22-05-2026

1001CMD303052250118 MD

PHYSICS

1) A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury at

0°C and 100°C respectively. When the pressure reading is 60 cm of mercury, the temperature is:

(1) 25°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 15°C
(4) 12.5°C

2) The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel
vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If α for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is :-

(1) 9 × 10–6/°C
(2) 6 × 10–6/°C
(3) 36 × 10–6/°C
(4) 27 × 10–6/°C

3) 4 gm of steam at 100°C is added to 20 gm of water at 46°C in a container of negligible mass.

Assuming no heat is lost to surrounding, the mass of water in container at thermal equilibrium is.
(Latent heat of vaporisation = 540 cal/gm. Specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C).

(1) 18 gm
(2) 20 gm
(3) 22 gm
(4) 24 gm

4) A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C. What time (in minutes) does it take to cool from
40°C to 28°C if the surrounding temperature is 10°C ? Assume Newton’s law of cooling holds :-

(1) 3.5
(2) 11
(3) 7
(4) 10

5) The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 127°C and 1.0 × 105
N/m2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 227°C and 0.05 ×
105 N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules is :

(1) ms–1

(2)
ms–1
(3)
ms–1
(4) ms–1

6) The P-V diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal
monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) 4 moles of a gas is taken from state A to C as shown in given P-T diagram then work done will be.

(P = 105 Pa)

(1)
800 R ℓn

(2)
800 R ℓn
4000 R ℓn
(3)

-1600 R ℓn
(4)

8) P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic process are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
correspond respectively to

(1) He and O2
(2) O2 and He
(3) He and Ar
(4) O2 and N2

9) A gas is found to obey the law P2V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T0 and V0. If
the gas expands to a volume 2V0, its final temperature becomes :-

(1)
(2) 2T0

(3)

(4)

10) Find the amount of work done by gas to increase the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas
by 30° C, if it expands under the condition V ∝ T2/3 :-

(1) 176 J
(2) 167 J
(3) 671 J
(4) 761 J

11) 2g of water, of volume 2 cm3 at 100ºC is converted into steam at same temperature under
normal atmospheric pressure (105 Pa). The volume of steam formed equals 1672 cm3. If the specific
latent heat of vapourisation of water is 225 J/g, then change in internal energy is :

(1) 450 J
(2) 167 J
(3) 283 J
(4) 617 J

12) A body of mass 36 gm moves with SHM of amplitude A = 13 cm and time period T = 12 sec. At
time t = 0, the displacement x is +13 cm. The shortest time of passage from x = +6.5 cm to x = –6.5
cm is :-

(1) 4 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 6 sec
(4) 3 sec
13) A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A with angular frequency ω along a straight line. When

it is at a distance A from mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amount mω2A2
due to an impulsive force. Then its new amplitude becomes-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) A body of mass 1 kg is executing simple harmonic motion. Its displacement y (cm) at t seconds is
given by y = 6 sin(100t + π/4) . Its maximum kinetic energy is

(1) 6 J
(2) 18 J
(3) 24 J
(4) 36 J

15) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium
y1 = 5 sin 2π(75 t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10 sin 2π(150 t – 0.50x)

The intensity ratio of the two wave is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

16) A stretched wire of some length under a tension is vibrating with its fundamental frequency. Its
length is decreased by 45% and tension is increased by 21%. Now its fundamental frequency :-

(1) increases by 50%

(2) increases by 100%
(3) decreases by 50%
(4) decreases by 25%

17) Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512 Hz. It
is seen that if one arm of A is slightly filed, then the number of beats increases. Original frequency of
A will be :-

(1) 502 Hz
(2) 507 Hz
(3) 517 Hz
(4) 522 Hz
18) Fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is 220Hz. If th of the pipe is filled with water, the
frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is :-

(1) 220 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 880 Hz
(4) 1760 Hz

19) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

20) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure.

The force on a positive charge kept at the centre O is:-

(1) Zero
(2) Along the diagonal BD
(3) Along the diagonal AC
(4) Perpendicular to side AB

21) Which of the following figure correctly represents the electric field lines due to a combination of
one positive and one negative charge ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Linear charge density of a semicircular arc varies with θ as λ = λ0 sinθ, where λ0 is a constant,

then total charge on arc is :-

(1) 2λ0R
(2) λ R
0

(3)

(4)

23) An insulated sphere of radius R has a uniform volume charge density ρ. The electric field at a
point P inside the sphere at a distance r from the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

24) For an infinite line of charge having charge density λ lying along x-axis, the work done in moving

a charge 'q' from C to A along arc CA is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) An electric dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis. At a point P, far away
from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y-axis, OP makes an angle θ with the x-axis, then:

(1)
(2)
(3) θ = 45°

(4)

26) An electric dipole with dipole moment is kept in an electric field of

The torque acting on it is:

(1)
(2) (Nm)
(3)
(4) – (Nm)

27) Assertion :- Excess charge given to a conductor appears on its surface. Reason :- When charge
appears on surface, then potential energy of conductor becomes minimum.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

28) Assertion (A) :- On the sharp edges of charged conductor, electric field is higher.
Reason (R) :- Potential is higher at the sharp edges of conductor.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

29) The diagram shows two capacitors with their capacitance and breakdown voltages as mentioned.
What should be the maximum voltage of the source such that no capacitor undergoes breaks down ?

(1) 2.5 kV
(2) 10/3 kV
(3) 3 kV
(4) 1 kV
30)

A charged parallel plate capacitor is given. Choose most appropriate graph of potential with distance
of it. (K1 > K2)

(Where K represent dielectric constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Figure shows a network of capacitors. Find the value of C, if the effective capacitance between

the points A and B is 12 μF.

(1) 20 μF
(2) 18 μF
(3) 8 μF
(4) 24 μF

32) An ammeter reads upto 1A. Its resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of
the required shunt is :-

(1) 0.03 Ω
(2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω
(4) 0.09 Ω

33) A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to determine an unknown resistance 'X' using a standard 20
ohm resistor (see figure). The galvanometer shows null point when tapping-key is at 20 cm from A.

The determined value of 'X' is :-

(1) 20 ohm
(2) 10 ohm
(3) 15 ohm
(4) 5 ohm

34) An electric bulb is rated 200 volt and 100 watt. Power consumed by it, when operated on 100
volt, is :-

(1) 50 watt
(2) 75 watt
(3) 90 watt
(4) 25 watt

35) To get maximum current through a resistance of 2.5 Ω, one can use m rows of cells, each row
having n cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 Ω. What are the values of n and m if the
total number of cells is 45 ?

(1) m= 3, n = 15
(2) m = 5, n = 9
(3) m = 9, n = 5
(4) m = 15, n = 3

36) Two batteries of e.m.f. 4 V and 8 V with internal resistances 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in a
circuit with a resistance of 9 Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the
points P and Q are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Net resistance of the given circuit between X and Y is :-

(1)
Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 2Ω

38) Voltage V v/s current I graph is shown in the figure. Identify correct statement :

(1) resistance in region I is ohmic, but in II & III are non-ohmic

(2) resistance in region II is zero and in III is ohmic
(3) resistance in region II is zero and in III is non-ohmic
(4) resistance in region I is ohmic but in II, it is non-ohmic.

39) Consider a wire of area of cross-section 1 cm2 having current 10A flowing through it. If number
of free electrons per unit volume is 9 × 1028 m–3, find the drift velocity of free electrons :-

(1) 6.94 × 10–6 m/s

(2) 1.94 × 10–3 m/s
(3) 5.94 × 10–2 m/s
(4) 2.94 × 10–4 m/s

40) Current density at a point in a wire is given by A/m2. Find the current through a
cross sectional area .

(1) 8 A
(2) 20 A
(3) 12 A
(4) 2 A

41) According to kinetic theory of gases which of the following are correct
(A) Collisions are always elastic.
(B) There is no force of attraction among the molecules.
(C) Only a small number of molecules have very high velocity.
(D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities.

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

42) A solid cylinder of density ρ0, cross-section area A and length ℓ floats in a liquid ρ(> ρ0) with its
axis vertical, as shown. If it is slightly displaced downward and released, the time period will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Following figure shows for Gaussian surface S1, S2, S3 and S4.
 Now, match the following columns and mark the correct code
given below.

Column-I Column-II

(i) (p)

(ii) (q) 0

(iii) (r)

(iv) (s)

(1) (i)-(s), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)

(2) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)
(3) (i)-(q), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(p)
(4) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)

44) In the circuit shown in figure potential difference between A and B is :

(1) 30 V
(2) 60 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 90 V

45) The resistance and the magnitude of the current depend on the path that the current takes. The
drawing shown three situations in which the current takes different paths through a piece of
material. Each of the rectangular pieces is made from a material whose resistivity is R and the unit
of length is L0. Each piece of material is connected to a battery of EMF V. Find the ratio of current in
a, b & c.

(1) 2 : 4 : 1
(2) 16 : 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 : 4
(4) 1 : 16 : 4

CHEMISTRY

1) Choose the correct option ?

(1) There are zero tertiary carbon & tertiary hydrogen present.
(2) There are 4 secondary carbon present.
(3) There are 8 secondary hydrogen present.
(4) All of these

2) IUPAC name of :-

(1) 2-Carboxyphenol
(2) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(3) 1-Carboxy-2-hydroxybenzene
(4) 2-Carboxy-1-hydroxybenzene

3) How many chiral center present in given compound ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
4) Which of the following compound show geometrical isomerism

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(1) Only i, iii, iv

(2) Only i, ii, v, vi
(3) Only ii, iv, v, vi
(4) Only i, iii, iv, v

5) Relationship between (A) and (B) are :-

(1) Chain Isomers

(2) Position Isomers
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Metamers

6)

Number of correct statement in following :

(a)
Functional group isomers

(b)
Metamers

(c) CH3–C≡C–CH3 and

Ring chain isomer
 (d)
Chain isomers

(e)
Functional group isomers
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

7) Statement-I :- furan and thiophene both are hetero cyclic compound.

Statement-II :- furan is alicyclic but thiophene is aromatic in nature.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

8) Which of the following compound contain sp hybridised carbon atom ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following does not react with Na :-

(1) Ph–COOH
(2) Me–O–Me
(3) Et–OH
(4) Me–C≡CH

10) The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :

(1) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D) > (E)
(2) (B) > (A) > (C) > (E) > (D)
(3) (B) > (A) > (C) > (D) > (E)
(4) (B) > (C) > (A) > (E) > (D)

11) Which of the following has maximum enolisation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which carbocation is the most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Arrange the following alkenes in order of stability :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > C > A > D
(3) D > C > A > B
(4) D > C > B > A

14) Match the following :-

Kolbe's
(a) (p)
electrolysis
CH3Cl

Corey House
(b) CH3–COOK (q)
synthesis

Wurtz
(c) (r)
CH3–Br reaction

Friedel craft
(d) (s)
alkylation

(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s

(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s
(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

15) The major product obtained in the reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Major product of the following reaction is :- Major Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Ph–CH=CH–CH3 X, Major product 'X' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph–CH=CH–CH2Cl

(4)

18) Which is attacking electrophile in sulphonation of benzene ?

(1) H2SO4
(2) SO3
(3)

(4)

19) Give the correct order of reagent in following reaction respectively :-

(1) ,
CH3 – Cl + AlCl3, Zn – Hg / HCl
Zn – Hg / HCl,

(2)
CH3Cl + AlCl3,
(3)
,
ZnHg/HCl, CH3 – Cl + AlCl3
(4) All are correct

20) In sulphur estimation 0.167 gm of an organic compound gave 0.6815 gm of barium sulphate.
What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound from carius method ?

(1) 56.04
(2) 42.10
(3) 30.21
(4) 35.15

21) Statement-I :- Column chromatography involves separation of a mixture over a column of

adsorbent (stationary phase) packed in a glass tube.
Statement-II :- Thin layer chromatography involves separation of substances of a mixture over a
thin layer of an adsorbent coated on glass plate.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

22) Statement-I :- Nitrogen, Sulphur and Halogen present in organic compound are detected by
"Lassaigne test". Statement-II :- In lassaigne test of nitrogen, black precipitate indicates the
presence of nitrogen.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

23)

Which of the following statement is correct :

If = 0.34V
= 0.0V
= –0.136V

(1) Cu can be oxidised by H+ ion.

2+
(2) Sn ion can be reduced by H2
(3) Sn can be oxidised by Cu2+
(4) Cu can be oxidised by Sn2+

24)
Based on above data, select correct statement under standard conditions -

(1) Best oxidising agent is A+

(2) Best reducing agent is D
(3) D can displace C+ ion from its solution
(4) In galvanic cell obtained by electrodes A & B current flow from B to A in external circuit

25) Suppose that an alkaline dry cell was manufactured using cadmium metal rather than Zn. What
effect would this have on the standard emf of the cell. The standard reduction potential
while

(1) No change
(2) Decrease by 0.36 V
(3) Increase by 0.36 V
(4) May increase or decrease by 0.36 V

26) Calculate the electrode potential of following at 25°C at pOH = 11 in a solution containing 0.01
M of both Cr+3 and Cr2O72– ions ; E° = 1.4V

(1) 1 V
(2) 1.8 V
(3) 2 V
(4) 3V

27) Based on the following information arrange four metals, A, B, C and D in order of increasing
ability to act as reducing agents :
(I) Only C react with 1 M HCl to give H2(g)
(II) When A is added to solution of the other metal salts, metallic D is formed but not B or C

(1) D < A < C < B

(2) A < D < C < B
(3) B < D < A < C
(4) D < A < B < C

28) The preparation of LiOH by the electrolysis of solution of LiCl using a platinum anode led to
current efficiency of 96.5% what weight of LiOH was formed by the passage of 10 A for 1 hr? (Li =
7) :-

(1) 4.32 gm
(2) 8.64 gm
(3) 17.28 gm
(4) 2.16 g

29) Assertion (A) : Limiting molar conductivity of strong electrolyte is obtained by the
extrapolation of the versus C1/2 curve.

Reason (R) : for weak electrolytes is obtained by using Kohlrausch's law.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

30) Statement-1 : The voltage of mercury cell remains constant for long period of time.
Statement-2 : It is because net cell reaction does not involve any ion in solution whose
concentration can change during its life time.

Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is correct explanation for
(1)
statement-1
Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true but statement-2 is not correct explanation of
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are false.

31) The electromotive force for the following cell Cu(s) | Cu+2 (0.01M) || Cu+2 (0.04 M) | Cu(s) is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The rate of a first order reaction is 0.5 Ms–1 at 20 sec. and 0.4 Ms–1 at 30 sec. after initiation of
the reaction. The half life time of the reaction is (approx.) :

(1) 20 sec.
(2) 15 sec.
(3) 60 sec.
(4) 30 sec.

0
33) If = 1.386 and A = 1M then the ratio of is where 1, 0 represents first and zero order
reactions respectively :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 0.693 : 1
34) The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction :

N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + O2(g) was

1.24 × 10–2 mol L–1 at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10–2 mol L–1.
Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K :- (ℓn 6.2 = 1.824)

(1) 0.060 min–1

(2) 0.0304 min–1
(3) 0.0890 min–1
(4) 0.1010 min–1

35) A reaction takes place in three steps with individual rate constant and activation energy

Rate constant Activation energy

Step-1 K1

Step-2 K2

Step-3 K3

Overall rate constant, , overall activation energy of the reaction will be :

(1) 140 kJ/mol
(2) 150 kJ/mol
(3) 130 kJ/mol
(4) 120 kJ/mol

36) A catalyst decreases activation energy from 100 KJ mol–1 to 80 KJmol–1. At what temperature the
rate of reaction in the absence of catalyst at 500K will be equal to the rate of reaction in the
presence of catalyst :-

(1) 400 K
(2) 200 K
(3) 625 K
(4) 100 K

37)

The following data is given for reaction between A and B :-

[Link]. [A] [B] Rate
–1 –1
mol.L mol.L mol.L–1 sec–1
I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4
II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–4
III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–4
Which of the following are correct statements -
(a) Rate constant of the reaction is 10–4
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

38) For the reaction of type A(g) → 2B(g)

List-I contains four entries and List-II contains four entries. Entry of List-I are to be matched with
only one entry of List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) vs (1)
for first order

[A] vs t for
(Q) (2)
first order

[B] vs t for
(R) (3)
first order

[A] vs t for
(S) (4)
zero order

(1) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(2) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(3) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(4) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-2

39) Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P°
= 200 torr) and toluene (P° = 150 torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0.57
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.43
(4) 0.40

40) How many grams of carbon dioxide gas is dissolved in a 1L bottle of water,if the manufacturer
uses a pressure of 2.4 atm in the bottling process at 25°C ? (KH of CO2 = ) :-

(1) 8.06 g
(2) 3.52 g
(3) 4.59 g
(4) 6.91 g

41) Vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ & ‘B’ are 300 and 800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these
two liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole percentage of ‘B’ is 90,
then the total vapour pressure is observed to be 720 torr. Which of the following is true for this
solution?

(1) ΔVmix > 0

(2) ΔHmix < 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0
(4) ΔSmix < 0

42) 90 g CH3COOH (i = 0.5) is dissolved in 110 g benzene to form a solution. What will be osmotic
pressure of solution at 300 K if its density is 1.2 g/mℓ :-

(1) 110.8 atm

(2) 90.2 atm
(3) 115 atm
(4) 2 atm

43) If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol of
H2O, the degree of ionization of NaCl is–

(1) 60%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 40%

44) Statement-I : Starch is used as an indicator in the reaction of I2 and Na2S2O3.

Statement-II : Starch form a complex of blue colour with I2.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

45) Match the name of the methods of preparation of lyophobic colloids in column-I with the process
involved in the preparation of lyophobic colloidal solution in column-II.

Column - I Column - II
 Electrical
(I) (P)
disintegration

The process of preparing sols of gold,

(II) Peptization (Q)
silver, platinum, etc.

This method is applied, generally, to

(III) Oxidation (R) convert a freshly prepared precipitate into
a colloidal sol
(1) I - Q, II - R, III - P
(2) I - R, II - P, III - Q
(3) I - P, II - R, III - Q
(4) I - R, II - Q, III - P

BIOLOGY

1)
Observe the above diagrammatic representation of an electron micrograph of a section of
chloroplast and choose the correct option regarding functions of X, Y and Z :-

X- Synthesis of sugar
(1) Y- Light reaction
Z- Dark reaction
X- Protein synthesis
(2) Y- Enzymatic reaction
Z- Dark reaction
X- Synthesis of ATP
(3) Y- Light reaction
Z- Synthesis of sugar
X- Storage of fats
(4) Y- Light reaction
Z- Dark reaction

2) Identify incorrect statement from given below statements :

Carboxylation is the most crucial step of Calvin cycle where CO2 is utilised for the carboxylation
(1)
of RuBP.
(2) Carboxylation is catalysed by the enzyme RuBisCO.
(3) RuBisCO enzyme do not have an oxygenation capacity.
During reduction stage of calvin cycle, carbohydrate is formed at the expense of ATP and
(4)
NADPH.

3) Select the correct match :

Column-I Column-II
 Primary electron
(a) Antenna molecule (i)
acceptor

(b) NADP-reductase (ii) Chlorophyll synthesis

On the outer surface

(c) Succinyl CoA (iii) of thylakoid
membrane

(d) Phaeophytin (iv) Carotenoids

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

4) Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in C4 plants during photosynthesis :-

(1) Light reaction → CO2 fixation by PEPcase → Regeneration of PEP → Transport of C4 acid
(2) Light reaction → CO2 fixation by PEPcase→ Decarboxylation of C4 acid → Regeneration of PEP
(3) Light reaction → Transport of C4 acid→ Regeneration of PEP → CO2 fixation by RuBisCO
(4) Light reaction → Decarboxylation of C4 acid → Transport of C4 acid → Regeneration of PEP

5) Radioisotopic technique was used to :-

(1) Find out the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll pigments

(2) Study photorespiration in some plants
(3) Establish the fact that the oxygen evolved during photosynthesis is come from CO2
(4) Trace the path of carbon in photosynthesis

6) Which of the following is absent in the stroma lamellae membrane ?

(1) PS II
(2) PSI
(3) NADP reductase
(4) Both (1) & (3)

7) During Z-scheme of photosynthesis which of the following not helps in creation of proton
gradient?

(1) Release of protons in stroma by water splitting

(2) Presence of H-carriers in the thylakoid membrane
(3) Reduction of NADP+
(4) Oxidation of water by photosystem-II

8) "There is neither synthesis of sugar, nor of ATP, rather it results in the release of CO2 with the
utilization of ATP." This statement is related with :-

(1) Photorespiration
(2) Calvin cycle
(3) Light reaction
(4) C4 -Pathway

9) From the statements given below choose the correct option :-

(A) Photorespiratory pathway is absent in C4 plants.
(B) C4 plants are known to be more tolerant to high temperature than C3 plants.
(C) Photorespiration makes a major difference between C3 and C4 plant.
(D) More the ATP used in photorespiration more is the photosynthesis.
(E) RuBisCO has a lower affinity for CO2 when the CO2 : O2 in nearly equal.

(1) A, B, D are true

(2) A, B, C are true
(3) B, C, D are true
(4) A, D, E are true

10) Match the following columns -

Electron transfer from

(A) PS-II to its primary (i) Uphill
acceptor

Electron transfer from

(B) electron transport (ii) Downhill
chain to PS-I

Electron transfer
(C) from PS-I to its primary
acceptor

Electron transfer from

(D) primary acceptor of
PS-I to NADP+
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-i, C-ii, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-ii, C-i, D-i

11)

2(A) + 145O2 → 102 CO2 + nH2O + Energy

What is A and n in above reaction?

(1) A-C51H98O6, n-96

(2) A-C51H98O5, n-98
(3) A-C50H98O6, n-96
(4) A-C51H98O6, n-98

12) In respiratory ETS, the electrons from complex-I are received by UQ and then transfered to :-
(1) Complex-III
(2) Complex-II
(3) Complex-IV
(4) ATP synthase complex

13) Represented below is the sketch of citric acid cycle. Which one of the following steps involves
reduction of any coenzyme but not results in formation of NADH+H+ ?

(1) Citric acid to α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) Succinic acid to malic acid
(3) α-Ketoglutaric acid to succinic acid
(4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid

14) Carefully read the following statements :-

(a) All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are stored.
(b) If fatty acids are to be respired they would first be degraded to pyruvic acid.
(c) When the organism needs to synthesize fatty acids, acetyl CoA would be withdrawn from
respiratory pathway for it.
(d) The respiratory pathway is involved only in catabolism.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

15) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

Inner mitochondrial
A TCA cycle i
memberane

B F0 – F1 particles ii Hans Krebs

End product of Oxidative

C iii
glycolysis decarboxylation
 Pyruvate
D iv Pyruvic acid
dehydrogenase
(1) A → ii; B → i; C → iv; D → iii
(2) A → i; B → ii; C → iv; D → iii
(3) A → ii; B → iii; C → iv; D → i
(4) A → iii; B → ii; C → i; D → iv

16) Assertion (A) : The conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is

an oxidation reaction.
Reason (R) : The reaction in which 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is formed from glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate utilises NADP+.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

17) Which of the following respiratory reactions occur in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell ?
(a) PGAL → 1, 3 bis PGA
(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(d) PEP → Pyruvate
(e) Fructose 1, 6 bis phosphate → DHAP + 3-PGAL

(1) (a) and (e) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
(4) (a) and (e) only

18) (I) "Y" hormone induced flowering in mango and also promotes rapid internode/petiole
elongation in deep water rice plants and hence helping leaves or upper part of shoot above water.
(II) "X" hormone promotes root growth and root hair formation.
(III) "Z" hormone inhibits the seed germination, increases the tolerance of plant to various stresses,
play important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy.
Identify the correct names of the hormones :-

(1) Y = ABA; X = Auxin; Z = GA

(2) Z = GA; X = Auxin; Y = C2H4
(3) Y = Auxin; X = C2H4; Z = GA
(4) Y = C2H4; X = C2H4; Z = ABA

19) Match the following and choose the correct option :-

Column-A Column-B

Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and

1 Meristematic phase A
new cell wall deposition
 Cell wall primary in nature, thin and
2 Elongation phase B cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connection

Cell attain maximal size in terms of wall

3 Maturation phase C
thickening and protoplasmic modifications
(1) 1–B, 2–C, 3–A
(2) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C
(3) 1–A, 2–B, 3–C
(4) 1–A, 2–C, 3–B

20) Which statements are correct among the statements given below ?
(i) Growth and differentation in plants is open
(ii) Plant growth regulators are intracellular intrinsic factors affecting plant development.
(iii) Heterophylly in cotton, is an example of plasticity
(iv) Sigmoid growth curve, is a characteristic of living organisms growing in a natural environment

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, iii, iv
(4) ii, iii

21) The stress hormone in plants :-

(1) Promotes root growth and root hair formation

(2) Delays senescence
(3) Helps in cell division
(4) Stimulates closure of stomata

22) Respiratory climactic is :

(1) Rise in rate of respiration

(2) decrease in rate of respiration
(3) saturation in respiration rate
(4) No change in respiration rate

23) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Discovery of PGRs was accidental

(2) Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin studied phototropism in coleoptile of canary grass.
After a series of experiments on phototropism it was found that coleoptile tip was the site of
(3)
transmittable influence.
(4) Auxin was isolated from rice seedlings by F.W. went

24) Which of the following is an example of monoecious plants?

(1) Papaya
(2) Cycas
(3) Castor
(4) Vallisneria

25) What would be the ploidy of the cells of pollen grain tetrad & cells of the nucellus, respectively?

(1) 2n & n
(2) n & n
(3) n & 2n
(4) 2n & 2n

26) The haploid cell which divide by mitosis to form embryo sac is :-

(1) Megaspore mother cell

(2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Functional megaspore
(4) Nucellus

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Maize is a monoecious plant.

Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of a flower
(2)
of different plant.
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy both can be observed in dioecious plant.
(4) In water lily and water hyacinth, pollination take place by insects or wind.

28) Match column A & column B to choose correct answer :-

Column-A Column-B

(i) Floral rewards (a) Amorphophallus

(ii) Insect pollination (b) Maize

(iii) Air pollination (c) Nector & Pollen grains

(iv) Perisperm (d) Black pepper

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

29) Given below are the two statements.

Statement-I : Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even is the absence of pollinators.
Statement-II : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
Identify the correct option :-

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-I is incorrect.

30) Identify the correct description about the given figure :

(1) Unfertilized embryo sac

(2) Fertilized embryo sac showing zygote and primary endosperm nucleus.
(3) Typical dicot embryo
(4) L.S. of embryo of grass

31) The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as -

(1) Phyllotaxy
(2) Inflorescence
(3) Venation
(4) Aestivation

32)

The region of the stem where leaves are born are called as :-

(1) Bud
(2) Internode
(3) Flower
(4) Node

33) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

In pinnately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e. at the tip of
(1)
petiole.
(2) Leaves are arranged in acropetal order.
(3) Root cap absorb water and mineral from soil.
(4) Tap root system is seen in wheat plants.

34) Match list-I with list-II

 List-I
List-II
(Types of
(Example)
Aestivation)

A Valvate i Pea

B Twisted ii Gulmohur

C Imbricate iii Cotton

D Vexillary iv Calotropis

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

35) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II
(Leaves) (Example)

Pinnately
A I Alstonia
compound leaf

Opposite
B II Silk cotton
phyllotaxy

C Whorled phyllotaxy III Calotropis

Palmately
D IV Neem
compound leaf

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

36) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagrams below from the List (i) to (vi)
given with.
(i) Radicle (ii) Seed
(iii) Plumule (iv) Mesocarp
(v) Endocarp (vi) Micropyle
The correct components are :-

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(vi), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(v)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii)

37) Which of the following is incorrect for the representation of the flower in floral formula ?

(1) Various morphological features are used to describe flowering plant.

(2) The floral formula is represented by some symbols.
(3) Fusion is indicated by enclosing the figure with in bracket.
(4) ⊕ indicates zygomorphic flower and % indicates for actinomorphic flower.

38) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Androecium is composed of stamens.
(b) Each stamen represents the male reproductive organ.
(c) A sterile stamen is called staminode.
(d) Stamens of flower may be united with other members such as petals or among themselves.
(e) Diadelphous stamens are found in Salvia.

(1) (a), (b) and (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (e) only

39) Identify correct statement :

(A) Pollination by water is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
(B) Pollination by water is limited to about 30 genera.
(C) The flowers of water hyacinth are not pollinated by water.
(D) Wind pollinated flowers generally do not produce nector.
(E) Among the animals, birds are dominant biotic pollinating agents.

(1) C, E, E only
(2) A, B, C, D only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) B, C, D, E only

40) Observe the given diagram and fill in the boxes (A), (B) and (C) with appropriate words and
select the correct option regarding correct type of pollination-

A B C
 (1) Autogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy

(2) Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy

Genetically Genetically
(3) Self-Pollination
cross-pollination cross-pollination

Genetically
(4) Geitonogamy Xenogamy
cross-pollination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Identify the correct statements regarding dicot root.

(A) The collenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called conjunctive
tissue.
(B) In dicot root, the pericycle gives rise to lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary
growth.
(C) Pericyle, vascular bundles and pith constitute the stele.
(D) Pith is large and well developed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (A), (C) & (D) only

(2) (A) & (D) only
(3) (B) & (C) only
(4) (A), (B) & (D) only

42) Arrange following tissues from periphery towards centre

(1) Hypodermis → cortex → pericycle → Medullary rays → endodermis → pith

(2) Endodermis → cortex → Hypodermis → Medullary rays → pericycle → pith
(3) Hypodermis → Endodermis → cortex ® Medullary rays → pericycle → Pith
(4) Hypodermis → Cortex → Endodermis ® pericycle → Medullary rays → Pith

43) Which of the following statement is correct for ground tissue system ?

(1) It consists of simple tissues.

(2) All tissues expect vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue.
(3) It consists of complex tissues.
(4) If form the outermost covering of whole plant body.

44) A dicot root differs from a monocot root in which of the following ?

(1) Presence of hypodermis

(2) Presence of epidermis
(3) Presence of ill-developed (poorly developed) pith
(4) Presence of radial vascular bundle
45) Select the mismatched pair.

(1) Subsidiary cells - Parenchymatous

(2) Epidermal appendages - Triachomes and root hairs
(3) Cuticle - Present in roots
(4) Stomatal apparatus - Stomatal aperture, Guard cells and Subsidiary cells

46) In human beings, unipolar neurons are present in-

(1) Retina of eye

(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Embryo
(4) Dorsal root ganglion

47) In which type of nervous system neurilemma is clearly visible but myelin sheath is absent ?

(1) Cranial nerves

(2) Spinal nerves
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) Central nervous system

48) How many statements are correct regarding hypothalamus :-

(A) It control urge of eating and drinking
(B) It does not contribute in thermoregulation
(C) It forms the lower or ventral part of diencephalon.
(D) It contain group of neurosecretory cells
(E) It regulate function of pituitary gland

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

49) Which statement is correct about nerve impulse conduction ?

(1) At resting, axonal membrane is more permeable for Na+ ions.

(2) Sodium potassium pump transports 3 Na+ inwards for 2K+ outwards the cell.
(3) During depolarisation Axonal membrane is more permeable for K+.
(4) Axonal membrane is impermeable for negatively charged protein molecules present in axoplasm

50) Which is correct about following diagram ?

(1) a = Mid brain = corpora quadrigemina
(2) b = Medulla = urge of eating and drinking
(3) d = Thalamus =expression of emotional reactions
(4) c = Corpus callosum = Connects both cerebral hemisphere.

51) When the medulla oblongata (M.O.) is damaged, then what happen ?

(1) Immediately die

(2) Die after few hrs.
(3) Live at 1 hrs & after it may die
(4) No effect

52) Synaptic vescicle fuses with the plasma membrane of which structure and release their
neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft ?

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane

(2) Synaptic knob
(3) Synaptic bulb
(4) All of these

53)

Match the following columns-I and II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Parathyroid hormone (i) Myasthenia gravis

(b) Insulin (ii) Osteoporosis

(c) Vasopressin (iii) Diabetes Mellitus

(d) Thymosin (iv) Diabetes Insipidus

(1) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
(2) a – ii, b –iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii

54) Match the following column-I and II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Zona glomerulosa (i) Epinephrine

(b) Zona fasciculata (ii) Aldosterone

(c) Zona Reticularis (iii) Cortisol

(d) Adrenal medulla (iv) Androgens

(1) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

55)

Which hormone is responsible for pigmentation and defense capability in body ?

(1) Melanin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Melatonin
(4) Thymosin

56) Select the wrong statement from the given below :-

(1) The thyroid gland is composed of four lobes.

(2) Thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
(3) Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrate proteins and fats.
(4) Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones.

57) Mary is about to face an interview. She experiences sweating, increased heart rate, and
breathing during the first five minutes before the interview. Her restlessness is caused by which
group of hormone ?

(1) Insulin and glucagon

(2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(3) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline
(4) Estrogen and progesterone.

58) Which of the following is amino acid derived hormone ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Estrogen
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Aldosterone

59) Low secretion of growth hormone results in stunted growth resulting in ?

(1) Pituitary Dwarfism

(2) Gigantism
(3) Acromegaly
(4) Cretinism

60) Islets of Langerhans.

identify X, Y, Z ?

(1) X–α , Y-β, Z-Hypoglycemia

(2) X–β , Y-α, Z-Hypoglycemia
(3) X–α , Y-α, Z-Hyperglycemia
(4) X–α , Y-β, Z-Hyperglycemia

61) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary

(2) The muscles of hand and legs are striated and voluntary
(3) The muscles located in the inner wall of alimentary canal are striated and involuntary
(4) Muscles located in the reproductive tract are unstriated and involuntary.

62) Choose the correct pairs

A - Actin binding site - Myosin
B - Myosin binding site - Actin
C - Tropomyosin binding site - Troponin
D - Calcium binding site - Troponin

(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

63) Which of the following option include the bones whose number is not same in upper and lower
limbs ?

(1) Humerus and femur

(2) Metacarpals and metatarsals
(3) Radius and tibia
(4) Carpals and tarsals

64) Match the column I and column II and choose the correct options.

Column I Column II

(a) Axial skeleton (i) 1

(b) Cranial bone (ii) 14

(c) Facial region (iii) 80

 (d) Hyoid bone (iv) 8
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

65) Inflamation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid cause which disease.

(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gout

66) Which structure helps in the propagation of nerve impulses in cardiac muscles ?

(1) intervertebral disc

(2) intercalated disk
(3) sarcolemma
(4) T-tubule

67) ATPase of the muscle is located in :-

(1) Actin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Tropomyosin

68) Choose the option with correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

Start of
(A) Inner cell mass (i)
Ist menstruation

Finger like Cease of

(B) (ii)
projection menstrual cycle.

(C) Menarche (iii) Embryo

(D) Menopause (iv) Chorionic villi

(v) Fimbriae
(1) A-iii, B-iv, v, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv,iii, B-i, C-ii, D-v
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv,iii, C-i, D-v

69) Choose the incorrect statement regarding human reproduction.

(1) Ovulation is induced by a surge in LH.
(2) The thickness of the endometrium is influenced by hormonal changes.
(3) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and testosterone.
(4) Corpus luteum degenerates if fertilization does not occur.

70) What will happen if estrogen does not reach an extremely high concentration and is unable to
send positive feedback ?

(1) LH surge will not occur

(2) Ovulation will not take place
(3) Fertilization will not occur
(4) All of these

71) The fluid-filled space (antrum) appears for the first time in the ___A___ follicle.
Identify 'A' from the given options :

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Graafian

72) Select the correct statement

A. Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
B. Ovaries are the primary female sex organs that produce several steroid hormones.
C. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of GnRH.
D. A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all female mammals.
Options :-

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) A and D
(4) A, B, C and D

73)

Progesterone-estrogen combined contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation by –

Negative feedback on the release of estrogen from ovary required for follicular development in
(1)
follicular phase.
Preventing the physiological and morphological changes in uterus which are required for
(2)
implantation.
(3) Inhibiting the secretion of FSH and LH that are necessary for ovulation.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

74) Read following terminology of column-I & II and identify their correct match :-

Column-I Column-II
 (A) Non medicated IUD (i) Lactational amenorrhea

(B) Hormone releasing IUD (ii) Lippes loop

(C) Natural method (iii) Multiload 375

(D) Copper releasing IUD (iv) LNG - 20

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

75) In which of the following natural method, the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to
17 of the menstrual cycle ?

(1) Withdrawl or coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational amenorrhoea
(3) Periodic abstinence
(4) None of the above

76) Government of India legalised MTP in year_________ while MTP ammendment act was enacted in
year _____.

(1) 1951, 1971

(2) 1971, 2007
(3) 1951, 2017
(4) 1971, 2017

77) If a female had undergone tubectomy which of the following event will not occur ?

(1) Menstrual cycle

(2) Maturation of Graafian follicle
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Ovulation

78) Select the correct option of pathway of milk flow in a mammary gland-
(i) Mammary duct
(ii) Mammary alveoli
(iii) Mammary tubule
(iv) Out through nipple
(v) Lactiferous duct
(vi) Mammary ampulla

(1) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (vi) → (v) → (iv)

(2) (vi) → (i) → (iii) → (ii) → (v) → (iv)
(3) (ii) → (i) → (vi) → (iii) → (v) → (iv)
(4) (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (vi) → (v) → (iv)
79) Identify the correct option (A),(B),(C),(D) with respect to role of Hormones in female.

(1) FSH, LH, Progesterone, Relaxin

(2) FSH, LH, Progesterone, oestrogen
(3) FSH, LH, Progesterone, oxytocin
(4) FSH, LH, oestrogen, Relaxin

80) In the given diagram at 22-23rd day. Which structure is well developed ?

(1) Mature follicle

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus albicans
(4) Secondary follicle

81) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sterilisation is surgical method of contraception and can be performed in male and
female partners.
Reason (R) : Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

82) Which abnormality of foetus can be defected by amniocentesis ?

(1) Sickle cell anemia

(2) Malaria
(3) Cleft lip
(4) Jaundice

83) Which of the following STIs are not curable ?

(1) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection

(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
(3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B

84) Which of the following contraceptive method/example suppress the motility of sperm ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Diaphragms
(3) Cu-releasing IUDs
(4) Periodic abstinence

85) Which of the following mechanism is not involved in the action of combined oral contraceptive
pills ?

(1) Inhibition of ovulation

(2) Alteration of cervical mucus
(3) Prevention of implantation
(4) Destruction of sperm

86) Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence through which sperms pass from their
site of formation to the outside in male reproductive tract.
(A) Epididymis
(B) Urethra
(C) Seminiferous tubules
(D) Rete testis
(E) Vasa efferentia
(F) Vas deferens
Choose the correct sequence from the options below :

(1) C→D→A→E→B→F
(2) C→D→E→A→B→F
(3) C→D→E→A→F→B
(4) D→C→E→A→F→B
87) How many of the following structure may found in fallopian tube ?
Morula, Secondary Oocyte, Primary oocyte, Secondary follicle, Ovum, Zygote, Blastocyst, Gastrula

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

88) Name the hormone(s) involved in the parturition mechanism.

(A) Estrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) Cortisol,
(D) Oxytocin, (E) Prolactin (F) Relaxin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B, E & F
(2) A, C, D & F
(3) C, D, E & F
(4) B, D & F only

89) A female is suffering from infertility due to a rare mutation. Due to this mutation the process of
oogenesis is not completed even after entry of sperm. Which of the following structure is not forming
in this female.

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Ist polar body
(3) Second polar body
(4) Primary follicle

90) During follicular phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature graafian
follicle because of :-

(1) Increase secretion of FSH and LH

(2) Decrease secretion of FSH and LH
(3) Increase secretion of Progesterone
(4) Decrease secretion of Estrogen
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 1 1 4 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 2 4 4 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

T = 25oC

2) γreal = γapp + γvessel

So, (γapp + γvessel)glass = (γapp + γvessel)steel
or 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + (γvessel)steel
Further, (γvessel)steel = 3α = 3 × (12 × 10–6)
= 36 × 10–6/°C
∴ 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + 36 × 10–6
∴ (γvessel)glass = 27 × 10–6/°C

or

3)

Heat released by steam in conversion to water at 100°C is, Q1 = mL = 4 × 540 = 2160 cal.
Heat required to raise temperature of water from 46°C to 100°C is,
Q2 = mS Δθ = 20 × 1 × 54 = 1080 cal

Q1 > Q2 and =2
Hence all steam is not converted to water only half steam shall be converted to water
Final mass of water = 20 + 2 = 22 gm.

4)

……(i)

= –K [34 – 10] ……(ii)

(i) ÷ (ii)
t = 7 mins

5) v ∝

⇒
⇒v= m/s
6)

From ideal gas equation,

At A: P₀V₀ = nRTA
At B: 2P₀V₀ = nRTB
At C: 2P₀·2V₀ = nRTC
Heat is absorbed only during AB (isochoric) and BC (isobaric).
Qₐᵦ = nCᵥ(TB − TA) = n(3R/2)((2P₀V₀ − P₀V₀)/nR)
= 3P₀V₀/2
QBC = nCP(TC − TB) = n(5R/2)((4P₀V₀ − 2P₀V₀)/nR)
= 5P₀V₀
Total heat absorbed,
Q = QAB + QBC = 3P₀V₀/2 + 5P₀V₀ = 13P₀V₀/2

7) Wnet = WAB + WBC

WAB = O

WBC = μRT loge

WBC = 4 × R × 1000

8)

Slope =
γ ↑ ⇒ steeper curve
so γ2 – γ1
γ (monoatomic) > γ (Diatomic)

9)

P2V = constant

From ideal gas law:

 10)

Given that:
V ∝ T2/3.
VT–2/3 = constant
V(PV)–2/3 = constant
V1/3 P–2/3 = constant
PV–1/2 = constant ⇒ PVx = constant

Polytropic index x =

work done by the gas

W= =

= 167 J

11) ΔQ = Δw + ΔU
mL = PΔV + ΔU
ΔU = 2 × 225 – (105) (1670 × 10–6)
= 450 – 167 = 283 J

12)

Shortest time from to = = 2 sec

13) Total energy of SHM (After impulse) =

where A1 is new amplitude

14) From the displacement equation, amplitude A = 6cm = 0.06 m, angular frequency ω = 100
rad/s, and mass m = 1kg.
Maximum kinetic energy:

Final answer: option (2)

15) a1 = 5 ω1 = 150π, n1 = 75
a2 = 10 ω2 = 300π, n2 = 150
16)

Means frequency becoems double

⇒ 100% increased

17)

Possible frequencies of A
are = 512 ± 5
on filing frequency increases.
So fA = 517 Hz

18)

Initial fundamental frequency

When th of the pipe is filled with water, the remaining air column length is

New fundamental frequency

First overtone of a closed pipe is 3f'0.

19)

20)
Fnet on central
charge is along BD

21) Electric field lines originate from +ve charge and terminate on –ve charge. They never
form a closed loop.

22)

Total charge on arc :

Q=λ0R[cos0 – cosπ]
Q = 2λ0R

23) Choose a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r inside the sphere.

Charge enclosed:

qenc =
By Gauss's law,

E · 4πr2 =
Substituting value of qenc

E · 4πr2 =
Hence,

E=

24) Here,

Now, W = q(VA – VC)

25)
α = (90° – θ)

and

⇒
⇒

26)

27) In electrostatic equilibrium, any excess charge supplied to a conductor resides on its outer
surface; this is a well-established result of electrostatics, so the assertion is true. Charge
redistribution occurs until the electric field inside the conductor becomes zero. This surface
distribution corresponds to a state of minimum electrostatic potential energy of the conductor-
charge system. Hence, the reason is also true and correctly explains why excess charge
appears on the surface.

28) Charged density on surface of charged conductor is inversely proportional to radius of

curvature of surface. So, at sharp edges (where radius of curvature is small) charge density is
high and high electric field is present but surface of charged conductor is equipotential.

29) In series, both capacitors store the same charge (Q).

Capacitor 1 breaks at k coulomb
Capacitor 2 breaks at k coulomb
To avoid breakdown, we must limit Q to the smaller value (3 C k coulomb).

30)
When dielectric is placed,

And K1 > K2 > 1, So

Slope of V and d curve is more for K2 than K1 But slope for both K1 and K2 is lesser
than for air or vacuum. (here, slope refers to the magnitude of slope)

31) Given circuit can be reduced

⇒ = 12 ⇒ C = 18µF

32) S = = 0.09 Ω

33)

In case of balancing

=
⇒ X = 5 ohm

34)

VRated = 200 volt, Prated = 100 W

Resistance,

Now, = 25 volt

35)

Given that mn = 45 ...(i)

For maximum current,
mR = nr
Hence, m × 2.5 = n × 0.5
or n = 5m ...(ii)
2
From equation (i) and (ii), 5m = 45 or m = 3
⇒ n = 15

36) Applying Kirchhoff's voltage law in the given loop

 –2i + 8 – 4 – 1 × i – 9i = 0 ⇒ i =

Potential difference across PQ

37)

As we know that for identical Resistors,

then, using above relations now reducing the circuit

By Similar reduction further

Rxy = 2Ω

38) In region I : V ∝ I, so ohmic

In region II : ΔV = 0 ⇒ R = 0
In region III : V not proportional to I, so non-ohmic
Hence, region I shows ohmic resistance, II has zero resistance, III is non-ohmic resistance.

39)

A. Given: Current (I) = 10 A.

B. Area (A) = 1cm2 = 1 × 10–4m2.
C. Density (n) = 9 × 1028 m–3.
 D. Charge of electron (e) = 1.6 × 10–19 C.

40)
= 4 × 103 × 5 × 10–4 = 2A

41)

Explain Question: The fundamental postulates and observations of the Kinetic Molecular
Theory (KMT) of gases. The question requires identifying which of the four provided
statements accurately describe the behavior of an ideal gas.

Concept: Postulates of Kinetic Theory of Gases

Solution:

Let's evaluate each statement:

A. (A) Collisions are always elastic: This is a core postulate. If collisions were inelastic, the
gas would lose kinetic energy over time, the temperature would drop, and the gas would
eventually collapse. (Correct)

B. (B) There is no force of attraction among the molecules: For an ideal gas, we assume
intermolecular forces (like Van der Waals forces) are non-existent. This allows the
molecules to act as independent particles. (Correct)

C. (C) Only a small number of molecules have very high velocity: According to the Maxwell-
Boltzmann distribution, most molecules have speeds near the "most probable speed,"
while very few have extremely high kinetic energies (the "tail" of the graph). (Correct)

D. (D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities:
Since we assume no intermolecular forces act on the particles between collisions, there
is no acceleration or change in direction until an impact occurs. (Correct)

Final answer: Option (4)

42) FR = –B = –r Axg
⇒ m

43) The net flux through each closed surface is determined by the net charge inside

=0

44) Explain Question :

We have to calculate the potential difference between A and B for the given circuit.

Concept :
Capacitor circuit

Solution :

C1 =
Now charge will be same for both capacitor potential difference

190 =
∴ Vyz = 40 Volt
The potential Vyz again divided into the inverse ratio in capacitors
40 = Vya + VAB

∴ 40 = 3VAB + VAB
VAB = 10Volt
 Final Answer: Option (3)

45) , , ,,

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)
2-Hydroxy benzoic acid

48)
chiral center = 2

49)

Compound showing G.I.

(i)

(iii)

(iv)
 50)
So chain isomer

51)

(i) are F.G.I.

(ii) are F.G.I

(iii) CH3–C≡C–CH3 &

are not Isomers.

C4H6 C4H8

(iv)
are chain Isomers

(v)
are not isomers.

52) NCERT 11th Pg. # 332

53)

54)

CH3–O–CH3 have no acidic hydrogen.

55)

56) enol form is Aromatic so maximum enolisation take place.

57) stable by resonance.

58)

Stability of alkene ∝ no. of α-hydrogen.

59)

Ans. a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

60)
(3° hydrogen) is more reactive for FRSR

61)

62)

63) Concept: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution, Sulphonation, Electrophile, Benzene, SO3

64) Solution :
Final Answer :
Option (3)

65) % S =

66) NCERT Based

67) NCERT XI, Pg # 284

68)

Sn + Cu+2 → Sn+2 + Cu

= +0.136 + 0.34
= +ve value
So, reaction is possible.

69)

Oxidising power ∝ SRP

Highest SRP is for A+/A So A is best oxidising agent.

70)
When Zn is used + 0.76
When Cd is used + 0.40
 Decreased by 0.36 V

71)

E = E° –

= 1.4 – 0.01log

= 1.4 – 0.01 log = 1.4 – 0.01 × 40

=1V

72)

⇒ Only C produce H2(g) with 1 M HCl i.e. C is strongest reducing agent.

⇒ When A is added to solution of other metal salts. metallic D is produced but not B or C i.e. A
is stronger reducing agent than D.
⇒ B is stronger reducing agent than A. Hence order of reducing power is C > B > A > D.

73)

W= = 8.64

74) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

75) Explain Question :

Statement-1: The voltage of mercury cell remains constant for a long period of time.
Statement-2: It is because net cell reaction does not involve active species.

Concept :

In a mercury cell, both electrodes are inert and the overall reaction involves only ions in the
paste, not consumption of active metal electrodes.

Solution :

A. Statement 1 → True, mercury cell gives constant voltage.

 B. Statement 2 → True, and it correctly explains statement 1 because no active species are
used up.

Final Answer : Option (1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is correct
explanation for statement-1.

76)

Cu(s)|Cu2+(0.01m)||Cu2+(0.04m)|Cu(s)

E=

E=0–

77)

Question Explanation : Given first-order reaction with rate = 0.5 M·s–1 at t1 = 20 s and 0.4
M·s–1 at t2= 30 s; find t1/2.
Concept : First-order kinetics: rate ∝ [A],

k= ·2.303log , =
Solution :

Rates ∝ concentrations, so = = 1.25.

k= × log10(1.25)

= × 0.09691
= 0.02331 s–1.

= ≈ 29.7 s.
Final Answer: Option (4)

78)

For Ist order Reaction

For zero order Reaction

= 1.386,
Substituting values gives -
After simplification the ratio becomes = 1 : 1
Final Answer: option (3)

79) NCERT : Example-4.5

80)

= 140 kJ/mol

81)

For rate to be equal

K 1 = K2

⇒ T = 400K

82)

r = K[A]x [B]y
By I, II
A = doubled, B = same, r = doubled
∴x=1
By II, III
A = same, B = doubled, r = doubled
∴y=1
r = K [A] [B]
By I, 2 × 10–4 = K × (1 × 10–2) × (2 × 10–2)
K=1

83)

(P)
(Q) [A] = [A]0 e–kt
(R) [B] = [A]0 (1 – e–kt)
(S) [A] = [A]0 – k × t
84)

Xbenzene = moles of benzene / (moles of benzene + moles of toluene) = 5/(5+5) = 0.5

Pbenzene = Xbenzene (P°benzene) = 0.5 ×200 torr = 100 torr
Ptoluene = Xtoluene (P°toluene)
Xtoluene = 1 - Xbenzene = 0.5
Ptoluene = 0.5×150 torr = 75 torr
Ptotal = Pbenzene + Ptoluene
Ptotal = 100 torr + 75 torr = 175 torr
Mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase (Ybenzene)
Ybenzene = Pbenzene/ Ptotal = 100 torr/ 175 torr = 0.571
Final answer = The mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is approximately 0.57
correct option - 1

85)

W = 3.52 g

86)

Question Explanation:
We are told that liquids A and B have vapour pressures P°A = 300 torr and P°B = 800 torr.
In an ideal solution, total vapour pressure
= xA·P°A + xB·P°B.
Here, xB = 0.9 ⇒ Ideal P = (0.1)(300) + (0.9)(800)
= 750 torr.
Observed vapour pressure = 720 torr, which is less than ideal value.
Hence, this solution shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
Concept:
For negative deviation, intermolecular forces between A–B are stronger than A–A and B–B,
leading to:

A. ΔHmix < 0 (exothermic)

B. ΔVmix < 0

C. Total vapour pressure < ideal value

Solution:
Since observed pressure (720) < ideal (750), deviation is negative → ΔHmix < 0.
Final Answer: Option (2) ΔHmix < 0

87) π = iCRT ; i=
 =
= 110.8 atm

88)

0.4 =
0.4i + 1.2 = i
0.6 i = 1.2
i=2
NaCl(aq) Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq)
1–α α α
1 + α = 2 α = 1 or 100%

89)

Statement I: Correct → starch is used as indicator in I2 vs Na2S2O3 titration.

Statement II: Correct → starch forms a deep blue-black starch-iodine complex with iodine.
I2 + S2O3–2 → 2I– + S4O6–2

90)

(i) Electrical dispersion is used to prepared colloidal solution of metals (like Au, Ag, Pt)
(ii) Peptization is used to prepare colloidal solution from fresh precipitate
(iii) Oxidation is a general chemical method for colloidal solution preparation.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Page # 136 (Fig. 11.2)

92) NCERT-XI, Pg # 143, 144

93) NCERT-XI, Pg # 137, 138, 141

94) NCERT-XI, Pg # 146 (Fig. 11.9)

95) Explain Question : The question asks about the primary application of the radioisotopic
technique in early photosynthesis research
Concept : This question is based on Where Are ATP And NADPH2 Used (Dark Reaction) -
Introduction And The Primary Acceptor Of CO2
Explanation : "Melvin Calvin used radioactive ¹⁴C in carbon dioxide to trace the path of
carbon in the formation of glucose. The compounds were then separated and identified. This
led to the discovery of the Calvin cycle."
Final answer : 4

96) NCERT-XI, Pg # 140

97) NCERT-XI, Pg # 140, 141

98) NCERT-XI, Pg # 147

99) NCERT-XI, Pg # 145, 147

100) NCERT-XI, Pg # 139

101)

Certainly, let's analyze the given reaction and determine the values of A and n.
Balanced Reaction
The balanced equation for the complete oxidation of tripalmitin (a triglyceride) is:
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy

102)

NCERT XI, Page # 160

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159 (Fig. 12.3)

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 162

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156, 158, 161

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 156

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156, 158, 159

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177, 178

109) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 168-169

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 170, 172, 173

111)

NCERT XI_Page No.177

112)

Explain Question: What is Respiratory Climactic?

Concept: Ethylene.

Solution:

Respiratory climatic is rise in rate of respiration.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: Option 1

113) Explain Question:

The question asks about the incorrect statement related to discovery and studies of plant
growth regulators (PGRs) and auxin
Concept:
Discovery of plant growth regulators (PGRs)
Solution:
(1) Discovery of PGRs was accidental – Correct
(2) Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin studied phototropism in coleoptiles of canary grass –
Correct
(3) They showed that coleoptile tip produces a transmittable influence responsible for bending
– Correct
(4) F.W. went isolated auxin from coleoptile tip of oat (Avena) seedlings, not rice – Incorrect
Final answer: Option (4)

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 15

115) NCERT (XII) Pg # 6, 9

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

117) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13, 15

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13, 14, 20

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 60

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 59

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 60, 61

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 66, 67

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67, 68

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12, 13, 14

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 11, 12, 13

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

136) NCERT, Pg. # 232

137) NCERT XI, Pg. # 232

138)

NCERT, Pg. # 236

139)

NCERT, Pg. # 233

140)

NCERT, Pg. # 235

141)

NCERT, Pg. # 236

142) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234

143)

NCERT Pg. No. # 241, 243, 246

144) NCERT Pg. No. # 244

145)

NCERT Pg. No. # 242

146) NCERT Pg. # 243

147)

NCERT, Pg. # 245

148)

NCERT, Pg. # 248

149)
NCERT, Pg. # 241

150) NCERT Pg. # 245,246

151) NCERT, Pg. # 312

152) NCERT, Pg. # 306

153) NCERT. Pg. # 311

154) NCERT XI Pg # 224-225

155) NCERT Pg # 227

156) Module-6_Page # 138

157) Option (3) is correct.

158) NCERT Pg. # 51,53

159) NCERT Pg. # 35

160) NCERT Pg. # 35

161) NCERT Pg. # 32

162) NCERT XII, Pg. # 27,28,31

163) Question Explanation –

The question asks how progestin–estradiol combined contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation.
Concept –
Hormonal regulation of ovulation
Solution –
Combined contraceptive pills contain estrogen and progestin which exert negative feedback on
the pituitary gland. This feedback inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH, the hormones required
for follicular development and ovulation.
Final Answer – Option 3

164) NCERT Pg. # 44

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44, Para-3.2

166) NCERT (XII) Page No. # 46

167) NCERT (XII) Page No. # 45

168)

NCERT Pg. 31

169)

Question Explanation : Identify hormones (A), (B), (C), (D) based on their roles in female
reproduction.
Concept : The question is based on hormonal control of menstrual cycle and pregnancy.
Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

A. (A) → Growth of follicle → FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

FSH stimulates development of ovarian follicles.

B. (B) → Corpus luteum formation → LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

LH triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum.

C. (C) → Prepares endometrium for implantation → Progesterone

Secreted by corpus luteum, it maintains uterine lining.

D. (D) → Flexibility of pubic symphysis → Relaxin

Relaxin helps in loosening pelvic ligaments during childbirth.

Final Answer : Option 1

170) NCERT Pg # 34

171) NCERT Pg.#46.

172) NCERT Pg. # 42

173)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Which of the following STDs are not curable?
Key Concept:
 It's important to know which STDs are curable and which are manageable but not completely
curable.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Genital Herpes: Caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), genital herpes is a recurring viral
infection. While antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks and reduce their frequency
and severity, there is currently no cure for herpes.
B. Hepatitis B: This is a viral infection that affects the liver. While there are treatments
available (including antiviral medications) that can suppress the virus and prevent liver
damage, Hepatitis B is not always curable. Some people can clear the virus from their system,
but others may become chronic carriers.
C. HIV Infection: HIV is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system. While there are highly
effective antiretroviral therapies (ART) that can suppress the virus to undetectable levels and
allow people with HIV to live long and healthy lives, there is currently no cure for HIV.
D. Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital Warts, Gonorrhea, and Trichomoniasis: These STDs are
generally curable with antibiotics or other appropriate treatments.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

174) NCERT Pg. # 44

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 45

176) NCERT Pg. # 27

177)

Morula, Secondary Oocyte, Ovum and Zygote are structure which may be found in Fallopian
tube.

178) NCERT Pg. # 38

179) NCERT Pg. # 32-33

180) NCERT, Pg. # 34