09-04-2026

2302CMD303031250032 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two springs of springs constants k1 and k2 are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the
combination is given by.

(1)

(2) k1k2

(3)

(4) k1 + k2

2) Two convex lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 0.05 m are used to make a telescope. The distance
kept between them in order to obtain an image at infinity is equal to :-

(1) 0.35 m
(2) 0.25 m
(3) 0.175 m
(4) 0.15 m

3) A glass tube of length 1.0 m is completely filled with water. A vibrating tuning fork of frequency
500 Hz is kept over the mouth of the tube and the water is drained out slowly at the bottom of the
tube. If velocity of sound in air is 330 ms–1, then the total number of resonances that occur will be:-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 5

4) A drop of rain water of mass 2 g falling from a height of 0.5 km hits the ground with speed 30 m/s.
Then work done by resistive force of air is :

(1) –9.10 J
(2) –8.75 J
(3) +0.10 J
(4) –8.25 J

5) The position of a particle moving along a straight line at time t is given by x = (1–e–At). The

dimensions of is same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

6) Two rods A and B of same geometry and different materials are welded together as shown in
figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will

be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2(K1 + K2)

(4)

7) The energy stored in the capacitor as shown in the figure (a) is 4.5 × 10–6J. If the battery is
replaced by another capacitor of 900 pF as shown in figure (b), then the total energy of system is :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–6 J

(2) 2.25 × 10–6 J
(3) Zero
(4) 9 × 10–6 J

8) Current flowing in each of the circuit A & B respectively are :-

(1) 1 Amp, 2 Amp

(2) 1 Amp, 4 Amp
(3) 4 Amp, 2 Amp
(4) 2 Amp, 4 Amp

9) P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should

correspond respectively to :-

(1) He and O2
(2) O2 and He
(3) He and Ar
(4) O2 and N2

10) A uniformly charged infinite wire is placed along 'y' axis having linear charge density 'λ1'. A
semicircle wire having radius R and linear charge density 'λ2' centred at (R, 0) is placed as shown.

Find the ratio of , if electric field at (R, 0) is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If on stretching a wire its radius decreases by 1%, the resistance will :

(1) increase by 1%
(2) increase by 2%
(3) increase by 4%
(4) not change

12) Figure gives a system of logic gates. Form the study of truth table it can be found that to

produce a high output (1) at R, we must have:

(1) X = 0, Y = 1
(2) X = 1, Y = 1
(3) X = 1, Y = 0
(4) X = 0, Y = 0

13) An electron and proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Then the kinetic energy of the
electron is :-

(1) zero
(2) Infinity
(3) Equal to the kinetic energy of the proton
(4) Greater than the kinetic energy of the proton

14) The forward biased diode connection among the following is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a current of 1.5 amp. A coil of 100 turns of cross-
sectional area 3.14 × 10–4 m2 is placed at the centre of solenoid having its axis parallel to the field
produced by the solenoid. When the direction of current in the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec,
the induced emf in the coil is :

(1) 0.48 V
(2) 0.048 V
(3) 0.0048 V
(4) 48 V

16) A car begin to move from rest. For the first half of the path, it moves with constant acceleration.
Then it moves with the attained velocity of 18 m/s for the rest of the path. What is its average speed
for the entire path ?

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

17) Young's double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is
found that 10th bright fringe in the medium lies where 3th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index
of the medium is nearly :-
(1) 1.59
(2) 1.69
(3) 1.78
(4) 4

18) Co-ordinate of image with respect to origin C will be :-

(1) (–5, 0)
(2) (+5, 0)
(3) (0, –5)
(4) (–5, +5)

19) A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre O and carrying currents i1 and i2 as
shown in the adjacent figure. If ratio of their radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of the magnetic field at O due to

A and B is 1 : 3, then the value of i1/i2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A wave is travelling along a string . At an instant the shape of the string is as shown in figure. At
this instant, point A is moving upward, then select the correct option.
(1) Wave is travelling to the left
(2) Amplitude of all the particles are same.
(3) At this instant, velocity of C is directed downward.
(4) All the above

21) System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. The spring and string are massless Now the

string is cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m just after the string is cut will be :

(1) g/2 upwards , g downwards

(2) g upwards, g/ 2 downwards
(3) g upwards , 2g downwards
(4) 2g upwards , g downwards

22) A thin prism deviates blue and red rays through 10° and 6° respectively. Another prism deviates
same colours through 8° and 4.5° respectively. The ratio of dispersive power of the prism is

(1) 5 : 4
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 25 : 28
(4) 5 : 28

23) At what distance R, from the center of the earth, does the acceleration due to gravity becomes
one half of the value that it has on the surface of the earth? (Re is the earth’s radius)

(1) R = Re
(2) R = Re
(3) R = 2Re
(4) R = Re

24) A student connects a voltmeter, ammeter and resistance according to the circuit given. If the
voltmeter reading is 20V and ammeter reading is 4A, then the resistance will be :
(1) equal to 5Ω
(2) less than 5Ω
(3) more than 5Ω
(4) more or less depending on the material of wire

25) A body radiates energy 5W at a temperature of 127°C. If the temperature is increased to 927°C,
then it radiates energy at the rate of :-

(1) 410 W
(2) 81 W
(3) 405 W
(4) 200 W

26) In the given LCR series circuit find the reading (in A) of the ammeter.

(1) 4 A
(2) 6 A
(3) 8 A
(4) 12 A

27) The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are
excited by electromagnetic radiation of energy 12.1 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted by
the hydrogen atoms?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure below. What can you say about the
magnitude of the electric field :-
(1) 200 V/m
(2) 100 V/m
(3) 50 V/m
(4) 400 V/m

29) If the polar ice caps of the earth melt, how will it affect the length of day :-

(1) Length of day would remain unchanged.

(2) Length of day would increases.
(3) Length of day would decrease.
(4) None of these

30) The horizontal and vertical displacements of a particle moving along a curved line are given by x
= 5t and y = 2t2 + t. Time after which it's velocity vector makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal
is :-

(1) 0.5 sec

(2) 1 sec
(3) 2 sec
(4) 1.5 sec

31) A bob of simple pendulum of length ℓ is moving in a vertical circle about point O such that
tension in string at top most point B is zero. The acceleration of bob at point A is (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1)
(2)
(3) 10 m/sec2
(4)

32) What is the time taken by the particle to move from P to Q in given diagram :-

(1) t = T/6
(2) t = T/12
(3) t = T/2
(4) t = T/8

33) The graph showing the dependence of intensity of transmitted light on the angle between
polariser and analyser is (I0 is intensity of plane polarised light)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/m2. To what depth a rubber ball should be taken in a
lake, so that its volume is decreased by 0.1 % ?

(1) 1 km
(2) 25 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 200 m

35)

Electromagnetic wave is propagating in vacuum, at a place magnitude of peak value of electric field

is . The peak value of magnetic field at this place is

(1) 8 × 10–4 T
(2) 8 × 10–6 T
(3) 8 × 10–8 T
(4) 8 × 10–10 T

36) What is the tension in the string if the disc rotates is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through
its centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular velocity ω
about the same axis. The final angular velocity of the combination of discs is :–

(1) ω

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Work function of potassium metal is 2.30 eV. When light of frequency 8 × 1014 Hz is incident on
the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. The stopping potential of the electrons will be
equal to

(1) 0.1 V
(2) 1.0 V
(3) 2.3 V
(4) 3.3 V

39) A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in
equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the
magnet in this new position is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) 2 mole of N2 gas at 27°C is mixed with 1 mole He gas at –73 °C. Find Tmix of the mixture :

(1) 277°C
(2) 277K
(3) 5°K
(4) 267K

42) Two very long, straight, parallel conductors A and B carry current of 5A and 10A respectively
and are at a distance of 10 cm from each other. The direction of current in two conductors is same.
The force acting per unit length between two conductors is:
(μ0 = 4π × 10–7 SI unit)

(1) 2 × 10–4 Nm–1 and is attractive

(2) 2 × 10–4 Nm–1 and is repulsive
(3) 1 × 10–4 Nm–1 and is attractive
(4) 1 × 10–4 Nm–1 and is repulsive

43) Which of the following is an equivalent cyclic process corresponding to the thermodynamic cycle
given in the figure ? Assume the process 1 2 to be isothermal. (Graphs are schematic and are not

to scale)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A U-tube contains two liquids in static equilibrium: Water of density ρw (=1000 kg/m3) is in the
right arm, oil of unknown density r is the left arm as shown in figure. Measurement give l = 135 mm

and d = 12.5 mm. The density of oil is :-

(1) 1092 kg/m3

(2) 961 kg/m3
(3) 915 kg/m3
(4) 843 kg/m3

45) Two blocks A and B are joined together with a compressed spring. When the system is released,
the two blocks appear to be moving with unequal speeds in the opposite directions as shown in
figure. Select correct statement :

(1) The centre of mass of the system will remain stationary.

(2) Mass of block A is equal to mass of block B.
(3) The centre of mass of the system will move towards right.
(4) It is an impossible physical situation.
 CHEMISTRY

1) Which one of the following compound does not decolourise an acidified aqueous solution of
KMnO4 :-

(1) SO2
(2) FeCl3
(3) H2O2
(4) FeSO4

2)

The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :

P2 ⇋ 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The order of the over all reaction is :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

3) The period number & group number of "Tantalum" (Z = 73) are respectively :

(1) 5, 7
(2) 6, 13
(3) 6, 5
(4) None of above

4)

Major product are :-

(a) benzyl alcohol (b) Benzyl iodide
(c) Phenol (d) Phenyl iodide

(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) a and b

5) Correct order of acidic strength in given molecules :-

1. CH ≡ CH 2. NH3
3. ROH 4.

(1) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4

(2) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(3) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4
(4) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

6) What is end product of following sequences of reaction.

(1) CH3OH
(2) CH3–CHO
(3) C2H5OH
(4) C2H4

7) In the following equilibrium :–

I. A + 2B ⇌ C ; K1
II. C + D ⇌ 3A ; K2
III. 6B + D ⇌ 2C ; K3 hence :-

(1) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3 2
(2) K1 × K2 = K3
2
(3) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3
(4) K1 × K2 = K3

8)

Minimum pKa for :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

10) The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solutions is :-

(1) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(3) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

11) Glycerol is separated from spent lye by :-

(1) Steam distillation

(2) Vaccum distillation
(3) Sublimation
(4) Simple distillation

12)

The pair of compounds that can exist together is:

(1) FeCℓ3, SnCℓ2

(2) HgCℓ2, SnCℓ2
(3) FeCℓ2, SnCℓ2
(4) FeCℓ3, KI

13) Which one of the following is an essential amino acid ?

(1) Valine
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Proline
(4) Glycine
14)

Which is not a π-bonded complex ?

(1) Zeise salt

(2) Ferrocene
(3) Bis (benzene) chromium
(4) Tetraethyl lead

15) Starting with one mole of compound A, it is find that the reaction is th complete in one hour. If
the reaction is first order, the rate constant is :-

(1) 2.31 min–1

(2) 0.231 min–1
(3) 0.0231 min–1
(4) 0.00231 min–1

16)

Column I Column II
(Molecule) (Shape)

(A) PCl3 (P) Trigonal pyramidal

(B) AlF3 (Q) Planar Triangular

(C) ClF3 (R) T-shaped

(D) SO3 (S) Ionic/No defnite shape

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(2) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

17) What is the pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 (Ksp = 4.0 × 10–6)

(1) 6.1
(2) 12.3
(3) 8.42
(4) 11.8

18) EMF of cell Ni|Ni2+(1.0)||Au3+(1.0M)|Au (Where E° for Ni2+|Ni is –0.25V : E° for Au3+|Au is 1.50V)
is :-

(1) +1.25 V
(2) –1.75 V
(3) +1.75 V
(4) +4.0 V

19)

In which following set of compound/ion has linear shape

(1) CH4, ,

(2) , , BF3
(3) , CO2, XeF2
(4) BeCl2, BCl3, CH4

20) What is correct IUPAC name of given compound is ?

(1) Methyl-2-Hydroxy pentanoate

(2) 2-Hydroxy-4-Methoxypentan-3-one
(3) 4-Hydroxy-2-Methoxypentan-3-one
(4) 2-Methoxypentanoic acid

21) If uncertainties in the measurement of position and momentum are equal, uncertainty in the
measurement of velocity.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

22)

"The partial vapour pressure of any component of a solution made by mixing two or more liquids is
proportional to the mole fraction of the component" The statement is called :-

(1) Raoult's law

(2) Henry's law
(3) vant's Hoff law
(4) Boyle van't Hoff law

23) Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3 (ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3 (iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv

24) The value of ΔH and ΔS for the given reaction :

C(graphite) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) is :
170 kJ and 170 (J/K). Reaction will be spontaneous at:-

(1) 510 K
(2) 710 K
(3) 910 K
(4) 1110 K

25)

A compound which does not give a positive test in lassaigne's test for nitrogen is:

(1) Urea
(2) Hydrazine
(3) Azobenzene
(4) Phenyl hydrazine

26) Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?

(1) KCl
(2) C6H12O6
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) K2SO4

27)

Which of the following changes with increase in temperature ?

(I) Molality (II) Molarity
(III) % W/V (IV) Normality

(1) I, II
(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) None of above

28) A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to –

(1) Increase in the number of collisions

(2) Increase in the number of activated molecules
(3) Lowering of activation energy
(4) Shortening of the mean free path

29) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A complex has a composition corresponding to the formula CoBr2Cl.4NH3. What is the actual
formula if conductance measurements show two ions per formula unit? When excess silver nitrate is
added, precipitate of AgCl is obtained but no precipitate of AgBr :-

(1) [CoBrCl(NH3)4]Br
(2) [CoCl(NH3)4]Br2
(3) [CoBr2Cl(NH3)4]
(4) [CoBr2(NH3)4]Cl

31) Which of the following is not a electrophile :

(1) :CCl2

(2)

(3) CO2
(4) AlCl3

32) A baloon filled with a gas absorbs 1 kJ of heat expands against a constant pressure of 1
atmosphere from a volume of 20 litres to 23 litres. The value of ΔU would be approximately :

(1) 600J
(2) 1200J
(3) 700J
(4) 500J

33) Which of the following compound give Iodoform test?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Select the correct option about conformations of ethane:-

(1) It is possible to separate conformational isomers of ethane

(2) Magnitude of torsional strain is independent of dihedral angle
(3) The staggered form has maximum and eclipsed form has minimum torsional strain
(4) In all conformations, bond length and bond angle remain same

35) All the elements of Group 16 form hydrides of the type H2E. Incorrect combination about these
hydrides is

(1) Acidic character ---H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(2) Bond enthalpy for the dissociation of H–E --- H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(3) Reducing property --- H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(4) Boiling points --- H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S

36) The inert pair effect is most prominent in

(1) Na
(2) K
(3) C
(4) Pb

37) The color of the coordination compounds depends on the crystal field splitting. What will be the
correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region :

3– 3+ 3+
(1) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6]
3+ 3+ 3–
(2) [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3+ 3+ 3–
(3) [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3+ 3+
(4) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(NH3)6]
38)
Compound 'X' will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) (B)
Product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) In , O2 and , the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are

(1) 7, 6, 8
(2) 1, 0, 2
(3) 6, 6, 6
(4) 8, 6, 8

41) Which of the following species act as an oxidising agent ?

(1) Eu2+
(2) Yb2+
(3) Ce3+
(4) Tb4+

42)

C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g),

The given reaction is started with 1 mol C, 4 mol O2 and 3 mol CO2. If then moles of CO2 at
equilibrium will be :-
(1) 2.31
(2) 1.17
(3) 5.28
(4) 8.29

43) More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The
main reason for this is

(1) more active nature of the actinoids

(2) more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(4) greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

44) Which of the following is an outer orbital complex :-

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

45) For Denaturation of protein which statement is not correct ?

(1) Denaturation occurs by change in pH and temperature

(2) Denaturation leads to loss of primary structure of protein
(3) Denaturation leads loss of secondary and tertiary structure of protein
(4) Denaturation does not lead to change in sequence of amino acids in protein

BOTANY
1) Archaebacterial cell Lacks

(1) Branched chain Lipid

(2) DNA
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Ribosome

2)

Select the odd one with respect to ploidy level in cell of angiosperm :

(1) Nucellus
(2) Microspore
(3) Generative cell
(4) Antipodal cell

3) Unisexuality of flowers prevents :-

(1) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy

(2) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(3) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(4) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy

4) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C, D in the figure given below and select the right option.

A B C D

(1) Epicarp mesocarp Scutellum Endosperm

(2) Mesocarp Endocarp Endosperm Scutellum

(3) Aleurone layer Endocarp Mesocarp Radicle

(4) Mesocarp Seed Endosperm Plumule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) dN/dt = rN equation is related to

(a) Exponential growth
(b) Geometric growth
(c) J. Shaped curve
(d) Nt = No ert

(1) only a, b
(2) only b, c
(3) only a, d
(4) All of these

6) Which statement is not correct regarding the sickle cell anaemia :-

(1) This is autosomal linked recessive trait

(2) Heterozygous (HbAHbS) are resistant to malarial disease
(3) Heterozygous (HbAHbS) individuals are diseased phenotype
Defect is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid (Glu) by valine (Val) at the sixth position of
(4)
the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule

7) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The gene I has three alleles IA, IB & i. Choose the
incorrect statement :-

(1) The alleles IA & IB produces a slightly different form of antigen

(2) The allele i does not form any antigen
(3) IA & IB are completely dominant over i allele
(4) IA & IB regulate same character with same manifestations

8) Consider the following genetic diseases.

Haemophilia, Sickle cell anaemia, Cystic fibrosis, Thalassemia, Phenyl ketonuria, Colour blindness,
Klinefelter's syndrome, Turner's syndrome.
How many of these are Mendelian diseases ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

9) In Cacti the spines are modification of :-

(1) Leaf
(2) Branch
(3) Epidermis
(4) Axillary bud

10)

Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

 Column
Column II Column III
I

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone absorption of water

(iv) D Root cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

11) Find out the correct statement :

(a) Division of centromeres takes place during anaphase–1 of meiosis
(b) Spindle fibres disappear in telophase of mitosis
(c) Nucleoli reappears at telophase of mitosis (d) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place
during prophase–1 of meiosis

(1) only b
(2) a, b, c only
(3) a, b, d only
(4) b, c, d, only

12) Which of the followings is a living mechanical tissue ?

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Aerenchyma

13) The green alga rich in protein used as food supplements even by space travellers is :-

(1) Spirullina
(2) Chlorella
(3) Volvox
(4) Chlamydomonas

14) Which of the following enzyme inhibit transformation when we add in to

above test tube

(1) Protease
(2) RNase
(3) DNase
(4) Lipase

15) How many pairs of contrasting traits studied by Mendel were related to pod

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Pneumatophores

(1) Are modified to store moisture from air

(2) Are found in halophytes
(3) Have lenticels for gaseous exchange
(4) Are adventitious roots

17) Elongation and improvement of shape of apple fruit is carried out by which of the following
growth regulator ?

(1) Auxin
(2) GA
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA

18) Following are the structural features of an ecosystem

(a) Species composition
(b) Energy flow
(c) Decomposition
(d) Stratification

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

19) Phenylalanine

(1) Phenylalanine
(2) Alanine
(3) Glycine
(4) Lysine

20) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

21) Member of Rhodophyceae reproduce by :

(1) Non-motile asexual spore & motile sexual gametes

(2) Motile asexual spore & motile sexual gametes
(3) Non-motile asexual spore & non-motile sexual gametes
(4) Motile asexual spore & non-motile sexual gametes

22) If a hybrid DNA "N15 N14" is allowed to replicate in N14 medium, after three generations how
many DNA will be having N :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 1

23) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding Pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding Pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding Pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding Pea plant varieties

24) A-Centromere split and chromatids separate, B–Chromatids move to opposite poles. Above given
statements are correct for which stage of cell division :
(1) Interkinesis
(2) Interphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase

25) Which of the following is presents in mitochondria ?

(1) Polysome
(2) Monosome
(3) Quantasome
(4) Oxysome

26) Majority of gymnosperms shows :-

(1) Xerophytic adaptation

(2) Epiphytic adaptation
(3) Hydrophytic adaptation
(4) Ephimeral plants

27) Which of the following is a product of syngamy?

(1) Formation of embryo

(2) Formation of zygote
(3) Formation of embryo and endosperm
(4) Formation of seed

28) Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of hnRNA in a process of

(1) Tailing
(2) Splicing
(3) Processing
(4) None of the above

29) Histone porotein is found in Nucleosome which statement is correct for the histone protein and
nucleosome :-

(1) Histones are rich in the acidic amino acid lysine and Arginin
(2) Lysine and Arginin contain negative charge in their side chain
(3) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged protein
(4) A typical nucleosome contains 400 BP of DNA

30) Which of the following is considered as hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

(1) Eastern Ghats

(2) Aravalli Hills
(3) Western Ghats
(4) Indo-Gangetic Plain

31) Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?

(1) National park

(2) Wild life sanctuary
(3) Cryopreservation
(4) Biosphere reserve

32) An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called

(1) Lichen
(2) Fern
(3) Mycorrhiza
(4) BGA

33) Which option is not related to mycoplasma ?

(1) Penicillin resistant bacteria

(2) Faculative anaerobic, can survive without oxygen
(3) Lack cell membrane
(4) Pathogenic to plants and animals

34) In which cheese there is large holes due to the production of CO2 :-

(1) Swiss cheese

(2) Roquefort cheese
(3) Raw cheese
(4) All of the above

35) Which of the following acellular form contain only nueleic acid :-

(1) Viroid
(2) Virus
(3) Virion
(4) Prion

36)

Which of the following is also called as soluble RNA ?

(1) tRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) hnRNA
(4) rRNA

37)
Which of the following correctly represent DNA replication ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38)

Which of the following is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle ?

(1) Triose phosphate → Sucrose

(2) 3 - phosphoglycerate → Triose phosphate
Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate + CO2 →
(3)
3-phosphoglycerate
(4) Triose phosphate → starch

39) By constant two decarboxylation, citric Acid get converted into

(1) Oxalo Acetic acid

(2) α-keto glutaric acid
(3) Succinic Acid
(4) Malic Acid

40) Cleistogamous flowers are present in:

(1) Commelina
(2) Mustard
(3) Mirabilis
(4) Catharanthus

41) Select the incorrect statement from the followings about algae.

(1) Zoospore or gametes in phaeophyceae produce 2–8 apical flagella.

(2) Body of green algae may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous.
(3) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous anisogamous or oogamous.
(4) Can reproduce by vegetative, asexual or sexual reproduction.

42) In species area relationship, the relationship is represented as -

(1) Rectangular parabola

(2) Rectangular hyperbola
(3) Sigmoid
(4) Straight line

43) Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively:

(1) Simple, Simple

(2) Complex, Simple
(3) Simple, Complex
(4) Complex, Complex

44) Assertion (A) :- DNA is considered to be better genetic material than RNA from most organism.
Reason (R) :- 2' OH group present in DNA makes it labile.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

45) Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify A, B, C and D, and select the correct
option :-
(1) A- Primary effluent, B-Increased BOD, C-Activated sludge, D-Aerobic sludge digesters
(2) A-Primary effluent, B-Reduced BOD, C-Activated sludge, D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(3) A-Microbial digestion, B-Activated sludge, C-Reduced BOD, D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(4) A-Microbial digestion, B-Primary effluent, C-Reduced BOD, D-Aerobic sludge digester

ZOOLOGY

1) An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called

(1) Apoenzyme
(2) Isoenzyme
(3) Coenzyme
(4) Holoenzyme

2) Which of the following factor associated with decrease in blood pressure ?

(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ANF
(4) Vasoconstriction

3) Biomolecule which occurs is acid insoluble pool but still it is not present in polymeric form :-

(1) mRNA
(2) Glycogen
(3) Lipid
(4) Histone

4) Schwann cells are present in -

(1) Myelinated neurons of CNS

(2) Nonmyelinated neurons of PNS
(3) Myelinated neurons of PNS
(4) Both nonmyelinated and myelinated neurons of PNS

5) Select the option with correct statement -

(1) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on pre synaptic membrane.
(2) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on post synaptic membrane.
(3) Dendron terminals contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitters.
(4) At chemical synapses the membrane of pre and post synaptic neuron are in very close proximity.

6) How many statements are correct for RBC?

(i) Biconcave and non-nucleated in human.
(ii) It contains carbonic anhydrase in large quantity.
(iii) It contain antigen of blood group on surface.
(iv) It contains mitochondria in large number.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

7) Capacitation refers to changes in the :-

(1) Ovum before fertilization

(2) Ovum after fertilization
(3) Sperm after fertilization
(4) Sperm before fertilization

8) Artificial selection to obtain sheeps yielding high wool output represents

(1) Stabilising selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
Disruptive as it spills the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower
(3)
output
Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population of producing higher yielding
(4)
sheeps

9) Which of the following statement is correct in the context of observing DNA fragments separated
by agarose gel electrophoresis :-

(1) DNA can be seen in visible light

(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

10) Which of the following is correct representation of hepatic portal system ?

(1) Liver → Hepatic Vein → Inferior vena cava

(2) Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver
(3) Liver → Hepatic portal vein → Intestine
(4) Intestine → Hepatic artery → Liver

11)

Which one is associated with downstream processing?

A. Separation B. Purification
C. DNA isolation D. Gene expression

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

12) What is the source of the hormone that promotes pregnancy and stimulates mammary glands for
the formation of alveoli for milk storage secreted from?

(1) Ant. Pituitary

(2) Post. Pituitary
(3) Graafian follicle
(4) Corpus luteum

13) Match the disease in column-I with the pathogen in column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Syphilis (i) Herpes simplex

(B) Gonorrhoea (ii) Chlamydia trachomatis

(C) Chlamydiasis (iii) Treponema pallidum

(D) Genital herpes (iv) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Options :
(1) A→ii , B→iii , C→iv , D→i
(2) A→iii , B→iv , C→ii , D→i
(3) A→iii , B→ii , C→iv , D→i
(4) A→ii , B→i , C→iv , D→iii

14) Which of the following contraceptive device is inserted by the doctor or trained nurse in the
uterus through the vagina?

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Cu-T
(3) Condom
(4) Vault
15) Assertion (A) : Hemichordata was earlier considered a chordate.
Reason (R) : They have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called notochord.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

16) First vertebra Atlas articulate with second vertebrae axis and form a joint called

(1) Hinge joint

(2) Saddle joint
(3) Pivot joint
(4) Gliding joint

17) Identify the aquatic mammal(s) from the following :

(i) Balaenoptera (ii) Equus (iii) Delphinus (iv) Pteropus (v) Felis

(1) i and iii

(2) ii and iv
(3) v only
(4) iv and v

18) 10 – 12, ____A____ duct like structure from testis open into ____B____ part of kidney of frog.

(1) A – Vas deferens ; B – Bidder's canal

(2) A – Vas efferentia ; B – collecting duct
(3) A – Vas efferentia ; B – Bidder's canal
(4) A – Uriniferous ; B – Collecting duct

19)

Infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very
low sperm count in the ejaculates could be corrected by which of the following method ?

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) AI
(4) IUT

20)

Which one is correct pair of pulmonary volume and capacity that can not be measured through
spirometer?

(1) Residual volume and inspiratory capacity

(2) Tidal volume and vital capacity
(3) Residual volume and functional residual capacity
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory capacity

21) Ascending and descending limbs of loop of Henle are permeable for ____ and ____ respectively.

(1) Water, NaCl

(2) NaCl, water
(3) Glucose, NaCl
(4) NaCl, Glucose

22) Which of the following cells plays an important role in rejection of transplanted organ ?

(1) CD4 cells

(2) CD8 cells
(3) Plasma cells
(4) Mast cells

23) The vector requires a ..............., which helps in identifying and eliminating non-transforments.

(1) Plasmid
(2) vector
(3) structural gene
(4) selectable marker

24) Which one is secreted from hypothalamus and inhibits mitotic divisions of bones ?

(1) Growth hormone

(2) Thyroxine
(3) Cortisol
(4) Somatostatin

25) DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct statement :-

(1) Band '3' contains more positively charged DNA molecule than '1'
(2) Band '3' has longer DNA fragment than '1' and '2'
(3) Band '1' has longer DNA fragment than '2' and '3'
(4) All the bands have equal length and charges but differ in base composition

26) Acromegaly is a disease caused by :

(1) Over secretion of growth hormone in childhood

(2) Over secretion of growth hormone in adulthood
(3) Under secretion of growth hormone in adulthood
(4) Deficiency of calcium and phosphorous in the diet.

27)

The following two organs are examples of secondary lymphoid organs

(1) Spleen and thymus

(2) Lymph nodes and thymus
(3) Spleen and MALT
(4) Bone marrow and thymus

28) Read the following four statement about blood circulation in Frog :-
(A) Heart has three chamber, one atria and two ventricle
(B) Sinus venosus receives blood through the major vein called vena cava
(C) Sinus venosus joins the right ventricle
(D) The circulation of blood is achieved by the pumping action of muscular heart
Choose correct option :-

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) B and D

29) Assertion :- First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the beginning of the ventricular systole
stage.
Reason :- During ventricular systole semilunar valves are closed.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

30) Assertion : Malfunctioning of Kidneys leads to uremia.

Reason : In such patients urea can be removed by a process called hemodialysis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Observe the following diagram and answer :-

 How many hormones among following show
this mechanism of action ?
ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxine, ADH, Testosterone, Mineralocorticoid, Insulin

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

32) Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps I and II.

(1) EcoRI and DNA ligase

(2) Hind II and DNA ligase
(3) EcoR I and Hind II
(4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease

33) Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below and select the right option for
both of them together :-

A B

(1) Thin filament Actin filament

(2) Thick filament Thin filament

Meromyosin
(3) Thin Filament
units

(4) Tropomyosin Troponin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

Match the column I with column II :

Column-I Column-II

A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Insect

D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods

A B C D

(1) III IV II I

(2) III I IV II

(3) IV III II I

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
35) Select the correct matched organism with their common name

A B

(1) Petromyzon Hag fish

(2) Myxine Lamprey

(3) Exocoetus Flying fish

(4) Betta Angel fish

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Statement - I : Cockroach eyes consist of several ommatidia. So they receive several images of
an object.
Statement - II : Mosaic vision is present in cockroach with more sensitivity but less resolution.

(1) Both statement I and statement - II are incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct.

37) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I :- Lysine is an example of basic amino acid
Statement II :- Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options give below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

38) Statement-I : In 1938 a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a coelacanth which was
thought to be extinct.
Statement-II : The amphibian evolved into reptile. They lay thick shelled egg which do not dry up
in sun unlike those of amphibian.

(1) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II correct.
(3) Statement-I correct & Statement-II correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II incorrect.

39) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archipelago

40) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

41)

Morphine is extracted from _______ of poppy plant.

(1) Leaf
(2) Flower
(3) Fruit
(4) Latex

42) Which of the following contraceptive method has its additional benefit of protecting the user
from contracting STD's and AIDS ?

(1) IUD
(2) Condom
(3) Hormonal Oral pill
(4) Implant

43) What is true for Bt-toxin:-

(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in bacterium

(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to acidic pH in gut of insect
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to alkaline pH in gut of insects
(4) Bt-toxin is formed by Biotechnology

44) The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of their
origin is called :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bio-war
(4) Biopiracy

45) Which of the following is not associated with epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularized
(3) It forms covering or lining of external and internal surfaces
(4) It help in protection, secretion, absorption, respiration, etc
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 1 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 3 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 3 4 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

d = f0 + fe = 0.3 + 0.05 = 0.35 m

3)

ν1 =

⇒ ℓ1 = = 33 cm
Similarly ℓ2 = 2 × 33 = 66 cm
ℓ3 = 3 × 33 = 99cm
ℓ4 = 4 × 33 = 132 cm
∴ Number of resonances will be 3

4)

K1 = 0 ; K 2 =

Wg = mgh =
Wair = ?
According to WET,
Wg + Wair = K2 – K1
10 J + Wair = 0.9 – 0
Wair = –9.1 J

5) At is dimensionless so [At] =1 ⇒ [A] =[T–1]. Also [x] = so [B] = [L–1T–1].

Therefore = [LT–2]

6) Explaining Question:
In this question we have to find the equivalent conductivity of the tor rots of different
materials and same lengin and which are joined in series.
Concept: This question is based on Equivalent Conductance (k) in Combination of Rods.
Solution:

In series,

7) Energy stored in the capacitor

Q = CV = 900 × 10–12 F × 100V

Energy of the capacitor when fully charged

The total charge is conserved. In figure (b), total capacitance = C' = 2 × C = 2 × 900 pF.

∴ Final energy =
∴ Final energy

8) CKT ⇒ A
Both diode are FB ⇒

So Req. =
So I = V/R = 8/2 = 4 amp
CKT ⇒ B

​
Req. = 4Ω
I = 8/4 = 2 amp

9) Question Explanation: To compare slopes of different adiabatic processes.

Concept: Adiabatic processes-slope

Solution: Slope of P – V graph for adiabatic process.

For mono atomic gas

For dia atomic gas

Final answer: Option (2)

10)
EInfinite wire = (d = R)
λ1 = λ2

11)

volume = constant

[Negative sign. because as radius decreases, resistance of wire increases.]

 = – 4 (–1%)

= 4%

13)

Explain the Question : The de-Broglie Wavelengths of an electron (e–) and a proton (p+) are
the same.
de-Broglie Wavelengths → λe = λp
Masses → me & mp
Kinetic Energies → Ee & Ep
What will be the relation between their Kinetic Energies (E) ?
Concept : This question is based on de-Broglie wavelength of moving particles.

Formula : =
Solution : λe = λp

me Ee = mp Ep

∵ mp > me
∴ Ee > Ep
Final answer : 4

14)

In case of forward biased circuit P-junction should be at higher potential therefore

15) B = μ0nI
= (4π × 10–7)(200 × 10–2) × 1.5
= 3.8 × 10–2 Wb/m2
Magnetic flux through each turn of the coil,
ϕ = BA
= (3.8 × 10–2)(3.14 × 10–4)
= 1.2 × 10–5 weber
When the current in the solenoid is reversed, the change in magnetic flux
= 2 × (1.2 × 10–5) = 2.4 × 10–5 weber
Iduced emf = N(dϕ/dt)
16) × 18 × t1 = 18t2
t1 = 2t2
t1 = 2t2

vav = = = 12 m/s

17) Explain question: To find the refractive index of the medium.

Concept: This question is based on YDSE in medium.

Solution:
(y10)Bright, medium = (y3)Dark, air

⇒μ=4

Final Answer: Option (4)

18) Explain the question : For shown diagram to find the co-ordinate of image with respect
to origin.
Concept : This question is based on image formation by plane mirror.
Solution : Use geometry

∠i = ∠r = 45°
Since, final image is formed at (0, –5)
–y axis.
Final answer : 3

19)

r1 : r2 = 1 : 2 and B1 : B2 = 1 : 3 We know that

 20) Question Explanation: Analyzing particle motion in a wave.

Concept: Transverse Wave Properties.

Solution:

A. Direction of Wave: We are given that point A is moving upward. For this to happen, the
wave shape must be moving to the left. If it were moving right, point A would be moving
downward. So, statement (1) is correct.
B. Amplitude: In a simple harmonic wave, every particle of the medium oscillates with the same
amplitude (maximum displacement). So, statement (2) is correct.
C. Velocity of C: Since the wave is travelling to the left, we can determine the motion of point C.
The part of the wave to the right of C is lower. As the wave moves left, point C must move
downward to match the approaching shape. So, statement (3) is correct.

Since all three statements are correct, the final answer is "All the above".

Final Answer:(4)

21) g/2 upwards , g downwards

22) Explain the Question : To find the ratio of dispersive power of the prism if the deviation
for blue and red rays are (10°, 6°) and (8°, 4.5) respectively.
Concept : This question is based on dispersion and dispersive power of the prism.
Solution :

and ;

Final Answer : 3

23) Explaining : At what distance R, from the center of the earth, does the acceleration due to
gravity becomes one half of the value that it has on the surface of the earth? (Re is the earth’s
radius)
Concept : This question is based on acceleration due to gravity
Solution :
At surface

Outside at any point g' =

g' = ⇒

Final Answer : (1)

24) Question Explanation: Find the value of resistance (R) as shown in circuit where current
and voltage given.

Concept: Use ohm’s law

Solution:

As we know ohm law V = IR and resistance (R) =

As voltmeter have definite resistance.
So it drown same current from circuit.
So current through resistance is less than 4A

Hence = more than 5Ω.

​Final Answer: Option (3)

25)

26)

Explain Question: Calculation the reading of the ammeter in the given LCR series circuit.

Concept: In a AC series circuit, ammeter reads RMS current Irms =

Solution:
The peak voltage V0 = 200 V.

The RMS voltage Vrms =

Since it is a series LCR circuit
2002 =

Ammeter reading

Final answer: Option (1)

27) Three

28) where dr is perpendicular distance between two equipotential surface

 = 200 V/m

29)

When ice melts it moves from pole to equator, due to which moment of inertia of the earth
increases and angular velocity decreases to keep angular momentum unchanged. So length of
the day increases.

30)

When vx = vy

5 = 4t + 1
t = 1 sec
Final Answer : option (2)

31) Explain Question :

A bob moves on a circular path; tension at top is zero. Find magnitude of acceleration at
horizontal position A.

Concept :
This question is based on energy conservation, centripetal and tangential components of
acceleration due to gravity.

Solution :
At top (since tension zero). Drop from top to A is height ℓ, so by energy conservation.

Radial (centripetal) acceleration at A; Tangential component component equals

gravity along tangent : at = g. Resultant magnitude.
with g = 10 m/s2, a = .

Final Answer : Option (2)

32) Question Explanation: The problem requires finding the minimum time taken for a
particle in simple harmonic motion to move between two symmetrical points at half amplitude
on either side of the mean position.

Concept: SHM-Phasor diagram.

Solution:

When particle moves from P (x = + A/2) to point Q (x = – A/2), position vector is rotated by 60º

Final Answer: option (1)

33) Explain the Question : To find the graph between transmitted intensity and the angle
between analyser and polariser.
Concept : This question is based on Malus law.
Solution :

I0 : Intensity of plane polarised light

I : Intensity of transmitted light
θ : Angle between transmission axes of polariser and analyser
θ = 0°, I = I0
θ = 90°, I = 0
Final Answer : (2)

34)

B=
ΔP = B (–ΔV/V)
hρg = B(–ΔV/V)
h × 103 × 9.8 = (9.8 × 108) × (0.1 × 10–2)
h = 100 m

35)

8 × 10–8 T8 × 10–8 T

36)

mg – T = ma
T × R = Iα

37) Applying conservation of angular momentum :-

I1ω = (I1 + I2)ω'

so,

38) Energy of the incident photon, E = hu

E = (6.6 × 10–34 J s) (8 × 1014 Hz)

= 52.8 × 10–20 J =
According to the Einstein's photoelectric equation
eVs = hυ – W
eVs = 3.3 eV –2.3 eV = 1.0 eV
∴ Stopping potential, Vs = 1.0 V

39) τ = MB sin 60° ....(1)

W = MB (1 – cos60°) ....(2)
From (1) and (2)

⇒ τ=

40)

41)

277K
 42)

= 10–4 N/m

43)

44)

Answer

45)

As net force on system = 0 (after released)

So centre of mass of the system remains stationary.

CHEMISTRY

46) Fe+3 is a stable [Link] in FeCl3, so no oxidation occur.

47)

Explain Question: Determine the overall order of a reaction from its mechanism.
Concept : Reaction Mechanism & Rate Law
Solution:
Slow step:
P + Q₂ → PQ + Q
Rate = k[P][Q₂]
From fast equilibrium:

P₂ ⇋ 2P

⇒ [P] ∝ (P₂)¹ᐟ²
Substitute:

Rate ∝ (P₂)¹ᐟ² (Q₂)¹

Overall order = 1/2 + 1 = 3/2 = 1.5
Final answer : Option (3)

49)
SN reaction.
1

51)

52)

A + 2B ⇌ C K1 =

C + D ⇌ 3A K2 =

6B + D ⇌ 2C K3 =

K13 × K2 =

53) Explain the question : Minimum pKa value is for

Concept: This question is based on acidic strength ∝ ∝ Ka ∝

Solution: Acidic strength of nitro substituted phenols is :

> > >

 Most acidic is para nitro phenol, option (3)

Final Answer: Option (3)

54) Explain the question : Arrange the given compounds in decreasing order of basic
strength.
Concept : This question is based on basic strength.

Solution : Basic strength ∝

Given compounds Remark

This is the reference compound with no substituent.

(i)

–NO2 is a strong EWG → decreases basicity

(ii)

–CN is also an EWG, through less strong than NO2.

(iii)

–CH3 is a weak EDG → increases basicity

(iv)

Final order of basic strength (decreasing):

Final Answer: 3

56) Question Explanation:

The question asks which method is used to separate glycerol from spent lye (a by-product of
the soap industry).
Concept:
Separation technique depends on boiling point and thermal stability of glycerol.

Solution:
Glycerol has a very high boiling point (−290oC) and decomposes if distilled under normal
pressure.

To avoid decomposition, it is separated by vacuum distillation, which lowers the boiling point
and allows safe distillation.

Steam distillation is used for volatile compounds, not glycerol.

Sublimation is for solids that directly vaporize (like camphor, iodine).

Simple distillation is unsuitable due to glycerol's high boiling point.

Final Answer: Option (2).

57)

FeCl2 + SnCl2 → no reaction

R.A. R.A.

58) Explain question : Identify which one of the following is an essential amino acid?
Concept : This question is based on amino acids-essential and non-essential.
Solution : Essential-amino acids ⇒ cannot be synthesized in the body - must be obtained from
diet
→ valine
Non-essential amino acids & can be synthesized in the body
→ Tyrosine, proline, glycine
Hence → valine is an essential amino acid.
Final answer : Option (1)

59)

60) K = =

= log 4 = 0.0231 min–1

61)

AIF3 ⇒ Al+3 + 3F–

Ionic compound
62) Explain question:
The question asks for the pH of saturated solution of barium hydroxide, Ba(OH)2, given its
solubility product constant (Ksp).

Concept:
Relation between solubility and solubility product.

Solution:
(Ksp) expression of Ba(OH)2(s)

Ksp = [Ba2+].[OH–]2 2
Let the molar solubility of Ba(OH)2 be S mol. L–1
[Ba2+] = S and [OH–] = 2S
Ksp = S.(2S)2 = 4S3
Ksp = 4.0 × 10–6
4S3 = 4.0 × 10–6
S3 = 1.0 × 10–6
S = 10–2 M
Calculation of [OH–]:[OH–]: 2S = 2 × 10–2 M = 0.02 M
pOH = –log[OH–] = –log(2 × 10–2) 1.70
pH = 14.00 – pOH = 14.00 – 1.70 = 12.30

Final answer: Option (2)

63) Explain question:

To find out EMF of cell.

Concept:
Nernst equation.

Solution:
Ni | Ni2+ (1 M) || Au3+ (1 M)| Au
E° Ni2+ | Ni = – 0.25 V
E° Au3+ | Au = 1.5 V
it c = 1 M than Ecell = E°cell = E°Ni | Ni2+ + E° Au+3 | Au
Ecell = E° cell = 0.25 + 1.5 = 1.75 V

Final Answer: Option (3)

65)

66) Δx × Δp ≃

Since Δx = Δp therefore, (Δp)2 =

 or Δp = mΔν = and Δv =

67)

"The partial vapour pressure of any component of a solution made by mixing two or more
liquids is proportional to the mole fraction of the component" The statement is called Raoult's
law.

68)

Question Explanation: Identify molecules showing hybridisation in their ground state (not
excited).

Concept: Hybridisation.

Solution:

A. BCl₃: B (1s² 2s² 2p¹) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

B. NH₃: N (1s² 2s² 2p³) → already has 3 unpaired + 1 lone pair → hybridises in ground state
C. PCl₃: P (3s² 3p³) → same as N → ground state hybridisation
D. BeF₂: Be (1s² 2s²) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

Final Answer: Option (3)

69) Asking About: Need to find that an which temperature reaction will spontaneous
Concept : ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution :
Given, ΔH = 170 kJ = 170 × 103 J
ΔS = 170 J-K–1
For spontaneous reaction ΔG should be negative
So, the value of (TΔS) should be greater than ΔH.
i.e. ΔG = 170 × 103 – (1110 × 170)
So the correct option is (4)
T = 1110 K
For the reaction be spontaneous

70)

Question Explanation: Identify the compound that does not give a positive Lassaigne’s test
for nitrogen.

Concept: Lassaigne’s test for N works only when C and N are both present so that NaCN is
formed on fusion with Na.

Solution:
• Urea, Azobenzene, Phenyl hydrazine → contain C–N bonds → positive test
• Hydrazine (N₂H₄) → no carbon present → NaCN cannot form → negative test
 Final Answer: Option 2

71)

Al2(SO4)3

72)

Explain Question:
Identifying temperature-dependent concentration terms.

Concept:
Temperature dependence of concentration.

Solution:

A. Concentration terms that involve volume are temperature-dependent because volume changes
with temperature (thermal expansion/contraction).
B. Concentration terms that involve only mass are temperature-independent because mass does
not change with temperature.
C. (I) Molality: Based on mass of solvent; independent of temperature.
D. (II) Molarity: Based on volume of solution; changes with temperature.
E. (III) % W/V: Based on volume of solution; changes with temperature.
F. (IV) Normality: Based on volume of solution; changes with temperature.

Final Answer: Option (2)

73) As temperature increases, number of collisions increases, number of activated molecular

doing effective collisions increases and rate of reaction increases.

74)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The problem is asking to understand the conditions under which a rigid
body remains in rotational equilibrium, particularly focusing on the torque produced by forces
acting on the body.

Underlying Concept: The core scientific concept involved is rotational equilibrium, which
states that a rigid body is in rotational equilibrium when the net torque acting on it about any
axis is zero. Torque is the rotational effect produced by a force and depends on the force's
magnitude, the distance from the pivot point, and the angle at which the force is applied.

Relevant Formulas: The formulas used are:

Torque vector: \[ \vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F} \] where is the position vector from the
pivot to the point where the force is applied, and is the force.
Magnitude of torque: \[ \tau = F \times r \times \sin \theta \] where is the force magnitude,
is the distance from pivot to force application, and is the angle between and .
Rotational equilibrium condition: \[ \sum \vec{\tau}_P = 0 \] which means the sum of all
 torques about point P must be zero.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that if only one force acts on a body, it must pass through the
pivot point to prevent rotation. For three forces, ensure lines of action are concurrent or
parallel to analyze torque cancellation easily.

Common Mistakes: A typical error is neglecting the angle between the force and position
vector when calculating torque. Another mistake is assuming any three forces can be in
equilibrium without checking if their lines of action are concurrent or parallel.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Wrong answers may arise if one ignores the condition
that the net torque must be zero or if the lines of action of forces do not meet at a common
point or are not arranged to cancel torques properly.

75)

CoBr2Cl.4NH3
Co+3 C.N. = 6
∴ [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl

[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ Cl–
with
Excess

76)

Explain Question: The given species is not a electrophile.

Concept: This question is based on Electrophile.
Solution:

Given species Remark

1 :CCl2 Has an empty p orbital, electron-deficient → electrophilic

2 NH3 Having a lone pair, Acts as a nucleophile, not an electrophile.

3 CO2 Partially positively charged C-atom act as electrophile.

4 AlCl3 Has an empty p orbital, electron-deficient → electrophilic.

Final answer: Option(2)

77)

Explain Question:
We are asked: A balloon absorbs 1 kJ heat and expands from 20 L to 23 L against 1 atm.
Find ΔU.
Concept:
First law of thermodynamics:
ΔU = q – W
where q = heat absorbed , W = PΔV.
Conversion: 1 L-atm = 101.3 J.

Solution:
Heat absorbed: q = 1000 J.
Work done:
W = PΔV = 1 atm × (23 – 20) L = 3 L · atm
W = 3 × 101.3 = 303.9 J ≈ 304 J
Internal energy change:
ΔU = 1000 – 304 = 696 J ≈ 700 J

Final answer: Option (3)

78) Explanation:
Identify the compound that gives +ve iodoform test.
Concept:
This question is based on iodoform [Haloform] test.

Solution:

Compound containing when treated with I2 + NaOH or NaOI gives

positive Iodoform test.
Acid and its derivatives do not give iodoform test.

1. Acid derivative: Do not give iodoform test.

2. gives iodoform test.

3. do not give iodoform test.

4. do not give iodoform test.

Final Answer: option (2)

79) Bond length and bond angle does not change in conformations as there is no change in
hybridisation or lone pair or in any atom.

82)
Explain Question: Asking about order of wavelength absorption in visible region for
Co3+ complexes.
Concept: Crystal field splitting (Δ) energy of absorption (E) 1/λ; stronger ligands →
larger Δ → smaller λ.
Solution: Ligand strength (spectrochemical series) : CN– > NH3 > H2O
Higher Δ → higher E → smaller λ; lower Δ → lower E → larger λ
Therefore order of absorbed wavelength (largest to smallest λ): [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ >
[Co(CN)6]3–
Final answer: Option (3)

83)

84) Question Explanation : Asking about the identify product B.

Concept : oxidation followed by aldol Condensation.
Solution :
→ Alcohol on oxidation with mild oxidizing agent like PCC and PDC from following products.1°
Alcohol → Aldehyde.
2° Alcohol → ketone.
3° Alcohol → Do not undergo oxidation.
→ carbonyl compounds when treated with dil. NaOH [dil. alkali] forms B-Hydroxy carbonyl
compound Reaction is called as ALDOL CONDENSATION Reaction

[β-Hydroxy carbonyl compound)

[ALDOL]
B
Final Answer : Option (3)

85)

Explain Question : Count total antibonding electrons for O₂⁻, O₂, and O₂²⁻ respectively.
Concept : This question is based on Molecular Orbital Theory
Solution :
O₂ (16e⁻) has 6 antibonding electrons (ABMO). O₂⁻ (17e⁻) adds one electron to an ABMO, for a
total of 7. O₂²⁻ (18e⁻) adds two, for a total of 8.
O₂ : (16 electron)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px1 = ​π∗2py1
O₂- : (17 electron)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px2 = ​π∗2py1
O₂2- : (18 electron)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px2 = ​π∗2py2
Final answer : 1

86)

Explaining the Question :- Identify which ion can act as an oxidising agent among the given
species
Concept:- This question is based on An oxidising agent is easily reduced - usually a species in
a high oxidation state.
Solution :- Eu2+, yb2+ → easily oxidised to +3 → reducing agents.
Ce3+ → Ce4+ conversion is possible → reducing, not oxidising.
Tb4+ → high oxidation state → can be reduced to Tb3+ → oxidising agent
Final Answer :- 4

87) Question explanation: Given

C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)

Initial: C = 1mol, O2 = 4 mol, CO2 = 3 mol, and Kp = 1/5.
We must find moles of CO2 at equilibrium.

Concept:
Solid (C) is not included in Kp expression.

KP =

Solution:
Let x mol of CO2 dissociate (reverse reaction):

C(s) + O2(g) CO2 (g)

Then,
CO2 = 3 – x
O2 = 4 + x

5(3 – x) = 4 + x
15 – 5x = 4 + x
11 = 6x
x = 1.83
So,
nCO2 = 3 – 1.83 = .17 mol
Final answer : 1.17 mol

88) A. Question Explanation

Reason actinoids show more oxidation states than lanthanoids.

 B. Concept

Oxidation states depend on orbital energy gaps and electron participation.

D. Solution

Actinides exhibit many oxidation states because the energy difference between 5f and 6d
orbitals is very small. Due to this, both 5f and 6d electrons participate in bonding easily. In
lanthanoids, 4f and 5d orbitals differ more in energy, limiting oxidation states.

E. Final Answer OPTION 3

89)

Explain Question:
The question is asking about a complex that uses outer d-orbitals for hybridization (high-spin
complex).

Concept:
Week field ligands (like NH3 for first-now metals in high oxidation states) favor outer orbital
(sp3d2) hybridization → high-spin complexes. Strong field ligands (like CN-) give inner orbital
(low-spin) complexes.

Solution:
• is a week ligand → outer orbital, high-spin octahedral.
• is strong → low-spin, inner orbital.
• is moderate → inner orbital (low-spin).
• strong → inner orbital, low-spin.

Final answer: option (1)

90)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statement about protein denaturation is
incorrect.
Concept : This question is based on Protein structure, Denaturation effect.
Answer Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct → Denaturation occurs by change in pH and temperature.
Statement 2: Incorrect → Denaturation does not affect the primary structure (sequence of
amino acids).
Statement 3: Correct → Denaturation leads to loss of secondary and tertiary structure.
Statement 4: Correct → Sequence of amino acids remains unchanged.
Thus, the incorrect statement is loss of primary structure.
Final Answer: (2)

BOTANY
91)

Explain Question: Question asks about which component is absent in archaebacterial cells.

Concept: Archaebacteria

Solution: Absent component → Peptidoglycan.

Final answer: (3)

92)

Nucellus is diploid

93)

NCERT Page No 15

94) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 66

95) NCERT page No. # 230

96)

Question explanation
The question is asking about identifying the statement that is not correct regarding the
genetic nature and effects of sickle cell anaemia.

Concept
Sickle cell anaemia

Solution
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder, so statement 1 is correct.
Heterozygous individuals HbA HbS show resistance to malaria, so statement 2 is correct.
Heterozygous individuals are usually carriers and do not show diseased phenotype, so
statement 3 is incorrect. The disease is caused by substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the
sixth position of the beta globin chain, so statement 4 is correct.

Final answer
Option 3

97) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 77

98) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 88

99)
Leaf

100) NCERT XI # 59

101) Module # 1, Pg.# 207,210

103) NCERT XI pg.# 32

104) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 101

106)

Have lenticels for gaseous exchange

107)

2nd option is the correct answer

108)

NCERT Pg. # 242

109)

Phenylalanine

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

111) NCERT-XI Pg#27

112)

Last option is the correct answer

113) NCERT Pg. # 70

114)

Question explanation
The question is asking which stage of cell division involves centromere splitting and movement
of chromatids to opposite poles.

Concept
Mitosis – anaphase.

Solution
In anaphase, the centromeres split, and sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite
poles by the spindle fibres. Interkinesis and interphase are non-dividing phases, and telophase
involves reformation of the nuclear membrane, not chromatid separation.

Final answer
Option 4

115)

Oxysome

117)

Explain Question : The question asks for a product formed directly by the fusion event called
syngamy.

Concept : This question is based on Syngamy.

Solution : Syngamy is the fusion of the male gamete (sperm) and the female gamete (egg
cell). This union results directly in the formation of the zygote.

Final Answer : Option (2) Formation of zygote

118)

Processing

119)

The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged protein

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 224

121)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation. In-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species in
their natural habitats, where they naturally occur.
Solution :-
3. Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation: This is not an in-situ method. It is a form of ex-situ conservation, where
biological material (e.g., sperm, seeds) is preserved outside of its natural habitat by freezing.
Final Answer :- (3)
 122) Solution/Explanation :
Mycorrhiza refers to a symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots. The fungi
enhance nutrient and water absorption for the plant, particularly phosphorus, while the plant
provides the fungi with carbohydrates. This mutualistic association improves plant growth,
increases soil health, and supports biodiversity in ecosystems.

123) Explain Question: Question asks about which statement is not related to Mycoplasma.
Concept: This question is based on Mycoplasma
Solution: Statement about lacking cell membrane is incorrect.
Final answer: 3

124) NCERT XII # Page 181 (10.1)

125)

Viroid

127)

Ncert Pg No: 91

128) NCERT XI (E) Pg.# 144 (fig. 11.8) and pg # 143 (last para)
िहदी पे ज # 144 (fp= 11.8) एवं पे ज # 143 (अं ितम पे राग ाफ)

129)

NCERT-XI-Page No. # 232

131)

Zoospore or gametes in phaeophyceae produce 2–8 apical flagella.

132) The relationship forms a rectangular hyperbola, meaning the rate of increase in species
richness with the increasing explored area, but only up to a limit.

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 19

135) NCERT Pg. # 184

ZOOLOGY

136) Explain Question – The question asks: What is the organic substance bound to an
enzyme and essential for its activity called?
Concept – Cofactor

Solution – Apoenzyme is the protein part of enzyme. Isoenzymes are different forms of the
same enzyme. Holoenzyme is the complete enzyme (apoenzyme + cofactor). The organic non-
protein part that binds to the enzyme and is essential for activity is called a coenzyme.

Final Answer – Option 3

137) Question Explanation

The user wants to identify the factor from the list that causes a decrease in blood pressure.

Concept
This question relates to the endocrine system and the hormonal regulation of blood
pressure.

Solution
Among the given options, only ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is associated with lowering
blood pressure. It is released by the heart in response to high blood pressure and works by
causing vasodilation (widening of blood vessels). In contrast, ADH, Aldosterone, and
vasoconstriction all lead to an increase in blood pressure.

Final Answer
The factor associated with a decrease in blood pressure is ANF.

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 144

139) NCERT Pg. # 317

140)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statement about synapses is correct.

Concept: Chemical synapse structure and function

Solution: In chemical synapses, receptor sites are present on the post-synaptic membrane,
which bind neurotransmitters to propagate the impulse. Other statements are incorrect.

Final Answer: Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on post synaptic membrane.

141) NCERT XIth Pg.#278

142)

Question Explanation: Identify the biological process referred to as capacitation and the cell
it affects.

Concept: The question is based on fertilization.

Solution:
CoverCapacitation refers to a series of physiological changes that sperm undergo after ejaculation
but before fertilization. These changes occur in the female reproductive tract and are necessary for
sperm to acquire the ability to fertilize an egg. Capacitation involves alterations in the sperm's
membrane, enabling it to undergo the acrosome reaction when it encounters the egg, which is
essential for penetrating the egg's outer layers.
Correct option: (4)

143)

Question Explanation –
The question is asking what type of selection is represented by breeding sheep for higher
wool yield.
Concept – This question is based on Artificial selection
Solution – Humans select sheep that produce more wool over generations, gradually
increasing the trait in the population. This shifts the population mean in one direction, which is
directional selection.
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 120
Final Answer – Option 2

144) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about "how can we observe DNA
fragments after they are separated using agarose gel electrophoresis?"
Concept:- Visualizing DNA is Agarose Gel Electrophoresis
Solution :-DNA is colorless and cannot be seen with the naked [Link] bromide binds to
DNA and fluoresces under UV [Link], only EtBr-stained DNA under UV light is visible.
Final Answer :- Correct Answer :(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under
exposure to UV light.

145) Explain Question : Which of the following is correct representation of hepatic portal
system
Concept : This question is based on portal system
Explanation : The correct pathway is Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver.
Final answer : 2. Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver

146)

Question Explanation: The question asks which processes are associated with downstream
processing in biotechnology.

Concept: The question is based on biotechnology – downstream processing steps.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 1 – A, B

A. Separation (A) → Part of downstream processing, where the product is separated from
biomass or culture medium.

B. Purification (B) → Essential downstream step to obtain the product in pure form.
 C. DNA isolation (C) → This is an upstream process, not downstream.

D. Gene expression (D) → Occurs inside host cells during production, not part of
downstream processing.

Final Answer: Option 1

147)

Question Explanation: What is the source gland/structure that secretes the hormone
responsible for maintaining pregnancy and stimulating mammary glands to form alveoli for
milk storage?

Concept: The question is based on ovary(gonad)

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Progesterone is the hormone that maintains pregnancy and stimulates the development of
mammary gland alveoli for milk storage.

This hormone is secreted mainly by the corpus luteum formed from the ruptured Graafian
follicle after ovulation.

Final Answer: Option 4

148) Module

149) IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina.

150)

Explain Question : To Evaluate Assertion and Reason.

Concept : This question is based on Hemichordata

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Assertion (A) is true: Hemichordata was earlier considered a chordate because of

some chordate-like features.

B. Reason (R) is false: Hemichordates do not have a true notochord; they have
a stomochord, which is a rudimentary structure in the collar region and not
homologous to the notochord.

Final Answer : option (3)

 151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 312

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 59, 60

153) Module, Pg. # 234

154)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 65 ; Para-3 (E)

155) NCERT(XI) Pg # 272

156) Explain Question : Ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle are permeable
for ____ and ____ respectively.
Concept : This question is based on Nephron – Loop of Henle permeability
Explanation :
● Descending limb → Permeable to water, impermeable to NaCl.
● Ascending limb → Permeable to NaCl, impermeable to water.
Final answer : 2. NaCl, water

157) NCERT XII Pg. # 51-52

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

159)

Question Explanation: The question asks which hormone secreted by the hypothalamus
inhibits mitotic divisions of bones.

Concept: The question is based on hypothalamic hormones

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Somatostatin, also called growth hormone–inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is released by the

hypothalamus and suppresses growth hormone secretion, thereby inhibiting bone growth and
mitotic divisions.

Final Answer: Option 4

160)

Question Explanation: The question is based on the principle of agarose gel electrophoresis.

Concept: Gel electrophoresis.

Solution: DNA fragments move toward the anode (positive pole) because DNA is negatively
[Link] fragments move faster and farther, while larger fragments move slower and
stay closer to the wells/cathode.

So ,Band 1 is closest to the well/cathode → it must be the largest DNA [Link] 2 and 3
(farther away) are smaller.

Final answer: Option 3

161)

NCERT XI Pg. # 241

162)

NCERT [Link]. 154

163) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 118

164)

Explain Question : TO EVALUATE ASSERTION AND REASON.

Concept : This question is based on Heart sound, Cardiac cycle.

Solution :

Assertion :- First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the beginning of the ventricular systole
stage. True

It occurs when the atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed, at the beginning of the
ventricular systole stage.

Reason :- During ventricular systole semilunar valves are closed. False.

semilunar valves are OPEN During ventricular systole

Final answer : option (2)

165)

Question Explanation: The question evaluates the correctness of statements related to

kidney malfunction and its treatment.

Concept: The question is based on excretory disorders , hemodialysis.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. Malfunctioning of kidneys leads to accumulation of urea in blood, a condition

called uremia → Assertion is true.
 B. Hemodialysis is a medical procedure used to remove urea from the blood in such
patients → Reason is true.

The Reason describes the treatment of uremia, not the cause of uremia. Therefore, Reason
does not correctly explain the Assertion.

Final answer: Option 2

166)

Question Explanation: The question asks how many hormones act via intracellular receptors
and nuclear genome interaction.

Concept: The question is based on mechanism of hormone action

Solution: The diagram represents the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble

hormones (intracellular receptors ) which is follows this mechanism.

A. Thyroxine, Testosterone, and Mineralocorticoid follow this mechanism, making the total
3 hormones . They cross the cell membrane, bind to intracellular receptors, and directly
regulate gene expression in the nucleus.

A. Peptide hormones (like ACTH, prolactin, ADH, insulin) are water-soluble. They cannot
enter the cell; instead, they act via membrane-bound receptors and second messenger
systems.

Final Answer: Option 2

167) Ncert Page 166.

168)

Question explanation: Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below
and select the right option for both of them together ?

Concept: STRUCTURE OF CONTRACTILE PROTEIN

Solution: A-Thin Filament ,B-Meromyosin units

Final answer: 3

169) NCERT XI, Page # 286, para-2

170)
NCERT Pg. # 57

171)

Question Explanation: The question evaluates two statements related to the structure and
function of cockroach eyes and mosaic vision.

Concept: Cockroach

Solution:

A. Statement I: Correct — Cockroaches have compound eyes made up of many ommatidia,

each forming a part of the image. Hence, they receive multiple images of an object.

B. Statement II: Correct — Mosaic vision in insects provides high sensitivity to movement
and light but has low resolution (less sharp image).

Both statement - I and statement - II are correct.

Final answer: Option - 4

172) NCERT Pg.# 147

173) NCERT XII Page No. # 122

174) Question Explanation : Alfred Wallace's study location.

Concept : Biogeographical distribution.

Solution : Alfred Russel Wallace worked in the Malay Archipelago. His extensive
fieldwork there led him to independently formulate a theory of evolution similar to Darwin's.
He also observed a sharp divide in the fauna, now known as the Wallace Line.

Final Answer : Option (4) Malay Archepelago

175)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.
 Final answer : option (4)

176) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about from which part of the poppy
plant is morphine extracted ?
Concept:- This question is based on Drugs and alcohol abuse

Solution :-Morphine is extracted from the latex of the poppy

plant
Final Answer :- (4) Latex

177)

178)

Explaining the Question: This question asks which statement correctly describes the
activation of Bt-toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.

Concept: Bt Cotton and Bt Toxin (Microbial Bio-Control Agents).

Solution : Correct. - Bt-protoxin becomes an active toxin only in the alkaline pH of the insect
midgut, where it gets solubilised and cleaved.

Final Answer: Option (3)

179)

Question Explanation: Identify the term for illegal use of biological resources without
permission.

Concept: Bioethics

Solution: The correct answer is option 4

A. Biopiracy means developing or using biological materials (like plants, microbes) from a
region without compensating the native people. Hence, it is unlawful exploitation.

Final Answer: Option 4

180)

Question Explanation
The question is asking which statement does not describe epithelial tissue.

Concept
Epithelial tissue.

Solution
Epithelial cells are tightly packed with very little intercellular matrix, they form coverings and
linings of body surfaces, and they perform functions such as protection, secretion, absorption
and respiration. Epithelium is avascular, meaning it does not have blood vessels, so being
highly vascularized is not a characteristic.

Final answer: Option 2