Finland.
• It aimed towards the ‘development of a free,
3. It is published by a group of independent
independent and pluralistic press’.
experts at the Sustainable Development
• Theme for 2022: Journalism under digital
Solutions Network (SDSN).
siege.
Choose the correct statement/statements - • Norway (1st) Denmark (2nd), Sweden (3rd)
(A) 1 and 2 only Estonia (4th) and Finland (5th) grabbed the top
(B) 2 and 3 only positions.
(C) 1 and 3 only • North Korea remained at the bottom of the list
(D) All of the above of the 180 countries.
• India has fallen eight places from 142nd to
Ans. D 150th in the 2022 among the 180 countries.
• Recently, the global Sustainable Development
Report, 2022 was released.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

33) Consider the following statements – • It was also announced that “any income from
1. State of the World’s Forests 2022 (SOFO transfer of any virtual digital asset shall be
2022) was released by the United Nations taxed at the rate of 30%.
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
2. National policy on bio-fuel has set the 35) Which of the following reports are released by
target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol World Economic Forum –
2025-26 instead of 2030.
1. Fostering effective Energy Transition
3. The level of ethanol blending in petrol in
Index.
India has reached 9.99%.
2. Global Competitiveness Report.
Choose the correct code – 3. Global Risk Report.
(A) 1 and 2 only Choose the correct code-
(B) 2 and 3 only
(A) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
(C) 1 and 3 only
Ans. D (D) All of the above
• The level of ethanol blending in petrol in India Ans. D
has reached 9.99%.
• Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF)
• Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP): It is
has released a report named Fostering
aimed at reducing the country’s dependence
Effective Energy Transition 2022.
on crude oil imports, cutting carbon emissions
Some major reports published by WEF are:
and boosting farmers’ incomes.
• Energy Transition Index.
• The amended National Biofuel Policy-2018 has
• Global Competitiveness Report.
now set the target for 20% ethanol blending in
• Global Information Technology Report
petrol 2025-26 instead of 2030, apart from
• Global Gender Gap Report.
allowing more feedstock for production of
biofuels and export of biofuels in specific • Global Risk Report.
cases. • Global Travel and Tourism Report.

34) Which of the following countries has adopted

bitcoin as legal tender? 36) Consider the following statements –

1. El Salvador 1. “Alliance of CEO Climate Action Leader”

2. Central African Republic initiative was launched by World economic
3. Nigeria forum.
2. Wanshuwa is a festival of the Tiwa tribe
Choose the correct statement/statements – located in Assam.
(A) 1 and 2 only Choose the correct code –
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (A) 1 only
(D) All of the above (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
Ans. A (D) Neither 1 nor 2
• Recently, the Central African Republic (CAR) Ans. D
became the second country after El Salvador
to adopt Bitcoin as legal tender. • Both of the above statements are correct.
• The Union Budget 2022-2023 of India has also
proposed to introduce a digital currency in the
coming financial year.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

37) Consider the following statements regarding • Chishti Order was established in India by
“National Achievement Survey (NAS)”- Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti, after the defeat and
1. It is a biennial survey. death of Prithvi Raj Chauhan.
2. It is conducted by CBSE (Central Board of • Among the disciples of Shaikh Muinuddin
Secondary Education). Chishti was Bakhtiyar Kaki.
3. The survey is designed by NCERT. • Among the disciples of Shaikh Muinuddin were
Bakhtiyar Kaki and his disciple Farid-ud-Din
Choose the correct statement/statements- Ganj-i-Shakar
(A) 1 and 2 only • The Suharwardi saints accepted the service of
(B) 2 and 3 only the state and some of them held important
(C) 1 and 3 only posts in the ecclesiastical department.
(D) All of the above • The Suharwardi Order entered India at about
the same time as the Chishtis, but its activities
Ans. B
were confined largely to Punjab and Multan.
• Recently, the Ministry of Education released The most well-known saints of the Order were
the National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2021 Shaikh Shihabuddin Suharwardi and Hamid-
report. ud- Din Nagori
• The Triennial Survey was conducted in
39) Which of the following Bhakti Movement
November 2021.
reformers belonged to the Saguna School:
• About 34 lakh students of 1.18 lakh schools in
720 districts from both rural and urban areas 1. Ramananda
have participated in NAS 2021. 2. Tulsidas
• The Central Board of Secondary Education 3. Kabir
(CBSE) conducted NAS 2021. 4. Sankaradeva
• The National Council of Educational Research Select the correct answer code:
and Training (NCERT) designed an
(A) 1, 2 & 4 only
assessment framework and tools for NAS-
(B) 2 & 3 only
2021
(C) 1 & 3 only
38) Consider the following statements: (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
1. The Chishti Order was established in India Ans. A
by Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti, after the
defeat and death of Prithvi Raj Chauhan. • In the Bhakti movement, Saguna is a concept
2. Among the disciples of Shaikh Muinuddin in which God has form, attributes and quality.
Chishti was Bakhtiyar Kaki. Ramananda, Tulsidas and Sankardeva belong
3. The Suharwardi saints accepted the to the Sagunaschool of reformers.
service of the state and some of them held • Nirguna is the concept of a formless God,
important posts in the ecclesiastical which has no attributes or quality. Both Kabir
department. and Gurunank belong to the Nirguna school of
reformers.
Select the correct answer code:
40) Examine the following pairs
(A) 1 & 2 only (Department) :: (Function)
(B) 2 & 3 only
(C) 1 & 3 only 1. Ariz-i- Mamalik :: Commander in chief of
(D) 1, 2 & 3 the army
2. Diwan - i- Insha :: State correspondence
Ans. D 3. Diwan- i - Risalat :: Religious matters
Select the correct answer code:
(A) 1 & 2 only

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 (B) 2 & 3 only Ans. A
(C) 1 & 3 only
• Sulh-i-kul is the idea of tolerance did not
(D) 1, 2 & 3
distinguish between people of diverse religions
Ans. B in his region. Akbar formulated governance
guidelines by using such a policy of tolerance,
• The most important department of the state,
based on a system of ethics - honesty, justice
next to the Wazir's, was the Diwan-i-Arz or the
and peace.
military department. The head of this
department was called the Ariz-i- Mamalik. The • It focused on a system of ethics that was
Ariz was not the commander- in-chief of the universally applicable.
army, since the Sultan himself commanded all • Akbar introduced the idea of Sulh-i-Kul which
the armed forces. In those days, no king could meant universal peace. He formed a vision of
have survived on the throne, if he entrusted the governance around the idea of Sulh-i-Kul with
chief command of the armed forces to the help of Abul Fazl. The principal Sulh-i-kul
someone else. The special responsibility of the was further followed by Jahangir and Shah
Ariz's department was to recruit, equip and pay Jahan.
the army. 42) Consider the following statements:
• There were two other important departments of
1. Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad were
the state: the Diwan-i- Risalat and the Diwan-i-
invited by Akbar to come to India.
Insha. The former dealt with religious matters,
2. Humayun founded the Nigaar Khana (The
pious foundations and stipends to the
painting workshop).
deserving scholars and the men of piety. It was
3. Jahangir set up his own atelier, alongside
presided over by the Chief Sadr, who was
Akbar's, when he was a prince.
generally a leading Qazi.
• The Diwan-i-Insha dealt with state Select the correct answer code:
correspondence. All the correspondence, (A) 1 & 2 only
formal or confidential, between the ruler and (B) 2 & 3 only
the sovereigns of other states, and with his (C) 1 & 3 only
subordinate officials, was dealt with by this (D) 1, 2 & 3
department. The rulers posted intelligence
agents, called Barids, in different parts of the Ans. B
empire to keep them informed of what was • Impressed by the artists and with an ambition
going on. to recreate such art workshops in India,
Humayun brought back with him the master
41) Consider the following statements wrt the artists, when he regained power in India. He
policy of Sulh-i-Kul during Akbar's reign: invited two Persian artists, Mir Sayyid Ali and
Abdus Samad, to establish a studio in his court
1. It was the idea of tolerance which did not and carry out royal paintings.
discriminate between the people of
• Humayun founded the Nigaar Khana (The
different religions in his realm.
painting workshop), which was also a part of
2. It focused on a system of ethics that was
his library.
universally applicable.
• Jahangir employed Aqa Riza, a well- known
3. It was not followed by Jahangir and Shah
Iranian painter, and his son Abul Hasan, to
Jahan.
achieve unparalleled sophistication in painting.
Select the correct answer code: Despite the formalized and established
imperial atelier of Akbar, the keen patron in
(A) 1 & 2 only
Jahangir rebelled to set his own atelier,
(B) 2 & 3 only
(C) 1 & 3 only alongside his father's.
(D) 1, 2 & 3

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

• Prince Salim came to be known as Jahangir, 44) In context of the Mansabdari System, examine
the World Seizer, once he acquired the Mughal the following:
throne after his return from Allahabad. 1. This system was introduced by Akbar.
2. The salary of the soldiers was paid by
43) With reference to the Land Revenue System, assigning them jagirs.
consider the following: 3. Mansabdars maintained horses from his
own expenditure.
1. Under the "Bandobast system", during the
reign of Akbar, land was divided into Select the correct answer code:
categories based on the duration of land
(A) 1 & 2 only
use.
(B) 2 & 3 only
2. Raja Todar Mai modified "Dahshala
(C) 1 & 3 only
system" by measuring land based on
(D) 1, 2 & 3
standard measuring rope called "Bigha"
Ans. C
Select the correct answer code:
• Akbar organized and strengthened his army
(A) 1 only
and encouraged the mansabdari system.
(B) 2 only
"Mansab" is an Arabic word, which means
(C) Both 1 & 2
'rank' or 'position'. Under the mansabdari
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
system, every officer was assigned a rank
Ans. A (mansab). The lowest rank was 10, and the
highest was 5,000 for the nobles; however,
• Systematic land reforms of 1582, popularly
towards the end of the reign, it was raised to
known as the Bandobast System, provided the
7,000. Princes of the blood received higher
framework of subsequent land taxation
mansabs.
systems.
• The mansabs (ranks) were categorized as Zat
• The land was measured in 'bighas'. The
and Sawar. The word 'zat' means personal. It
Dahsala system changed the land
fixed the personal status of a person, and also
measurement method from using a rope to
his salary. The 'sawar' rank indicated the
land measuring system by bamboo pieces
number of cavalrymen (sawars) a person was
connected by iron rings to make the
required to maintain.
measurement method more accurate. This
measurement method was called the Bamboo • The Mughal mansabdars were paid very
Jarid system. handsomely; in fact, their salaries were
probably the highest in the world at the time. A
• The four categories were as follows:
mansabdar, holding the rank of - - 100 zat,
o Polaj - Throughout the empire, Polaj
received a monthly salary of Rs. 500/month. -
was the ideal and best type of land.
1,000 zat received Rs. 4,400/month. - 5,000
This land was always cultivated and
zat received Rs. 30,000/month. - Mansabdars
was never left fallow.
were also paid by assigning them jagirs.
o Parauti - This was the land that was
Statement 3 is correct:
temporarily kept out of cultivation in
order to regain its fertility. • Out of his personal pay, the mansabdar was
o Chachar - Chachar was a type of land expected to maintain a corps of elephants,
that was allowed to lie fallow for three camels, mules, and carts, which were
or four years before being cultivated necessary for the transport of the army
again.
o Banjar - Banjar was the worst type of
land that had been left uncultivated for
five years or more.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

45) Consider the following statements : depicts the Mughal emperor and his
household. The royal pomp and show, the
1. Vijayanagar empire was ruled by Sangam,
battles and the hunting scenes are also very
Saluva , Taluva and Aravidu dynasties.
popular. They focus either on the person in the
2. Harihara and Bukka founded the
picture or on trees, camels and falcons. Time
Vijayanagar Empire.
period: 16th to 18th century
3. Krishnadeva Raya was the ruler of the
Saluva dynasty. 47) Consider the following statement:
4. Krishnadeva Raya’s period was the golden
1. Char bagh means four gardens,because of
age of Tamil literature
their symmetricaldivision into quarters.
Select which of following statements are 2. Charbagh style was brought to India by
incorrect: Mughals.
(A) 1 and 4 only Which of the given statement is correct?
(B) 2 and 3 only
(A) 1 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
(C) All of the above
Ans. C (D) None of the above
• Viajyanagar empire was ruled by Sangam, Ans. C
Saluva , Taluva and Aravidu dynasties.
• Chahar bagh means four gardens,because of
• Harihara and Bukka founded the Vijayanagar their symmetricaldivision into [Link]
Empire. describedhis interest in planning and layingout
• Krishnadeva Raya was the ruler of the Tuluva formal gardens, placed withinrectangular
dynasty. walled enclosuresand divided into four
• As a patron of art and Telugu literature Sri quartersby artificial channels. Charbagh style
Krishnadevaraya was unsurpassed was brought to India by Mughals. Humayun’s
.Krishnadeva Raya’s period was the golden tomb and Taj Mahal in India are the most
age of Telugu literature. famous examples of this style
• Eight literary luminaries popularly known as
Ashtadiggajas adorned his court. 48) Consider the following statements:
• Among them Allasani Peddana, the author of 1. Virashaiva movement was started by
Manu Charitramu was the greatest. Ramanuja.
• He was known as Andhra Kavita Pitamaha. 2. They were against idol worship.
46) Which of the following are the features of the Which of the following statement is correct?
Mughal style of Painting? (A) 1 only
1. It is based on the Persian miniature (B) 2 only
painting style (C) All of the above.
2. It is usually devotional or religious in nature (D) None of the above.
Choose from the following options. Ans. B
(A) 1 only • Virashaiva movement initiated by Basavanna
(B) 2 only and his companions like Allama Prabhu and
(C) Both of them Akkamahadevi. The Virashaivas argued
(D) Neither of them strongly for the equality of all human beings
and against Brahmanical ideas about caste
Ans.
and the treatment of women. They were also
• Mughal style of painting: It is based on the against all forms of ritual and idol worship
Persian miniature painting style. It usually

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

49) Consider the following statement with respect • The Mahabharata was translated as the
to the third book of Ain-e-Akbari , Mulk Abadi. Razmnama (Book of Wars) Abu’l-Hasan (or
1. This gives a detail picture of 'suba' level but Abu al-Hasan) (1589 – c. 1630), from Delhi,
the details of 'sarkars' is missing. India, was a Mughal painter of Miniatures in the
2. Major merit of Ain-e-Akbari is in its reign of Jahangir.
autherncity of quantative data. • Abu alHasan was initially trained by the
emperor himself in his large studios and
Which of the following statement is correct? workshops But soon surpassed his father and
(A) 1 only his employer. Jahangir said of him that he had
(B) 2 only no equal and Bestowed the title Nadir-uz-
(C) All of the above Saman (“Wonder of the Age”) on him
(D) None of the above. 51) Consider the following statements –
Ans. D 1. Central Institute for Research on Buffaloes
• The third book, mulk-abadi, is the one which : Hisar
deals with the fiscal side of the empire and 2. National Dairy Research Institute : Karnal
provides rich quantitative information on 3. National Brain Research Centre :
revenue rates, followed by the “Account of the Gurrugram
Twelve Provinces”. This section has detailed Choose the correct statement/statements-
statistical information, which includes the
geographic, topographic and economic profile (A) 1 and 2 only
of all subas and their administrative and fiscal (B) 2 and 3 only
divisions (sarkars, parganas and mahals), total (C) 1 and 3 only
measured area, and assessed revenue (D) All of the above
(jama).After setting out details at the suba Ans. D
level, the Ain goes on to give a detailed picture
• All of the above statements are correct.
of the sarkars below the suba.
52) Consider the following statements –
50) Consider the following statement:
1. Haryana has 72 sub-divisions 93 revenue
1. The Ramayana was translated into persian
tehsils 50 sub-tehsils.
as the Razmnama.
2. State animal of Haryana is Black Buck.
2. Abu’l-Hasan was a painter in the court of
3. According to Census 2011, Haryana has
Jahangir.
6841 Villages.
Which of the following statement is correct?
Choose the correct statement/statements-
(A) 1 only
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) All of the above
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) None of the above
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
Ans. D
• Mughal chronicles such as the Akbar Nama
were written in Persian, others, like Babur’s
Memoirs, were translated from the Turkish into
the Persian Babur Nama. Translations of
Sanskrit texts such as the Mahabharata and
the Ramayana into Persian were
commissioned By the Mughal emperors.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

53) Match the following – Choose the correct code –
Principalities Founder
(A) 1 and 2 only
1. Kaithal Yudhisthira (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) None of the above
2. Thanesar Mith Singh (D) All of the above
Sahib Singh and Gurdit Ans. D
3. Ladwa
Singh
• All of the above statements are correct.
Nijabat Khan
4. Kunjpura 56) Consider the following statements –
Choose the correct code – 1. Badkhal Lake is situated near Faridabad.
2. Tilyar lake is situated in Rohtak.
(A) 1,2 and 3 only
3. Blue bird lake is situated in Faridabad.
(B) 1,3 and 4 only
(C) 1,2 and 4 only Choose the incorrect code –
(D) All of the above
(A) 1 and 2 only
Ans. D (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) None of the above
• All of the above match are correct.
(D) All of the above
54) Consider the following statements –
Ans. C
1. Ambala district has the largest Sikh
• All are correctly matched.
population.
2. Mewat/Nuh district has largest Muslim 57) Match the following –
population.
1. Bhindawas Jhajjar
3. Sirsa district has largest Christian
Wildlife
population.
Sanctuary
Choose the correct statement/statements-
2. Khaparwas Ambala
(A) 2 only
Wildlife
(B) 3 only
Sanctuary
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above 3. Nahar Rewari
Ans. A Wildlife
Sanctuary
• In the state Sirsa district has the largest Sikh
population, Mewat/Nuh district has largest 4. Chhilchhila Kurukshetra
Muslim population and Ambala district has Wildlife
largest Christian population. Sanctuary
55) Consider the following statements regarding
“Sutlej – Yamuna Link”- Choose the correct code –

1. SYL is a 214 km long water canal proposed (A) 1,2 and 3 only
to connect the Sutlej River in Punjab to (B) 2,3 and 4 only
Yamuna in Haryana. (C) 1,3 and 4 only
2. It comes under the Bhakra- Beas (D) All of the above
Management Board (BBMB) which was Ans. C
constituted under a central legislation i.e.,
Wildlife sanctuaries of Haryana
the Punjab Re-organisation Act, 1966.
3. It has not been completed yet. 1. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Jhajjar

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 2. Khaparwas Wildlife Sanctuary, Jhajjar 3. The highest sports award of the state of
3. Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary, Rewari Haryana is the Bhim Award.
4. Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary,
Choose the incorrect code –
Kurukshetra
5. Kalesar Wildlife Sanctuary, Yamunanagar (A) 1 and 2 only
6. Abubshahar Wildlife Sanctuary, Sirsa (B) 2 and 3 only
7. Khol Hi-Raitan Wildlife Sanctuary, (C) None of the above
Panchkula (D) All of the above
8. Bir Shikargah Wildlife Sanctuary, Ans. C
Panchkula
• All of the above statements are correct.
58) Match the following –
61) An assertion and its reason is given below -
1. Saraswati Kaithal Assertion (A): Salt is used for cooking the food
Conservation at places on higher from sea level.
Reserve
Reason (R) : Temperature is low in higher
2. Bir Bara Ban Jind places.
Conservation Which one among these is right answer?
Reserve (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
3. Vulture Pinjore (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
Conservation and correct explanation of (A).
Breeding Centre (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Choose the correct code-
Ans. B
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only • At high altitudes the atmospheric pressure is
(C) 1 and 3 only low. So water will boil at a lower temperature
(D) All of the above because the boiling point of water is lower at
high altitude. It takes longer to cook at higher
Ans. D
altitudes than at sea level. Adding a little salt to
• All of the above statements are correct. the water will cause the water to boil at a
59) Match the following- slightly higher temperature, which can be
helpful while cooking especially at high
1. First Cotton Mill of Haryana :Fatehabad altitudes. Lower pressure at higher altitudes
2. Sandalwood of Haryana :Khejri causes the temperature to be colder.
3. Abu Ali Qalandar Tomb :Panipat
62) Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct code –
1. Steam at 100°C and boiling water at 100°C
(A) 1 and 2 only contain same amount of heat.
(B) 2 and 3 only 2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the
(C) 1 and 3 only latent heat of vaporization of water.
(D) All of the above 3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from
Ans. D the room air at the evaporator coils and is
ejected out that the condenser coils.
60) Consider the following statements –
Which of these statements is/are correct?
1. Haryana Sports Authority is headquartered
in Panchkula. (A) 1 and 2
2. Nahar singh Stadium is located in (B) 2 and 3
Faridabad. (C) Only 2

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 (D) Only 3 Ans. C
Ans. D • The heart vibrates at infrasonic sound. We can
hear them with the help of stethoscope. The
• Steam at 100°C contains 540 calories more
speed of sound in solid is maximum. Mach
than the boiling water at the same temperature
number is a quantity that defines how quickly
due to the latent heat of vaporization. The
an object travels with respect to the speed of
latent heat of fusion of ice is 80cal/gm. Thus
sound. The Mach number (M) is simply the
statement (1) and statement (2) are incorrect,
ratio of the object's velocity (V) divided by the
while statement (3) is correct. In an air-
speed of sound at the altitude (a). Ultrasonic is
conditioner, heat is extracted from the room air
the name given to sound waves that have
at the evaporator coil and is ejected out at the
frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz. Therefore,
condenser coil.
statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
63) Consider the following statements about
65) What is the difference between a CFL and an
ultrasonic waves:
LED Lamp?
1. They can destroy insects.
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury
2. They can clean clothes by removing dust.
vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp
3. They can be used to treat diseases.
uses semi-conductor material.
4. They can control automatic doors.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much
Of the above statements longer than of an LED lamp.
(A) 1 and 2 are correct 3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared
(B) 3 and 4 are correct to an LED lamp.
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Which of the statements given above is/are
(D) All are correct correct?
Ans. D (A) 1 only
• Sound waves are divided into three categories (B) 2 and 3
that cover Htz), Infrasonic waves (< 20 Htz) (C) 1 and 3
and Ultrasonic waves (>20,000 Htz). (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ultrasonic waves are used to destroy insects, Ans. C
clean clothes by removing dust, treat diseases,
• CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor to
control automatic doors, detection of aircraft
produce light. The gases becomes excited by
and submarine, determination of depth of sea
electricity and when combined with mercury
etc.
particles, produces invisible ultraviolet light.
64) Consider the following statements: The UV light then hits the white phosphor
1. The heart vibrates at infrasonic. coating inside the bulb causing it to
2. The speed of sound is more in gas than in fluorescence and emit white light. LED lamp
liquid and solid. uses semi-conductor material to produce light.
3. Mach number is used to describe the CFLs have a life of about 6000 to 10,000 hours,
speed of sound. while LED has a life span of about 50,000
4. Ultrasonic sound has frequency more than hours. LED lamps are more energy efficient as
20,000 Hz. compared to CFL.

Of these statements:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

66) Assertion (A): Copper rods are generally nuclear fission. The heavy nucleus splits into
preferred to iron rods for making lightning two or more lighter nuclei, releasing kinetic
conductors. energy, gamma radiation, and free neutrons.
To reduce the speed of neutrons in this
Reason (R): Copper is better conductor of
reaction H2O (light water), D2O (heavy water),
electricity than iron and is not easily oxidized
graphite or beryllium oxide are used as the
under atmospheric conditions.
moderator. This whole process is called self-
Code:
sustained chain reaction, so statement 1 and 3
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the are correct.
correct explanation of (A).
68) With reference to India, consider the following
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
statements:
correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
Ans. A
Indian coastal sands in India.
• Copper rods are preferred for making lightning 4. In India, Government bodies only can
conductor because: process or export monazite.
i. Copper is a better conductor than iron. Which of the statements given above are
ii. Copper is not easily oxidized in the correct?
presence of oxygen and water
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
molecules while iron gets rusted.
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
iii. Loss of energy is much less with a
(C) 3 and 4 only
copper rod than with iron rod, as copper
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
is a bad conductor of heat than iron.
Ans. B
67) Consider the following statements :
• Monazite is a complex reddish-brown
In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain
phosphate of thorium and rare earth minerals
reaction is possible, because :
[(Ce, La, Nd, Th, Y) PO4] and this is radioactive
1. More neutrons are released in each of the in nature. In India, monazite is the principal
fission reactions. source of rare earths and thorium. Monazite
2. The neutrons immediately take part in the bearing economic heavy mineral deposits are
fission process. found along the coastal and inland placer
3. The fast neutrons are slowed down by sands of the country. However, monazite is not
graphite. found in entire Indian coastal sands.
4. Every neutron released in the fission • Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration
reaction initiates further fission. and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of
Which of these statements are correct? Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has so far
established 12.73 million tonnes (as per 2020
(A) 1, 2 and 3
estimates) of monazite contained in 130
(B) 1 and 3
deposits in the coastal beach placer sands in
(C) 2 and 4
parts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and in the
Ans. B inland alluvium in parts of Jharkhand, West
Bengal and Tamil Nadu. These deposits have
• Nuclear reactor, formerly known as atomic pile
been formed naturally due to littoral action of
(molecular furnace) uses Uranium-235 or
sea waves coupled with wind action. In India,
Plutonium-239 as fuel. When this fissile atomic
private firms are restricted from processing or
nucleus absorbs a neutron, it may undergo
exporting monazite. Monazite is a strategic

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 mineral and cannot be sold in commercial (D) PARAM 10,000 - Land to land missile
market. It is a prescribed substance to be
Ans. D
handled by the DAE. IREL (Indian Rare Earths
Limited), a Government of India Undertaking • PARAM is a series of supercomputer designed
under the DAE and KMML (The Kerala and assembled by the Centre for Development
Minerals and Metals Ltd.), a Kerala State of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune. It was
Government Undertaking, are actively the first supercomputer developed by India.
engaged in mining and processing of beach Y2K is related with a computer, arthritis with
sand minerals from placer deposits. IREL is the uric acid and noise pollution is with decibel.
only entity processing monazite to produce 71) Which of the following is/are the
thorium and rare earth (RE) compounds. example/examples of chemical change?
69) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
answer by using the codes given below: 2. Melting of ice
List-I 3. Souring of milk
List -II
(Atomic Power
(State of Situation) Select the correct answer using the code given
Station)
below.
(A) Kalpakkam 1. Uttar Pradesh
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) Narora 2. Gujarat (B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Kakrapara 3. Tamil Nadu (D) None
Ans. B
(D) Trombay 4. Maharashtra
• A chemical change is a change in which
Code: something new is formed (irreversible). The
A B C D starting materials change into an entirely
(A) 1 2 3 4 different substance or substances. This new
(B) 3 1 2 4 substance has a different chemical
(C) 3 1 4 2 composition than the starting materials.
(D) 2 3 4 1 Examples of chemical change would be the
reaction of iron with air (rusting) or the reaction
Ans. B of a metal and acid. The crystallization of
• Kalpakkam is a small town in Tamil Nadu sodium chloride and melting of ice, both are the
mostly famous for its nuclear power plants and examples of a physical change while souring of
research installations. Narora is located on the milk is an example of chemical change.
bank of river Ganga in district Bulandshahar, 72) Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes
Uttar Pradesh. It is also famous for its nuclear faster at a higher temperature.
power plant. Kakrapara atomic power station is
Reason (R): At higher temperature, molecular
a nuclear power station lies in the proximity of
motion becomes more rapid.
the city of Vyara (near Surat) in the state of
Gujarat. Trombay is a northeastern suburb in (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Mumbai, India. It is famous for Bhabha Atomic correct explanation of (A).
Research Centre (BARC). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
correct explanation of (A).
70) Which one of the following pairs is not
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
matched?
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(A) Y2K - Computer
Ans. A
(B) Arthritis - Uric acid
(C) Noise pollution - Decibel

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

• A chemical reaction generally becomes faster
(C) Most flexible 3. Aluminium
at a higher temperature because at higher
metal and
temperature, molecular motion becomes more
able to
rapid and the molecules have higher kinetic
increase by
energy. The process of a chemical reaction
bang
depends on the concentration, temperature
and physical state of molecules and their (D) Minimum heat 4. Silver
nature. Normally, higher the temperature of conducting
molecules, faster would be the reaction.
73) Consider the following statements with respect Code:
to noble 13 metals: A B C D

1. Noble metals are found in pure form in (A) 1 3 2 4

nature. (B) 2 3 4 1
2. Uranium and lead are examples of noble (C) 3 2 4 1
metal. (D) 4 3 1 2

Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans. D

(A) 2 only • The correctly matched lists are as follows: Best

(B) Both 1 and 2 conductor of heat and electricity - Silver
(C) Brass is also noble metal • Metal found in highest amount - Aluminium
(D) 1 only • Most flexible metal and able to increase by
bang metal - Gold
Ans. D
• Minimum heat conducting – Lead
• A noble metal is ordinarily regarded as a
75) Check these statements :
metallic chemical element that is generally
resistant to corrosion and is usually found in i. Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc.
nature in its raw form. Gold, platinum, and the ii. Magnetite is the main ore of Aluminium.
other platinum group metals (ruthenium, iii. Amalgams are that substances which
rhodium, palladium, osmium, iridium) are most mainly involve mercury.
often so classified. Silver, copper and mercury iv. Potassium Nitrate (KNO,) is a chemical
are sometimes included as noble metals, used in photography.
however less often as each of these usually Which of the above are true?
occurs in nature combined with sulfur. Uranium Code:
and lead are not examples of noble metals.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
74) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (C) (ii) and (iii)
answer using the codes given below the lists : (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
List II Ans. B
List I
(A) Best 1. Gold • Statement (i) and (iii) are correct but statement
conductor of (ii) and (iv) are wrong because Magnetite
heat and (Fe,O,) is an ore of Iron and Silver Bromide
electricity (AgBr) is used in photography.

(B) Metal found in 2. Lead

highest
amount

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

76) Consider the following statements Hard water Code:
is not suitable for A B C D
1. Drinking (A) 3 4 2 1
2. Washing clothes with soap (B) 2 3 4 1
3. Use in boilers (C) 3 1 2 4
4. Irrigating crops (D) 4 3 1 2
Which of these statements are correct? Ans. C
(A) 1 and 2 • The correctly matched lists are as follows:
(B) 2 and 3 List I List II
(C) 1, 2 and 4
Calcium
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Bleaching powder
hypochlorite/oxychlo-
Ans. D ride (CaOCl2)
• Hard water is described as 'hard' due to the Sodium bicarbonate
Baking soda
presence of highly dissolved minerals (NaHCO3)
specifically sulphates and chlorides of calcium
Sodium carbonate
and magnesium. Hard water is salty and Washing powder
(Na2CO3)
therefore not used for drinking. It is very difficult
to wash clothes with hard water as it requires Calcium sulphate
Plaster of Paris
more soap and leaves a messy scum that hemihydrate
cannot be washed out easily. When hard water (CaSO4.½H₂O)
is boiled at home or in industries, it leaves
deposits of calcium and magnesium salts. 78) Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
These deposits reduce the efficiency of boilers, answer using the codes given below the Lists:
kettles and pipes and can cause blockages List I List II
and even burst of the boilers. If salt level
increases in irrigation water, it becomes harder (A) Artificial fruits 1. Carbon
for lawns and landscape plant to take up water ripening dioxide
even though the soil is moist. Hard water
blocks the Xylem tissues of the plants and thus (B) Baking soda 2. Sodium
not suitable for irrigation. silicate
77) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(C) Soft Drink 3. Ethylene
answer from the code given below the lists.
List I List II (D) Quartz 4. Sodium

(A) Bleaching 1. Sodium Code:

powder bicarbonate A B C D

(B) Baking 2. Sodium (A) 3 4 2 1

soda carbonate (B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(C) Washing 3. Calcium (D) 2 1 4 3
powder oxychloride
Ans. B
(D) Plaster of 4. Calcium • Ethylene is used in artificial fruit ripening,
Paris sulphate carbon dioxide is used in soft drinks, baking
hemihydrate soda is the commercial name of sodium

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 bicarbonate and quartz is used for producing A B C D
sodium silicate.
(A) ii i iii iv
79) Match List - I with List - II and select the correct (B) ii iv iii i
answer from the codes given below (C) iii ii iv i
List I List II (D) iii ii i iv
(Acid) (Source)
Ans. C
(A) Lactic acid 1. Lemon • The correctly matched lists are as follows-
List I List II
(B) Acetic acid 2. Rancid (Fuel Gases) (Major
butter Constituents)

(C) Citric acid 3. Milk (A) CNG Methane,

Ethane
(D) Butyric acid 4. Vinegar
(B) LPG Butane,
Code: Propane
A B C D
(A) 1 4 3 2 (C) Coal gas Hydrogen,
(B) 3 1 4 2 Methane,
(C) 2 3 4 1 Carbon
(D) 3 4 1 2 monoxide

Ans. D (D) Water gas Carbon

• Lactic acid is found in milk, acetic acid is found monoxide,
in vinegar, citric acid is found in lemon and Hydrogen
butyric acid is found in rancid butter.
81) Consider the following pairs:
80) Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
Philosophy Propounder
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II 1. Advaita Vedanta : Ramanuja
(Fuel Gases) (Major 2. Vishisvtadvaita : Shankaracharya
Constituents) 3. Dvaita Vedanta : Madhvacharya
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are
(A) CNG i. Carbon
correctly matched?
monoxide,
Hydrogen (A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(B) LPG ii. Butane, (C) 3 only
Propane (D) 1 and 2 only
Ans. C
(C) Coal gas iii. Methane,
Ethane • Shankaracharya (788-820 A.D.) is one of the
greatest philosophers among the Indian
(D) Water gas iv. Hydrogen, thinkers in intellectual eminence. The
Methane, Upanishad, which makes up the final section of
Carbon the Vedas, is implied by the term "Vedanta."
monoxide Advaita Vedanta is the term used to describe
the philosophy of Shankaracharya or his
Code: philosophical discourse. Advaita, which literally

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 means "one reality," refers to non-dualism. (C) Both 1 and 2
According to Shankaracharya, there is only (D) Neither 1 nor 2
one ultimate reality, which is the Brahman.
Ans. C
According to Vedanta philosophy, "Brahman is
true, the world is false, and self and Brahman • Akbar issued a proclamation called
are not distinct." Shankaracharya held the view Mahzarnama (Infallibility Decree) in 1579 CE.
that the Brahman is existent, unchanging, the This proclamation declared him to be supreme
highest truth, and the source of all knowledge. in all religious matters and decisions,
• Ramanuja expounded the Vishvadvaita occupying a position even higher than that of
philosophy. According to Visistadvaita the Ulemas (religious leaders) in religious
philosophy, the Saguna Brahman, a personal matters. This was probably the first instance
entity with countless favourable qualities is the wherein the influence of the Ulemas had been
ultimate reality. It is a qualified totality of which curbed to such a great extent. This was
the Jiva and the Jagat (the soul and material because contrary to their hardline views, Akbar
nature) compose the body, which is wanted to build a secular empire where all his
inseparably linked to the whle. Despite being a subjects were valued regardless of their
non-dual whole, it is still characterised by religious background.
internal differences in it. • Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545) started his career
• Sri Madhvacharya (Madhva) --- The Dvaita or as the manager of a small territory for his uncle
“dualist” school of Hindu Vedanta philosophy in Bihar and eventually challenged and
originated in 13th-century South India with Sri defeated the Mughal emperor Humayun (1530-
Madhvacharya (Madhva). The basic doctrine 1540, 1555- 1556). Sher Shah captured Delhi
of Dvaita is that there is plurality of reals. and established his own dynasty. Although the
Difference is of the very nature of things. There Suri dynasty ruled for only fifteen years (1540-
is difference between God and soul, between 1555), it introduced an administration that
God and matter, between soul and soul, borrowed elements from Alauddin Khalji and
between soul and matter, and between one made them more efficient. Sher Shah’s
material thing and another. These five-fold administration became the model followed by
differences permit all kinds of extrinsic the great emperor Akbar (1556-1605) when he
relationships between the diverse beings; but consolidated the Mughal Empire.
leave no room for a really intrinsic continuity in 83) Which of the following statements is/are
beings (as we affirm between creator and correct about Mansabdari system?
creatures). Therefore, God is not the creator of
souls and the world: souls are eternal, world 1. It was an administrative system of Mughal
arises out of Prakrit. Empire introduced by Akbar.
2. It proved more effective than Jagirdari
82) With reference to the Mughal empire, consider system in ensuring political stability.
the following statements: 3. It was hereditary in nature.
1. Akbar proclaimed himself supreme with Select the correct answer using the code given
respect to religious matters through the below:
Mahzarnama declaration
2. The administration of Sher Shah Suri (A) 1 and 2 only
became the model to be followed by the (B) 2 and 3 only
Mughal emperor Akbar. (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct? Ans. A

(A) 1 only • The word 'Mansab' is of Arabic origin meaning

(B) 2 only rank or position. Hence, Mansabdari was a
system of ranking the government officials and

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 determined their civil & military duties, along 1. The aim of Individual Satyagraha was to
with their renumerations. give another opportunity to the
• Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar Government to accept congress demands
for effecting proper administration and to bring peacefully.
stability in his kingdom. The Mansabdari 2. The Individual Satyagraha was not to seek
system proved very helpful in removing the independence but to affirm the right of
defects inherent in the jagirdari system. The speech.
mansabdars got their salaries from the 3. The second Satyagrahi was Brahma dutt.
emperor, they were more loyal to him. The (A) Only 1
chances of their revolt were minimised. (B) Only 2
• The king himself appointed the Mansabdars. (C) 1 and 2 only
He could enhance the mansab, lower it or (D) 2 and 3 only
remove it. A Mansabdar could be asked to
perform any civil or military service. The Ans. C
Mansabdari system was not hereditary. Aims of Individual Satyagraha:
84) Consider the following statements with respect • To show that nationalist patience was not due
to Hindustan Republican Association (HRA): to weakness
• To express people’s feeling that they are not
1. The HRA was founded in October 1924 in
interested in the war and that they made
Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh
distinction between Nazism and double
Chandra Chatterjee, Chandrasekhar Azad
autocracy that ruled in India
and Sachin Sanyal.
• To give another opportunity to the Government
2. The aim of the association was to
to accept congress demands peacefully. The
overthrow the colonial government by
demand of the Satyagrahi was using freedom
armed revolution.
of Speech against the war through an anti-war
3. It wanted to establish the Federal Republic
declaration. If government did not arrest the
of the United States of India with the
Satyagrahi, he or she will move repeating it in
principle of adult franchise.
villages and start march towards Delhi (“Delhi
Select the correct answer using the code given Chalo Movement”).
below: • The non-violence was set as the centerpiece of
(A) 1 and 3 only Individual Satyagraha. This was done by
(B) 1 and 2 only carefully selecting the Satyagrahis.
(C) 2 and 3 only • The Congress was in a confused state again
(D) All of the above after the August Offer. The radicals and leftists
wanted to launch a mass Civil Disobedience
Ans. C Movement, but here Gandhi insisted on
• The HRA was founded in October 1924 in Individual [Link] hence, the
Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Individual Satyagraha was not to seek
Chandra Chatterjee, and SachinSanyal. independence but to affirm the right of speech.
• It was started with the aim to organize an 86) Consider the following statements in context of
Armed Revolution to overthrow the colonial Cripps Mission
Government and established in its place the
Federal Republic of the United States of India 1. One of the major proposal of Cripps
whose basic principle would be the adult mission was that - at the end of the war, a
franchise. Constituent Assembly would be set up with
the power to frame the future constitution
85) Which of the below statements is/are correct in of India.
regards to Individual Satyagraha 2. The Congress objected to the proposal of
representation of the princely states by

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 nominees and not by elected (A) 1, 2 & 3 only
representatives. (B) 1 & 2 only
3. Any Province, which is not prepared to (C) 1, 3 & 4 only
accept the new constitution would not have (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
the right to sign a separate agreement with
Ans. B
Britain regarding its future status
• A common center would control the defense,
Which of the above statements is/are
communication, and external affairs.
incorrect?
• Provinces were to have full autonomy and
(A) 1 and 2 only residual power.
(B) 2 and 3 only • Communal questions in the central legislature
(C) Only 2 were to be decided by a simple majority of both
(D) Only 3 communities present and voting.
Ans. D • British power and obligations in relation to the
princely states would lapse with the transfer of
• After the end of the war, a constituent power, but these would be transferred to any
assembly would be convened to frame a new successor government.
constitution. Members of this assembly would
be partly elected by the provincial assemblies 88) Select the correct chronological order of for the
through proportional representation and partly following events:
nominated by the princes. Hence, all members 1. Wavell Plan
would be Indians. 2. Cripps Mission
• The Congress objected to the proposal of 3. Quit India Movement
representation of the princely states by 4. Cabinet Mission
nominees and not by elected representatives
(A) 2-3-1-4
• Constitution so framed would be acceptable by
(B) 2-3-4-1
the British Government only if certain province
(C) 3-2-1-4
desires to stay away from the Union of India.
(D) 3-2-4-1
Any province which wouldn't accept the new
constitution would have the right to sign a Ans. A
separate agreement with the British. • Wavell Plan --1945
87) Which of the following statements are correct • Cripps Mission – march 1942
regarding recommendations of the Cabinet • Quit India Movement -- august 1942
Mission Plan: • Cabinet Mission -- 1946
1. A common center would control the 89) With reference to the Royal Indian Navy(RIN)
defense, communication, and external Mutiny of 1946, examine the following:
affairs.
1. Second World War was instrumental in the
2. Provinces were to have full autonomy and
formation of collective consciousness in
residual power.
the RIN.
3. The communal question in Central
2. The civilians of Madras were against the
Legislature was to be decided by a special
RIN demonstrations.
majority of Hindu and Muslim communities
3. The Communist Party of India was directly
present and voting.
involved in the strikes.
4. British power and obligations in relation to
the Princely States would lapse with the Select the correct answer code:
transfer of power, but these would not be (A) 1 & 2 only
transferred to any successor government. (B) 2 & 3 only
Select the correct answer code: (C) 1 & 3 only

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 (D) 1, 2 & 3 and placing their grievances before
government.
Ans. C
• This was his first organization to achieve his
• The Second World War was instrumental in the political and social ideals. The aims and
formation of a specific collective objects of the Sabha were: To promote the
consciousness both in the RIN as well as spread of education among the Depressed
among the Madras working classes. The most Class.
obvious economic impact of war on Madras
91) The Wavell Plan, arrived at the Simla
city was a steep rise in prices of commodities.
Conference 1945 provided for which of the
The price of paddy and rice continued to
following:
advance and the rise was more marked in the
case of paddy. 1. Indianization of the Viceroy's Executive
• The civilians of Madras became involved in the Council
RIN demonstrations. The reports in the 2. Removing any caste and religion-based
newspapers from February 19 onwards were quota in the Executive Council
avidly read by the civilians in Madras. On 21st, 3. Partition of India
they watched the Madras ratings driving trucks, Select the correct answer code:
shouting slogans, marching around the city
and chasing all Europeans out of sight. The (A) 1 only
stimulation of popular involvement began on (B) 2 & 3 only
that day and general tension mounted in the (C) 1 & 3 only
city. (D) 1, 2 & 3
• The Communist Party of India was directly Ans. A
involved in the hartal and strikes. M. R.
• According to Plan , all the members of the
Venkata Raman, Secretary of Tamil Nadu
Council, except the Viceroy and the
Committee of CPI, on behalf of the Communist
Commanderin-Chief, would be Indians. It said,
party, appealed to the leaders of the Congress
in the Council there would be equal
to come forward to help and build up the
representation of caste Hindus and Muslims. It
growing unity sentiment amongst the masses.
proposed for a future constitution of India, not
90) With reference to Basishkrit Hitakarini Sabha, its partition.
examine the following:
92) Arrange the following events in chronological
1. It was started to remove the difficulties sequence:
faced by untouchables and placing their
1. Direct Action
grievances before government.
2. Day of Deliverance
2. It was jointly founded by Jyotirao
3. Cripps Mission
Govindrao Phule and Gopal Ganesh
4. Quit India Movement
Agarkar in Maharastra.
5. August Offer
Select the correct answer code:
Select the correct answer code:
(A) 1 only
(A) 2-5-3-4-1
(B) 2 only
(B) 2-3-5-4-1
(C) Both 1 & 2
(C) 3-2-5-1-4
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) 1-5-3-4-2
Ans. A
Ans. A
• Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha is a central
• Direct Action Day (16 August 1946): It was the
institution formed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
day when widespread communal rioting
for removing difficulties of the untouchables
between the Hindus and the Muslims took

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 place in the city of Calcutta. The day also 94) Consider the following statements:
marked the start of the 'Week of the Long
1. The All-India Forward Bloc was formed
Knives'.
within the Indian National Congress in
• Day of Deliverance (22 December 1939): It 1939.
was the day which was celebrated by the 2. The All-India Conference of Forward Block
supporters of the Muslim League in India to declared itself to be a socialist political
mark the resignation of the Congress party.
ministries.
• Cripps Mission (March 1942) Which of the statements given above is/are
• Quit India (August 1942) correct?
• August Offer (1940) (A) 1 only
93) With regards to the Jawaharlal Nehru, (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
Examine the following statements:
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. He organized the Independence for India
League with Subhash Chandra Bose. Ans. C
2. He criticized Gandhiji for preaching • The All-India Forward Bloc emerged as a
harmony among the exploiters and the faction within the Indian National Congress in
exploited. May, 1939, led by Subhas Chandra Bose. The
3. He headed the Karachi Session of the formation of the Forward Bloc was announced
Congress in 1931. to the public at a rally in Calcutta.
Select the correct answer code: • In 1940, the Forward Bloc held its first All India
Conference in Nagpur. The conference
(A) 1 only declared the Forward Bloc to be a socialist
(B) 1 & 2 only political party. The conference passed a
(C) 3 only resolution titled 'All Power to the Indian
(D) 1, 2 & 3 People', urging militant action for struggle
Ans. B against British colonial rule. Subhash Chandra
Bose was elected as the president of the party
• He organized the Independence for India
and H.V. Kamath as the general secretary.
League with Subhas Chandra Bose.
• He criticized Gandhiji for preaching harmony 95) Which of the following women participated in
among the exploiters and the exploited. - In revolutionary activities during the freedom
1928, Jawaharlal joined hands with Subhas struggle?
Chandra Bose to organize the Independence 1. Pritilata Waddedar
for India League. - Nehru developed a complex 2. Suniti Chanderi
relationship with Gandhiji during this period. He 3. Bina Das
criticized Gandhiji for refusing to recognize the 4. Sarojini Naidu
conflict of the classes, for preaching harmony
among the exploiters and the exploited, and for Select the correct answer using the code given
putting forward the theories of trusteeship by, below:
and conversion of, the capitalists and the (A) 1 and 2 only
landlords. - He headed the Lahore Session of (B) 2 and 4 only
the Congress in 1930. (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
• The Karachi Session of the Congress was held (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
in March 31, 1931, under the presidentship of
Ans. C
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• There was a large-scale participation of young
women in revolutionary activities especially
under Surya Sen. These women provided

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 shelter, carried messages and fought with 21, 1943, Subhash Bose formed the
guns in hand. Prominent women Provisional Government forFree India in
revolutionaries in Bengal during this phase Singapore with H.C. Chatterjee (Finance
included – portfolio), M.A. Aiyar
• 1) Pritilata Waddedar, who died conducting a (Broadcasting),Lakshmi Swaminathan
raid; (Hence option 1 is correct.) (Women Department), etc. The famous
• 2) Kalpana Dutt who was arrested and tried slogan— “Give me blood,I will give you
along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence; freedom” was given in Malaya. So,
(Hence option 2 is correct.) statement 1 is correct.
• 3) Santi Ghosh and Suniti Chandheri, school • The women regiment formed in INA was
girls of Comilla, who shot dead the district called the Rani Jhansi regiment. So,
magistrate. (December 1931); and (Hence statement2 is not correct.
option 3 is correct.) • At the first post-War Congress session in
• 4) Bina Das who fired point blank at the September 1945 at Bombay, a strong
governor while receiving her degree at the resolutionwas adopted declaring Congress
convocation (February 1932). Option 4 is support for the INA cause. Defence of INA
incorrect. Sarojini Naidu was non-violent prisoners inthe court wasorganised by
leader and formed close ties with Gandhi, Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru,
Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Rabindranath Tagore Kailash Nath Katju,Jawaharlal Nehru and
and Sarala Devi Chaudhurani. After 1917, she Asaf Ali. So, statement 3 is
joined Gandhi's satyagraha movement of [Link], option (c) is the correct
nonviolent resistance against British rule answer
96) Consider the following statements with 97) Consider the following statements regarding
reference to the Indian National Army (INA): the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):

1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the 1. Lala Lajpat Rai was the first general
Provisional Government for Free India in secretary of AITUC.
Singapore. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru and C.R. Das were
2. Women’s regiment of INA was named after associated with AITUC.
Rani Gaidinliu. 3. Decision to form a committee of
3. In 1945, Congress passed a strong Congressmen to assist AITUC was taken
resolution declaring support for the INA at the Gaya Session of INC in 1922.
cause. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (A) 1 and 2 only
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(B) 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. B
Ans. C • Statement 1 is not correct: Lokamanya
• The idea of creating an Indian National Tilak, who had developed a close
Army (INA) was first conceived by Captain association with Bombay work, was one of
MohanSingh out of the Indian prisoners of the moving spirits in the formation of the
war (POWs). Rashbehari Bose later AITUC. In the first conference, Lala Lajpat
transferred thecontrol and leadership of the Rai was elected as the President and V.M.
Indian Independence League and the INA Pawar was the first General Secretary.
to Subhash Bosein July 1943. On October • The manifesto issued to the workers by the
AITUC urged them not only to organize

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 themselves but also to intervene in • Governor can reserve any bill passed by the
nationalist politics: ‘Workers of India! . Your state legislature for the consideration of the
nation’s leaders ask for Swaraj, you must President.
not let them, leave you out of the reckoning. • Governor's tenure is 5 year, subject to the
Political freedom to you is of no worth Pleasure of President.
without economic freedom. You cannot • Governor cannot remove a minister from the
therefore afford to neglect the movement post on his discretion. It can be done on the
for national freedom. You are part and advice of CM. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
parcel of that movement. Lajpat Rai was
99) Consider the statements regarding the
among the first in India to link capitalism
Panchayats :
with imperialism and emphasize the crucial
of the working class in fighting this 1. B.R. Mehta is considered as architect of
combination. Panchayati Raj in India, he proposed a 3
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Indian tier model for Panchayats.
National Congress at its Gaya session in 2. Ashok Mehta proposed a 2 tier model for
1922 welcomed the formation of the AITUC Panchayats.
and formed a committee consisting of 3. B.R. Mehta and Ashok Mehta both
prominent Congressmen to assist its work. proposed that village panchayats should
Apart from Lajpat Rai, several of the be first point of decentralisation.
leading nationalists of the time became 4. On 2nd Oct 1959 Gujarat became the first
closely associated with the AITUC. C.R. state to implement Panchayati raj system.
Das presided over its third and fourth Which of the statement is / are incorrect :
sessions, and among the other prominent
names were the of C.F. Andrews, J.M. (A) 1 and 2 only
Sengupta, Subhas Bose, Jawaharlal (B) 2 and 3 only
Nehru, and Satyamurti. (C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
98) Consider the statements regarding the
Governor : Ans. C

1. 7th Constitutional Amendment 1956 a • B.R. Mehta is considered as architect of

Governor can be given charge of more than Panchayati Raj in India, he proposed a 3 tier
1 state. model for Panchayats.
2. Governor can reserve any bill passed by • Ashok Mehta proposed a 2 tier model for
the state legislature for the consideration of Panchayats.
the President. • B.R. Mehta and Ashok Mehta both proposed
3. Governor's tenure is 5 year, subject to the that District Panchayats should be first point of
Pleasure of President. decentralisation. Hence statement 3 is
4. Governor can remove a minister from the incorrect.
post on his discretion. • On 2nd Oct 1959 Rajasthan became the first
state to implement Panchayati raj system.
Which of the statement is / are correct :
Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. B
• 7th Constitutional Amendment 1956 a
Governor can be given charge of more than 1
state.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

100) Consider the statements regarding the cities and Nagar Panchayat- for transitional
Panchayats : area.
3. Schedule XII provides for 18 topics that can
1. Members are directly elected at village
be dedicated to the municipalities
level panchayat and there is indirect
mandatorily.
election at intermediate and District level
4. First Municipality in British era was
panchayat.
established in Calcutta.
2. 1/3rd seats will be reserved for women at all
3 tiers, excluding the number of seats Which of the statement is / are incorrect :
reserved for women belonging to the
(A) 1 and 2 only
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(B) 3 only
3. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
(C) 3 and 4 only
dissolution continues only for the
(D) None
remainder period.
4. Members of the state election commission Ans. C
can be removed as in the manner & on • 74th Constitutional Amendment 1992 provided
grounds, like a judge of High Court is two types of bodies i.e. local bodies that is
removed. municipal bodies under article 243 Q and
Which of the statement is / are incorrect : institution of planning i.e. District Planning
Committee article 243 ZD and Metropolitan
(A) 1 and 2 only
Planning Committee Article 243 ZE.
(B) 2 and 3 only
• It provides for Municipal Corporation- for big
(C) 3 and 4 only
cities, Municipal Council- for smaller cities and
(D) 1 and 4 only
Nagar Panchayat- for transitional area.
Ans. A • Schedule XII provides for 18 topics that can be
• Members are directly elected at all three tiers dedicated to the municipalities but not
of panchayats. (village, intermediate and mandatorily they can be dedicated to the
District level panchayat). Hence statement 1 is municipalities as per state law. Hence
incorrect. statement 3 is incorrect.
• 1/3rd seats will be reserved for women at all 3 • First Municipality in British era was established
tiers, Including the number of seats reserved in Madras in 1687-88. Hence statement 4 is
for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes incorrect.
and Scheduled Tribes. Hence statement 2 is 102) Consider the following statements
incorrect. regarding National Emergency :
• A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
1. It can be invoked on the grounds of war,
dissolution continues only for the remainder
external aggression or internal
period.
disturbance.
• Members of the state election commission can
2. It can be invoked by the President only on
be removed as in the manner & on grounds,
the written advice of the Cabinet.
like a judge of High Court is removed.
3. Its approval from the house of parliament is
101) Consider the statements regarding the done by simple majority within 1 month of
local bodies : its proclamation.
4. If it is invoked on the grounds of war and
1. 74th Constitutional Amendment 1992
external aggression fundamental right
provided two types of bodies i.e. local
under article 19 will be automatically
bodies and institution of planning.
suspended.
2. It provides for Municipal Corporation- for
big cities, Municipal Council- for smaller Which of the statement is / are incorrect :
(A) 1 and 2 only

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 (B) 1 and 3 only • President rule can be invoked by the President
(C) 3 and 4 only in the state on the advice of Governor of the
(D) None state or otherwise. Hence Statement 4 is
Ans. B incorrect.

It can be invoked on the grounds of war, 104) Consider the following statements
external aggression or armed rebellion. Word regarding the official languages :
internal disturbance was replaced by 44th 1. State can choose official language from the
constitutional amendment 1978. Hence languages given in schedule VIII of the
statement 1 is incorrect. constitution.
It can be invoked by the President only on the 2. Article 343 provides that official language
written advice of the Cabinet. Added by 44th of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script.
constitutional amendment 1978. 3. Constitution mandates that proceeding in
Its approval from the house of parliament is supreme court and high courts shall be in
done by special majority within 1 month of its English.
proclamation. Added by 44th constitutional 4. There are 22 languages in schedule VIII of
amendment 1978. Hence statement 1 is the constitution.
incorrect.
Which of the statement is / are correct :
According to the article 358. If it is invoked on
the grounds of war and external aggression (A) 1 and 2 only
fundamental right under article 19 will be (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
automatically suspended. (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
103) Consider the statements regarding the
emergency provisions : Ans. C

1. The suspension of fundamental rights • State can choose any language as official
during national emergency is inspired from language. No restriction is provided to choose
Weimar constitution. from the languages given in schedule VIII of
2. The maximum duration for President rule in the constitution. Hence statement 1 is
a state is 3 years. incorrect.
3. During the President rule state government • Article 343 provides that official language of
is dismissed. the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script.
4. President rule can be invoked in the state Although Official languages Act 1963 gives
only on the advice of Governor of the state. English unlimited period to be used as
language of official communication.
Which of the statement is / are correct :
• Article 348, Constitution mandates that
(A) 1 and 2 only proceeding in supreme court and high courts
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only shall be in English.
(C) 3 and 4 only • There are 22 languages in schedule VIII of the
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitution.
Ans. B
• The suspension of fundamental rights during
national emergency is inspired from Weimar
(German) constitution.
• The maximum duration for President rule in a
state is 3 years.
• During the President rule state government is
dismissed.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

105) Consider the following statements : • Article 338A - National Commission for
1. The UPSC consists of a chairman and Scheduled Tribes
other members appointed by the President • Article 280 - Union Finance Commission
of India. • Article 324 - Election Commission of India
2. Half of the members of UPSC should be • Article 76 - Attorney General of India
such persons who have held office for at 107) Consider the following statements
least 10 years either under the GoI or under
the government of a state. 1. 26th Constitutional amendment 1971 -
abolished privy Purse
3. The members of the State Public Service
2. 52nd constitutional amendment 1985 -
Commission are appointed and removed
by the Governor of the concerned state. Anti-defection law.
4. The UPSC is considered a watchdog of 3. 91st constitution amendment 2003 -
maximum limit on number of Council of
merit system.
Ministers.
Which of the statement is / are correct : 4. 102 constitution amendment 2018 -
(A) 1 and 2 only National Commission for Backward
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only classes.
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only Which of the pairs given above is / are correct:
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) 1 and 2 only
Ans. C (B) 2 and 3 only
• The UPSC consists of a chairman and other (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
members appointed by the President of India. (D) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
• Half of the members of UPSC should be such Ans. D
persons who have held office for at least 10
• 26th Constitutional amendment 1971 -
years either under the GoI or under the
abolished privy Purse
government of a state.
• 52nd constitutional amendment 1985 - Anti-
• The members of the State Public Service
defection law.
Commission are appointed by the Governor of
the concerned state. But removed by the • 91st constitution amendment 2003 - maximum
limit on number of Council of Ministers.
President. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• 102 constitution amendment 2018 - National
• The UPSC is considered a watchdog of merit
system. Commission for Backward classes.

106) Consider the following pairs 108) Consider the following statements
regarding administration of scheduled area
1. Article 338A - Administrative Tribunals under schedule V of the constitution :
2. Article 280 - Union Finance Commission
1. Governor is empowered to constitute,
3. Article 324 - Election Commission of India
4. Article 76 - Comptroller and Auditor increase, diminish or abolish the scheduled
area.
General of India
2. Governor constitutes Tribe’s Advisory
Which of the pairs given above is / are correct: Council to advise on matters related to
(A) 1 and 2 only welfare & advancement of Tribes.
(B) 2 and 3 only 3. 20 members Tribes Advisory Council, 3/4th
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only of which shall be among the MLAs elected
(D) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 from tribe. If MLA are not sufficient in no.
then members shall be chosen from tribal
Ans. B people.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

 4. Governor has the power to declare that a • Schedule VI deals with administration of tribal
law passed by the State Legislature or area in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura.
Parliament shall not apply or apply with • Tribal area is administered as Autonomous
suitable modifications in the scheduled District.
area. • District Council can regulate business of
Which of the pairs given above is / are correct: money lending, trading by non-tribals, with
assent of the Governor.
(A) 1 and 2 only • The laws of state legislature or Parliament do
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only not apply or apply with suitable modifications in
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
the Autonomous District.
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
110) Consider the following statements
Ans. D regarding state legislature :
• President is empowered to constitute, 1. The maximum strength of the legislative
increase, diminish or abolish the scheduled council in the state can be 1/3rd of the
area. hence statement 1 is incorrect. legislative assembly.
• Governor constitutes Tribe’s Advisory Council 2. The Constitution provides that states only
to advise on matters related to welfare & with large population can have legislative
advancement of Tribes. council.
• 20 members Tribes Advisory Council, 3/4th of 3. The procedure to establish or demolish the
which shall be among the MLAs elected from legislative council can be started from state
tribe. If MLA are not sufficient in no. then legislature itself.
members shall be chosen from tribal people. 4. The legislative council can not stop or
• Governor has the power to declare that a law amend the money bill.
passed by the State Legislature or Parliament
Which of the pairs given above is / are incorrect
shall not apply or apply with suitable
:
modifications in the scheduled area.
(A) 1 only
109) Consider the following statements
(B) 2 only
regarding administration of tribal area under
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
schedule VI of the constitution:
(D) None of the above
1. Schedule VI deals with administration of
Ans. B
tribal area in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Tripura. • The maximum strength of the legislative
2. Tribal area is administered as Autonomous council in the state can be 1/3rd of the
District. legislative assembly and minimum can be 40.
3. District Council can regulate business of • The Constitution does not provide any criteria
money lending, trading by non-tribals, with to establish or demolish the legislative council
assent of the Governor. in the state.
4. The laws of state legislature or Parliament • The procedure to establish or demolish the
do not apply or apply with suitable legislative council can be started from state
modifications in the Autonomous District. legislature itself.
Which of the pairs given above is / are correct: • The legislative council can not stop or amend
the money bill.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Ans. D

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

111) Most of the states have a unicameral 113) Consider the following statements:
system in India, while others have a bicameral
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the
system. Which of these states have bicameral
agriculture sector, District Central
legislature?
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more
(A) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and credit in comparison to Scheduled
Jammu & Kashmir Commercial Banks and Regional Rural
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Banks.
Maharashtra 2. One of the most important functions of
(C) Kerala, Gujarat, Telangana and Jharkhand DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
(D) Arunachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Agricultural Credit Societies.
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are
Ans. B correct ?
112) Consider the following statements : (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
1. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with
(C) Both 1 and 2
2/3rd majority, that in national interest,
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Parliament should legislate upon a state list
topic, then parliament may do so. Ans. B
2. If National Emergency is in operation,
• Scheduled commercial banks contributed the
Parliament is empowered to legislate upon
major share (78 – 80 per cent) in agricultural
any topic of state list.
and allied credit. Co-operative institutions also
3. Under article 253 in order to give effect to
play a significant role in extending agricultural
International treaty parliament may
credit and the share of all co-operative
legislate upon any topic whether it is under
banks/institutions (i.e. StCBs, District Central
state list.
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) and PACS put
4. Article 248 provides that residuary powers
together) constituted 15 16 per cent. The RRBs
lies with the States.
contributed the remaining 5 per cent of the
Which of the pairs given above is / are agricultural credit.
incorrect:
114) With reference to ‘Participatory Notes or P-
(A) 1 and 2 only Notes’, consider the following:
(B) 2 and 3 only
1. It allows overseas investors to invest in
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Indian stock markets without registering
(D) None of the above
themselves with the market regulator in
Ans. C India.
2. Participatory Notes can be issued only by
• If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with 2/3rd
the Scheduled Commercial Banks through
majority, that in national interest, Parliament
Voluntary Retention Route.
should legislate upon a state list topic, then
parliament may do so. Which of the statements given above is/are
• If National Emergency is in operation, correct?
Parliament is empowered to legislate upon any (A) Only 1
topic of state list. (B) Only 2
• Under article 253 in order to give effect to (C) Both 1 and 2
International treaty parliament may legislate (D) Neither 1 nor 2
upon any topic whether it is under state list.
• Article 248 provides that residuary powers lies Ans. A
with the Parliament. Hence statement 4 is
incorrect.

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

• Participatory Notes or P-Notes (PNs) are whereas in market economy, price is
financial instruments issued by a registered determined by demand and supply.
foreign institutional investor (FII). 2. Unlike market economy, in planned
economy the production and distribution
115) Which one of the following statements is
decisions are taken through the
correct with reference to Amartya Sen's idea of
coordination of economic activities brought
development?
by price signals.
(A) It emphasizes on provisioning of basic
Which of the statements given above is/are
needs for all.
correct?
(B) It links the human development to income
levels in the society. (A) Only 1
(C) It sees human beings as beneficiaries of all (B) Only 2
development activities. (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) It emphasizes on expanding freedom to (D) Neither 1 nor 2
improve human development. Ans. D
Ans. D
• In a market economy (and not planned
116) Consider the following statements: economy), the price reflects, on an average,
the society’s valuation of the good or service in
1. Economic decisions are made through
question. In this system, all goods or services
market systems in imperative planning.
come with a price (which is mutually agreed
2. Indicative plan recognizes consumers’
upon by the buyers and sellers) at which the
sovereignty and producers’ freedom.
exchanges take place. In a centrally planned
Which of the statements given above is/are economy, the government or the central
correct? authority takes all important decisions in the
(A) Only 1 economy regarding production, exchange and
(B) Only 2 consumption of goods and services.
(C) Both 1 and 2 118) With reference to India’s Five -Year Plans,
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 which of the following statements is/are
Ans. B correct?

• In imperative planning, economic decisions are 1. From the Second Five -Year Plan, there
made through a central planning authority was a determined thrust towards
instead of a market system. There is the substitution of basic and capital good
absence of institutions of private property, industries.
competition and profit motive of industrialists, 2. The Fourth Five -Year Plan adopted the
etc. The essence of indicative planning is that objective of correcting the earlier trend of
it recognizes not only consumers’ sovereignty increased concentration of wealth and
but also producers’ freedom so that the targets economic power.
and priorities of the plans are achieved. It then 3. In the Fifth Five -Year Plan, for the first
involves a middle path of planning mechanism time, the financial sector was included as
and market mechanism—a kind of an integral part of the Plan.
coordination between private and public Select the correct answer using the code given
activities. below.
117) Consider the following statements with (A) 1 and 2 only
respect to market economy and planned (B) 2 only
economy: (C) 3 only
1. In planned economy, the price is (D) 1, 2 and 3
determined by society’s valuation of goods

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

Ans. A (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
• For the first time in Indian planning, Financial
sector became an integral part of the plan in Ans. D
the Ninth Five – Year Plan. 121) With reference to the Indian economy after
119) Which of the following is a feature of the the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the
National Monetization Pipeline? following statements:
(A) It includes monetisation of only greenfield 1. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm
projects. economy increased.
(B) The monetisation of the assets will be 2. The growth rate in rural employment
conducted through Infrastructure decreased.
Investment Trusts. Which of the statements given above is/are
(C) Oil and Gas pipelines form the biggest correct?
sector by value in the Pipeline
(D) There will be a transfer of ownership rights (A) Only 1
to the private sector partner. (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
Ans. B (D) Neither 1 nor 2
• National Monetisation Pipeline aims to unlock Ans. C
value in brownfield projects by engaging the
private sector. Roads (not Oil & Gas Pipelines) 122) In a given year in India, official poverty lines
at 27% constitute the biggest share in the are higher in some states than in other
sectors whose assets have been put forward because :
for monetization. It is closely followed by (A) Poverty rates vary from state to state
Railways (25%), Power (15%), oil & gas (B) Price levels vary from state to state
pipelines (8%) and Telecom (6%). These top 5 (C) Gross state product varies from state to
sectors account for 83% of pipeline value. This state
monetization scheme has been designed (D) Quality of public distribution varies from
where the revenue collection and appropriation state to state
rights from the government owned assets will
Ans. B
be transferred to the private sector partner.
There will be no transfer of ownership rights, 123) With reference to Fixed-term employment,
and in the end, the public sector assets will be consider the following statements:
handed over back to the government. 1. Fixed-term employees can be directly hired
120) With reference to casual workers employed by employers without mediation by a
in India, consider the following statements: middleman.
2. Employers are not required to provide
1. All casual workers are entitled for
retrenchment benefits to fixed-term
Employees Provident Fund Coverage.
employees.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular
3. The Code on Social Security specify
working hours and overtime payment.
maximum one year tenure for hiring fixed-
3. The government can by a notification
term employees.
specify that an establishment or industry
shall pay wages only through its bank Which of the statements given above is/are
account. correct?
Which of the above statements are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(A) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

Ans. A • Growth Oriented Approach was started in first
plan and was the major focus of planning in the
• The Code on Social Security (2020) does not
1950s and early 1960s. Therefore, it was not a
specify a minimum or maximum tenure for
new approach in policies and programmes
hiring fixed-term employees.
post-1991 reforms. The inequalities caused by
124) In the context of poverty estimation in India, initial plans and disparities exacerbated by
which of the following were the Green Revolution were tried to be addressed
recommendations of the Tendulkar by Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) (not the fifth
Committee? 5-year plan). Third plan focused on Incomes
1. Adoption of calorie consumption-based and employment generation through the
poverty estimation. creation of additional assets and by means of
2. A uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across work generation programmes.
rural and urban India. • Fifth Five Year Plan (FYP) witnessed the
3. Incorporation of private expenditure on beginning of the provision for basic amenities
health and education while estimating approach. Fifth plan ensured provision for the
poverty. basic amenities to the people is the approach
4. Using Mixed Reference Period based to address poverty in India. For Example,
estimates. Public Distribution System (PDS), Free
Education etc.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 126) Which one of the following is not a reason
for the phenomenon of jobless growth
(A) 1, 2 and 3
witnessed in India?
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (A) Jump from primary to tertiary sector in
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 sectoral reallocation of economic activity.
(B) Growth in capital intensive sectors rather
Ans. B
than labour intensive sectors.
• Tendulkar committee (2009) was chaired by (C) Lack of focus on higher education.
Suresh Tendulkar and gave the (D) Poor manufacturing output growth and
recommendation of moving away from Calorie- productivity.
consumption based poverty estimation. Ans. C
125) Which of the following statements with
• Too much focus on higher education that too
reference to the poverty alleviation approaches
limited in number in relation to the population
undertaken by the government in India is
is one of the reasons for jobless growth. Quality
correct?
Mass education could not be ensured. This
(A) First Five-Year Plan marked the beginning resulted in a workforce that did not have the
of Trickle-Down Approach. basic skills required to be employed in
(B) Liberalization, Privatization, and manufacturing sectors, thus contributing to
Globalization reforms of 1991 marked the poor employment scenarios.
beginning of Growth-Oriented Approach.
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan marked the beginning
of Income and Employment Generation
Approach.
(D) Third Five Year Plan marked the beginning
of the Provision for Basic Amenities
Approach.
Ans. A

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345

127) In relation to employment in India, consider 4. Growing Population
the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Unemployment rate is higher in rural areas given below:
as compared to urban areas.
(A) 1 and 2 only
2. In rural India, unemployment rate is higher
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
among males as compared to females.
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. In India, working age population ratio has
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
shown a declining trend in the last decade.
Ans. B
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? 130) Which of the following is not one of the
correct reasons behind the usage of
(A) 1 and 2 only
consumption expenditure method for poverty
(B) 1 and 3 only
estimation in India?
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) Difficulty in assessing income of self-
employed people and daily wage
Ans. B
labourers.
• Unemployment rate is higher in urban areas as (B) Data collection is difficult in rural and
compared to rural areas in India. India has informal economy of India
seen an upward moving trend in Working Age (C) Large fluctuations in income levels of
Population ratio. people due to seasonal factors.
(D) Households cannot smoothen their
128) Consider the following pairs :
consumption patterns due to absence of
1. Chronic Poor : A Person who regularly household savings.
moves in and out of poverty
Ans. D
2. Transient Poor : A Person who is
occasionally poor but rich most of the time • Since households may be able to access credit
3. Churning Poor : A Person who always markets or household savings and thereby
remain trapped in poverty smooth their consumptions to some degree.
Thus, consumption expenditures may be able
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
to provide a better basis for determining a
(A) 1 and 2 only household’s actual standard of living. Hence,
(B) 2 only most of the Poverty Estimation Committees
(C) 2 and 3 only proposed that per capita consumption
(D) 1 and 3 only expenditure or household expenses were the
Ans. B right statistical choice for calculating poverty in
India.
• People who are always poor and those who are
usually poor but who may sometimes have a
little more money (example: casual workers)
are grouped together as the chronic poor.
Churning poor regularly move in and out of
poverty. Example are small farmers and
seasonal workers.
129) Which of the following is/are the sources of
Human Capital Formation in any economy?
1. On-Job Training
2. Investment in Health
3. Migration

[Link] Call / WhatsApp: 9779353345