08-04-2026

2302CMD303031250031 MD

PHYSICS

1) For a resonance tube, the air columns for the first and second resonance differ by 33 cm. The
wavelength of the sound waves in the tube is:

(1) 31.5 cm
(2) 66.0 cm
(3) 126.0 cm
(4) 252.0 cm

2)

A charge q of mass m is accelerated from rest in a uniform electric field of strength E. The velocity
acquired by it as it travels a distance l is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The acceleration-displacement graph of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is shown in

fig. The time period of simple harmonic motion is :

(1)

(2)

(3) The given graph doesn't represent simple harmonic motion

(4) Information is insufficient

4) Two parallel metal plates carry charges +Q and –Q. A test charge placed between the plates
experiences a force F. The plates are then moved apart so that the separation between them is
doubled. The force on the test charge will now be :-

(1) F/2
(2) F
(3) F/4
(4) 2F

5) A moving coil galvanometer has 48 turns and area of coil is If the magnetic field is
0.2 T, then to increase the current sensitivity by 25% without changing area (A) and magnetic field
(B), the number of turns should become :-

(1) 24
(2) 36
(3) 60
(4) 54

6) A small rod of bismuth is suspended freely between the poles of a strong electromagnet. It is
found to arrange itself at right angles to the magnetic field. This observation establishes that
bismuth is

(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferri-magnetic
(4) Antiferro-magnetic

7) As given in the figure, a series circuit connected across a 200 V, 60 Hz line consists of a capacitor
of capacitive reactance 30 Ω, a non-inductive resistor of 44 Ω, and a coil of inductive reactance 90Ω

and resistance 36Ω. The power dissipated in the coil is

(1) 320 W
(2) 176 W
(3) 144 W
(4) 0 W

8) If the given wire is in equilibrium then the value of current in the conductor is (mass of wire is m)
(1)
from a to b

(2)
b to a

(3)
from a to b

(4)
from a to b

9) If n, e, and m respectively represent the density, charge relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length ℓ and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected in series with an external resistance nr.
Then, the ratio of the terminal potential difference to emf is :-

(1) (1/n)
(2) 1/(n+1)
(3) n/(n+1)
(4) (n+1)/n

11) In the given figure a graph between the potential difference V across the terminals of a cell and
the current I is shown. The emf and the internal resistance of cell are :-

(1) E = 2 volt, 2.5 ohm

(2) E < 2 volt, 2.5 ohm
(3) E > 2 volt, 0.4 ohm
(4) E = 2 volt, 0.4 ohm

12) In double slit experiment, the angular width of the fringes is 0.20° for the sodium light ( =
5890Å). In order to increase the angular width of the fringes by 10%, the necessary change in the
wavelength is :

(1) Increase of 589Å

(2) Decrease of 589Å
(3) Increase of 6479Å
(4) Zero

13) To increase the magnification of a telescope

(1) the objective lens should be of large focal length and eyepiece should be of small focal length.
(2) the objective and eyepiece both should be of large focal length.
(3) both the objective and eyepiece should be of smaller focal lengths.
(4) the objective should be of small focal length and eyepiece should be of large focal length.

14) When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate at Brewster's angle, then which of the
following statements is correct ?

Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization parallel
(1)
to each other
Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization
(2)
perpendicular to each other
(3) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarised
(4) Reflected light is partially polarised but refracted light is plane polarised

15) If EMW is propagating in +Z axis then & :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A prism ABC of angle 30º has its face AC silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45º at the
face AB retraces its path after refraction at face AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive index of

the material of the prism is :-

(1) 1.5

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm
from a concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.1 cm towards the mirror, the image will shift by
about.

(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror

(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

18) A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The energy stored in joules is :

(1) 1
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.05
(4) 0.5

19) The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy energy
per nucleon for helium in MeV :-

(1) 28
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 1

20) The total energy of an electron in second excited state is –2E. What is potential energy with
proper sign in this state ?

(1) –2E
(2) –4E
(3) 4E
(4) –E

21) An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric
field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t; ignoring relativistic
effect is:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) When photons of energy hν fall on an aluminium plate (of work function = E0), photoelectrons of
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum
kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be :-

(1) K
(2) K + hν
(3) K + E0
(4) 2K

23)

Output for the following Boolean circuit is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) A + B +

24) Find current through zener diode:-

(1) 5mA
(2) 7.5 mA
(3) 2.5 mA
(4) 12.5 mA

25) An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carriers density is 'n'
and the average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased :–

(1) both n and v will increase

(2) n will increase but v will decrease
(3) v will increase but n will decrease
(4) both n and v will decrease

26) If a solid sphere, disc and cylinder are allowed to roll down an inclined plane from the same
height :-
(1) The cylinder will reach the bottom first
(2) The disc will reach the bottom first
(3) The sphere will reach the bottom first
(4) All will reach the bottom at the same time

27) Which of the following quantities remain constant in a planetary motion (consider elliptical
orbits) as seen from the sun?

(1) Speed
(2) Angular speed
(3) Kinetic energy
(4) Angular momentum

28)

Consider the following statements

(i) An artificial satellite with a metal surface having its orbit in the equatorial plane can note induce
a current in it
(ii) The horizontal component of magnetic field in the equatorial plane is zero

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(1) i only
(2) ii only
(3) Both i and ii
(4) Neither i nor ii

29) A solid cylinder slides without rotating arid then rolls without slipping with the same speed. The
ratio of the kinetic energies in the two cases is

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

30) A small steel ball falls through a syrup at a constant speed of 10 cm/s. If the steel ball is pulled
upwards with a force equal to twice its effective weight, how will it move upwards :-

(1) 10 cm/s
(2) 20 cm/s
(3) 5 cm/s
(4) zero

31)

One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from 0°C
to 100°C. Then the change in the internal energy is–
(1) 6.56 Joule
(2) 8.32 × 102 Joule
(3) 12.48 × 102 Joules
(4) 20.80 × 102 Joule

32) Two wires, one of steel (Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) and the other of copper (YCu = 1011 N/m2) have
same length and radii. If on applying a force F, the length of first wire increases by ℓ0, then force
required to increase the length of second wire by same amount is :-

(1) 4F

(2)

(3)

(4) 2F

33) A black body has maximum wavelength λm at 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K
will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A gas mixture contain one mole He gas and one mole O2 gas. Find the ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume of the gaseous mixture :-

(1) 2
(2) 1.5
(3) 2.5
(4) 4

35)

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K, the rms velocity of the
gas molecules is vrms, then at 480 K, it becomes:-

(1) 4 vrms
(2) 2 vrms

(3)

(4)
36) An organ pipe P1 closed at one end, vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open at
both ends, vibrating in its third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the
length of P1 to that of P2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A carnot's engine works between a source at a temperature of 27°C, and a sink at –123°C. Its
efficiency is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.4

38) A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the
figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to :-

(1)

(2) D

(3)

(4)

39) If a solid sphere of mass M suddenly stops revolving and all its rotational KE is used up in
compressing a spring and if k is taken to be spring constant of spring, compression in spring will be
: (R = radius of sphere and ω = its angular velocity)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) Consider a vehicle going on a horizontal road towards east. Neglect any force by the air. The
frictional forces on the vehicle by the road :

(1) is towards east if the vehicle is retarding

(2) is zero if the vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity
(3) must be towards east
(4) must be towards west

41) A ball strikes a horizontal floor at 45º and 25% of its kinetic energy is lost in collision. Find the
coefficient of restitution :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Two blocks are moving on a smooth horizontal surface such that the mass m remains stationary
with respect to block of mass M as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force P is

(1) (M + m)g tan β

(2) g tan β
(3) mg cos β
(4) (M + m)g cosec β

43) A train starting from rest travels the first part of its journey with constant acceleration a, second
part with constant velocity v and third part with constant retardation a, being brought to rest. The

average speed for the whole journey is . The train travels with constant velocity for ...of the total
time-

(1) 3/4
(2) 7/8
(3) 5/6
(4) 9/7
44) The torque of force newton acting at a point metre about origin is
:-

(1) N-m
(2) N-m
(3) N-m
(4) N-m

45) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it circular scale. The
instrument reads +2 divisions on circular scale when nothing is put in-between its jaws. In
measuring the diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd division of
circular scale coincides with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is

(1) 4.05 mm
(2) 4.405 mm
(3) 3.05 mm
(4) 1.25 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.) The

hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

2) Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding nitration of aniline?

(1) Direct nitration of aniline yields tarry oxidation products in addition to the nitro derivatives
In strongly acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form the anilinium ion which is meta
(2)
directing
(3) Besides the ortho and para derivatives, significant amount of meta derivative is also formed
(4) Meta derivative is a major product formed during nitration of aniline

3) Which of following ligand is bidentate :-

(1) EDTA
(2) en
–
(3) CH3COO
(4) Py

4) Stability of monovalent cations of boron family is in the order :-

(1) Ga+ > In+ > Tl+
(2) Ga+ < Tl+ < In+
(3) Ga+ < In+ < Tl+
(4) Ga+ > Tl+ > In+

5) The correct order of reducing power of MH3 is :-

(1) NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 < BiH3

(2) PH3 < AsH3 < BiH3 < SbH3
(3) BiH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < NH3
(4) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3

6) Statement-I : Molecules of ethanoic acid usually dimerise in solvents of low dielectric constant.
Statement-II : The process of osmosis can be reversed if external pressure higher than the osmotic
pressure is applied to the pure solvent, while pure solvent and solution are separated by
semipermeable membrane.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false.

7) The pH of the solution produced when an aqueous solution of strong acid pH 5 is mixed with
equal volume of an aqueous solution of strong acid of pH 3 is :-

(1) 3.3
(2) 3.5
(3) 4.5
(4) 4.0

8) The solubility of BaSO4 in water, is 2.33 × 10–3 gL–1. Its solubility product will be (molecular
weight of BaSO4 = 233) :-

(1) 1 × 10–5
(2) 1 × 10–10
(3) 1 × 10–15
(4) 1 × 10–20

9) In a cyclic process the amount of heat given to a system is equal to

(1) Net work done by the system

(2) Net increase in internal energy
(3) Net decrease in internal energy
(4) Net change in specific heat
10) An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio.
Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product "B" is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)
The final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Find the final product z :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Which of following does not belong to same block as others :-

(1) [Xe] 4f145d106s2

(2) [Kr] 4d105s2
(3) [Kr] 5s2
(4) [Ar] 3d64s2

14) Zn + NO3– → Zn+2 + NH4+

The coefficient of NO3–, Zn and H+ in balanced equation respectively are :-

(1) 4, 1, 10
(2) 10, 4, 1
(3) 1, 4, 10
(4) 4, 1, 7

15)

For N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ΔH = –ve, find favourable condition for ammonia formation :

(1) High Temp. & High Pressure

(2) Low Temp. & Low Pressure
(3) High Temp. & Low Pressure
(4) Low Temp. & High Pressure

16)

The degree of dissociation of PCl5 (α) obeying the equilibrium, PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2, is approximately
related to the pressure at equilibrium by (given α << 1) :

(1) α ∝ P
α ∝
(2)

α ∝
(3)

α ∝
(4)
17) The half life period for catalytic decomposition of AB3 at 50 mm is found to be 4 hrs and at 100
mm it is 2 hrs. The order of reaction is

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

18) From the following bond energies:

H–H bond energy = 420 KJ mol–1
C≡C bond energy = 601 KJ mol–1
C-C bond energy = 340 KJ mol–1
C-H bond energy = 425 KJ mol–1
Enthalpy change for the reaction :
C2H2 + 2H2 → C2H6

(1) –599 KJ mol–1

(2) –580 KJ mol–1
(3) –625 KJ mol–1
(4) –325 KJ mol–1

19) Suppose the following reaction.

(Mixture of product).
The dominant component of product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The main product of following reaction will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following do not show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
–3
(2) [Co(ox)3]
(3) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Fe(NH3)4ClCO3]

22)

Which one of the following ions exhibits d–d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

2–
(1) CrO4
2–
(2) Cr2O7
–
(3) MnO4
2–
(4) MnO4

23) Correct for the complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is/are

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) dsp2 hybridisation
(3) Square planar geometry
(4) All of these

24) Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour :-
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)
 2+
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]
3+
(2) [Ti(NH3)6]
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

25) Increasing value of magnetic moments of :-

I. [Fe(CN)6]4– II. [Fe(CN)6]3–
III. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ IV. [Ni(H2O)4]2+ is :-

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) II < III < I < IV
(4) I < II < IV < III

26) Which among the following orders correctly represents the sequence of increasing basic nature
of the given oxides ?

(1) Al2O3 < MgO < K2O < Na2O

(2) MgO < Na2O < K2O < Al2O3
(3) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(4) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

27) Which statement is not true :

(1) Amylopectin is insoluble in water

(2) Amylopectin constitutes about 80-85% of starch
(3) Amylopectin is unbranched chain polymer of α‑D‑glucose.
(4) Amino acid methionine is essential amino acid

28) Which of the reactants given below is/are suitable for the preparation of Methoxybenzene ?

(x)

(y)

(1) Only x
(2) Only y
(3) Both x and y
(4) Neither 'x' nor 'y'

29) Which of the following reaction involves the formation of carbene intermediate?

(1) Reimer Tiemann reaction

(2) Carbylamine reaction
(3) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(4) Both (1) & (2)

30)

Carboxylic acid have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
molecular mass. It is due to their

(1) formation of intramolecular H-bonding

(2) formation of carboxylate ion
(3) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding.

31) Compound A (C8H8O) gives red-orange ppt. with 2, 4-DNP and yellow ppt. with I2 in presence of
sodium hydroxide. It does not reduces Fehling's solution and donot decolourises Bayer's reagent. It
gives compound B with chromic acid/Δ. Compound B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The ratio of t7/8 and t1/2 for zero order reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The correct expected order of decreasing lattice energy is :-

(1) CaO > MgBr2 > CsI

(2) MgBr2 > CaO > CsI
(3) CsI > MgBr2 > CaO
(4) CsI > CaO > MgBr2
34) The Eº in the given diagram is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.8

35) A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume occupied by 1g of the gas at NTP is :-

(1) 1 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 4 L

36) An element A has configuration 1s22s22p63s2 formula of its phosphate is :-

(1) ASO4
(2) APO4
(3) A3(PO4)2
(4) A2(PO4)3

37) What is the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 4×10–13) in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution :-

(1) 10–6
(2) 10–7
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 2×10–7

38) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The energies of the various sub levels in the same shell of H–atom are in order s < p < d < f
(2) s–orbital is non-directional
(3) Electrons behave as wave if they are in motion.
(4) A p–orbital can accomodate a maximum of 2 electrons with opposite spin.

39) Which of the following pair of species have same number of unpaired electrons but different
bond order :

(1) CO,
+
(2) O2 , O2
(3) O2, B2
 NO+,
(4)

40)

The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)
(1) IV > I > III > II
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

41) Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) –CN > –COOH > –NO2

(2) –COOH > –CN > –NO2
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –CN
(4) –NO2 > –CN > –COOH

42) In which compound all 'C' are in sp2 hybridization:

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
(2) H2C=CH–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–CN

(4)

43) Which of the following anion are identified by dil H2SO4 ?

(1) Br–
(2) Cl⊖
⊖
(3) NO3
⊖
(4) NO2

44) Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen is not applicable in which of the following case ?

(1) Ph–NH–NH–Ph
(2) Ph–NH–CH3

(3)
(4) Ph–NO2

45) When HNO3 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight of HNO3 will be :
(M = molecular weight of HNO3)

(1) M/2
(2) M/1
(3) M/6
(4) M/8

BOTANY

1)

Match the following & choose the correct option:

(A) Family (i) Manigifera indica
(B) Kingdom (ii) Sapindales
(C) Order (iii) Solanum
(D) Species (iv) Plantae

(E) Genus (v) Malvaceae

(1) (i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–E, (iv)–B, (v)–A
(2) (i)–E, (ii)–D, (iii)–B, (iv)–A, (v)–C
(3) (i)–D, (ii)–E, (iii)–B, (iv)–A, (v)–C
(4) (i)–E, (ii)–C, (iii)–B, (iv)–A, (v)–D

2)

Higher the taxonomic category, ____ is the number of organism and ____ is the number of common
feature.

(1) Higher, more

(2) Fewer, Less
(3) Higher, Less
(4) Higher, More

3)

Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes.

I. They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic.
II. Include unicellular and multicellular forms.
III. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
IV. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important examples of Ascomycetes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are false?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and III

4) Which one of the following does not differ in [Link] and Chlamydomonas ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Chromosomal organisation

5) Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by :

(1) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells

(2) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(3) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(4) viruses, fungi and bacteria

6) Which of the given organism(s) belong to kingdom protista according to five kingdom system?
(A) Virus (B) Euglena
(C) Viroids (D) Lichen

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) Only B
(4) A and C

7) (a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous

(b) Dryopteris is Pteriodophyte
(c) Floridian starch present in Polysiphonia
(d) Gemma present on thallus of Marchantia
(e) Radish is Gymnosperm
Wrong statement is/are ......

(1) b and e
(2) c and d
(3) only e
(4) only a

8) Which type of tissue system is made up of all the simple permanent tissue.

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All of these

9) Assertion : Some cells left behind from shoot apical meristem during formation of leaves and
elongation of stem which constitute axillary bud.
Reason : Such buds are present in the axil of leaves and capable of forming a branch or a flower.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Stems of Euphorbia are

(1) Flattened and carry out photosynthesis

(2) Cylindrical and non-photosynthetic
(3) Flattened and bear thorns
(4) Cylindrical and photosynthetic

11)

Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilisation development in flowering plants is
incorrect?

(1) Ovules develop into embryo sac.

(2) Ovary develops into fruit.
(3) Zygote develops into embryo.
(4) Central cell develops into endosperm.

12) Polyembryony is advantageous in horticulture because it:

(1) Ensures genetic uniformity

(2) Increases heterosis in hybrids
(3) Reduces seed dormancy
(4) Enhances pollination efficiency

13) Assertion (A): Active research is going on in many laboratories around the world to understand
the genetics of apomixis and to transfer apomictic genes into hybrid varieties.
Reason (R): Hybrid crop varieties do not reproduce sexually

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explains (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

14) Assertion (A): When the Microspore divide, pollen grain contains two unequal Size cells, the
Large vegetative cell and Small generative cell.
Reason (R): Spindle is positioned asymmetrically this type of cell.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

15) Which stage of calvin cycle utilizes ATP?

(1) Carboxylation
(2) Reduction
(3) Regeneration of PGA
(4) Both II and III

16) Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it
enters mitochondrial matrix and undergoes :-

(1) Reductive amination

(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Reductive carboxylation
(4) Reductive decarboxylation

17) Which parameter is used to measure the growth in flat organs like leaves?

(1) Increase in dry weight

(2) Increase in cell size
(3) Increase in surface area
(4) Increase in length

18) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(1) Human urine (a) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Auxin
(3) Herring sperm DNA (c) Ethylene
(4) Ripening fruits (d) Abscisic acid
(5) Aged leaves of plants (e) Gibberellins
(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
(3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
(4) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d

19) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Abscisic acid (ABA) stimulates seed germination and promotes plant growth.
Statement II: ABA increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses by stimulating the
closure of stomata.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The phenomenon of heterophylly, where plants have different leaf shapes at different
stages or conditions, is an example of plasticity.
Statement II: Development in plants is influenced only by intrinsic factors such as genetic and
intercellular chemicals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

21) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because :-

(1) Toxin is inactive

(2) Toxin is immature
(3) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

22) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) A nematode meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield.
(ii) RNA i takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
(iii) Using agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plants.
(iv) Nematode can parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals including human beings.

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) i, iii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) i, iii, iv

23) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Citric acid – Aspergillus flavus

(2) Clot buster – Streptococcus
(3) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma
(4) Butyric acid – Clostridium butylicum

24)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
(Products) (Produced by)
 A Citric Acid i Streptococcus

Propionibacterium
B Streptokinase ii
sharmanii

Saccharomyces
C Swiss cheese iii
cerevisiae

D Ethanol iv Aspergillus niger

Option
A B C D

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

26)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-

(a) birth (b) birth rate

(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only
27) Which of the following are the characteristics of expanding population ?
(i) Pyramid shaped age structure.
(ii) An urn shaped age structure.
(iii) Pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups become more or less equal in size.
(iv) Rapidly growing population with high birth rate.

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

28) With respect to Tilman's outdoor plots experiment, identify the correct statement from the below
statements.

(1) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
(2) Decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Increased diversity contributed to lower productivity.
(4) Plots with less species show less year to year variation in total biomass.

29) Match the column I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 1200

(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1

(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22

(d) Bird species in India (iv) 70

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

30) Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India ?

(1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa

(2) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(3) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria

31) Match the following columns :-

I II
Leads to accumulation of a dark
A Fragmentation i
coloured substance
Water-soluble inorganic nutrients
B Humification ii
undergo in soil
 Bacterial and fungal enzymes
C Catabolism iii degrade detritus into simple
organic and inorganic substance
Detritivores break down detritus in
D Leaching iv
small pieces
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

32) The following table shows the interaction between pairs of species

Pair Species 1 Species 2

1 0 +

2 – +

3 + +

4 + –

5 + –
Which one of the following gives the correct type of interactions for species 1-5
(1) mutualism, parasitism, commensalism, herbivory, predation
(2) mutualism, parasitism, commensalism, predation, herbivory
(3) commensalism, parasitism, mutualism, herbivory, predation
(4) commensalism, herbivory, parasitism, mutualism, predation

33) Consider the given two statements:

Statement I : Primary production of an ecosystem is expressed in terms of weight (gm–2) or energy
(kcal m–2)
Statement II : Productivity of an ecosystem is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr–1 or (kcal m–2) yr–1

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I & II are correct
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect

34) Match list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 (i) 4.6 × 106 base pairs

(b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides

(c) Escherichia coli (iii) 48502 base pairs

(d) Haploid content of human DNA (iv) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

35) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements -
(a) Euchromatin stains light.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.
(c) Histone octamer contains eight molecules of histone proteins.
(d) Packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins that referred to as
histones.
(e) In human diploid cell 6.6 × 109 nucleosomes are present.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) (a), (c), (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) only
(3) (a), (c), (e) only
(4) (b), (e) only

36) Now a day it is possible to detect the criminal from suspects by the sample collected from the
crime scene site because-

(1) DNA from every tissue from an individual show different degree of polymorphism
(2) DNA from every tissue from an individual show same degree of polymorphism
(3) Number of repeats show very low degree of polymorphism
(4) Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping

37) Backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due to

(1) Sugar and N-base

(2) Sugar and phosphate
(3) Phosphate and N – Base
(4) All of these

38) Match the following columns :

Column-A Column-B

(a) Expressed sequence tags (p) 1.4 million locations

(b) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (q) 3 billion base pairs

(c) Less than 2% genome (r) Genes Expressed as RNA

(d) Human genome (s) Codes for protein

(1) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(2) (a)-(q), (b)-(r), (c)-(s), (d)-(p)
(3) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)
(4) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(r)
39) Pick out the correct statements :
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(c) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

40) A normal female whose mother was colourblind married with a normal man whose father was
colourblind than find out percentage of their male child to be affacted :-

(1) Zero
(2) 50%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%

41) Which of the following characters studied by mendel in Pea plant ? (a) Stem height
(b) Plant weight
(c) Flower colour
(d) Pod length
(e) Pod colour
(f) Leaf colour
(g) Seed colour

(1) a, d, e, g
(2) a, b, c, g
(3) a, c, e, g
(4) c, e, f, g

42) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

Incomplete ABO blood group

(a) (I)
dominance system

(b) Multiple allelism (II) Antirrhinum species

(c) Polygenic inheritance (III) Phenyl ketonuria

(d) Pleiotropy (IV) Human skin colour

(1) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

(2) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(3) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(4) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
43) Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(1) Human skin colour - Polygenic inheritance

(2) Meselson and Stahl - Semi conservative mode of DNA replication.
(3) Honey bee - XX - XO type of sex defermination.
(4) ABO blood grouping - Multiple alleles.

44) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid by __(A)__ at the sixth position
of the __(B)__ globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.

(1) A-Glutamine, B-Beta

(2) A-Valine, B-Alpha
(3) A-Valine, B-Beta
(4) A-Glycine, B-Beta

45) In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify

the type of given pedigree.

(1) X-linked dominant

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) Autosomal recessive

ZOOLOGY

1) The given below is the structural formula of ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Ribose
(3) Glucose
(4) Deoxyribose

2) Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) Rhizopus nigricans
(2) Retrovirus
(3) Baculovirus
(4) Salmonella typhimurium

3) GEAC is mainly responsible for

I. Making decisions regarding validity of GM research.
II. Making decisions regarding safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.
III. Large scale production of any commercially important crop.
IV. Funding biotechnological research.

(1) I, II only
(2) I only
(3) I, II, IV only
(4) I, II, III only

4) Assertion: There are 27 documented varieities of Basmati rice are grown in India.
Reason: In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
and Trademark office.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

5) Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from

the concerned country is referred to as

(1) Biowar
(2) Bioweapon
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bioethics

6)

Taq DNA polymerase used in PCR is obtained from _______ and active at the temperature of ________.

(1) Thermus thermophilus, 35º –50º C

(2) Thermus aquaticus, 72º – 94ºC
(3) Haemophilus influenza, 50º – 70ºC
(4) E. coli, 72º – 94ºC

7) A set of hormones which is secreted only during the pregnancy in human females:

(1) hCG, hPL, Estrogen

(2) Oxytocin, Relaxin, Progesterone
(3) hCG, Oxytocin, Progesterone
(4) hCG, hPL, Relaxin

8) True for Saheli :-

(1) Oral contraceptive pill once in a week

(2) Developed by CDRI
(3) Non steroidal preparation with very few side effects and high contraceptive value
(4) All

9) If vas deferens is cut & tied then what will happen?

(1) Inhibits spermatogenesis.

(2) Motility of sperms will be reduced.
(3) Inhibits release of semen.
(4) Seminal plasma without sperms is released.

10) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the sertoli cells, and are finally
released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called :-

(1) Spermiation
(2) Semination
(3) Spermatogenesis
(4) Ejaculation

11) Choose the wrong statement on following :-

Chorion = Parietal extra embryonic

(1)
Mesoderm + Trophoblast
Amnion = Amniogenic cells + Visceral extra
(2)
embryonic mesoderm
Yolk sac = Visceral extra embryonic
(3)
Mesoderm + Endoderm
Allantois = Extra embryonic
(4)
Mesoderm + Trophoblast

12) According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was still :-

(1) 1.7 per cent

(2) 17 per cent
(3) Less than 2 per cent
(4) More than 2 per cent

13) Which of the following is not obtained from the plant Cannabis sativa ?

(1) Hashish
(2) Charas
(3) Smack
(4) Marijuana

14) Nissl's granules are found in ............ and helps in ............ :-

(1) Cyton only, lipid synthesis respectively

(2) Cyton and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(3) Dendron and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(4) Dendron and Cyton, Protein synthesis respectively

15) Column-I has diseases related to kidney and II has their character. Select the option which
correctly match them :-

Column-I Column-II
Accumulation of urea in
(A) Uremia i.
blood
Stones of crystallized
(B) Renal calculi ii.
salts formed in kidney
Inflammation of
(C) Glomerulo-nephritis iii.
glomerulus of kidney
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii

16) Match the structure and function of the following in given columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Delivers blood to glomerulus (i) Ascending and descending limb

(B) Carries urine to pelvis (ii) Renal artery

(C) Collects filtrate from Bowman's capsule (iii) Renal calyx

(D) Loop of Henle (iv) Proximal convoluted tubules

(1) A → iv, B → iii, C → ii, D → i
(2) A → i, B → ii, C → iii, D → iv
(3) A → ii, B → iii, C → iv, D → i
(4) A → ii, B → iii, C → i, D → iv

17) Which one of the following are homologus structure ?

(1) Flipper of Penguin and Flipper of dolphin.

(2) Heart of pigeon and heart of rabbit
(3) Gills of prawn and lungs of Human.
(4) Eye of octopus and Eye of Human

18) Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder in which auto-antibodies are produced against
synovial membrane?
(1) Chronic hepatitis
(2) Addison's disease
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Myasthenia gravis

19) Darwin's finches represent :

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Parallel evolution

20) Elephantiasis or filariasis is spread by :

(1) Wuchereria bancrofti

(2) Wuchereria malayi
(3) Both '1' and '2'
(4) Female mosquito

21) Which of the following hormones increase alertness, piloerection and sweating ?

(1) TCT
(2) Catecholamines
(3) Cortisol
(4) Thymosins

22) Which anatomical part of brain is correctly matched:-

(A) Corpus callosum White matter & largest commisure

Wrapped by cerebrum
(B) Thalamus
& centre of signaling.
Outer part of cerebral hemisphere
(C) Limbic system
with Amygdala & hippocampus.
Corpora
(D) Anterior part of midbrain
quadrigemina
(E) Pons Part of brain stem
Options :
(1) A,B,C
(2) B,C,D
(3) A,B,E
(4) C,D,E

23) Decreased level of estrogen is associated with:-

(1) Osteo-arthritis
(2) Osteo-porosis
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Gouty arthritis

24) In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?

(1) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(2) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
(3) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
(4) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon

25) From the following list of animals how many are homeotherm-
Camelus, Chelone, Macropus, Psittacula

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

26) Which of following is not a part of male cockroach ?

(1) Titillator
(2) Phallomer
(3) Collateral glands
(4) Pseudopenis

27) Incidence of Emphysema – a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases :-

(1) The bronchioles are found damaged

(2) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(3) The plasma membrane is found damaged
(4) The respiratory muscles are found damaged

28) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Pericardium (P) Pulmonary vein

(B) Bicuspid valve (Q) Pulmonary artery

(C) Left atrium (R) Covering of Heart

(D) Right ventricle (S) Mitral valve

(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

29) Find out the correct match from the following table:-
 Column
Column I Column II
III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)

Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

30) Hugo de vries based on his work on evening primrose brought forth the idea of mutation,
according to him mutations are not :-

(1) Direction less

(2) Random
(3) Directional
(4) Large changes

31) Match column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

(A) Menstrual phase (i) Corpus luteum

(B) Follicular phase (ii) Breakdown of endometrium

(C) Ovulatory phase (iii) Fully mature Graafian follicle

(D) Luteal phase (iv) Release of ovum

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

32) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

I. Plasma (a) Tissue fluid without RBC

II. Serum (b) Blood without formed element.

III. Lymph (c) Plasma without clotting factor

(1) I-a, II-b, III-c
(2) I-c, II-a, III-b
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a
(4) I-c, II-b, III-a

33) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the ends of the sarcomere.
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine.
(3) Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding sites.
(4) Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament.

34) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs of stone mine workers is characterstic feature of :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational Respiratory Disorder
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pleurisy

35) Assertion (A) : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary cavity.
Reason (R) : Such an arrangement is essential for breathing as we cannot directly alter the
pulmonary volume.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion are correct True but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

36) Assertion : Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that
has been diagnosed in a embryo/child.
Reason : ADA Enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

37) Two basic forms of Coelenterates (Obelia) are given. Which option is correct ? (A) (B)

(1) (A) and (B) are free swimming

(2) (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually
(3) (A) is medusa and (B) is polyp
(4) (A) and (B) are sessile

38) Identify A, B, C and D labelling :

(1) A-Pharynx ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum

(2) A-Oesophagous ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum
(3) A-Pharynx ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Rectum
(4) A-Salivary gland ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Colon

39) Statement-I : Ammonia is the most toxic form of nitrogenous waste which requires least
amount of water for its elimination.
Statement-II : Urea is the least toxic form of nitrogenous waste that can be removed with a
minimum loss of water.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

40) Statement-1 : Dryopithecus was more man like.

Statement-2 : Ramapithecus was more ape like.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct, Statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both Statement are incorrect

41) In emergency, which group of blood can be transfused safely without cross matching ?

(1) A and Rh–

(2) O and Rh–
(3) A and Rh+
(4) O and Rh+

42) The lytic enzyme present in sperm is :-

(1) ligase
(2) estrogenase
(3) androgenase
(4) hyaluronidase

43) In severe cases of which disease intestinal perforation may take place?

(1) Diphtheria
(2) Typhoid
(3) Filariasis
(4) Malaria

44)

Cartilage present at tip of nose :-

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) White fibrous cartilage

45) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) All locomotion are movement but all movement are not locomotion.
(2) All movement are locomotion but all locomotion are not movement.
(3) Cardiac muscle is present in heart.
(4) Cardiac muscle are involuntary but striated muscle.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 3 3 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question:
Calculate the wavelength given the difference between the first and second resonance lengths.

Concept:
In a resonance tube, L2 – L1 = λ / 2.

Solution:
L2 – L1 33 cm
=

λ / 2 = 33
λ = 2 × 33 = 66 cm

Final answer: Option (2)

2)

3) Question Explanation : We must find the period of SHM from the acceleration -
displacement graph's slope

Concept : SHM-acceleration - displacement graph's slope

Formula : a = –ω2 x

Solution: slope of a v/s x graph = – ω2

Given slope = – tan 37° = –

So, ω2 = ⇒ ω=

Time Period

Final Answer : Option (1)

4)

Force between the plates of capacitor does not depends on distance.

 5) As we know

Current sensitivity Si =

⇒ Si ∝ N ⇒

⇒ ⇒ N2 = 60.

6)

Question Explanation :
Bismuth is suspended freely in magnetic field if it arrange it self at right angle than bismuth is.

Concept :
This question is based on Magnetic properties of material.

Solution :
Theory :

A. When a material is placed in magnetic field if material aligns parallel to the magnetic field. It
means the material is paramagnetic.
B. If the material aligns perpendicular (at right angle) to the magnetic field, it means material is
diamagnetic.
C. Bismuth is diamagnetic.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

7) Calculation :

Z=
where X = |XL – XC|
⇒ Z = 100Ω

and irms = = = 2A
and power discipated in the coil
P= = 144 W
 Final Answer : (3) 144 W

9) Explain the Question : We are asked to find the resistance R of a wire in terms of n, e, ,
m, ℓ and A.
Concept : This question is based on microscopic view of ohm's law.
Solution:

Electrical resistivity and

Substituting resistivity into resistance formula :

Final Answer : Option (1)

10)

Explain Question : Terminal potential difference (V) of a cell is less than EMF due to internal
resistance. Using voltage division in series with external resistance, we can find the ratio V/E.
Concept : This question is based on
Terminal voltage : V = E – Ir

Series circuit : I =
Terminal voltage V : IRext = [Link]
Solution :

V/E = n(n+1)

Final answer : option (3)

12)

Increase of 589Å

13)

the objective lens should be of large focal length and eyepiece should be of small focal length.

14)

Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarisedReflected light is
plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarised

16)

3rd option is the correct answer

 17)

u = –10 cm, v= –20 cm

Δv = –m2 × Δu ⇒ Δv = –4 × 0.1
⇒ Δv = –0.4 cm
–ve sign indicate object and image are moving opposite to each other

18)

19) Question Explanation : Find binding energy per nuclear for He in MeV. Given Δm =
0.0303 amu.

Concept : Mass energy equivalence, mass defect.

Solution : Energy liberated due to Δm,

ΔE = 0.030 × 931 MeV

ΔE per nucleon =

Final Answer : Option (2)

21) Acceleration produced due to electric field is

Now, v = u + at =
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is given by

22)

Let K and K' be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons for incident light of frequency ν
and 2ν respectively.
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
K = hν – E0 ....(i)
and K' = h(2ν ) – E0 ....(ii)
= 2hν – E0 = hν + hν – E0
K' = hν + K [using (i)]

23)
 24)

5mA

25)

n will increase but v will decrease

26) Question Explanation: Compare times for solid sphere, disc, and cylinder rolling from
same height.

Concept: Time of rolling objects

Solution:

Time taken

For Sphere :

For Cylinder and disc :

For sphere is minimum, so time taken to reach the bottom is minimum.

Sphere has shortest time reaches first

Final Answer: Option (3)

27) Question Explanation:

Quantities that remain constant in planetary motion (elliptical orbits) as seen from the sun.

Concept Based:
Kepler's laws of planetary motion and conservation laws govern this.

Formula Used:
Angular momentum L – Lω = mr2ω – mvr sinθ (where θ is the angle between v and r). For
elliptical orbits, it's simpler to think of L = r × p = m (r × v).

Calculation:
Speed: Varies as the planet moves closer to and farther from the sun.
Angular speed: Varies because the rate at which the radius vector sweeps area is constant
(Kepler's second law). and the distance changes.
Kinetic energy: Varies with speed.
Angular momentum: Since the gravitational force from the sun acts along the line joining
the sun and the planet (a central force), the torque on the planet about the sun is zero.
Therefore, the angular momentum of the planet about the sun remains constant.
Final Answer: Angular momentum remains constant.
Correct option: (4)

28) Magnetic field of earth is along polar axis to equitorial plane thus horizontal component
is zero. As metal satellite moves in horizontal field free plane, hence no induced effect in it.

29)

Last option is the correct answer

30)

10 cm/s

31)

ΔU = μCVΔT = = 150 × 8.31

= 12.48 × 102 Joules

32) As length of both wires increases by same amount

Δℓ1 = Δℓ2

33)

⇒ ⇒ = λm

34)

35)
36) ...(1)

....(2)

∴ =

37)

38) Explain Question: A body starts from height h on a frictionless track and just completes a
vertical circle of diameter D. Find relation between h and D.

Concept: Energy conservation and minimum speed at top for completing the loop.

Solution:

For a vertical circle, the minimum speed at the top is where .

Using energy conservation from height h to the top: mgh = mg(2R) + mgh = mg(2R)

+ Thus,
Final Answer : Option (4)

39)

40)

is zero if the vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity

41)

... (1)

u sin 45 = v sin θ

v sin θ = ... (2)

v cos θ = (3)
 22 + 32

by equation (1)

42)

Explanation the Question:

Two blocks of masses M and m are on a smooth horizontal surface with an inclined plane of
angle β. Block m remains stationary relative to M; find the force P applied on M.
Concept:
This question is based on Equilibrium on inclined plane / Relative motion
Formula:
P = (M + m) g tan β
Solution:

For block m to remain stationary relative to M, the horizontal acceleration of M must match
the component of gravity along the incline for m:
a = g sin β / cos β
a = g tan β
Force on M
P = total mass × acceleration = (M + m) × g tan β
Final Answer: (1)

43)

1st option is the correct answer

44)

Question Explanation:
To calculate torque of a force at a point about origin
Concept:
Torque
Solution:

Torque ,
 =
Final Answer: Option (3)

45)

Question Explanation : The diameter of a wire is being measured with the help of a Screw
Gauge -

Pitch (P) = 0.5 mm

Total number of divisions on circular scale (N) = 100 Divisions

Zero Error (ZE) = + 2 Circular Scale Divisions (CSD)

Main Scale Reading (MSR) = 8th Division

Circular Scale Reading (CSR) = 83rd Division

Concept : Screw Gauge : Least Count (LC), Zero Error (ZE), Measurement

Solution :

LC = = = 0.005 mm

ZE = +2 × LC = +2 × 0.005 mm = +0.01 mm

Final Corrected Reading = MSR + CSR - ZE

= (8 × P) + (83 × LC) - (+0.01 mm)

= (8 × 0.5 mm) + (83 × 0.005 mm) - (0.01 mm)

= (4 mm) + (0.415 mm) - (0.01 mm)

= 4.405 mm

Final Answer : Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) CxHy + O2 —→ xCO2 + H2O

1 mL x mL

10 mL 10x mL
x=4

y = 10
C4H10

47) Explain the question : Identify the incorrect statement regarding the nitration of aniline.
Concept : This question is based on Nitration of Aniline, Directing Influence of Functional
Groups.
Solution : During the nitration of aniline with a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and H2SO4, the
strongly acidic medium protonates most of the aniline (C6H5NH2) to form the anilinium ion
(C6H5NH3+).
1. The -NH2 group is ortho, para-directing, while the -NH3+ group is meta-directing.
2. This leads to a product mixture: p-nitroaniline (51%), m-nitroaniline (47%), and o-
nitroaniline (2%).
3. Direct nitration also causes oxidation, forming tarry products.
Let's check the statements:
• Statement (1): Correct. Tarry oxidation products are formed.
• Statement (2): Correct. The anilinium ion is formed and is meta-directing.
• Statement (3): Correct. A significant amount of meta derivative (47%) is formed.
• Statement (4): Incorrect. The major product is p-nitroaniline (51%), not the meta derivative.
Final Answer : 4

48)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which ligand binds a metal ion through two atoms.

Concept:
This question is based on nature of ligands on the basis of denticity.

Solution:
(Bidentate ligand, Hexadentate ligand, monodentate ligand)

en ⇒ is a bidentate ligand

Final Answer - Option (2)

49)

Ga+ < ln+ < Tl+ as + 1 O.S. is more stable due to inert pair effect.

50) Explain question: Identify correct order of reducing power

Concept: Oxidizing and reducing nature.
Solution:
Reducing power refers to donate hydrogen
→ Bond strength (M-H) decreases, easier to break M-H bond.
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 (NH3 have strong N-H bond)
Final Answer: (4)

51)

Question Explanation: Evaluate truth of two statements: one on dimerization of ethanoic

acid and one on reverse osmosis.

Concept: Hydrogen bonding and reverse osmosis

Solution:

Statement-I: Correct – In non-polar solvents (low dielectric constant), ethanoic acid forms
dimers via H-bonding.

Statement-II: Incorrect – Reverse osmosis requires higher pressure applied to the solution
side, not pure solvent.

Final Answer- option: 1

53) Question Explanation: We need to find solubility product of BaSO4 if solubility (in gL–1) is
given
Concept: Solubility product

Solution: = = 10–5
+2 –2
BaSO4 ⇌ Ba + SO4
Ksp = S2 = (10–5)2 = 10–10
Final answer: option (2)

54) Explanation:
We are asked : In a cyclic process, the amount of heat given to a system is equal to what?

Concept
First law of thermodynamics:
ΔU = q – W
In a cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state → ΔU = 0.
Therefore,
q=W
i.e., heat given to the system equals the net work done by the system.

Solution
Net work done by the system → correct.
Net increase in internal energy → zero in cyclic process.
Net decrease in internal energy → zero in cyclic process.
Net change in specific heat → irrelevant.

Correct Answer : (1)

 55)

56)

Question Explanation : The question asks to identify the final product B in a two-step
reaction sequence starting from ethyl bromide (CH3 CH 2 Br) reacting with silver cyanide
(AgCN), followed by catalytic hydrogenation with H2/Ni.

Concept : Nucleophilic substitution, Ambident nucleophile, Isocyanide formation, Catalytic

reduction, Secondary amine.

Solution:

Step 1: Ethyl bromide reacts with AgCN. Since Ag–C bond is covalent, the nitrogen atom acts as the
nucleophile, forming ethyl isocyanide (A). CH3CH2Br + AgCN → CH3CH2NC + AgBr.
Step 2: Reduction of ethyl isocyanide with H2/Ni yields a secondary amine, N-methylethanamine

(B). ​
Final Answer : Option (2)

57)

58) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To determine which option does not belong to the same block as the others,
let's analyze the electron configurations and identify their respective blocks.
Concept-Options (1), (2), and (4) belong to the d-block.
Option (3) belongs to the s-block.

59)

Explaining the Question :- Balance redox reaction between Zn and nitrate ion forming Zn2+
and NH4+.
Concept:- This question is based on Balance oxidation (Zn → Zn2+) and reduction (NO3– +
 NH4+) half reactions in acidic medium.
Solution :-
Reduction :
Oxidation Zn → ZN2+ + 2e-
Multiply oxidation × 4 → 8e- balance.
Combine:

Final Answer :- 3

60)

Explain Question : Find optimal Temperature and pressure for ammonia synthesis reaction.

Concept : Favorable conditions are found using Le chatelier's principle on ΔH and gas moles.

Solution :

A. Effect of Temperature: Since the reaction is exothermic (ΔH < 0), low temperature favors
the forward reaction (Le Chatelier's Principle). However, too low a temperature slows the
reaction rate.
B. Effect of Pressure: The reaction decreases the number of moles of gas (4 moles →2 moles),
so high pressure shifts equilibrium toward ammonia formation.

Final Answer : option (4) Low Temperature & High Pressure

61) Question Explanation :

The question asks to find the approximate relationship between the degree of dissociation (α)
and the total equilibrium pressure (P).
Concept : This question is based on relationship between α, Kp, and P.
Solution :
PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
moles at eq 1–α α α

Since Kp, is constant, , which leads

to
Final Answer : option (2)

62) Explain Question:

We are asked to determine the order of a reaction based on how half-life changes with initial
pressure.

Concept:
Order from half-life vs. concentration/pressure

Solution:
• Given:
At 50mm → t1/2 = 4hrs
At 100mm → t1/2 = 2hrs
• When pressure doubles, half-life halves →

• For a reaction of order n:

• So, n – 1 = 1 ⇒ n = 2

Final Answer: Option (3)

63)
ΔH=BEC≡C + 2BEC–H + 2BEH–H – BEC–C – 6BEC–H
= 601 + 2 × 425 + 2 × 420 – 340 – 6 × 425
= – 599 kJ/mol

64)

Explaining the Question :- Complete the following reaction and find the final products
Concept:- This question is based on Gattermann-koch reaction, Cannizaro reaction.
Solution :-

Gattermann koch reaction proceed through ESR mechanism In Cannizzaro reaction oxidation
of HCHO and reduction of benzaldehyde takes place.
Final Answer :- 2

65) Question Explanation : Find out the main product in the given reaction sequence.
Concept : Electrophilic substitution, acid base reaction, Zwitter ion.
Solution :
Final Answer : Option (3)

67)

CrO4–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic

Cr2O7–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic
MnO4– Mn+7 diamagnetic

MnO4–2 Mn+6 paramagnetic

unpaired electron is present so d–d transition is possible.

69) Cr+3 = d3

70) I.
II.
III.
IV.

71) Basic nature of oxides decreases across the period and increases down the group.

72)
 Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the statement which is not true among
the given options.
Concept : This question is based on Properties of amylopectin and classification of amino
acids.

Answer Explanation:

A. Option 1: Correct → Amylopectin is insoluble in water.

B. Option 2: Correct → Amylopectin makes up about 80–85% of starch.
C. Option 3: Incorrect → Amylopectin is a branched polymer of α‑D‑glucose (with α(1→4) and
α(1→6) linkages), not unbranched.
D. Option 4: Correct → Methionine is indeed an essential amino acid.

Thus, the not true statement is (3).

Final Answer: Option (3)

73) Explain Question: The preparation of Methoxybenzene.

Concept: Williamson ether synthesis.

Solution:

(x) No reaction

Due to resonance C–Br bond acquires double bond character

(y) + CH3Br

Final answer: option (2)

74)

Explain the Question : Identify which reactions involve formation of a carbene intermediate.
Concept : This question is based on Reimer tiemann reaction, Carbylamine reaction,
Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
Solution :
Reimer Tiemann Reaction : CHCl3 + OH– → dichlorocarbene (CCl2) ✔
Carbylamine Reaction : CHCl3 + KOH → dichlorocarbene (CCl2) ✔
Hoffmann Bromamide Reaction : No carbene intermediate ✕
Both (1) and (2) involve carbene formation.
Final answer : 4

75)
Carboxylic acid has higher boiling point than aldehyde, ketone and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass.
This is due to more extensive association through intermolecular H-bonding.

76) Explain the Question : Compound 'B' is :

Concept : This question is based on 2,4-DNP test, haloform reaction, Fehling's test, test with
Baeyer's reagent, oxidation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

77)

or

78)

Ca+2 O–2 → 2 × –2
Mg+2 Br2– → 2 × –1
Cs+ I– → 1 × –1

79) (1) ClO3– → ClO– , DGº1 = –4F (0.54)

(1) ClO– → Cl– , DGº2 = –2F (0.71)
– –
(1) ClO3 → Cl , DGº3 = –6F (Eº)

–6Eº = –4 × 0.54 – 2 × 0.71

Eº = 0.6

80) MM = 2 × UD
MM = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4
1 mol = 22.4 gm = 22.4 ℓ
1 gm = 1 ℓ

82)

Explanation the Question :

We are asked to calculate the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in a solution that already contains
CO32– ions (common ion effect).
Concept :
Common ion effect: In solution with [CO32–] already present, solubility decreases.
Solubility expression: Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32–]
Solution :
Given:
Ksp(Ag2CO3) = 4 × 10–13
[CO32–] = 0.1 M
Let solubility of Ag2CO3 = s
Ksp = [Ag+]2 × [CO32–]
4 × 10–13 = (2s)2 × 0.1 ≈ 4s2 × 0.1 = 0.4 s2
s2 = 4 × 10–13 / 0.4 = 1 × 10–12
s = 10–6 M
Final Answer : 1

83) For H-atom energy of electron depends on n-only.

84) Question Explanation: Identify pair with equal unpaired electrons but unequal bond
orders.
Concept: This question is based on Molecular orbital theory
Solution: Only B2 and O2 each have 2 unpaired, but bond orders differ (B2 = 1, O2 = 2).
O2 : (16 electron)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px1 = ​π∗2py1
B2 : (10 electron) - σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px1 = ​π2py1

Final Answer: Option (3)

86) Explain the question : Find out the correct order of –I effect of the following group.
Concept: This question is based on inductive effect (–I effect)
Solution: The –I effect is the EWG. The strength is determined by the EN of atoms and
presence of ⊕ve charge.

Correct order of –I = –NO2 > –CN > –COOH

Final Answer: 4

87) Question Explanation : The question asks in which compound all 'c' atoms are in
sp2 hybridization.

Concept :
Hybridization : Intermixing of orbitals.
Hybridization can be determined by following.

Formula : n = no. of σ bond + ℓp

if n = 4 means sp3, n = 3 means sp2, n = 2 means sp hybridization take place.

Solution :

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
sp3 sp3 sp3

(2)

(3)

(4)
Therefore option (2) compound have all 'c' atom in sp2 hybridization state.

Final Answer : Option (2)

88)

Last option is the correct answer

89) Explain Question:

The question asks to identify which organic compound cannot have its nitrogen content
estimated using the Kjeldahl method.

Concept:
The Kjeldahl method fails for compounds where nitrogen is in a nitro group (NO2), azo group
(–N = N–), or within a ring (like pyridine). In these cases, nitrogen doesn't convert to
(NH4)2SO4 during digestion with H2SO4.

Solution:
Options 1, 2, and 3: These contain amine or hydrazine-like linkages that can be converted to
ammonium sulfate.
Option 4 (Ph – NO2): This is nitrobenzene. The nitrogen in the nitro group cannot be
quantitatively converted to ammonium sulfate under standard Kjeldahl conditions.

Final answer: Option (4)

 90) Question Explanation: To find equivalent weight of HNO3 in given reaction.
Concept: Equivalent weight in Redox reactions.
Solution: When HNO3 is converted to NH3, the o. state of N changes from +5 to –3.
HNO3
+ 1 + × + (–2) 3 = 0
x = + 5 ([Link] of N)
NH3
y+153=0
y = – 3 ([Link] of N)

So, v. factor HNO3 = 5 – (–3) = 8

equivalent weight =
Final Answer: Option (4)

BOTANY

91)

(i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–E, (iv)–B, (v)–A

92) NCERT-XI, Para-1.3.7

93)

NCERT Pg # 23-24

94) NCERT Pg.# 18, 128

95)

Carbohydrates, particularly in the form of glucose and other sugars, are primarily produced
through the process of photosynthesis. This is carried out by :
• Green plant cells (such as in plants and trees),
• Algae, which are photosynthetic organisms found in aquatic environments,
• Some bacteria, specifically those that are photosynthetic, like cyanobacteria
(often called "blue-green algae")

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 25

97)

NCERT Pg. No. 39, 3.4

98) Correct Answer: (2)

99) NCERT Pg#85

100) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 68,69

101)

Conceptual.

102) Ensures genetic uniformity in rootstocks (e.g., citrus, mango)

103) Conceptual

104) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 23 : Part : 2.2.1 Stamen, Microsporangium and
Pollen Grain : Diagram : When a spindle is positioned asymmetrically in a dividing cell, the
resulting daughter cells are unequal in size

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 212, 218

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158

107)

Explain Question: The question asks about the parameter which is used to measure the
growth in flat organs like leaves.

Concept: Discovery of PGR.

Solution:

The parameter which is used is increase in surface area.

So, the correct answer is: 3.

Final answer: Option 3

108) NCERT-XI, Page # 175

109)

Statement I: Incorrect. Abscisic acid (ABA) acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and
inhibits seed germination, contrary to what is stated. Statement II: Correct. ABA does indeed
increase the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses by stimulating the closure of
stomata, which helps to reduce water loss during times of stress.
110)

Statement I: Correct. The phenomenon of heterophylly, where plants exhibit different leaf
shapes in different environments or stages of development, is indeed an example of plasticity.
Statement II: Incorrect. Development in plants is controlled by both intrinsic factors, such as
genetics and intercellular factors (like plant growth regulators), and extrinsic factors,
including light, temperature, water, oxygen, and nutrition.

111) NCERT Pg. # 208

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 180

113) Explain Question:

This question asks identify the incorrect match between a microbial product
the microorganism producing it.

Concept:
Microbes in Industrial

Solution:
• Citric acid-Aspergillus flavus: Incorrect Citric acid is produced by aspergillus Niger, not
Aspergillus flavus.

Final answer: Option (1)

114) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 183

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 194, 195

116)

Question Explanation: Identifies attributes that are characteristic of populations, not

individuals.

Concept: Population Attributes.

Solution: An individual has a birth, death, and sex. A population has a birth rate, death rate,
and sex ratio. Therefore, birth rate (b), death rate (c), and sex ratio (d) are population
attributes. "Birth" (a) is an event for an individual.

Final Answer: b, c and d

117) NCERT XII, Pg. 227

118)

Question Explanation: Relationship between diversity and stability.

Concept: Diversity-stability hypothesis.
Solution: According to David Tilman's research, a species-rich community is more stable
because it shows less year-to-year variation in biomass, has higher productivity, and is more
resistant to invasions by alien species. All three options are correct indicators of stability in a
diverse ecosystem.
Final Answer: All of these.

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 261

120)

NCERT Pg # 265

121) NCERT XII Pg. # 243-244

122)

Commensalism, parasitism, mutualism, herbivory, predation

123) Both statements I & II are correct

124) NCERT XII Pg # 80

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83, 84

126) NCERT Pg # 105

127)

Ncert Pg No: 81

128) Explain Question:

The question asks to correctly match column-A items (biological terms) with Column-B
descriptions.

Concept:
Human Genome project and biotechnology terms

Solution:
(a) Expressed sequence tags (ESTs) → represent genes expressed as RNA → (r)
 (b) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) → occur at about 1.4 million locations in human
genome → (p).
(c) Less then 2% genome → codes for protein → (s).
(d) Human genome → consists pf ~3 billion base pairs → (q).

Final answer: Option (1)

129)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 90,91

130)

A normal female with a colourblind mother (XJXc) and a normal man (XJY) will have 50% chance
of having colourblind male children, as the sons inherit the Y chromosome from the father and
one X chromosome from the mother.

131) NCERT English

Page-71
Table-5.1

132) NCERT Pg.#60, 61, 69

133) NCERT XII Hindi

Page 69, Table 4.2
Page 99, Figure 5.7
Page 76, Para 4.4

134) NCERT XII Pg. # 90,91[E], 99[H]

ZOOLOGY

136) Explain Question:

This question asks to identify the sugar shown in the given structural formula.

Concept :
Monosaccharides.

Solution :
Ribose is a pentose sugar present in RNA. It has five carbon atoms and an –OH group at the 2'
carbon. Deoxyribose lacks this –OH group, so its is different from ribose.

Final Answer : Option (2)

 137)

NCERT Page # 200

138)

Explain Question: The question is asking about the role of GEAC (Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee) in India.

Concept: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

Solution:

A. Making decisions regarding validity of GM research

Correct. GEAC evaluates proposals for genetic engineering research.

B. Making decisions regarding safety of introducing GM organisms for public services

Correct. GEAC clears GMOs for commercial release or public use after safety
assessment.

C. Large scale production of any commercially important crop

Incorrect. GEAC does not produce crops; it only approves safety and research.

Funding biotechnological research

Incorrect. Funding is typically provided by DBT (Department of Biotechnology) or other agencies,
not GEAC.
Final answer: option 1

139)

NCERT XII Pg # 185

140) The correct answer is option (3) Biopiracy.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Biopiracy refers to the unauthorized and unethical appropriation of biological resources and
traditional knowledge from developing countries by corporations or institutions, often for
commercial gain.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

141)

Question Explanation: The question asks the source of Taq DNA polymerase used in PCR
and the temperature at which it is active.

Concept: PCR
Solution: Taq DNA polymerase is obtained from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, a
thermophilic organism found in hot springs. It is thermostable and remains active at high
temperatures used in PCR, typically 72º – 94ºC, allowing DNA synthesis during the extension
step without denaturation.

Final answer: Option 2

142) Question Explanation: Identify the hormones that are secreted exclusively during
pregnancy in human females.

Concept: The question is based on pregnancy-specific hormones

Solution: The correct answer is option 4

A. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) – Secreted by trophoblast cells after implantation;

unique to pregnancy

B. hPL (human placental lactogen) – Produced by the placenta; only during pregnancy

C. Relaxin – Secreted by the ovary and placenta during pregnancy to relax ligaments and
prepare the cervix

Other hormones like estrogen, progesterone, and oxytocin are also present in non-pregnant
states.

Final answer: 4

144)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the effect of cutting and tying the vas deferens
(vasectomy).

Concept: The question is based on Vasectomy

Solution: The correct answer is option 4, because vasectomy blocks the transport of sperm
from testes to urethra.
Spermatogenesis continues normally, and accessory glands still add secretions, so seminal
plasma is released but without sperms.

Final answer: 4

145) NCERT Pg. # 47

146)

Question Explanation
The question is asking to identify the incorrect statement regarding the formation of extra
embryonic membranes.

Concept
Extra embryonic membranes

Solution
Chorion is formed by trophoblast and parietal extra embryonic mesoderm, amnion is formed
by amniogenic cells and visceral extra embryonic mesoderm, and yolk sac is formed by
endoderm and visceral extra embryonic mesoderm, all of which are correct. Allantois is formed
from extra embryonic mesoderm and endoderm, not trophoblast, so that statement is
incorrect.

Final answer: Option 4

147)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about the population growth rate of India as reported in the 2011
census.

Concept
POPULATION STABILISATION

Solution
According to the 2011 census, India’s annual population growth rate had declined and was
below 2 percent.

Final answer
Option 3

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 159

149) Explain Question :

Nissl's granules are found in ... and help in ...

Concept :
This question is based on Structure of neuron.

Explanation :
Nissl's granules occur in cyton and dendrites (not in axon) and are involved in protein
synthesis.

Final answer : 4

150) Question Explanation: Kidney disease matching

Concept: Disease–symptom relation
 Solution: Uremia → accumulation of urea, Renal calculi → salt stones, Glomerulonephritis →
inflammation of glomerulus.
Final Answer: A-i, B-ii, C-iii

151)

Question Explanation: Match the given kidney structures with their correct functions.

Concept: The question is based on the structure and function of different parts of the nephron
and kidney.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

Correct matching is as follows:

A. (A) Delivers blood to glomerulus → (ii) Renal artery

B. (B) Carries urine to pelvis → (iii) Renal calyx

C. (C) Collects filtrate from Bowman's capsule → (iv) Proximal convoluted tubules

D. (D) Loop of Henle → (i) Ascending and descending limb

Final answer: Option 3

152) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 130

153) NCERT (E) Pg # 153

154) Adaptive Radiation:

A. A single ancestral species rapidly diversifies into multiple descendant species.

B. Each species adapts to a specific ecological niche.
C. Darwin's finches evolved different beak shapes and sizes to exploit various food sources.

Divergent Evolution:

A. Related species evolve different traits over time.

B. This leads to the formation of distinct species.
C. Darwin's finches, despite sharing a common ancestor, have evolved into distinct species with
different beak shapes and feeding habits.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3. Both (1) and (2).

155)

Ques Explanation – The question asks how elephantiasis (filariasis) is spread, focusing on the
 vector rather than the parasite.

Concept – Vector-borne diseases

Solution – The disease is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi, but they
are transmitted to humans by the bite of female mosquitoes. So, the spread is via the female
mosquito, not directly by the parasite.

Final Answer – Option 4

156)

Question Explanation : Stress response effects

Concept: Adrenal medulla – Catecholamine action

Solution: Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) increase alertness, piloerection,

and sweating.

Final answer: Option (2)

157)

Question Explanation – The question is asking which anatomical parts of the brain are
correctly matched with their descriptions.

Concept – Structural divisions and features of major brain regions

Solution –

(A) Corpus callosum: It is white matter and the largest commissure → Correct.
(B) Thalamus: It lies within the cerebrum (wrapped by cerebral hemispheres) and acts as a
major relay/signalling centre → Correct.
(C) Limbic system: It is not the outer part of the cerebral hemisphere; it lies on the inner
medial side → Incorrect.
(D) Corpora quadrigemina: Present on the dorsal, not anterior, part of the midbrain →
Incorrect.
(E) Pons: It is indeed a part of the brainstem → Correct.

Correct matches: A, B, E

Final Answer – Option 3

158)

Question explanation: Identify the disorder associated with decreased estrogen levels.
Concept: Bone - disorder
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. Estrogen helps maintain bone density; a decrease in estrogen levels (especially after
menopause) leads to loss of bone mass, resulting in osteoporosis.
Final answer: Option 2

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 59

160)

Explain Question:
This question is asking about how many animals in the given list are homeotherms (Warm –
blooded animals that maintain constant body temperature).

Concept:
Animal kingdom – Thermoregulation (homeotherms vs poikilotherms).

Solution:
Camelus (camel) and Macropus (Kangaroo) are mammals, and psittacula (parrot) is a bird —
all are homeotherms, while chelone (turtle) is reptile and poikilotherm. So, total homeotherms
= 3.

Final answer: Option (2)

161)

Question explanation: Identify the structure that is not a part of the male cockroach
reproductive system.

Concept: Cockroach – male reproductive organs

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Option 1 (Titillator): Present in male cockroach; helps during copulation.

B. Option 2 (Phallomere): Present in male cockroach as part of external genitalia.

C. Option 3 (Collateral glands): Not present in male; these are female accessory
glands involved in ootheca formation.

D. Option 4 (Pseudopenis): Present in male cockroach.

Final answer: Option 3

162)

Explain the Question : Which part of the respiratory system is primarily damaged in
emphysema caused by cigarette smoking.
Concept : This question is based on respiratory disorders.
Solution : Cigarette smoke causes inflammation in lungs.
Inflammatory cells release proteolytic enzymes (like elastase) → these break down alveolar
walls.
Consequences:
1. Enlarged air spaces
2. Loss of lung elasticity
3. Impaired oxygen/carbon dioxide exchange
Bronchioles may be narrowed, but the primary site of damage is the alveolar walls.
Final answer : 2

163)

Question Explanation : Match the heart structures with their correct description.

Concept : Structure of human Heart

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. (A) Pericardium → (R) Covering of Heart

B. (B) Bicuspid valve → (S) Mitral valve

C. (C) Left atrium → (P) Pulmonary vein (receives oxygenated blood)

D. (D) Right ventricle → (Q) Pulmonary artery (pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs)

Final answer : Option 4

164)

Question explanation: Identify which lung volumes have correct formulas and typical values.

Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

(i) TV: Formula EC – ERV, Value 500 ml - TRUE

(ii) ERV: Formula VC – IRV – TV, Value 1000–1100 ml ,Not 3000 ml

(iii) VC: Formula IRV + TV + ERV (given includes RV wrong ), Value 4500 ml
 (iv) RV: Formula FRC – ERV, Value 1200 ml - TRUE

So correct match is (i) and (iv)

Final answer: Option (4)

165) NCERT Pg. # 146

166) Question Explanation

Match the phases of the menstrual cycle with their corresponding events.
Concept
The question is based on menstrual cycle phases and physiological changes.
Solution
The correct answer is option 3:

A. (A) Menstrual phase → Breakdown of endometrium (ii)

A. Menstrual phase involves shedding of the uterine lining.
B. (B) Follicular phase → Fully mature Graafian follicle (iii)
A. Follicular phase leads to development of a mature Graafian follicle.
C. (C) Ovulatory phase → Release of ovum (iv)
A. Ovulation is marked by rupture of Graafian follicle and release of ovum.
D. (D) Luteal phase → Corpus luteum (i)
A. After ovulation, corpus luteum forms and secretes progesterone.

Final Answer
Option 3: A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

167) NCERT Pg. No. 279

168)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct structural or functional feature of muscle fibers.

Concept: The question is based on structure of contractile protein.

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the ends of the sarcomere:

This is incorrect. Z-lines anchor actin (thin) filaments, not myosin, to the ends of the sarcomere.
Myosin is located in the A-band of the sarcomere.
1. Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine:
This is incorrect. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores calcium ions (Ca²⁺), not acetylcholine.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter stored in synaptic vesicles in the nerve terminals.
2. Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding sites:
This is incorrect. Myosin cross bridges have ATPase activity for energy release and binding sites
for actin, but calcium binding sites are located on troponin, a regulatory protein in thin filaments.
3. Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament:
This is correct. The thin filament consists of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin. These regulatory
proteins play a crucial role in muscle contraction.
Final answer: Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament.

169) NCERT-XI, Pg#276

170)

Question explanation: Evaluate the correctness of the statements about lung–thorax

relationship during breathing.
Concept: Respiratory system - lungs and thoracic cage
Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. The assertion is true because the lungs are enclosed within the thoracic cavity, so any
change in thoracic volume is directly reflected in pulmonary volume.
B. The reason is also true and correctly explains the assertion, as lungs lack muscles to
change their volume directly, making this anatomical arrangement essential for breathing.

Final answer: Option 4

171)

Question Explanation: Judge correctness of Assertion–Reason about gene therapy and ADA
enzyme.

Concept: The question is based on gene therapy.

Solution:

A. Assertion: True — gene therapy corrects diagnosed gene defects in embryo/child.

B. Reason: True — ADA enzyme is essential for proper immune function.

C. But the reason does not explain what gene therapy is; it only states the role of ADA.

So both are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Final answer: Option 2

172)

Question Explanation: Identifying forms and life cycle of Obelia.

Concept: Alternation of generation in Obelia.
Solution: The two basic body forms of coelenterates are the polyp (sessile, cylindrical form,
represented by A) and the medusa (free-swimming, umbrella-shaped form, represented by B).
In Obelia, the polyp reproduces asexually to produce the medusa, and the medusa reproduces
sexually to form the polyp, a phenomenon known as alternation of generation.
Final Answer: (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually
 173)

Question Explanation: Identifying parts of cockroach alimentary canal.

Concept: Digestive system of cockroach
Solution: A is the salivary gland, which secretes saliva. B is the crop, which stores food. C is
the Malpighian tubules, which are for excretion. D is the colon, which is part of the hindgut.
Final Answer: option (4)

174)

Explain Question : This question is asking about the toxicity of nitrogenous wastes and the
water requirement for their elimination.
Concept : This question is based on Types of nitrogenous wastes
Solution : Ammonia is the most toxic waste, but it requires a large amount of water for
elimination, not the least. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
Urea is less toxic and can be excreted with moderate water loss, not minimum. The least water
requirement is for uric acid. Hence, Statement II is also incorrect.
Final answer : 4

175) NCERT Pg # 124

176)

Question Explanation : The question asks which blood group can be transfused safely in
emergency without cross matching.

Concept : The question is based on blood group.

Solution : The correct answer is Option 2

A. Blood group O lacks both A and B antigens, so it does not trigger immune reactions in
recipients of other ABO groups.
B. Rh–ve is chosen because Rh+ blood can cause severe reactions if given to Rh–ve individuals.

Therefore, O negative blood is considered the universal donor and is safest in emergencies
when cross matching is not possible.

Final Answer : Option 2

177)

Question Explanation: Identify the enzyme in sperm that helps penetrate the egg.

Concept: Reproductive Biology – Fertilization

Solution:

A. Hyaluronidase – Present in the acrosome of sperm; digests hyaluronic acid in the egg’s
corona radiata to aid fertilization.
Final Answer: Option 4

178)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 130

179)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which type of cartilage is present at the tip of
the nose.

Concept: Types of cartilage.

Solution : In the tip of the nose, the cartilage is flexible and contains elastic fibres, so it is
classified as elastic cartilage in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is elastic cartilage.

Final Answer: Option (1)