29-04-2026

1001CMD303052250114 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the figure shown, after the switch 'S' is turned from position 'A' to position 'B', the energy
dissipated in the circuit in terms of capacitance 'C' and total charge 'Q' is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In a new system, unit of mass is made 2 times, unit of length is made 3 times and unit of time is
made 6 times. Then unit of Planck's constant in new system becomes :

(1) 2 times
(2) 3 times
(3) 4 times
(4) 4.5 times

3) At constant temperature when Si crystal doped by Indium then match the following.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Electron density (i) Decrease

(B) Hole density (ii) Increase

Product of electron Remain

(C) (iii)
and hole density same
(1) A → (ii), B → (iii), (C) → (ii)
(2) A → (i), B → (ii), (C) → (iii)
(3) A → (ii), B → (i), (C) → (iii)
(4) A → (iii), B → (i), (C) → (ii)

4) A pulley fixed to the ceilling carries a string with blocks of mass m and 3m attached to its ends.
The masses of string and pulley are negligible. When the system is released, with what acceleration
its centre of mass moves ?

(1) Zero
(2) g/4
(3) g/2
(4) g/3

5) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency
250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is :-

(1) 260 Hz
(2) 254 Hz
(3) 246 Hz
(4) 240 Hz

6) Two coils have a mutual inductance M = 5 × 10–3 H. The current changes in first coil according to

equation I = I cos ωt, where I = 2A and ω = 100 π

0 0
. The maximum value of induced emf in the
second coil is:-

(1) 4π volt
(2) 3π volt
(3) 2π volt
(4) π volt

7) In the circuit shown in figure, the current I has a value equal to :

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 3.5 A

8) A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal.
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the
block is .......N.

(1) 9.8
0.7 × 9.8 ×
(2)
(3)
(4) 0.8 × 9.8

9) For three elements A, B and C in a circuit, following observations were made in lab:
(a) element A cannot conduct d.c. but allows a.c. through it .
(b) element B conducts both AC and DC but in unidirection only.
(c) Element 'C', when connected across dc, conducts only for one direction and emits light whose
intensity first increases and then decreases with increase in applied voltage.
The elements A, B and C are respectively identified as :-

(1) Diode, LED, capacitor

(2) Capacitor, diode, LED
(3) Diode, resistor, capacitor
(4) Capacitor, LED, diode

10) A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along X-direction. If the value of (in tesla)
at a particular point in space and time is 1.2 × 10–8 , the value of (in V m–1) at that point is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Find the potential difference (Va – Vb) between a and b in the given circuit.

(1) 14 V
(2) 17 V
(3) 12 V
(4) –14 V

12) In a metre bridge experiment, resistances are connected as shown in figure. The balancing
length is 55 cm. Now, an unknown resistance x is connected in series with P and the new

balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The value of x is :-

(1)
Ω
(2)
Ω

(3)
Ω

(4)
Ω

13) The potential energy of two atoms separated by a distance x is given by U = , where A is
positive constant. The force exerted by one atom on another atom is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) During an experiment an ideal gas obeys an additional equation of state P2V = constant. The
initial temperature and volume of gas are T and V respectively. When it expands to volume 2V, then
its temperature will be :-

(1) T
(2)
(3) 2T
(4)

15) If a ball of steel (density ρ = 7.8 g cm–3) attains a terminal velocity of 10 cm s–1 when falling in a
tank of water (coefficient of viscosity ηwater = 8.5 × 10–4 Pa.s), then its terminal velocity in glycerine
(ρ = 1.2 g cm–3, η = 13.2 Pa.s) would be nearly :-

(1) 1.6 × 10–5 cm s–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1
(3) 6.45 × 10–4 cm s–1
(4) 1.5 × 10–5 cm s–1

16) The spectrum of a black body at two temperature 27°C and 327°C is shown in the figure. Let A1

and A2 be the areas under the two curves respectively. The value of is :-

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 16 : 1

17) Sixty four spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal
velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalesce to form a big spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big
drop is :-

(1) 8 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

18) Statement-I: Gamma ray are used in cancer treatment.

Statement-II: Infrared waves are sometimes referred to as heat waves.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

19) A projectile is projected at an angle (α > 45°) with an initial velocity u. The time t, at which its
magnitude of horizontal velocity will equal the magnitude of vertical velocity, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) When an object is placed 40 cm away from a convex mirror an image of magnification is

produced. To obtain an image with magnification of , the object is to be moved :

(1) 40 cm away from the mirror.

(2) 80 cm away from the mirror.
(3) 20 cm towards the mirror.
(4) 20 cm away from the mirror.

21) Assertion :- Cassegrain telescopes use a concave mirror rather than a lens for the objective.
Reason :- There is no chromatic aberration in a mirror and can be supported over its entire back
surface.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22) The magnetic field at the centre of the circular loop as shown in figure, when a single wire is

bent to form a circular loop and also extends to form straight sections, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A transparent cube made of a material of refractive index μ2, is immersed in a liquid of refractive
index μ1(μ1 < μ2). A ray is incident on the face AB at an angle θ (shown in the figure). Total internal

reflection takes place at point E on the face BC. The θ must satisfy :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Obtain the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus , if =
14.00307 amu, mp=1.007825 amu, mn=1.008665 amu.

(1) 1.2
(2) 8.8
(3) 2.3
(4) 7.5

25) Between two stations a train accelerates uniformly at first, then moves with constant speed and
finally retards uniformly to come to rest. If the ratios of time taken are 1:8:1 and the greatest speed
is 60 km/hour, then the average speed over the whole journey will be :-

(1) 45 km/hr
(2) 54 km/hr
(3) 35 km/hr
(4) 53 km/hr

26) A simple pendulum has time period T1 when it is on the surface of earth and T2 when taken to a

height R above the surface of earth, where R is the radius of earth. The value of is :-

(1) 1
(2)
(3) 4
(4) 2

27) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to the figure given ?
I. Dots and arrows indicates that both vibrations are present in the incident and refracted waves.
II. The reflected light is not linearly polarised.
III. When reflected light passes through analyser then transmitted intensity will be zero when the
axis of the analyser (in air) is in the plane of the figure, i.e. the plane of incidence.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and III
(4) Both I and II

28) If a charged particle, of charge to mass ratio q/m = α, is entering in a magnetic field of strength

B, at a speed v = 2αBd, then time spent by particle in magnetic field is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If the system shown in figure is in equilibrium, then correct relation is

(1) m1 = m2
(2) m2 = m1/2
(3) m2 = 2m1
(4) m1 = 3m2

30) 10 gm of ice at –20°C is mixed with 10 gm of water at 50°C, then the temperature of mixture is:-

(1) –20°C
(2) 15°C
(3) 0°C
(4) 50°C

31)

A hydrogen atom (ionisation energy 13.6 eV) makes a transition from third excited state to first
excited state. The energy of the photon emitted in the process is :

(1) 1.89 eV
(2) 1275 eV
(3) 12.09 eV
(4) 2.55 eV

32) In the figure given at t = 0, A and B are two particles having same magnitude of angular velocity
in opposite sense, Then at sec is (Where and are velocities of particles at

point A and B respectively)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) A Vernier calliper has 1mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal division on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper the least count is -

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

34) The ratio of translation and rotational kinetic energies at 200 K is 3 : 2. Then find the internal
energy of one mole of same gas at that temperature. (R = 8.3 J/mol-k) :-

(1) 2350 J
(2) 2075 J
(3) 4150 J
(4) 8300 J

35) Write down output Y in terms of inputs A and B.

(1) B
(2) A
(3) A + B
(4) A.B

36) If the surface of a metal succesively exposed to radiation of wavelength λ1 = 350 nm and λ2 =
450 nm, the maximum velocity of ejected photoelectrons will differ by a factor of 2. The work
function of this metal is :-

(1) 2.8 × 10–20 J

(2) 6.1 × 10–17 J
(3) 3.2 × 10–18 J
(4) 4.0 × 10–19 J

37) A thin rod of length 4ℓ, mass 4m is bent at the points as shown in the figure. What is the moment
of inertia of the rod about the axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the paper ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) capacitor and 3000 ohm resistance are joined in series to an ac source of 200 volt and 50
sec–1 frequency. The power factor of the circuit and the power dissipated in it will respectively :

(1) 0.6, 0.06 W

(2) 0.3, 5.4 W
(3) 0.6, 4.8 W
(4) 0.3, 0.06 W

39) A piece of copper of mass 250g at 500oC is put inside the calorimeter of water equivalent 50g
and containing 200g of water at 20oC. At thermal equilibrium, temperature of mixture is 60oC. The
specific heat of copper in J/kgoC is nearly
[Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kgoC]

(1) 580
(2) 440
(3) 380
(4) 290

40) A charge Q is uniformly distributed through out the volume of a dielectric sphere of radius R. If

potential at its surface is 24 volts then potential at r = and r = respectively are.........(where r

is distance from the centre of sphere) :-

(1) 36V, 12V

(2) 33V, 16V
(3) 16V, 12V
(4) 20V, 10V

41) A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is surrounded symmetrically by a uniform thin

spherical shell of equal mass and radius 2R. The value of gravitational potential at a distance
from the centre is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment. The separation
between slits is b and the screen is at a distance d[d >> b] from the slits. At a point on the screen
directly infront of one of the slits, certain wavelengths has maxima. Some of these present
wavelengths are-

[A] λ = b2/d [B] λ =

[C] λ = b2/3 d [D] λ =

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) A, C
(4) B, D

43) Two point charges +q and –q are held fixed at (–d, 0) and (d, 0) respectively of a (X, Y)
coordinate system. Then choose correct option(s)
(a) Electric field E at all points on the Y-axis is along
(b) The electric field E at all points is along X-axis.
(c) Dipole moment is 2qd directed along
(d) No work has to be done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the origin.

(1) a & b
(2) b, c
(3) a, d
(4) a, b and c

44) Two discs having masses in the ratio 1 : 2 and radii in the ratio 1 : 8 roll down without slipping
one by one from an inclined plane of height h. The ratio of their linear velocities on reaching the
ground is :-

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 1 : 128
1:8
(3)

(4) 1 : 1

45)

The magnetic moment of a magnet of mass 75 gm is 9 × 10–7 A-m2. If the density of the material of
magnet is 7.5 × 103 kg/m3 then intensity of magnetisation will be :-

(1) 0.9 A/m

(2) 0.09 A/m
(3) 9 A/m
(4) 90 A/m

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion :- In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is smaller than 4s-level.

Reason :- In multi-electron species, an orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than
the orbital with larger value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) {Oxidising power}

(2) Scandium does not exhibit variable oxidation state
(3) Colour of aquated Fe+2 ion is green
(4) Interstitial compounds are very chemically reactive

3) Assertion (A) : Ionisation enthalpy of beryllium is greater than boron.

Reason (R) : The 2p electron of boron is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of
electron than the 2s elctron of berylium.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

4)
Product [Z] of given reaction is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5)

Consider :

Correct stability order carbocation :

(1) P > Q > R

(2) P > R > Q
(3) Q > P > R
(4) R > P > Q

6)

In which of the following reaction aldehyde will form?

(a) Stephen's reduction

R–C≡N + SnCl2 + HCl

(b) Etard reaction

(c) Gattermain's koch reaction

+ CO + HCl

(d) Ph–CH=N–CH3
(1) Only a & b
(2) Only a & c
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) All of these

7) A compound with molecular formula C3H9N when reacts with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives a
product soluble in dilute KOH solution. The compound should be :-

(1)

(2) CH3–NH–C2H5
(3) (CH3)3N
(4) All of the above

8)

25 mL, 0.2 M Ba(OH)2 is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 M HCl. Then pH of resulting solution is

(1) 1.37
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 7

9) Fluorine show anomalous behaviour from the rest of the members of this group due to ……

(1) Small size and high electronegativity

(2) Low F-F bond dissociation enthalpy
(3) Non-availability of d-orbitals in valence shell
(4) All of these

10) Which of the following is the correct order of boiling point of the nitrogen family hydride

(1) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(2) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > BiH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(4) SbH3 > BiH3 > PH3 > NH3 > AsH3

11) Which of the following pair of molecule does not exist

(1) , NF3

(2) OF6,

(3) XeF4, NF5

(4) XeO3,

12) Statement-1 : R-CN gives aldehyde on reduction with LiAlH4 followed by hydrolysis.
Statement-2 : RCN gives primary amine on reduction with H2/Pd.

(1) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are correct.

(2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.
(4) Both statement-1 and 2 are incorrect.

13) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(ℓ) from the following data :

CH3OH(ℓ) + O2(g)→CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ);

ΔcH° = –726 kJ mol–1
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ;
ΔcH° = –393 kJ mol–1

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ) ;

ΔfH° = –286 kJ mol–1

(1) +47 kJ mol–1

(2) –239 kJ mol–1
(3) +239 kJ mol–1
(4) –47 kJ mol–1

14)

Which of the following reagents can distinguish 4-oxopentanoic acid from 2-oxopentanoic acid?

(1) NaHCO3
(2) 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
(3) AgNO3, aq. NH3
(4) I2,NaOH

15)
A and B are :-

(1) Ph–COOH and Ph–COO⊝

⊝
(2) Ph–CH2–OH and Ph–COO
(3) Ph–OH and Ph–COO⊝
⊝
(4) Ph–OH and Ph–CH2–COO

16) Which of the following option is correct regarding [Co(NH3)6]+3 complex is ……

(1) sp3d2, outer orbital complex, paramagnetic

(2) sp3d2, inner orbital complex, diamagnetic
(3) d2sp3, inner orbital complex diamagnetic
(4) d2sp3, inner orbital complex, paramagnetic

17) Consider a reaction 3A(g) → 4B(g) + C(g) starting with pure A having pressure atm, the
pressure after 10 min. reaches to 1 atm. Calculate the value of average rate of disappearance of A in
this time duration.

(1) 0.06 atm min–1

(2) 0.6 atm min–1

(3)
ℓn atm min–1
(4) 0.36 atm min–1

18) If 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9 × 10–3 mole of Xn+ to give and Cr3+, then
the value of n is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

19)

Which of the following is not an isomer of C5H10 -

(1) 1, 2-Dimethyl cyclopropane

(2) 1-Methyl cyclobutene
(3) 1-Ethylcyclopropane
(4) 2-Pentene

20)

Correct match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Group Radicals

(A) V (p) Fe+3

(B) III (q) Mg+2

(C) VI (r) Zn+2

(D) IV (s) Ba+2

Select the correct answer

(1) (A–s), (B–p), (C–r), (D–q)
(2) (A–p), (B–s), (C–q), (D–r)
(3) (A–s), (B–p), (C–q), (D–r)
(4) (A–r), (B–p), (C–s), (D–q)

21) Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl (NO2)]

(1) Chlorido diammine nitrito-N platinum (II)

(2) Diammine chlorido nitrito-N-platinum (II)
(3) Diammine chlorido nitrito-N-platinate (II)
(4) Nitro diamine chlorido platinum (III)

22) The rate constant for a first order reaction whose reaction rate is 0.06 M sec–1 at 10 minutes and
0.02 M sec–1 at 20 minutes will be nearly :

(1) 1.83 × 10–3 sec–1

(2) 2.45 × 10–3 sec–1
(3) 3.42 × 10–2 sec–1
(4) 1.1 × 10–1 sec–1

23) Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 800 mm Hg. If 3g of non-volatile solute is added in 19.5 g of
benzene, the vapour pressure is reduced to 760 mm Hg. Calculate molar mass of solute?

(1) 128 g/mol

(2) 300 g/mol
(3) 400 g/mol
(4) 228 g/mol

24) KC for reaction 2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g) is at 25°C. The degree of dissociation of HI at this
temperature is :-

(1) 40%
(2) 22.2%
(3) 77%
(4) 50%

25) When a certain conductance cell was filled with 0.1M KCl solution then it had a conductivity of 3
Ω–1m–1 and when a resistance of 100Ω at 300 K. Now the same cell is filled with 0.01 M K2SO4, it has
a resistance of 300 Ω. Calculate molar conductivity of K2SO4 solution in terms of Ω–1 m2 mol–1 :

(1) 10–5
(2) 105
(3) 10–1
(4) 10–3

26) A mixture containing 64.0 g H2 and 64.0 g O2 is reacted so that water is formed as follows
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(1) H2 is the limiting reagent

(2) O2 is the limiting reagent
(3) The reaction mixture contains 72.0 g of H2O and 56.0 g of unreacted H2 after the reaction.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
27) The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is :

(1) q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0

(2) q = 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
(3) q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
(4) q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0

28)

Which of the following compound can give negative Fehling test but positive iodoform & tollens test
?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following order is incorrect according to given property.

(1) S–2 > Cl– > K+ > Ca+2 (Ionic radius)

(2) S > Se > O (Electron gain enthalpy)
(3) S–2 > Cl– > K+ > Ca+2 (Ionisation potential)
(4) Ni < Pd ≃ Pt (Size)

30) Select the wrong pair :-

(1) Cellulose - Polymer of β - D - Glucose
(2) Lactose - β - D - Galactose and β - D - Glucose
(3) Sucrose - β - D - Glucose and α - D - Fructose
(4) Starch - Polymer of α - D - Glucose

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Which of the following statement are wrong about brown ring test.

(1) This test depend on ability of Fe+2 to reduce nitrates to nitric oxide.
+2
(2) [Fe(H2O)5NO] complex formed
(3) Brown ring complex contain 3 unpaired electron and sp3d2 hybridisation
(4) Oxidation state of Fe is +2 and d2sp3 hybridisation

32) Which of the following complex show linkage isomerism.

(1) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2
(2) [Co(NH3)5Br]Cl2
(3) [Ni(CO)4]
(4) Both (1) and (2)

33) Using column chromatography, mixture of two compounds 'A' and 'B' was separated. 'A' eluted
first, this indicates 'B' has

(1) low Rf, weaker adsorption

(2) high Rf, stronger adsorption
(3) high Rf, weaker adsorption
(4) low Rf, stronger adsorption

34) A current of 9.65 ampere is passed through the aqueous solution of NaCl using suitable
electrodes for 1000 sec. The amount of NaOH formed during electrolysis is

(1) 2.0g
(2) 4.0g
(3) 6.0g
(4) 8.0g

35) HF is a liquid but HCl is a gas due to presence of which type of bond.

(1) Covalent bond

(2) Vander waal force of attraction
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Hydrogen bond

36) 17.4% (w/v) K2SO4 (Mw=174 g/mol) solution at 27°C is isotonic to 4% (w/v) NaOH solution at
same temperature. If NaOH is 100% ionized, what is % ionization of K2SO4 in aqueous solution

(1) 20%
(2) 60%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%

37) A radio station is broadcasting at a wavelength of 300 nm. If the radiating power of transmitter
is 10 kW, then the number of photons radiated per second is :

(1) 1.5 × 1023

(2) 1.5 × 1022
(3) 1.5 × 1033
(4) 1.5 × 1035

38) Which of the following is the correct order of bond order.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39)
Incorrect about the Y is

(1) Compound 'Y' is but-2-enal

(2) Compound 'Y' is -unsaturated carbonyl compound.
(3) IUPAC name of Y is 4-methyl pent-3-en-2-one
(4) Degree of unsaturation of compound Y is 2

40) If Ksp of CaF2 in pure water is 1.70 × 10–10, then find the solubility of CaF2 in 0.10 M NaF solution

(1) 1.70 × 10–10 M

(2) 1.70 × 10–9 M
(3) 1.70 × 10–8 M
(4) 10–1 M

41) is prepared in high yield by the reaction :-

(1) (CH3)3 C-Br + CH3OK →

(2)
(CH3)3 C–OH
(3) (CH3)3 COK + CH3–Br →

(4) (CH3)2 C=CH2

42) Which of the following condition is wrong for hybridisation.

(1) Orbitals participate in hybridisation should have almost equal energy
(2) Promotion of electron is not essential condition prior to hybridisation.
(3) Only half filled orbitals participate in hybridisation.
(4) The hybridised orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape.

43) Statement-I: The E° (M+2/M) value for only copper is positive (+0.34 V) in 3d transition series.
Statement-II: The first ionisation enthalpy of the lanthanoids are around 600 kJ/mole, the second IE
about 1200 kJ/mole comparable those of calcium.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

44) Ethanol reacts with H2SO4 at 140°C to form -

(1) Ethene
(2) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
(3) Ethoxy ethane
(4) Ethane

45)
Find products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

BIOLOGY

1) Choose the incorrect match :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Grass Primary producer

(ii) Deer Primary consumer

(iii) Lion Top consumer

 Secondary
(iv) Fox
consumer

Insectivorous Primary
(v)
plants consumer
(1) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) and (v)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (v) only

2) If we ligate foreign DNA at Pvu-I site of pBR322, then which of the following antibiotic resistance
gene helps in selection of the transformants ?

(1) tetR
(2) ampR
(3) Ori
(4) Kanamycin resistance gene

3) Read the following statements-

(A) When our body encounters a pathogen for the first time it produces a response called primary
response which is of high intensity.
(B) The B-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help T cells to produce them.
(C) Active immunity is fast and takes time to give its full effective response.
(D) The newborn receives antibodies from mother, through the placenta during pregnancy.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

4) In cockroach hindwings arises from :-

(1) Metathorax
(2) Mesothorax
(3) Prothorax
(4) Pronotum

5) Which system of classification did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

(1) Two kingdom classification

(2) Six kingdom classification
(3) Five kingdom classification
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) In human menstrual cycle, the secretory phase is also known as the :

(1) Follicular phase
(2) Proliferative phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Menstrual phase

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In RNA every nucleotide residue has an additional OH group present at 2' carbon
position in the ribose.
Statement-II : The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiment of
Griffith.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

8)

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and another is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Though all members of animalia are multicellular, all of them do not exhibit the
same pattern of organisation of cells.
Reason (R) : In some animals the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a
serial repetition of atleast some organs.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

9) Assertion (A) : Adolescents are more vulnerable to drug and alcohol abuse.
Reason (R) : Adolescence is a period of psychological and emotional development, often
accompained by curiosity and peer pressure.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true

10)

Column-A Column-B

Early detection
Recombinant
(A) (i) of infections
DNA technology
like HIV
 Used to produce
Gene
(B) (ii) human insulin
therapy
in bacteria

Correct defective
(C) PCR (iii) gene in genetic
disorders

Diagnose disease
(D) ELISA (iv) using antibody
antigen binding
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

11) David Tilman's long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots showed that:-

(1) Increased diversity contributed to lower productivity

(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(3) Increased diversity have no impact on productivity
(4) Increased diversity have unpredictable impact on productivity

12) Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.

(2) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
(3) Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal
(4) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass

13) Acquired immunity is characterised by :

(1) Phagocytic cells

(2) Interferons
(3) Memory
(4) Non-specificity

14) Function of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is :-

(1) Vasoconstriction
(2) Vasodilation
(3) Activation of Aldosterone
(4) Rise in blood pressure

15) Find out incorrect match from the followings :

(1) Withdrawal syndorme - characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating

 Cannabinoids - Are a group of chemical which interact with cannabinoid receptors present
(2)
principally in the brain
Heroin - Heroin is a stimultant which speed-up the body functions and also has hallucinogenic
(3)
properties.
Malignant tumors - Are a mass of proliferatic cells or neoplastic cells, which grow rapidly,
(4)
invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.

16) 'Saheli' is a new oral contraceptive for females. Which of the following statements about it is
correct?

(1) It is a steroidal preparation taken daily.

(2) It is a non-steroidal preparation taken once a week.
(3) It is a copper-releasing implant
(4) It is an injectable hormone

17) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :
(A) In Phycomycetes, mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.
(B) The sexual cycle of fungi involves three steps, plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis.
(C) Ascospores are produced endogenously in ascus.
(D) Basidiospores are produced exogenously on the basidium.
(E) Sexual reproduction is absent in deuteromycetes.

(1) All are correct

(2) Only A is incorrect
(3) Only A and E are incorrect
(4) Only C and D are incorrect

18) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex and formation of X shaped structures called chiasmata.
Reason (R) : In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

19) Assertion: The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator because of a special
chemical present in its body.
Reason: The monarch butterfly acquires this chemical during its cater pillar state by feeding on a
poisonous weed.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

(1) Rhizobium-Parasite in the root of leguminous plants.

(2) Mycorrhizae- Mineral uptake from host plant
(3) Yeast- Production of alcohol
(4) Lichen-Symbiotic association between roots of higher plant and fungi

21) In leaves of C4-plants, malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in :-

(1) Bundle sheath cells

(2) Endodermal cells
(3) Epidermal cells
(4) Mesophyll cells

22) Two statements are given below :

Statement-I : ATP and NADPH are the two products of the light reaction that are used in the Calvin
cycle.
Statement-II : Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane drives ATP synthesis
through ATP synthase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

23) Select the correct statements :

(i) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids.
(ii) Protein are linear chains of amino acids linked by ester bonds.
(iii) Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of proteins.

(1) All are correct.

(2) All are incorrect.
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

24)

Column-I Column-II
(Hormone) (Function)

Auxin → (i)

(ii) → Stem elongation

(iii) → Delay senescence

 Ethylene → (iv)
(i) - Fruit ripening, (ii) - Gibberellin,
(1)
(iii) - Cytokinin, (iv) - Cell elongation
(i) - Cell elongation, (ii) - Gibberellin,
(2)
(iii) - Cytokinin, (iv) - Fruit ripening
(i) - Cell elongation, (ii) - Cytokinin,
(3)
(iii) - Gibberellin, (iv) - Fruit ripening
(i) - Cell elongation, (ii) - abscisic acid,
(4)
(iii) - Gibberellin, (iv) - Fruit ripening

25) Select the correct statement :

(1) Griffith in his experiment witnessed a miraculous transformation in streptococcus bacteria.

(2) Proteases and RNases affect transformation.
Experiment of Avery, Macleod and McCarty convinced all biologists that DNA is genetic
(3)
material
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from experiment of Fredrick
(4)
Griffith.

26) Lac operon consist of :

(i) Regulator gene
(ii) Promoter
(iii) Inducer
(iv) Repressor protein
(v) Three structural gene
(vi) DNA polymerase
(vii) RNA polymerase
(viii) Operator

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, v, vi, vii
(3) v, vi, vii, viii
(4) i, ii, v, viii

27) Fruit is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Pinus
(2) Citrus
(3) Cycas
(4) Club moss

28) Which of the following is incorrect statement :

A. Chromosome number (2n-1) is a example of monosomy.
B. Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to novel DNA sequences.
C. Size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20 kb.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B & C only

(2) A & B only
(3) B only
(4) A, B and C

29) Match the column A with column B :

Column-A Column-B

Provide energy
1. ATP a.
for cellular functions

Drive ATP synthesis

2. NADH b.
through ATP synthase

Electron donor
3. FADH2 c.
for complex I of ETC

Proton Electron donor

4. d.
gradient for complex II of ETC

Option :
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(4) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

30) Which of the following is secondary messenger :

(1) ATP
(2) Cyclic AMP
(3) GTP
(4) ATP and AMP

31) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and is present in all living organisms. Sucrose is
converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme invertase.
Given below are two statements about this paragraph-
Statement-I : During the process of glycolysis, glucose undergoes complete oxidation to form
pyruvic acid.
Statement-II : In plants the glucose required for this process is primarily derived from sucrose or
storage carbohydrates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

32) Which of the following structure is not present in frog ?

(1) Nostrils
(2) Tympanum
(3) Sweat glands
(4) Both (1) and (3)

33) Assertion (A) : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome

procedure.
Reason (R) : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics requires simultaneous
plating on two plates having different antibiotics.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

34) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : ECG is a graphical representation of the mechanical activity of the heart during a
cardiac cycle.
Statement-II : In ECG, the P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the
atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria.
In the light of the above statements , choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

35) Assertion : Vasopressin called as anti-diuretic hormone.

Reason : Vasopressin stimulates reabsorption of water & electrolytes by distal tubules of nephron
and hence reduces loss of water through urine.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) Which of the following is prosthetic group of catalase enzyme?

(1) Niacin
(2) Zn
(3) Haem
(4) Mg

37) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.

(2) Production of milk toward the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation.
(3) One ovum from each ovary is released during the middle of each menstrual cycle.
(4) Secondary oocyte retains bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte.

38) Fill up the blanks. I. Using ....A.... vectors, Nematode specific genes are introduced into the host
plant. II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B..... III. The genes .....C....
and .....D.... controls cotton bollworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same form corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be :-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B-cellular defense,
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-Agrobacterium, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

39) Well exposed stamens and large often feathery stigma are found in.

(1) Wind pollinated flowers

(2) Insect pollinated flowers
(3) Water pollinated flowers
(4) Bat pollinated flowers

40) Following are the events related to human reproduction

Find the option which correctly identify the A, B, C, D, E

A B C D E

(1) Zygote Morula Blastocyst Cleavage Gastrula

embryo
(2) Zygote with Cleavage Morula Blastocyst
blastomeres

embryo
Blastula
(3) Zygote with Morula Gastrula
Blastocyst
blastomeres

embryo
(4) Zygote with Cleavage Blastocyst Morula
blastomeres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Match the following :

(A) (B)
Cigarette
(i) (K) Fluid filled alveoli
smoking
ORD (Occupational
(ii) Wheezing (L)
respiratory Disorder)
Stone
(iii) (M) Asthma
industry
(iv) Pneumonia (N) Emphysema
(1) i-K, ii-L, iii-M, iv-N
(2) i-M, ii-N, iii-L, iv-K
(3) i-K, ii-L, iii-N, iv-M
(4) i-N, ii-M, iii-L, iv-K

42) Statement-I : Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation
of the growing baby leading to stunted growth, mental retardation.
Statement-II : Glucagon increases the cellular glucose uptake and utilization. Thus glucagon is a
hypoglycemic hormone.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

43) The correct set of characters observed in the gametophyte of liverworts is :-

(A) Thalloid body
(B) Dorsiventral nature
(C) Differentiated into foot, seta and capsule
(D) Branched rhizoids with oblique septa

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and D only

44)

How many statements are correct ?

(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass for consumption to heterotrops
(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of formation of new organic matter by consumer
(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean is greater than land
(d) Warm and moist environment favours decomposition
(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,b,d
(4) a,c

45) You examine a flower where the ovary is partially embedded in the receptacle and the other
floral parts arise at the middle level of the ovary. How would you classify the flower and ovary type ?

(1) Hypogynous with inferior ovary

(2) Epigynous with inferior ovary
(3) Perigynous with half-inferior ovary
(4) Hypogynous with superior ovary

46) On Earth in per unit area maximum productivity occur in :

(1) Tropical rain forest

(2) Ocean
(3) Temperate deciduous forest
(4) Marsh

47) Axile and free-central placentation are found in :

(1) Tomato and primrose respectively

(2) Lemon and mustard respectively
(3) Mustard and Argemone respectively
(4) Lemon and orange respectively

48) Which band retain the length during muscle contraction ?

(1) I band
(2) A-band
(3) H-Zone
(4) (1) and (3) both

49) From the given graph, what does the difference between the two curves (with and without

enzyme)
(1) Energy released during reaction
(2) Formation of transition state
(3) Reduction in activation energy due to enzyme
(4) Energy difference between product and substrate

50) Expiratory capacity (EC) is calculated as :

(1) TV + IRV
(2) TV + ERV
(3) ERV + IRV
(4) TLC – VC

51) Read the following statements and choose the set of incorrect statements :-
(A) Some plants such as Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce one type of flower only i.e.
cleistogamous
(B) Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinator
(C) Geitonogamy is genetically cross pollination and functionally self pollination
(D) Wind pollination is quite common in grasses
(E) Often flowers of animal pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of
animals
Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1) A, C, E only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, C only
(4) D, E only

52) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by

(1) p2
(2) 2pq
(3) q2
(4) pq

53)

What is a simple form of movement observed in unicellular organisms like Amoeba?

(1) Movement of cilia

(2) Streaming of protoplasm
(3) Movement of flagella
(4) Tentacle movement

54) Match the list-I with list-II.

[Link]. List-I List-II

 (a) Arthropoda (i) Comb plates

Muscular
(b) Annelida (ii)
pharynx

(c) Ctenophora (iii) Nephridia

Malpighian
(d) Aschelminthes (iv)
tubules
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

55) Baculoviruses is specially desirable -

(1) When beneficial insects one being conserved.

(2) When integrated pest management (IPM) programme used.
(3) When an ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
(4) All of the above

56) Assertion : Frogs maintain ecological balance.

Reason : Frogs serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

57) Main reason for elimination of wild life is :-

(1) Deforestation
(2) Drought
(3) Floods
(4) Less Rain fall

58) Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding phylum-mollusca ?

(1) Mollusca is the second largest animal phylum.

(2) Mollusca are terrsterial or aquatic animals.
(3) Body is covered by a calcareous shell.
(4) They are acoelomate animals.

59) Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place from the
cells of :-

(1) Epidermis
(2) Endodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Hypodermis

60) Read column-I, II and III and identify their correct match -

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Kidney
(A) Acidophils (P) shape (i) 2–3%
nucleus

Large
(B) Basophils (Q) rounded (ii) 0.5–1%
nucleus

Bilobed
(C) Monocyte (R) (iii) 6–8%
nucleus

S-shape
(D) Lymphocytes (S) (iv) 20–25%
nucleus
(A)-(R)-(i), (B)-(S)-(ii), (C)-(P)-(iii),
(1)
(D)-(Q)-(iv)
(A)-(P)-(iii), (B)-(S)-(ii), (C)-(R)-(i),
(2)
(D)-(Q)-(iv)
(A)-(R)-(i), (B)-(Q)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(iii),
(3)
(D)-(S)-(ii)
(A)-(Q)-(iv), (B)-(P)-(iii), (C)-(S)-(ii),
(4)
(D)-(R)-(i)

61) Gene of haemophilia is __________.

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) X-linked recessive
(3) Autosomal dominant
(4) X-linked dominant

62) In the given diagram identify A, B and C

A B C
(1) 15
N15N 14
N15N 14
N14N
(2) 15 15
N N 14 14
N N 14 14
N N
(3) 15 15
N N 14 15
N N 14 15
N N
(4) 14 15
N N 15 15
N N 14 14
N N
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Pteridophyta (i) Salvia

(B) Bryophyta (ii) Ginkgo

(C) Angiosperm (iii) Polytrichum

(D) Gymnosperm (iv) Salvinia

Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i
(2) A-iv; B-iii; C-i; D-ii
(3) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

64) Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Leucocytes are nucleated.

(2) Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of agranulocytes.
(3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory reactions.
(4) Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions.

65) Pollen tube generally enters in ovule through :-

(1) Chalaza
(2) Egg apparatus
(3) Micropyle
(4) Antipodal cell

66) Assertion : A man with blood group 'AB' marries a women with blood group 'A', then 'A', 'AB'
and 'B' blood groups are possible in their offsprings.
Reason : If both parents are carriers for sickle cell anaemia then 25% affected offspring are
possible in their total offsprings.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

67) Which of the following aim is not fulfilled by the production of transgenic animals?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Study of disease
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Resistance against vaccine

68) The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating example of mutualism is the relation between
:-

(1) Shark and sucker fish

(2) Sea anemone and hermit crab
(3) Yucca plant and pronuba moth
(4) All of the above

69) Which one is not true fish?

(1) Fighting fish

(2) Dog fish
(3) Angel fish
(4) Hag fish

70) Given below are two statements : one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
Reason R:
Assertion (A) : Oogenesis initiated during the embryonic stage. Couple of million oogonia are
formed within each foetal ovary in prophase-I stage. At puberty Meiotic-I division completes with in
the tertiary follicle, secondary oocyte and Ist polar body are formed there.
Reason (R) : The secretion of gonadotropins (Progesterone, oestrogen) increases gradually during
the follicular phase. Menstrual cycle start at puberty

(1) Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R true but R is the correct explanation of A

71) Find out the odd one from the following options :-

(1) Adenosine
(2) Guanosine
(3) Deoxy thymidine
(4) Adenylic acid

72) Fatty acid would enter in the respiratory pathway after degraded to :

(1) PGAL
(2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) OAA

73) The fluidity of the cell membrane is measured :

(1) On the basis of amount of carbohydrates in membrane.
(2) On the basis of lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
(3) On the basis of flip-flop movement of protein.
(4) On the basis of amount of protein in membrane.

74) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

In the members of class Phaeophyceae of algae, the food is stored in form of laminarin or
(1)
mannitol.
Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer
(2)
of pectose.
(3) Red algae are found only at greater depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates.
(4) Brown algae posses chlorophyll a, c & fucoxanthin as major pigments.

75) Part of brain which receives & integrates visual, tactile & auditory inputs :

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Cerebrum
(3) Mid brain
(4) Cerebellum

76) Given below are two statement :-

Statement I :- The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been
modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the
mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants.
Statement II :- Similarly retroviruses have also been disaramed and ligated into a suitable vector
and it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal host (where it multiplies).
Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

77) Match the following column and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

Anterior pituitary
(A) (I) GnRH
gland

Posterior pituitary
(B) (II) Oxytocin
gland

(C) Hypothalamus (III) TSH

(D) Pineal gland (IV) Melatonin

(E) Pancreas (V) Insulin

(1) (A–I), (B–II), (C–III), (D–IV), (E–V)
(2) (A–II), (B–I), (C–III), (D–IV), (E–V)
(3) (A–III), (B–II), (C–I), (D–IV), (E–V)
(4) (A–III), (B–IV), (C–I), (D–II), (E–V)

78) Claspers are developed on pelvic fin of :-

(1) Male cartilagenous fish

(2) Male bony fish
(3) Female cartilagenous fish
(4) Female bony fish

79) Which of the following is not correct?

(1) Growth in plants is reversible.

(2) In plants both growth and differentiation are open.
(3) Cytokinin promote cell division.
(4) Auxin induces rooting in a twig.

80) Starch forms blue colour with iodine because :

(1) It is a linear molecule

(2) It contains complex helices and hence holds iodine molecules
(3) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it
(4) It is a disaccharide

81) Statement A : Number of chromosomes do not change during S phase of cell cycle but DNA
replication takes place.
Statement B : Cell growth is a continuous process and it remain continuous throughout cell cycle.

(1) Statement A and B both are false.

(2) Only statement A is true.
(3) Only Statement B is true.
(4) Statement A and B both are true.

82) Which of the following disease is caused by virus ?

(1) Potato spindle tuber disease

(2) Cr-jacob disease
(3) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
(4) Small pox

83) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- There are usually more than six xylem bundles in the monocot root.
Reason (R) :- Monocotyledonous root do not undergo any secondary growth.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true

84) Select the incorrect statement.

The two closely related species can be distinguished from each other by presence of distinct
(1)
morphological feature.
(2) Each species may have one or more than one specific epithet
(3) Fundamentally similar group of organisms is known as species.
(4) Species is the lowest broad category of classification

85) In the given diagram of types of chromosomes, identify A-D.

A–Telocentric chromosome,
B–Acrocentric chromosome,
(1)
C–Submetacentric chromosome,
D–Metacentric chromosome
A–Acrocentric chromosome,
B–Telocentric chromosome,
(2)
C–Metacentric chromosome,
D–Submetacentric chromosome
A–Submetacentric chromosome,
B–Metacentric chromosome,
(3)
C–Telocentric chromosome,
D–Acrocentric chromosome
A–Metacentric chromosome,
B–Submetacentric chromosome,
(4)
C–Acrocentric chromosome,
D–Telocentric chromosome

86) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Reabsorption of NaCl is maximum from PCT

(2) Reabsorption of salts is maximum in ascending limb of loop of Henle.
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

87) Which of the following hormones are plant growth promoters?

(1) Gibberellins, Abscisic acid.

(2) Auxin, Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellins, Auxin
(4) Ethylene, Abscisic acid.

88) Correctly match the column A and column B.

Column A Column B

(i) Many genes

(a) Incomplete
govern a single
Dominance
character.

(ii) In a heterozygous
organisms dominant
(b) Co-dominance
allele cannot expresses
itself fully.

(iii) In a heterozygous
(c) Polygenic organisms both
inheritance alleles express
themselves fully.

(iv) A single gene

(d) Pleiotropy influence many
characters.
(1) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(3) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

89) Which tissue is specialised to stores fats?

(1) Cuboidal tissue

(2) Compound tissue
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

90) Statement-I :- Many molecules can move across the membrane without any requirement of
energy and this is called active transport.
Statement-II :- Secondary wall is formed on the outer (towards middle lamella) side of the cell.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 1 2 4 1 3 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 2 4 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 1 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 3 1 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) [h] = [E] [T] = [M1 L2 T–1] =

M' → 2M, L' → 3L, T' → 6T

New unit of Planck's constant =

3)

Indium is trivalent impurity so hole density increase.

Mass action law ne × nh = constant
So e– density decrease.

4)

5)

A. Given:

|f - 250| = 4
|2f - 513| = 5
Where, f is unknown frequency

A. Solving first equation:

f = 250 ± 4
Possible values: f = 254 Hz or f = 246 Hz

A. Solving second equation

2f = 513 ± 5
 Possible value 2f = 518 ⇒ f = 259 Hz or 2f = 508
⇒ f = 254 Hz

A. The unknown frequency is f = 254 Hz, because 2f = 508 Hz provides 5 beats with the source
of 513 Hz.

6)

|e2| =
|e2| = +5 × 10–3 [I0ω sinωt]
|e2|max = 5 × 10–3 × 2 × 100π × (1) = π volt

[∵ (sinωt)max = 1]

7)

Req for external resistance

considering internal resistance of battery :

Req for entire circuit = 9 + 1
= 10 Ω

∴ Current
=1A

8) Limiting friction, F1 = μmgcosθ

F1 = 0.7 × 2 × 10 × cos30o = 12 N (approximately)
But when the block is lying on the inclined plane then component of weight downward along
the plane
= mg sinθ = 2 × 9.8 × sin30o = 9.8 N
It means the body is stationary, so static friction will work on it
∴ Static friction = Applied force = 9.8 N

9) A capacitor can't conduct D.C. but it allows A.C. through it.

A diode conducts both AC & DC, but in one direction i.e. when it is forward biased.
An LED, when supplied by DC, conducts only in forward biasing (i.e. in one direction). The
intensity of light emitted by it first increases then decreases, with increase in supply voltage.

10) The magnitude of is

E = Bc = (1.2 × 10–8 T)(3 × 108 ms–1) = 3.6 Vm–1
is along Z-direction and the wave propagates along X-direction. Therefore should be in a
direction perpendicular to both X and Z axes. Using vector algebra should be along X-
direction.
Since is along the Y-direction.
Thus,
11) Va – 6 – 5 + 3 – 6 = Vb
Va – Vb = 14 V

12) Set up ratios for the two balancing lengths to find Q first, then solve for x.
Calculation:

Case 1:

Case 2:

13) F =

14) P2V = const.

⇒ ⇒ T2 = T

15)

V = 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1

16) A ∝ T4

17)

For small spherical drops falling through air (under Stokes’ law conditions), the terminal
velocity v is proportional to the square of the radius:
v ∝ r2 ....(i)
If 64 identical spherical drops coalesce, volumes add:

R3 = 64r3 ⇒ R = 4r
Use the relation of terminal velocity with radius, from eq.(i),

vsmall = 1.5 ms–1

vbig = 16 × 1.5 = 24 ms–1
18) Infrared waves are produced by hot bodies and Gamma rays are used in medicine to
destroy Cancer cell.

19)
∵
ucosα = usinα – gt

t = (sin α – cos α)

20) m = ⇒
f + 40 = 2f ⇒ f = 40 cm

now ⇒ u = –80
Shift = 80 – 40 = 40 cm away from mirror

21) Lens produce chromatic aberration which is not produce by spherical mirror.

22) Magnetic field due to 'AB';

Magnetic field due to circular loop,

Magnetic field due to straight wire BC,

23)

sin c =

⇒ θ = sin–1
For TIR,

24) Binding Energy B.E.= Δm × 931.5MeV and Binding Energy per nucleon =
The nucleus of contains Z = 7 protons and
N = (14 – 7) = 7 neutrons.
Mass defect, Δm= [Zmp + Nmn] – m( )
Δm = [7 × 1.007825 + 7 × 1.008665] – 14.00307
Δm = [7.054775 + 7.060655] – 14.00307
Δm = 14.11543 – 14.00307 = 0.11236amu
Total Binding Energy (B.E.) = 0.11236 × 931.5MeV
B.E. = 104.66334MeV
Binding energy per nucleon

⇒
Rounding to the nearest option, we get 7.5 MeV.

25)

= 54 km/hr

26) T = = =

27) The statements I and III are correct but II is incorrect and it can be corrected as,
As the figure shows, the reflected light is linearly polarised perpendicular to the plane of the
figure (represented by dots). this can be checked by looking at the reflected light through an
analyser.
28)

Given :

Since the width of the field (4d) is greater than the radius (2d), the particle performs a
semicircle.
Angular deviation, ϕ = π rad

Time spent,

29)
For block of mass m2 : 2T = m2g ...(1)
For block of mass m1 : T = m1g ...(2)
Put value of T in equation (1)

30) 10 × 0.5 × 20 + 10 × 80 = 900 cal

(Heat required to melt complete ice)
10 × 1 × 50 = 500 cal
(Heat lost by water at 50° in reaching 0°C)
So complete ice will not melt
∴ temperature of mixture = 0°C

31)

ΔE =
For transition from 3rd to 1st excited state,
 ΔE = 13.6

= 13.6 = 2.55 eV

32)

θ = ωt

θ=ω×

θ=
Both the particles will rotate by 90°.

So, at t = ,

33)

1MSD (Main scale division) = 1mm ….(1)

20 VSD (vernier scale Division) = 16 MSD

1VSD = MSD …(2)

Putting the value in L.C = 1 MSD – 1VSD

⇒ L.C = 1MSD – MSD

⇒ L.C =

Or L.C = mm (1 MSD = 1 mm given)

⇒ L.C = 0.2 mm

34)

f = 5 and U = × 1 × 8.3 × 200

= 4150 J

35) Y = = A. B + B = B(A+1) = B

36) E1 = ϕ0 + 4KEmax ..... (1)

E2 = ϕ0 + KEmax ..... (2)
By solving 1 & 2
ϕ0 = 4 × 10–19 J
 37)

Thin rod of length 4ℓ and mass 4 m is bent in four parts as shown moment of inertia of four parts
about O
I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4

I1 = I4 =

38)

Power factor is and power dissipation is

R = 3000 Ω

P = 8 × 0.6 = 4.8 W

39)

Heat Lost by copper = Heat gained by calorimeter + Heat gained by water

(ΔQCu)Lost = (ΔQCal)Gained + (ΔQW)Gained
mCucCu(ΔθCu)Fall = mCalcCal(ΔθCal)gain +
mWcW(ΔθW)gain
mCucCu(θcu – θMix) = mCalcCal(θMix – θCal) +
mWcW(θMix – θW)
[0.250 × cCu × (500 – 60)] = [0.050 × 4200 ×
(60 – 20)] + [0.200 × 4200 × (60 – 20)]
[0.250 × cCu × 440] = [0.050 × 4200 × 40] +
[0.200 × 4200 × 40]
110 cCu = 8400 + 33600
110 cCu = 42000
cCu = 381.82 J/kg.°C
cCu ≈ 380 J/kg.°C

40)
 For uniformly charged sphere Vsurface = = 24 V

Potential inside the sphere

For r = ⇒ VR/2 =

= × 24 = 33V

For r = (point outside),

V=

41)

Distance from centre : r = R, which is between R and 2R.

(i) Potential due to solid sphere (mass M, radius R) :

For r > R, potential is Vsphere (r) = .

But here r = ⇒ Yes, outside solid sphere.

So, Vsphere =
(ii) Potential due to thin spherical shell (mass M, radius 2R):
For r < 2R, potential inside a uniform spherical shell is constant and equal to its value at
surface :

Vshell (r) = (since, inside, r = ).

Total potential at :

V = Vsphere + Vshell =

V=

So, gravitational potential is .

42)

(when n = 1, 2, 3, …)
 43)

44)

For Both discs is same, also height is same.

So from,

⇒ v1 : v 2 = 1 : 1

45)

I=

CHEMISTRY

46)

3d 4s

n 3 4

ℓ 2 0

n+ℓ 5 4

Energy is higher for the subshell having higher value of n + ℓ.

47) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 230

In a period stability of lower oxidation state increases so oxidixing power increases.
• Sc show only +3 O.S.
• ⇒ Green colour
• They are chemically inert

48) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

49)
Final Answer: Option (4)

50)

More reso more stability

51)

(i)

(ii)

(iii) + CO + HCl

(iv)

Final Answer : Option (4)

52)

53)

• Equivalents of base = Normality × Volume (L)

Normality of Ba(OH)₂ = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 N (since it has 2 OH⁻ per molecule)
Equivalents of Ba(OH)₂ = 0.4 × 0.025 = 0.01 eq

• Equivalents of HCl = Normality × Volume = 1 × 0.01 = 0.01 eq

Equivalents HCl = Equivalents Ca(OH)₂ → complete neutralization

 • solution neutral → pH = 7

54)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

55) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 172

BP ⇒ BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
NH3 ⇒ Due to presence of H-bond

56) OF6, , does not exist due to absence of vacant d-orbital.

57) R-CN (1° amine) R-CN Pd/H2, R-CH2–NH2 (1° amine)

58) (i)
= –726 KJ mol–1
(ii) C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2(g)
= –393 KJ mol–1

(iii) H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ)

ΔfH° = –286 KJ mol–1
from (ii)
ΔHc°C(graphite, s) = ΔfH° CO2(g)
= –393 KJ mol–1
from (i)
–726 = ΔfH° CO2(g) + 2ΔfH° H2O(l) – ΔfH° CH3OH(l)
–726 = –393 – 2 × 286 + 726
ΔfH° CH3OH(l) = –393 – 2 × 286 + 726
= –293 KJ mol–1

59)

NaHCO3 +ve +ve

DNP +ve +ve

AgNO3/aq NH3 –ve – ve

I2/NaOH +ve – ve

Final Answer : Option (4)

60) Solution:

Final answer: Option (2)

61) NCERT-XII, Pg. 255

Co+3 = 3d6 (SFL)
Pairing occur

n = 0 diamagnetic d2sp3, octahedral

Inner orbital complex / low spin complex / spin paired complex

62)

3A(g) → 4B(g) + C(g)

t=0 atm

t = 10 min – 3x + 4 x + x

PT after 10 min = – 3x + 4 x + x = 1atm

0.6 +2x =1
2x = 0.4; x = 0.2 atm
(PA) i = 0.6
(PA) f = 0.6 – 3 × 0.2 = 0 atm

ROD = = = +0.06 atm min–1

63) gram equivalent of K2Cr2O7 = gram equivalent of Xn+

(6 × 10–3) × 6 = (5–n) × 9 × 10–3
5–n=4
n=1

64)

(1) C5H10 =

(2) C5H8 =

(3) C5H10 =
(4) C5H10=CH3–CH=CH–CH2CH3
65)

Group -III ⇒ Al+3, Cr+3, Fe+3

Group -IV ⇒ Ni+2, Co+2, Mn+2, Zn+2
Group -V ⇒ Ba+2, Sr+2, Ca+2
Group -VI ⇒ Mg+2

66) NCERT Pg. # 250

67)

For first order:

, so

use:

Times: 10 min = 600 s, 20 min = 1200 s

t = 600 s

k=

1.83 × 10–3 s–1

68)

69) 2 HI (g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)

t=0 2 – –
teq 2 – 2x x x

⇒ 2 – 2x = 7x

9x = 2 ⇒ x =

%α =
%α = 22.2 %

70)

For KCl: κ = 3 Ω–1m–1, R = 100 Ω ⇒ Cell constant = 3 × 100 = 300 m–1

 For K2SO4: R = 300 Ω ⇒ κ(K2SO4) = Cell constant / R = 300 / 300 = 1 Ω–1m–1
M = 0.01 mol L–1
C = 0.01 × 1000 = 10 mol m–3
Λm = κ / C = 1/10 = 10–1 Ω–1 m2mol–1

71)

1 mol of O2 requires = 2 mol of H2

2 mol of O2 requires = 4 mol of H2
Since H2 is present in excess, therefore, O2 is the limiting reagent
(1) Wrong
(2) So, O2 is the limiting reagent
(3) 2mol of O2 = 4 moles of H2O = 4 × 18
= 72 g H2O
Moles of H2 left = 32 – 4 = 28 mol
= 28 × 2 = 56 g H2
Mixture contains = (72 g H2O + 56 g H2)

72)

For free expansion: Pext = 0 → W = 0

Adiabatic process → q = 0
ΔE = q + w = 0 → ΔT = 0 (since ΔE = nCVΔT)

73) = No. of Rxn

+ CHI3

74) For isoelectronic

IP ⇒ S–2 < Cl– < K+ < Ca+2

75)

Given Correct
Compound Status
Pair Pair
 Polymer of Polymer of
Cellulose Correct
β-D-glucose β-D-glucose

β-D-galactose + β-D-galactose +
Lactose Correct
β-D-glucose β-D-glucose

β-D-glucose + α-D-glucose +
Sucrose Wrong
α-D-fructose β-D-fructose

Polymer of Polymer of
Starch Correct
α-D-glucose α-D-glucose

Thus (3) is the wrong pair.

Final Answer: Option (3)

76)

Fe+1, sp3d2,
[Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
Brown ring complex

77)

NCERT Pg. # 246

Complex which contain ambidentate ligand show linkage.

78) If any component eluted second then it means that its Rf value is low and its adsorption is
stronger

79)

When aqueous NaCl is electrolyzed, the following reactions occur:

°At the cathode (reduction): 2H2O +2e- → H2 +2OH-
° At the anode (oxidation): 2Cl- → Cl2 + 2e–
1. Calculate the total charge passed: Q=1 × t=9.65 A × 1000s = 9650C
2. Calculate the moles of electrons transferred: n = Q / F = 9650C / 96485 C/mol 0.1 mol
3. Determine the moles of NaOH formed: From the cathode reaction, 2 moles of electrons
produce 2 moles of OH ions. Since Na+ ions are already present in the solution, they combine
with OH-ions to form NaOH. So, 1
mole of electrons produces 1 mole of OH-and hence 1 mole of NaOH.
Moles of NaOH = moles of electrons = 0.1 mol
4. Calculate the mass of NaOH formed: Mass of NaOH = moles of NaOH molar mass of NaOH
Mass of NaOH = 0.1mol × 40g / mol = 4.0g

80) HF ⇒ H-bond present

HCl ⇒ H-bond absent
 81)

For NaOH ⇒ α = 100% i = 2

i=2
For K2SO4 → 2K+ + SO42– ⇒ n = 3
i = 1 + α (n – 1)
2 = 1 + α (3– 1)
2=1+2α
1 = 2 α α = 1/2 α = 0.5
α = 50%

82)

n = 1.5 × 1031/s

83)

Ion

B.O 3 2.5 1.5

84) X →

Y→
(Aldol condonsation product)

85)

CaF2 ⇌ Ca2+ + 2F–

s 2s + 0.1 ≈ 0.1
s × (0.1) = 1.7 × 10–10
2

s=

86)

Dominant
Option Reactants Result
Mechanism
 Tertiary Halide Low
(CH3)3 C-Br + E2
Ether yield
1 (Bulky
Small Alkoxide (mostly
substrate)
(CH3O–K+) alkene)

Tertiary alkoxide
SN2 High
(CH3) 3CO–K+) +
3 (Primary Ether
Small Halide
substrate) yield
(CH - Br)

Final Answer: Option (3)

87) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117, Part-I

All type of orbitals participate in hybridisation.

88)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 110

89)

Final answer: Option (3)

90)

Final Answer: (4)

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT Pg. # 207

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169 (E), 185 (H)

93) NCERT Pg # 135, 136

94) NCERT XI, Pg.# 112

95) NCERT 11, Pg. # 10

96) NCERT XII, Pg.# 34

97) XII NCERT Pg # 85, 87

98) NCERT Pg # 37 - 39

99) NCERT, Pg. # 144

100) NCERT Pg. No. # 182, 183

101)

NCERT Pg. # 221

102) NCERT-XII Pg. # 265, para-I

103) NCERT Pg. # 135

104) NCERT XI, Pg.# 212

105) NCERT, Pg. # 141-145

106) NCERT XII, Pg.# 45

107) NCERT XI Pg # 17, 18, 19

108)
NCERT Pg. # 126

109) NCERT Pg. # 234, 256 (H)

110) NCERT-XI Page No. 14, 16, 21

111) NCERT, Pg. # 140

112) NCERT Pg. # 151

113) NCERT Pg # 109, 112

114) NCERT, Pg. # 175, 176, 177

115) NCERT XII Pg#84, 85

116) NCERT Pg. # 72, 100, 101

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 66

118) NCERT-XII, Page No. # 103, 106

119) NCERT Pg#159,160

120)

NCERT, Pg. # 248

121) NCERT, Pg. # 155-156

122) NCERT Pg.#80.

123) NCERT Pg. # 170(E), 186(H)

124) NCERT Pg. # 201

125) NCERT Pg. 334

126) NCERT, Pg. # 118

127) NCERT Pg. # 33,34,35,38

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 180,181

129) NCERT XII, Pg # 13

130) NCERT pg no # 36

131)

NCERT, Pg. # 190-191

132) NCERT, Pg, # 240, 242

133) NCERT XI No. Pg.#29

134) NCERT Pg. # 207

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 63

136)

NCERT Pg. # 207

137) NCERT, Pg. # 65

138) NCERT Pg. # 307

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 115

140)

NCERT, Pg. # 187

141) NCERT, Pg. # 12

142) NCERT XII, Pg.# 121

143) NCERT, Pg. # 218

144)

NCERT, Pg. # 42,43,44

145) NCERT Pg. # 157

146) NCERT Pg.# 84

147)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 222

148) NCERT, Pg. # 44

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. No.74

150) NCERT Pg.#194,195.

151)

NCERT XII Pg # 74

152)

NCERT Pg. # 89

153) NCERT Page No.# 24 to 34

154) NCERT Pg.#194-195.

155) NCERT Pg. # 17

156) NCERT, Pg. # 61, 74

157) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 183

158)

NCERT Pg. # 202

159) NCERT (XI) (E) Pg. # 56, 57

160)

NCERT pg no # 32

161)

NCERT Pg. # 80

162) NCERT Pg # 162

163) NCERT-XI, Page No. 94

164) NCERT Pg.#26,27.

165)

NCERT XI Pg#321

166) NCERT Page No. 170

167) NCERT (XI) Pg # 240-245

168) XI NCERT, Pg. # 57

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167,172,176

170) NCERT-XI, Pg # 110

171) NCERT-XI Pg. # 121-122

172) NCERT Pg # 19, 20

173) NCERT Pg. # 74

174) NCERT Page No. 6

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

176)
NCERT, Pg. # 209

177) NCERT XII Page No. # 174

178) NCERT XII, Pg. # 60, 61, 69

179) NCERT Pg. # 103

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 93, 94