31-05-2026

2401CJA101001260005 JM

PHYSICS

SECTION - I

1) Position vector of a particle is given by , t is time and r0 and a are constants. The
velocity of particle when it returns to starting point :-

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

2) The acceleration of a particle moving along x-axis is given by a = Be–Ct. Its velocity is zero at t = 0,
then terminal velocity (velocity after a long time) is :

(A)

(B)

(C) CB

(D)

3) An object initially at origin starts from rest and moves along the x axis with a constant
acceleration of 4m/s2. Its average velocity as it goes from x = 2m to x = 8m is :

(A) 1m/s
(B) 2m/s
(C) 3m/s
(D) 6m/s

4) The speed v of a particle moving along the x–axis, is given by v2 = 10x – 5x2. The magnitude of its
acceleration when it is at x = 1 m is

(A) 0 m/s2
(B) 2 m/s2
(C) 5 m/s2
(D) 10 m/s2

5) A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of
the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is
(A) 4.0 m/s
(B) 5.0 m/s
(C) 5.5 m/s
(D) 4.8 m/s

6) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s = (t3 –
6t2 + 4) m. The velocity when the acceleration is zero, will be

(A) 3 m/s
(B) –12 m/s
(C) 42 m/s
(D) – 9 m/s

7) The position of a particle is given as x = t2 –4t + 4 meter. Find x coordinate of particle when its
velocity is zero.

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 1

8) A train moving with a speed of 40 km/hr is slowed down uniformly to 20 km/hr for repair purposes
during running. After this it was accelerated uniformly to reach to its original speed. If the distance
covered during constant retardation be 2 km and that covered during constant acceleration be 1 km,
find the time lost in the above journey

(A) 1 min

(B)
min
(C) 2 min
(D) 6 min

9) A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity u from the top of a tower. It strikes the
ground with a velocity 3u. The time taken by the ball to reach the ground is given by :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) Three particles P, Q and R situated at point A on the circular path of radius 10m. All three
particles moves along different path and reaches at point B shown in figure then the ratio of distance
traversed by particle P & Q is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) A person travels along a straight road for the first half time with a velocity v1 and the second half
time with a velocity v2. Then the mean velocity v is given by : -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12) A car travels 30 km at a uniform speed of 40km/h and the next 30 km at a uniform speed of 20
km/h. Find its average speed (in km/hr).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13)

A particle covers each of the total distance with speed v1, v2 and v3 respectively. Find the average
speed of the particle ?

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

14) The water falls at regular intervals from a tap 5m above the ground. The third drop is leaving at
instant, the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop at that
instant?

(A) 1.25 m
(B) 2.50 m
(C) 3.75 m
(D) 4.00 m

15) The two vectors and are :-

(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(C) Antiparallel
(D) None of the above

16) A body moves 6 m north, 8 m east and 10 m vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position :

(A) m
(B) 10 m

(C)
m
(D) 10 × 2 m

17) A particle moves along a semicircle of radius 10m in 5 seconds. The average velocity of the
particle is :

(A) 2π ms–1
(B) 4π ms–1
(C) 2 ms–1
(D) 4 ms–1

18) A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s can be stopped by the application of a constant force F in
a distance of 20 m. If the velocity of the car is 30 m/s, it can be stopped by this force in :

(A)
m
(B) 20 m
(C) 60 m
(D) 180 m

19) A bullet looses of its velocity passing through one plank. The number of such planks that
are required to stop the bullet can be :

(A) n

(B)

(C)

(D) Infinite

20) A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passes through two points P
and Q separated by a distance with velocity 30 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. The velocity of the
car midway between P and Q is:

(A) 33.3 km/hr

(B) 20√3 km/hr
(C) 25√2 km/hr
(D) 35 km/hr

SECTION - II

1) The angle subtended by a tower (in degrees) of height 50 m at a point 1 km away from the base of

the tower is degree. The value of n is :

2) The sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector. If the magnitude of their difference is x, then find
value of x2.

3) Two forces of magnitude of 10 N and 20 N are acting at 120°. The angle between their resultant
and the smaller force is π/n. Find n.

4) Vector , and are shown in figure find magnitude of .

5) Find the magnitude of the resultant of the following three vectors.

 ; ;

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - I

1) If magnetic moment (µ) = 2 for X+2 then X is:

(A) Nb (Z = 41)
(B) Pd (Z = 46)
(C) Ba (Z = 56)
(D) Cr (Z = 24)

2) Which of the following statement is CORRECT for Mn+2?

(A) For 3d subshell spin multiplicity value is 4.

(B) All electrons in 3d subshell can not have same value of n, ℓ, m, and s.
(C) In Mn+4 magnetic moment value is similar to the Mn+2.
(D) Total number of electrons in s-subshells are 8.

3) Select among the following the species having the highest number of exchanges in 3d-subshell

(A) Cr+1
(B) Co+2
(C) Cr+3
(D) Mn+3

4) Find the maximum number of electrons that can be filled in P shell

(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 72
(D) 50

Common Content for Question No. 5 to 6

The region where the probability of finding electron is maximum is called an orbital and the region
where the probability of finding electron is zero is called node.
Quantum numbers are set of four numbers that define the position and energy of electrons.
Based on the above paragraph answer the following :

5)

Number of electrons in calcium for which n × ×m=0

(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14

6) The correct order of atomic or ionic size :-

(A) N < Li < B

(B) Cl < Mg < Ca
(C) Ca+2 < S–2 < Cl¯
(D) Na+ < Mg+2 < Cl¯

7) The ionization energy will be maximum for which process ?

(A) Ba → Ba+
(B) Be → Be+
(C) Cs → Cs+
(D) Li → Li+

8) In isoelectronic series largest difference between size is observed in N3–, O2–, F¯, Na+, Mg2+ :

(A) N3–, Mg2+

(B) N3–, O2–
(C) Mg2+, Na+
(D) F¯, Na+

9) In modern periodic table, the element with atomic number Z = 118 will be :

(A) Uuo; Ununoctium; alkaline earth metal

(B) Uno; Unniloctium; transition metal
(C) Uno; Unniloctium; alkali metal
(D) Uuo; Ununoctium; noble gas

10) In the isoelectronic species, the ionic radii (Å) of N3–, Mg2+ and Al3+ are respectively given by : -

(A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(B) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(C) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(D) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

11) 4d35s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(A) II A
(B) II B
(C) V B
(D) III B
12) Decreasing ionization potential for K, Ca & Ba is :-

(A) Ba > K > Ca

(B) Ca > Ba > K
(C) K > Ba > Ca
(D) K > Ca > Ba

13)

(A) P–4; Q–1; R–2; S–3

(B) P–2; Q–4; R–1; S–3
(C) P–3; Q–1; R–2; S–4
(D) P–2; Q–4; R–3; S–1

14) Match the column :

Column-I (Orbital) Column-II (Property)

P. s 1. Have electron density at all three axes

Q. px 2. YZ plane is nodal plane

R. dxy 3. Dumbell shape

S. 4. Have azimuthal quantum no. ℓ = 2

(A) P–1,3; Q–2,3; R–3; S–3,4

(B) P–1; Q–2,3; R–2,4; S–4
(C) P–1; Q–2,3,4; R–3,4; S–1,4
(D) P–2; Q–3,4; R–2,3; S–1,4

15) Total number of possible shells in uranium atom (atomic no. z = 92)

(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) None of these
16) Given that Zeff. value of 'N' (Z = 7) is 'Y'. Then which of the following statement is correct

(A) σ value for 'N' will be 7 + Y

(B) σ value for oxygen will be 7.35 – Y
(C) σ value for oxygen will be 7 – Y
(D) Given information is not sufficient

17) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT ?

(A) ΔHe.g value of noble gases are negative

(B) Si is diagonally related to B.
(C) The element which have higher -ΔHeg. act as strong oxidising agent
(D) H+ and Cs+ are the smallest and largest cation in periodic table respectively

Common Content for Question No. 18 to 19

Slater's rule is used to calculate the shielding constant (σ) in multielectron system and the electronic
configuration of the element in the following order and groupings :
(1s), (2s, 2p), (3s, 3p), (3d), (4s, 4p), (4d), (4f), (5s, 5p), etc.

18) The effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer shell electron of He is

(A) 0.35
(B) 0.65
(C) 1.65
(D) None of these

19) Lanthanide contraction means:

(A) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to poor shielding d-subshell electron.
(B) Contraction of atom of lanthanum element due to high shielding of d-subshell electron.
(C) Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.
(D) Contraction of atom of element before lanthanum due to poor shielding of ƒ-subshell electron.

20) Spin magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M. is observed for which of the following species.

(A) Zn+2
(B) Cr+3
(C) Ti
(D) Mn+2

SECTION - II

1) Find the maximum value of n + ℓ + m for the last electron present in element which belongs to 5th
period & group number 15.

2) For a hypothetical atom find out the total number of electrons that are filled in between 9s and 9p
subshells if spin quantum numbers have , three values.
Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal places) till you get the single digit
answer.

3) Find out the atomic number of element whose IUPAC name is Unnilpentium.
Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal places) till you get the single digit
answer.

4) Total number of elements which have less IE1 than that of 'N'.
Be, B, C, F, P, He

5) Number of common nodal planes in 3s, 4dxy and 3pz orbitals is

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I

1) is equal to

(A)
(B)
(C) 3
(D) –3

2) If then x is :

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

3) If x and y are integers, how many ordered pairs (x, y) are satisfying the equation

(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) Infinitely many

4) If then x is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) In a certain town 25% families own a cell phone, 15% families own a scooter and 65% families
own neither a cell phone nor a scooter. If 1500 families own both a cell phone and a scooter, then
the total number of families in the town who own cell phone only

(A) 7000
(B) 8000
(C) 6000
(D) 5000

6) If n(A) = 20, n(P(B)) = 225 and n(A ∪ B) = 35 then n(A ∩ B) is (where n(X) represent number of
elements in set X and P(X) represents power set of X)

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 5
(D) 15

7) The shaded region in given figure is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

8) If A = {x : (x – 3)(x + 2) ≤ 0 & x ∈ N}, then the number of proper subsets of set A is

(A) 61
(B) 15
(C) 62
(D) 7

9) In a study about a pandemic, data of 900 persons was collected. It was found that
190 persons had symptom of fever,
220 persons had symptom of cough,
220 persons had symptom of breathing problem,
330 persons had symptom of fever or cough or both,
350 persons had symptom of cough or breathing problem or both,
340 persons had symptom of fever or breathing problem or both,
30 persons had all three symptoms (fever, cough and breathing problem).
Number of persons having at most one symptom is _____________.

(A) 480
(B) 240
(C) 720
(D) 420

10) Solution set of

(A) [–3, ∞)
(B) (–∞, –3) ∪ (6, ∞)
(C) (–3, 3] ∪ (6, ∞)
(D) ϕ

11) then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these

12) The number of real roots of the equation is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2

13) Set of all values of 'x' satisfying inequality ≥ 0 is :-

(A) (–∞, –2) ∪ [1, 3] ∪(5, ∞)

(B) (–∞, –2) ∪ [0, 1] ∪ (2, 3] ∪ [5, ∞)
(C) (–∞, –2) ∪ [1, 3] ∪ (5, ∞) ∪ {0}
(D) (–∞, –2) ∪ [1, 2) ∪ (2, 3] ∪ (5, ∞) ∪ {0}

14) a,b,c∈R+ then a2+b2+c2 – ab–bc–ac = 0 if :-

(A) a + b + c = 0
(B) a = b = c
(C) Never
(D) a = –b = 3c

15)

Let x = then value of (2x – 1)2 equals :-

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0

16)

If x + y = a and x2 + y2 = b then value of x3 + y3 =

(A) ab
(B) a2 + b
(C) a + b2

(D)

17)

If then 2x =

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

18)

If then the value of is :-

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

19) If then sum of integral values of x is

(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 35
(D) 40

20) If x100 is divided by x2–3x +2 then the remainder is ax– b, then value of a – b is

(A) 2100 –1
(B) –1
(C) 1
(D) 2100

SECTION - II

1)

From 50 students taking examination in Maths, Physics and Chemistry, each students has passed in
atleast one of the subject, 37 passed in Maths, 24 in Physics and 43 in Chemistry, atmost 29 passed
in Maths and Chemistry, at most 19 passed in Maths and Physics and atmost 20 passed in Physics
and Chemistry. Then the largest possible number that could have passed all the three examinations

is ‘n’. Find .

2) In a Zoo, there are 6 Bengal white tigers and 6 Bengal royal tigers. Out of these tigers, 5 are
males and 10 are either Bengal royal tigers o males. Find the number of female Bengal white tigers
in the Zoo.

3)

A and B are two sets where n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6 and . Then sum of all possible values of
n(A – B) is

4) The value of is

, then the value of ab is equal to

5) If , then the sum of real values of all possible elements of
the set A is λ, then the value of 3λ is equal to
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B B D A A B A B B C A B D C B A D D B C

SECTION - II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 9.00 3.00 2.00 5.00 9.00

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B B B C C B B A D C C B D B A B A D C B

SECTION - II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 7.00 9.00 6.00 4.00 0.00

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C B A A C A C D C C A B D B C D C B B C

SECTION - II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 7.00 2.00 6.00 6.00 5.00
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation : Given position vector as a function of time, find the velocity when the
particle returns to its starting point.

Concept: Velocity = time derivative of position vector

Solution:
Position vector:
r = r₀ (1 − a t) t

Starting point corresponds to r = 0.

This occurs at:
t = 0 and t = 1/a

Velocity vector:
v = dr/dt
v = r₀ [ (1 − a t) + t(−a) ]
v = r₀ (1 − 2 a t)

At return time t = 1/a:

v = r₀ (1 − 2)
v = − r₀
Final Answer: Option (2)

2)

Question Explanation: Acceleration varies exponentially with time as . Initial

velocity is zero, and terminal velocity after a long time is required.
Concept: Integration and motion under variable acceleration .
Solution:

Velocity is obtained by integrating acceleration with respect to time. Given , we

write

using the condition . As time becomes very large , the exponential term
tends to zero, so velocity approaches a constant maximum value.

Final Answer: Option (2)

 3) Question Explanation:
This problem asks for the average velocity of an object moving with constant acceleration 4
m/s2 initially at origin starts from rest along the x - axis from x = 2 m to x = 8m.
Concept :
This question is based on Kinematics.
Solution:
v12 = 0 + 2 × (4) × (2)
v1 = 4 m/s
v22 = 0 + 2 × (4) × (8)
v2 = 8 m/s

vavg =
The correct option is (4)

4) 2v = 10 – 10x ⇒ = 0 at x = 1

5)

Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

6)

v = 3t2 – 12t, a = 6t – 12 = 0 ⇒ t = 2s

so v (t = 2s) = 3(2)2 – 12(2) = – 12 m/s

7)

Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

8) Time taken by train in retardation

By using

⇒2=
Time taken by train in accelerated motion

By using

⇒1=

Time taken by train to travel 3 km by uniform motion

Time lost =
 9)

Ans. (B)
B is the correct answer

10)

Ans. (C)
C is the correct answer

11)

Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

12)

Explanation Question: We have to find average speed of moving car

Concept: This question is based on motion in 1D
Solution:

We known that,

So, let the time taken to cover first 30 km is t1

hours = hours
and let the time taken to cover next 30 km is t2

hours = hours

So, the total time = hours

Average speed = =

Average speed = km/hr.

Final Answer
The correct option is (2)

13)

Question Explanation: A particle covers each one third of the total distance with speed v1, v2
and v3 respectively. We have to find the average speed of the particle.

Concept: Average Speed and average velocity.

Solution:
Suppose the total distance covered by the particle i.e., AD = x
Particle covers first one – third distance AB with speed V1
second one – third distance BC with speed V2 and
third one – third distance CD with speed V3.

Average speed of the particle =

Final Answer: option (4)

14)

Question explanation: We have to find the height of the second drop when the first drop just
touches the ground. The third drop leaves the tap at that same instant, and drops fall at equal
time intervals.

Concept: Free fall under gravity.

Solution:
Let the tap be at h = 5 m and take g = 10 m/s2. Time for the first drop to reach ground:

drops are released at equal time intervals and the 3rd is released when the 1st lands, so the

interval is Δt = s. The second drop was released at t = 0.5 s, so by the moment the first lands
(t = 1s) the second has fallen for 0.5 s. Distance fallen by the second:

s = g (0.5)2 = ⋅ 10 ⋅ 0.25 = 1.25 m.

Thus its height above ground = 5 – 1.25 = 3.75 m.

Final Answer: 3.75

15) ∴ Perpendicular to each other.

16) Correct answer is A

17) Correct answer is D

18) Correct answer is D

19)

Let after passing from q planks bullets stops then, by W-E theorem.

.... (i)
and

.... (ii)
From (i) and (ii)

20)

Ans. (C)
C is the correct answer

21)

Ans. (9.00)
(9.00) is the correct answer

22)

Explanation :- sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector we have to find magnitude of there
difference -
Concept :- addition - subtraction
Solution :- sum of two unit vectors is also a unit vector hence angel b/w them must be 120°
proof :
12 + 12 + 2 × 1 × 1 cos θ = 12
nS2 = n12 + n22 + 2n1n2cos θ
⇒ θ = 120°
2 2 2
so n = n1 + n2 – 2n1n2 cos 120°
d

⇒
final answer :- x2 = 3

23)
α = 90° = π/2
 24) = 5 unit

25)

CHEMISTRY

26) Question Explanation:

We need to determine which element (from the options) can give this magnetic moment when
it forms X+2 ion.

Concept:
Magnetic Moment formula = . (n = no. of unpaired e¯) and Electronic
Configuration.

Solution:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Final answer : Option (2)

27)

Explain the question: Analyze properties of the Mn2+ ion based on its ground-state electron
configuration.

Concept: Pauli Exclusion Principle and quantum numbers.

Solution:
The atomic number of Manganese (Mn) is 25 , with a neutral configuration of [Ar]4s23d6. To
form the Mn2+ ion, two electrons are removed from the outermost 4s shell, giving the
configuration [Ar]3d5 or 1s22s22p63s23p63d5.
 Evaluating the options:

A. (1) The spin multiplicity (n + 1) for 5 unpaired electrons is 5 + 1 = 6, not 4.

B. (2) According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle, no two electrons in an atom can have the same
set of four quantum numbers (n, ℓ, m, s); they must differ in at least one (like magnetic
quantum number m for the five electrons in the 3d subshell).
C. (3) Mn4+(d3, n = 3) and Mn2+(d5, n = 5) have different numbers of unpaired electrons and thus
different magnetic moments.
D. (4) Mn2+ contains only 6 s-electrons (1s2, 2s2, 3s2).

Therefore, statement 2 is the only correct one.

Final Answer: Option (2)

28)

Explain the question: Identify the ion with the highest number of electron spin exchanges
(parallel pairs).

Concept: Exchange Energy (Pairs = for each spin set).

Solution:

A. Co+2(3d7) : Configuration has 5 Up (↑) and 2 Down (↓) electrons.

B. Exchanges = (UP) Down ) = 10 + 1= 11.

C. : Configuration has 5 Up (↑).
D. Exchanges = .
E. Others: has 6 exchanges; 3 has 3 .

Final Answer: Option .

29) Question Explanation :

The number of electrons in P-shell.

Concept :
This question is based on shells are
K L M N O P
n=1 2 3 4 5 6

Solution :
Maximum numbers of electrons in a shell = 2n2 (H is shell number)
∴ Electrons = 2 × (6)2 = 72

Final answer : option (3)

30)

Question Explanation : Count Ca electrons satisfying n. . m = 0

Concept : Quantum numbers : n (principal ) (azimuthal), m (magnetic).
Solution: Ca(Z = 20) 1s2 2s2 2p63s23p64s2.
The condition n. . m = 0 is met if = 0 or m = 0 (Since n ≠ 0).
Case 1: = 0 (all s- electrons) 1s2,2s2, 3s2, 4s2 → 2 + 2 + 2 + = 8 electrons.
Case 2: ≠ 0 and m = 0 (p - orbitals with m = 0):
* 2p6 : The m = 0 orbital holds 2 electrons.
* 3p6 : The m = 0 orbital holds 2 electrons.
Total from p- subshells: 2 + 2 = 4 elecrons
Total electrons 8 + 4 = 12.
Final Answer
12

Final Answer :

31)

Explain the question: Find the correct size order.

Concept: Atomic & Ionic radius trends.

Solution:
(1) Incorrect. Size decreases across Period 2: Li > B > N.
(3) Incorrect. For isoelectronic ions, size decreases as nuclear charge increases: S–2 > Cl– >
Ca+2.
(4) Incorrect. For isoelectronic ions, Na+ > Mg+2.
(2) Correct. Atomic size decreases across Period 3 (Mg > Cl) and increases down Group 2 (Ca
> Mg).
Combining these gives the correct order: Cl < Mg < Ca .

Final Answer: option (2).

32)

Explain the question : Find the max ionization energy.

Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy (IE) Trends.

Solution : All processes show the first ionization (IE-1). Ionization energy decreases down a
group and increases across a period. Beryllium (Be) and Lithium (Li) are in Period 2, while
Cesium (Cs) and Barium (Ba) are lower down, so Be and Li have higher IE-1. Between Be
(Group 2) and Li (Group 1), Be is further to the right, so it has the highest IE-1.

Final Answer : Option (2)

33)

Question Explanation:
Isoelectronic series which have largest difference.
Concept:
This question is based on isoelectronic series.

Solution:
N–3 is largest & Mg+2 is smallest
Mg+2 is the smallest radius.
order of radius N–3 > O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2

Final Answer: Option (1)

34) Z = 118 [Rn]86 7s2 5f14 6d10 7p6; as last electron enters in p-subshell, it belongs to p-block.
Thus, its group number will be 10 + 2 + 6 = 18. Hence the element is a noble gas.

35) Size of isoelectronic species N3– > Mg2+ > A13+

36)

V B group.

37)
So ionisation potential order : Ca > Ba > K

38) Question Explanation : Match elements with the max quantum numbers (n and l) of their
filled subshells.
Concept : Electronic Configuration and Quantum Numbers.
Solution :

39) Question Explanation:

Match the column
Concept:
This question is based on shape of orbitals
Solution:
For dx2–y2 & dxy orbitals value of ℓ = 2

40) Question Explanation: Determine the number of occupied shells in Uranium (Z=92).
Concept: Principal Quantum Number (n) & Periodicity.
Solution : The number of electron shells in an atom corresponds to its period number in the
Periodic Table.
• Uranium (Z = 92) is an Actinide element.
• All Actinides are located in Period 7.
• Therefore, in the ground state, Uranium has electrons occupying 7 distinct principal shells (n
=1 to n =7)
• The configuration ends with the valence shell 7s2.
Final Answer: Option (1)

41) Explain Question:

Given Zeff of N (Z = 7) is Y, which statement is correct?

Concept:
In s/p block (2nd period), Zeff increases by ~0.65 per element left to right (because +1 proton,
but only +0.35 shielding from added electron)

Solution:
For N: Zeff = Y =7 – σN
→ σN = Y – 7
For O (next element): Zeff(O) σ ≈ Y + 0.65
Zeff(O) = 8 – σO
Y + 0.65 = 8 – σO
σO = 8 – (Y+ 0.65) = 7.35 – Y

Final answer: option ()

42) Explain the question : Among different statements choose correct one.
Concept : This question is based on periodicity.
Solution :
(1) ΔHeg for noble gas is always true

(2)
(3) X(g) X–(g) ΔHeg = -ve
easily accept e–(s) therefore oxidising agent.
(4) H+ smallest
Cs+ longest
Final answer : The correct option is (1)
43)

Ans. (D)
D is the correct answer

44)

Question Explanation: Gradual decrease in atomic size across the lanthanide series.
Concept: Lanthanide Contraction.
Solution: Lanthanide contraction is the steady and gradual decrease in the atomic and ionic
radii of the elements following lanthanum (from Cerium to Lutetium). This occurs because, as
the atomic number increases, the new electrons enter the 4f-subshell. These f-electrons
have a very poor shielding effect due to their diffused shape. Consequently, they cannot
effectively shield the outer electrons from the increasing nuclear charge, causing the entire
electron cloud to contract toward the nucleus.
For isoelectronic or similar series:

In lanthanides, as atomic number (Z) increases, the screening constant σ for 4f electrons is
very low, making . This leads to:

Final Answer: 3. Contraction of atom of element after lanthanum due to poor shielding of f-
subshell electron.

45)

Ans. (B)
B is the correct answer

46)

5 + 1 + 1 = (7)

47) 9s 6g, 7f, 8d, 9p

Total number of orbitals filled = 5 + 7 + 9 = 21
Total number of electrons filled = 21 × 3 = 63

48)

Atomic number = 105

Sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 5 = 6
 49)

In 2nd period elements among the following given elements IE1 order is B < Be < C < N < F <
He
Also IE1 order in nitrogen family N > P
Hence Be, B, C and P has less IE1 than N.

50) Question Explanation: Finding overlapping angular nodes among different atomic
orbitals.
Concept: Nodal Planes and Angular Nodes in Orbitals.
Solution: A nodal plane is a region where the probability of finding an electron is zero.

s-orbitals are spherically symmetrical and have zero nodal planes. So, 3s orbital: Angular
nodes (l = 0) = 0 nodal planes.
p-orbitals have one nodal plane passing through the nucleus. So, 3pz orbital: Angular nodes (l
= 1) = 1 nodal plane (xy plane).
d-orbitals generally have two nodal planes. So, 4dxy orbital: Angular nodes (l = 2) = 2 nodal
planes (xz and yz planes).

Common planes = 0.

Final Answer: (0)

MATHEMATICS

51)

52) 22x+1 = 23x–1

2x + 1 = 3x – 1
2=x

53)
 Ordered pairs = 9

54)

Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

55)

Let the total population of town be x

x = 30,000

Total number of families who own cell phone only =

56) Explain Question:

Finding number of elements in (A ∪ B).

Concept:
Power set, principle of inclusion and exclusion.

Solution:
Given n(P(B)) = 225
⇒ B has 25 elements
i.e. n(B) = 25
Now n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
⇒ n(A ∩ B) = 20 + 25 – 35 = 10

Final Answer: option(1)

57) Explain the Question : Identify the set operation that represents the shaded region in
the Venn diagram.
Concept : This question is based on set operations (intersection, Union, difference) on three
sets.
Solution : Shaded region is entirely within set C. It covers the portion of C that is not
intersected by the other two sets A and B. Specially, the shaded region includes the part of C
that is outside the circle for B, and also outside the circle for A. Looking at the diagram, the
shaded region is the entire set C from which the area common to A and B is not removed.
What is removed from C is the part of C that overlaps with A and the part of C that overlaps
with A and the part of C that overlaps with B, but the figure shows only the part of C that is
not in A or B.
Let's check the options :
1. A⋂B⋃C : This is not a standard operation. Assuming it means (A⋂B)⋃C. This would be the
entire set C along with the intersection of A and B. This is incorrect.
2. C – (A⋂B) : This removes only the common region of A and B from C. This leaves the entire
region of C except the small central part common to all three, and the part of C common with
A only, and the part of C common with B only. This is incorrect.
3. C – (B⋂C) : This removes the common region of B and C from C. The shaded region clearly
still includes the intersection of A and C. This is incorrect.
4. C – (A ⋃ B) : This represents the elements in C that are not in A or B.
• A ⋃ B is the entire area covered by the circles A and B.
• C – (A⋃B) is the part of C that does not overlap with A and does not overlap with B.
• In the figure, the shaded are is the part of C that is outside the union A and B, i.e., C minus
the area where C overlaps with A and C overlaps with B (both A⋂C and B ⋂ C).
• This precisely describes the shaded region, which is excluding (A⋂C) ⋃ (B⋂C), which is
equivalent to C – (A ⋃ B).
Calculation the region is x ∈C and ∉ (A ⋃ B). By definition of set difference, this is C – (A⋃B).
Final Answer : 3

58) Question Explanation:

In this question we have to find the number of proper subsets of given set A.

Concept:
This question is based on types of sets.

Solution:
∵ (x – 3)(x + 2) ≤ 0

x ∈ [–2, 3]
∴ Natural values of x = 1, 2, 3
so, A = {1, 2, 3}
∴ n(A) = 3
Number of proper subset = 23 – 1 = 7

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

59) n(U) = 900

Let A º Fever, B º Cough
C ≡ Breathing problem
∴ n(A) = 190, n(B) = 220, n(C) = 220
n(A ∪ B) = 330, n(B ∪ C) = 350,
n(A ∪ C) = 340, n (A ∩ B ∩ C) = 30
Now n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
⇒ 330 = 190 + 220 – n(A ∩ B)
⇒ n(A ∩ B) = 80
Similarly,
350 = 220 + 220 – n(B ∩ C)
⇒ n(B ∩ C) = 90
and 340 = 190 + 220 – n(A ∩ C)
⇒ n(A ∩ C) = 70
∴ n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = (190 + 220 + 220) – (80 + 90 + 70) + 30
= 660 – 240 = 420
⇒ Number of person without any symptom
= n (∪) – n(A ∪ B ∪ C)
= 900 – 420 = 480
Now, number of person suffering from exactly one symptom
= (n(A) + n(B) + n(C)) – 2(n(A ∩ B) + n(B ∩ C) + n(C ∩ A)) + 3n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= (190 + 220 + 220) – 2(80 + 90 + 70) + 3(30)
= 630 – 480 + 90 = 240
∴ Number of person suffering from atmost one symotom
= 480 + 240 = 720

60)
∴ x ∈ (–3, –3) ∪ (6, ∞)

61)

Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

62) x2 –4x + 3 ≥ 0
x ≤ 1 or x ≥ 3
x2 – 9 ≥ 0
x ≤ – 3 or x ≥ 3
2
4x – 14x + 6 ≥ 0

63) Solution:

x ∈ (–∞, –2) ∪ [1, 2) ∪ (2, 3] ∪ (5, ∞) ∪ {0}

Final answer: option (4)

64) a = b = c
65)

x= x=1+
2x2 + x = 2x + 1 + x 2x2 – 2x – 1 = 0

x= x=

x= 2x – 1 = ±

x= (2x – 1)2 = 3

66)

x3 + y3 = (x + y) (x2 + y2 – xy)

67)

4x – 3x. 3-1/2 =

x=
Now 2x = 3

68)

Ans. (B)
B is the correct answer

69)

Ans. (B)
B is the correct answer

70)

Ans. (C)
C is the correct answer
71)

Ans. (7.00)
(7.00) is the correct answer

72)
We have to find y
x+y=6 .....(1)
z+w=6 .....(2)
x+z=5 ......(3)
x + z + w = 10 .....(4)
(4) – (2) ⇒ x = 4
Now put x = 4 in (1)
⇒ 4 + y = 6 ⇒ y = 2.

73) ,

Ans 6

74)

∴ a = 3 or a=2
b=2 b=3
then ab = 6

75)

* * x – 2 = 3 – 2x
⇒x–4=x ⇒
no solution.

* *
⇒ x = 2 (reject) x = 4 reject

sum
⇒ 3λ = 5