27-04-2025

1201CMD303016250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) If A and B are two physical quantities having different dimensions, then which of the following
operation might be possible :-

(1) (A + 3B)
(2) (3A – B)
(3) A3 + 3B3
(4) 3AB3

2) In a new system of units 4 kg is unit of mass, 10 m is unit of length and 1 sec is unit of time. Find
the value of 1 pascal (N/m2) in this new system.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Where A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J & K are physical quantities. Which of

the following statement is incorrect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation:

F = a cos αx + b sin βt
where a and b are the amplitudes. The dimensions of β/α are:

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0 0
(2) [M L T–1]
0 0
(3) [M L–1T ]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]
5) Determine the dimensional formula of “k” in 10kx (where ‘x’ is distance).

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M L1T
0 0
(3) M L–1T
0
(4) M–1L T–1

6) If the energy (E), velocity (υ) and force (F) be taken as the fundamental quantity, then the
dimensions of mass will be :

(1) Fυ–2
(2) Fυ–1
(3) Eυ–2
(4) Eυ2

7) If 'f' has the dimensions of - (S = distance, t = time)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) All derived quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the base quantities
(2) A base quantity cannot be represented dimensionally in terms of other base quantities
(3) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity
(4) The dimension of a base quantity in other base quantities is always zero.

9) A cyclist is moving on a circular path with constant speed v. What is the change in its velocity
after it has described an angle of 60°

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) v

10) From the figure, the correct relation is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

11) Given , if then find out vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Can the resultant of 2 vectors be zero :

(1) Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in magnitude and direction
(2) No
(3) Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in magnitude but opposite in sense

(4)
Yes, when the 2 vectors are same in magnitude making an angle of with each other

13) Find the resultant of three vectors and shown in the following figure. Radius of the

circle is R.

(1) 2R
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Vector sum of two forces of 10 N and 6 N cannot be :

(1) 4 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 2 N

15) Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium?

(1) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 1N

(2) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 9N
(3) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N
(4) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 15N

16) Minimum numbers of unequal vectors which can give zero resultant are :

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) More than four

17) If then angle between and is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

18) If resultant of is making an angle 30° with and 60° with then what can be said about
magnitude of & :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Nothing can be said

19) If and , the vector having the same magnitude as B and parallel to A is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Given ; and . Find the value of

(1) 64
(2) 60
(3) 62
(4) 61
21) The angle between and is :

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) π

22) Two vectors & are parallel if :-

(1) α = 0
(2) α = 1
(3) α = 2
(4) α = 4

23) The angle between & is :

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 0°
(4) 60°

24) The magnitude of vector product of vector & may not be :-

(1) Greater than AB

(2) Less than AB
(3) Equal to AB
(4) Equal to zero

25) The angle between the vectors and is θ. The value of .( × ) is

(1) A2B
(2) 0
(3) A2Bsinθ
(4) A2Bcosθ

26) If a vector make angles α, β and γ respectively with the x, y and z-axis. Then sin2α + sin2β +
sin2γ =

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
27) Find the value of :-

(1) 240 m2
(2) 60 m2
(3) 120 m2
(4) None of these

28)

If x1 = 8 sinθ and x2 = 6 cosθ then

(1)

(2) x1x2 = 48 sin 2θ

(3) (x1 + x2)max = 10
(4) x1 + x2 = 10sin(θ + 53°)

29) If y = 5x2 – 2x then value of x for which, y is minimum is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The displacement 'x' of a particle moving along a straight line at time t is given by x = a0 + a1t +
a2t2. The acceleration of the particle is :-
(1) a1
(2) a2
(3) 2a2
(4) 3a2

32) If y = 5 (sin100º cos27º + cos100º sin27º) the value of y is :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 3

33) Graph of y = sin x is given. Area of shaded region is :

(1) π – 2
(2) 2
(3) π + 2
(4) π

34) A metallic disc is being heated. Its area at any time t is given by A = 5t2 + 4t + 8. Calculate rate
of increase in area at t = 3s.

(1) 30 m2/s
(2) 34 m2/s
(3) 28 m2/s
(4) 20 m2/s

35) The value of is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

36) Find (3x2 – 4x – 5) at x = 1

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) –6
(4) –3

37) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t. the independent variable x.

y = (4 – 3x)9

(1) 27(2 – 3x)6

(2) –27(4 – 3x)8
(3) 27(4 + 3x)8
(4) 27(2 – 3x)4

38) Particle's position as a function of time is given by x = – t2 + 4t + 4 find the maximum value of
position coordinate of particle.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

39) Find Definite integration:

(1) 24
(2) 22
(3) 21
(4) 20

40) If , then find the value of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Given : and . The magnitude of is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) Two vectors and are acting as shown in figure. If then the resultant is :

(1)
(2) 10N
(3)
(4) None of the above

43) If represents a unit vector, then find the value of

(1) 1
(2) 0.8
(3) –0.4
(4) 0.4

44) Choose incorrect statement:-

(1) Resultant of two unit vector is always a unit vector.

(2) An angle between two vectors increases, magnitude of resultant decreases.
(3) A vector changes if its direction is changed.
(4) Resultant of two vectors can be less than sum of magnitude of two vector.

45) If then find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

What is the ratio of specific charge of alpha-particle to proton?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 0.5 : 1
(4) 1 : 0.5

2) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The charge on an electron and proton are equal and opposite
(2) Neutrons have no charge
(3) Electrons and protons have the same mass
(4) The mass of a proton and a neutron are nearly the same

3) As we go away from the nucleus, energy of the orbits

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases, then decreases

4)

The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is :

(1) e, p, n, α
(2) n, p, e , α
(3) n, p, α, e
(4) n, α, p, e

5) If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change of atomic weight of C12

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

6) Ionization energy of H-atom is:

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 0 eV
(4) None of these

7) The energy of electron in the 2nd orbit of Li+2 is:

(1) –10.2 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) –30.6 eV
(4) 30.6 eV

8) The anion X–3 has 16 neutrons in nucleus. If this anion contains 18 electrons, then what will be the
number of nucleons in its molecule X4 ?

(1) 64
(2) 93
(3) 60
(4) 124

9) Calculate sum of no. of e–, p and n in :-

(1) 100
(2) 96
(3) 108
(4) 140

10) If cathode ray experiment is performed using hydrogen, Helium and Oxygen gases in seperate

experiments. For which gas the ratio of cathode rays will be maximum.

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Helium
(3) Oxygen
(4) All have same value

11) Two atoms are said to be isobars if :-

(1) They have same atomic number but different mass number
(2) They have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
(3) They have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
(4) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is different.

12) An atom having mass number 13 has 7 neutrons. What is the atomic number of the atom?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 5

13) Positive ions are formed from the neutral atom by the :-

(1) Increase of nuclear charge

(2) Gain of protons
(3) Loss of electrons
(4) Loss of protons

14) Which of the following elements has maximum density of nucleus ?

30
(1) 14Si
31
(2) 15P
16
(3) 8O
(4) all have same density

15) e/m ratio of cathode rays depends on :-

(1) Cathode
(2) Anode
(3) Gas
(4) None of these

16) In an alpha scattering experiment few alpha particles rebounded because:

(1) most of the space in the atom is occupied

(2) negative charge of the atom is concentrated in very little space
(3) the mass of the atom is concentrated in the periphery
(4) all the positive charge and mass of the atom is concentrated in small volume.

17) The size of nucleus is of the order of :-

(1) 10–12 m
(2) 10–8 m
(3) 10–15 m
(4) 10–10 m

18) The radius of the nucleus is related to the mass number 'A' by :-

1/2
(1) R = R0A
1/3
(2) R = R0A
2
(3) R = R0A
(4) None of these

19) Find radius of nucleus of an atom which contains 64 nucleon in it :-

(1) 1.33 × 10–13 cm

(2) 5.32 × 10–13 m
(3) 2.66 × 10–13 cm
(4) 5.32 × 10–13 cm

20) The sum of number of neutrons and protons in one of the isotopes of hydrogen is :-
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

21) Energy of electron in 2nd Bohr orbit of H–atom is :–

(1) –5.44 × 10–19 Joule

(2) –5.44 × 10–19 KJ
(3) –5.44 × 10–19 Calorie
(4) –5.44 × 10–19 eV

22) The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be :-

[R0 = 1.33 × 10–15 m]

(1) 1.2 × 10–15m

(2) 2.7 × 10–15m
(3) 10.8 × 10–15m
(4) 4 × 10–15m

23) Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1. The energy of first stationary state (n =1) of Li+2
is :-

(1) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1

(2) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
(3) –2.20 × 10–15 J atom–1
(4) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1

24) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

25) Assuming that atomic weight of then atomic weight of is

(1) 12
(2) 171.42
(3) 180
(4) 185

26) The relative abundance of two rubidium isotopes of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%
respectively. The average atomic weight of rubidium is :-
(1) 75.5
(2) 85.5
(3) 86.5
(4) 87.5

27) Naturally occurring boron consists of two isotopes whose atomic weights are 10.01 and 11.01.
The average atomic weight of natural boron is 10.81. Calculate the percentage of heavier isotope in
natural boron-

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80

28) Which of the following pair is Isobar ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29)

Bohr's radius of H-atoms is 0.529 Å. What is the radius of second shell of He+?

(1) 0.529 Å
(2) 10.58 Å
(3) 1.058 Å
(4) 0.2645 Å

30)

Isotones have same value of

(1) A – Z
(2) 2A – Z
(3) 3A – Z
(4) A – 3Z

31)

(i) 26 Fe54, 26Fe56, 26Fe57, 26Fe58 (a) Isotopes

(ii) H3, 2He3

1 (b) Isotones

(iii) 32 Ge76, 33As77 (c) Isodiaphers

 (iv) 92 U235, 90Th231 (d) Isobars

(v) H1, 1D2, 1T3

1

Match the above correct terms :-

(1) [i - a], [ii - d], [iii - b], [iv - c], [v - a]

(2) [i - a], [ii - d], [iii - d], [iv - c], [v - a]
(3) [i - d], [ii - b], [iii - c], [iv - a], [v - d]
(4) None of these

32) For Li2+, r1 : r2 will be

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 3 : 9
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 1 : 2

33) 2nd separation energy of an electron in H atom

(1) 27.2 eV
(2) 1.51 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

34) The binding energy of the electron in the lowest orbit of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The
energies required in eV to remove an electron from three lowest orbits of the hydrogen atom are

(1) 13.6, 6.8, 8.4 eV

(2) 13.6, 10.2, 3.4 eV
(3) 13.6, 27.2, 40.8 eV
(4) 13.6, 3.4, 1.5 eV

35) The ionisation energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The energy of the ground level in doubly
ionised lithium is

(1) –28.7 eV
(2) –54.4 eV
(3) –122.4 eV
(4) –13.6 eV

36) An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from . The
change in potential energy will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The total energy of the electron in the third Bohr orbit of He+ ion will be:

(1) –4.4 eV
(2) –1.5 eV
(3) –6.0 eV
(4) –22.4 eV

38) According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :

(1)
25

(2)
1.0

(3)
10

(4)
2.5

39) In a certain electron transition in the hydrogen atom from an initial state ‘i’ to a final state ‘f’,
the difference in the orbit radius is seven times the Bohr radius. Identify the transition

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40)

In the radius of first Bohr's orbit be a0, then the radius of third Bohr's orbit would be:

(1) 3 × a0
(2) 6 × a0
(3) 9 × a0
(4) 1/9 × a0

41)

In the Bohr's orbit, what is the ratio of the kinetic energy (KE) and the total energy (E) of the
electron ?

(1) –1
(2) –2
(3) +1
(4) +2

42) When an electron jumps from K to L shell:

(1) Energy is absorbed

(2) Energy is released
(3) Energy remains constant
(4) Can't determined

43) The velocity of electron in third excited state of Be3+ ion will be :-

(1)
(2.188 × 108) ms–1

(2)
(2.188 × 106) ms–1
(3) (2.188 × 106) Kms–1
(4) (2.188 × 103) Kms–1

44) Angular momentum in 2nd Bohr orbit of H-atom is x. Then find out angular momentum in Ist
excited state of Li+2:

(1) 3x
(2) 9x

(3)

(4) x

45) Which is correct for any H like species :-

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

(4)
(E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following are true statements for centrosome?

(i) Centrosome contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
(ii) They are surrounded by structured pericentriolar materials.
(iii) Centrioles have an organisation like the cartwheel.
(iv) They are made up of nine evenly spaced triplets of peripheral fibrils of fibrin protein.
(v) Hub is connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of lipids.
(vi) The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, spindle fibres and nucleolus

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

2) Assertion (A) : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is frequently observed in protein secretory cells.
Reason (R) : Lumen of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the only storage site of secretory proteins.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

3) Which of the following is the site of glycolipid synthesis :-

(1) Rough ER
(2) Smooth ER
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Ribosome

4) In polyribosome formation :-

(1) Multiple ribosomes are associated with each other

(2) Multiple ribosomes are associated with cell membrane
(3) Multiple ribosomes are associated with same mRNA
(4) Multiple tRNA are associated with same ribosome

5) Above diagram represents the biochemistry of membrane

of human RBC. Amount of which biochemical indicated by D.

(1) Protein
(2) Oligosaccharides
(3) Enzymes
(4) Phospholipids

6) Which of the following is not function of endoplasmic reticulum ?

(1) Formation of cellulose

(2) Transport of substances
(3) Help in secretion
(4) Formation of nuclear membrane

7) Which of the following is correct for the origin of lysosome (L) ?

(1) ER → GB → L
(2) GB → ER → L
(3) Nucleus → GB → L
(4) Mitochondria → ER → GB → L

8) Here 'S' (Svedberg's unit) stands for sedimentation coefficient then what are [A] & [B] for

eukaryotic cell ?

(1) A – 40S B – 60S

(2) A – 60S B – 40S
(3) A – 80S B – 60S
(4) A – 40S B – 80S

9) Which characters for cilia and flagella are incorrect from given characters?
(i) They are covered with plasma membrane.
(ii) Their core called the axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running perpendicular to the
long axis.
(iii) The axoneme usually has nine pairs of triplets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules, and
a pair of centrally located microtubules.
(iv) The central tubules are connected by bridges and are also enclosed by a central sheath.
(v) Central sheath is connected to both tubules of each peripheral doublets by a radial spoke.
(vi) Cilium but not flagellum emerge from centriole-like structure called the basal bodies.

(1) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (iii), (iv) (v) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)

10) Secretory and membrane proteins are processed in :

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Glyoxysomes
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Sphaerosomes

11) Which of the following cell organelles is having single-layered unit membrane ?

(1) Centrosome
(2) Lysosome
(3) Mesosome
(4) Nucleus

12) Choose incorrect pair :-

(1) Aleuroplast – Protein

(2) Elaioplast – Membraneless
(3) Amyloplast – Starch
(4) Vacuole – Anthocyanin

13) The fluid nature of the membrane is also important from the point of view of functions like :-
(i) Cell growth
(ii) Formation of intercellular junctions
(iii) Secretions
(iv) Endocytosis
(v) Cell division

(1) (i), (iii), (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

14) In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to...... percent of the volume of the cell:-

(1) 65
(2) 55
(3) 30
(4) 90

15) In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :-

(1) Thylakoids
(2) Stroma
(3) Outer membrane
(4) Inner membrane

16) The inner compartment of mitochondria is filled with substance called matrix.
With respect to it read the following statement :-
(a) Matrix has enzymes for aerobic respiration.
(b) It contains the circular dsDNA.
(c) Dense homogeneous fluid.
(d) It has ribosomes type which are also found in stroma of chloroplast.
Among them how many statements are not incorrect.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

17) Oligosaccharides of the glycolipid and glycoprotein of plasma membrane are helpful in:

(1) Transport of hydrophilic substance

(2) Cell to cell recognition
(3) Osmosis
(4) Maintenance of the shape of the cell

18) Assertion (A) : The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all
type of hydrolytic enzymes.
Reason (R) : Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

19) Which of the following structure is universal in all living organisms?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Cell wall

20) The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the
chloroplasts are :

(1) Grana
(2) Stroma lamellae
(3) Stroma
(4) Cristae

21) Membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral on the basis of :-

(1) Attachment
(2) Type of amino acid
(3) Size
(4) Ease of extraction

22) Choose correct statement for ribosome.

(i) Ribosomes first observed under the electron microscope by George Palade.
(ii) They are composed of ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins and are surrounded by membrane.
(iii) The eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are 80S while the prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
(iv) In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with the plasma membrane of the cell.
(v) Several ribosomes may attach to a single m-RNA in prokaryotes only and form a chain called
polyribosomes or polysome.

(1) (iii), (iv), and (v)

(2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iv), and (v)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

23) Pigment containing plastids are ?

(1) Chloroplast and amyloplast

(2) Chromoplast and amyloplast
(3) Chromoplast and chloroplast
(4) Chloroplast and aleuroplast

24) Which of the following is related to glycosylation of protein ?

(1) Golgi bodies

(2) Peroxisome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

25) Factory for synthesis of sugars in autotrophic eukaryotes :

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondrion
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Ribosome

26) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex A and
concave B .

(1) A-cis or maturing face;B-Trans or forming face

(2) A-Trans or maturing face;B-cis or forming face
(3) A-cis or forming face;B-Trans or maturing face
(4) A-Trans or forming face;B-cis or maturing face

27) From the following, select the statement that is true :-

(1) All cells have a cell wall

(2) Animal cells contain microtubules but plant cells do not have microtubules.
(3) Golgi apparatus is found only in animal cells.
(4) Chloroplasts are found in plant cells but not in prokaryotic or animal cells.

28) The cell organelle of the all type of cells which contain the nucleic acid is :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Nucleolus

29) Mitochondrial porins are located in :-

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Inner membrane
(3) Inter-membrane space
(4) Both outer and inner membranes

30) Assertion (A) : All eukaryotic cells are not identical.

Reason (R) : Centrioles are found in animal cells and present in almost all plant cell.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

31)
Consider the given figure and which of the following are not concern with it :-
(a) Divide by fission
(b) Produce cellular energy (ATP)
(c) Chlorophylls are found
(d) Matrix possesses enzymes for dark reaction
(e) Site of aerobic respiration
(f) Ribosomes are smaller than cytoplasmic ribosome

(1) a, b, e, f
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) c, d, e, f
(4) c, d

32) Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the :-

(1) Centrosome
(2) Basal body
(3) Centromere
(4) Mesosome

33) Mitochondria are semi-autonomous as they possess

(1) DNA
(2) DNA and RNA
(3) DNA, RNA and ribosomes
(4) protein

34) Name the densely stained reticular structure (Near the nucleus) having many parallely stacked
flat disc-shaped cisternae of 0.5 μm to 1.0 μm diameter is -

(1) Golgi body

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosome
(4) Microfilament

35) Consider the following statements

(1) Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal cells
(2) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis
(3) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring
cells together
(4) In animal cell steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Of the above statements

(1) (1) and (2) only are correct

(2) (3) and (4) only are correct
(3) (2) and (4) only are correct
(4) (1) and (4) only are correct

36) Analyse the following pairs and identify the correct options given
A. Chromoplasts - Contains pigments other than chlorophyll
B. Leucoplasts - Devoid of any pigments
C. Amyloplasts - Store proteins
D. Alueroplasts - Store oils and fats
E. Elaioplasts - Store carbohydrates

(1) B and C are correct

(2) C and D are correct
(3) D and E are correct
(4) A and B are correct

37) The vacuoles of plant cells are bound by a single selectively permeable membrane called

(1) cristae
(2) thylakoids
(3) tonoplast
(4) protoplast

38) Cytoskeleton is made up of:

(1) callose deposits

(2) cellulosic microfibrils
(3) proteinaceous fi laments
(4) calcium carbonate granules

39) Cytoskeleton are involved in all of the given functions, except

(1) Maintenance of shape of cells

(2) Mechanical support to cell
(3) Transport of substances
(4) Motility

40) Identify the parts of given figure labelled

A B C D E from the list (i - v) and select the correct options
(i) Radial spoke
(ii) Central microtubule
(iii) Peripheral doublets
(iv) Central sheath

(v) Inter-doublet bridge

A B C D E

(1) (v) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (v) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Select the wrong statement from the following

Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded
(1)
by the thylakoid membrane
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
(3) The chloroplasts are generally much large than mitochondria
(4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane.

42)

A: ER divides intracellular space into luminal and extraluminal compartment.

B: RER is extensive and continuous with inner membrane of nucleus

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

43) Which of the following statements is not correct for the vacuoles ?

(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in excretion

Usually tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into
(2)
the cytoplasm
(3) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles
(4) Sap vacuole is bound by a single membrane

44)

Mitochondria and chloroplast are

(A) semiautonomous organelles
(B) formed by division of preexisting organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising
machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct?

(1) (A) is true but (B) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(4) (B) is true but (A) is false

45) Select the option with correct labelling of given structure of Golgi apparatus.

A B C D

(1) Cisternae Vesicle trans face cis face

 (2) Cisternae Vesicle cis face trans face

(3) Vesicle Cisternae cis face trans face

(4) Tubules Vesicle trans face cis face

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) How many statements are correct for Basement membrane ?

(i) Secreted by epithelium and connective tissue
(ii) Cellular and living
(iii) Composed by glycoprotein and mucopolysaccharide
(iv) Highly permeable

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

47) Fill up the blanks chosing the correct options :

(I) The ......(A)...... is made up of single layer of flattened cell.
(II) ......(B)...... gland secrete hormones.
(III) ......(C)...... is present in urinary tract.
(IV) cell junctions are found in ......(D)......

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Exocrine gland which neither secrete digestive enzymes nor saliva/ mucus / oil but secrete other
cell product is :

(1) Pancreas
(2) Goblet cells
(3) Intestinal glands
(4) Liver

49) Simple epithelium will be present in how many of the following structures?
Alveoli, Skin, Nephrons, Tendon, Cartilage, Blood vessel, Alimentary canal

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

50) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six structures according to
the type of epithelium they are made up of :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) How many of following is composed of columnar epithelium and it's modification ?
Liver, Gall bladder, PCT, collecting tube, Ependymal epithelium, mesothelium, Stomach, intestine
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

52) Find out the cells of the connective tissue proper in the following diagram.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) In the following diagram (A), (B) and (C) parts are made up of following composition

(1) (A) Glycoprotein, (B) Mucopolysaccaride, (C) Blood capillaries

(2) (A) Hyaluronic acid, (B) Keratin protein, (C) Blood capillaries
(3) (A) Scleroprotein, (B) Hyaluronic acid, (C) Lymph vessel
(4) (A) Collagen fibers and reticular fibers, (B) Glyco protein, (C) Blood capillaries

54) Fill up the blanks by choosing correct combination of A, B, C and D

1. The A is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundries.
2. B ____ gland secrete digestive enzyme
3. C ____ provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
4. Cell junction are found in D and other tissues.

(1) (A)-Cuboidal epithelium, (B)-Endocrine, (C)-Columnar epithelium, (D)-Connective tissue

(2) (A)-Squamous epithelium, (B)-Exocrine, (C)-Compound epithelium, (D)-Epithelial tissue
(3) (A)-Columnar epithelium, (B)-Liver, (C)-Epithelial tissue, (D)-Muscular tissue
(4) (A)-Ciliated epithelium, (B)-Exocrine, (C)-Connective tissue, (D)-Nervous tissue

55) Which type epithelial tissue present in DCT of nephron

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple columnar
(3) Simple cuboidal
(4) Stratified cuboidal

56) Non-keratinised stratified, squamous epithelium occurs in

(1) Vagina and hairs

(2) Buccal cavity and scales
(3) Buccal cavity, Pharynx, oesophagus, anal canal and vagina
(4) Epidermis of skin and skin derivatives

57)

Select the correct statement

(1) Glandular epithelium:- Specialised for protection

(2) Compound epithelium:- Specialised for diffusion
(3) Endocrine gland:- Hormone secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland.
(4) Simple epithelium:- Specialised for protection

58) Given diagram is a cross section of body tissue. Different labells are located in this diagram.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched with their function
(1) a,c,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,f
(4) b,e,f

59) How many cartilages in given list is an example of hyaline cartilage

Nasal septum, tip of nose, 'C' shaped rings of trachea, epiglottis, coastal cartilage, ear pinna

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

60) This is not the cell of connective tissue

(1) Plasma cell

(2) Adipose cell
(3) Schwann cell
(4) Macrophage

61) Podocytes are the modified

(1) Simple columnar

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple squamous
(4) Simple ciliated cuboidal

62) Fill up the blanks by choosing the correct combination of A to E.

I. Endocrine glands secretes....A....
II. The columnar epithelium is composed of single layer of ....B.... and ...C... cells.
III. ...D... covers dry surfaces of the skin.
IV. ...E... perform the function of connecting cells to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) A-Mucus, B-Cuboidal, C-Flattened, D-Compound epithelium, E-Tight junction

(2) A-Hormones, B-Tall, C-Slender, D-Compound epithelium, E-Adhering junction
(3) A-Oil and sweat, B-Oval, C-Round, D-Squamous epithelium, E-Gap junction
(4) A-Saliva, B-Rounded, C-Tall, D-Cuboidal epithelium, E-Mucus

63) Which part is not correctly lined by particular epithelium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64) Rectum has

(1) Brush bordered columnar epithelium

(2) Glandular columnar epithelium
(3) Glandular brush bordered columnar epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium

65) Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) In multicellular organisms, a group of dissimilar cells along with intracellular substances
perform a specific function. Such an organisation is called tissue.
(B) All simple organisms consist of only four basic types of tissues.
(C) Tissues are organised in specific proportion and patterns to form an organ.
(D) When two or more organs perform a common function by their physical and/or chemical
interaction, they together form organ system.
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

66) Which of the following statements about cell junction are correct
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials.
(ii) In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional link
between its individual cells.
(iii) Tight junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplamic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules.

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

67) How many of the following contain compound epithelium ?

Dry surface of skin, pharynx, pancreatic duct, moist surface of buccal cavity, inner lining of salivary
duct, PCT of nephron, Duodenum, Trachea, Uterus, Fallopian tube

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

68) Select the correct statement for given diagrams.

(1) (a) represents salivary gland

(2) (a) represents mammary glands
(3) (b) represents salivary glands
(4) (b) represents goblet cells

69) Ends of two long bones are ‘connected’ by-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Muscles
(3) Ligaments
(4) Tendons

70) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II
Globlet Multicellular
A I
cells glandular epithelium
 Salivary Unicellular glandular
B II
glands epithelium
Buccal Compound
C III
cavity epithelium
D PCT IV Cuboidal epithelium
Select the most appropriate option.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

71)

Read the following A-D statements :-

(A) Bones support and protect softer tissue and organs.
(B) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(C) The limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions.
(D) The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

72) Heart cells have the ability to contract as a unit due to the presence of

(1) Multinucleate condition

(2) Fusiform shape
(3) Intercalated discs
(4) Striations

73) Given figures (I and II) show two specialised connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the

parts labelled as A and B.

I II A B

(a) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondrocyte

(b) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondroclast

 (c) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast

(d) Bone Cartilage Collagen fibres Osteoblast

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

74) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A PCT of Nephron i Squamous epithelium

B Air sacs of lungs ii Ciliated epithelium

C Bronchioles iii Connective tissue

D Duct of salivary gland iv Cuboidal epithelium

E Tendon v Compound epithelium

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - v, E - ii
(2) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - v, E - iii
(3) A - v, B - iii, C - ii, D - i, E - iv
(4) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iv, E - iii

75) During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. Which cartilage is involved ?

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Fibrous cartilage

76) Mast cells of connective tissue contain :

(1) Vasopressin and relaxin

(2) Heparin and histamine
(3) Heparin and calcitonin
(4) Serotonin and melanin

77) White fibrocartlage is present in :

(1) Centre of skull bones

(2) Ball and socket joints
(3) Vertebrosternal joint
(4) Intervertebral disc

78) The epithelium which protects against mechanical and chemical stresses is present in all, except
(1) Buccal cavity
(2) Tubular parts of nephron
(3) Vagina
(4) Anal canal

79) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option
Statement A : Areolar tissue is the most widely distributed loose connective tissue in the animal
body
Statement B : Tendons are very elastic structures and are a type of specialised connective tissue

(1) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct is incorrect but statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

80) Which of the following sentence is/are incorrect for following muscle?

(1) Volunatary
(2) Having intercalted disk
(3) Non striated
(4) Both (1) & (3)

81) Identify the following diagram and choose correct option where it makes major component :-

(1) Dense conective tissue

(2) Skeleton CT.
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

82) Given below are various characters of fibres of C.T. :-

(i) Elastic fibres
(ii) Branched fibres
(iii) In Bundle form
(iv) Most abundant fibres
(v) Soft & Breakable
(vi) White coloured
Findout the how many characters are shown by collagen fibres ?
(1) 4 characters
(2) 5 characters
(3) 3 characters
(4) All the character

83) Consider the following three statements (A-C) and choose the correct option to fill the blanks :-
(A) _______serve as support frame work of epithelium
(B) Matrix of _________ resists compression.
(C) ________cells produce and secrete fibres in connective tissue

(1) A = Adipose tisue, B = Bone, C = macrophage

(2) A = Areolar tissue, B = Blood, C = Fibroblast
(3) A = Areolar tissue, B = Cartilage, C = Fibroblast
(4) A = Desmosomes, B = Bone, C = Mast cells

84) Germinal epithelium & vesicles of thyroid is made up of which type of cells :-

(1) Stratified squamous + cuboidal

(2) Glandular columnar + squamous
(3) Only cuboidal
(4) Cuboidal + transitional

85) Mark the correct option :-

(I) Growth of cartilage is unidirectional
(II) Matrix of hyaline cartilage is glass like clear
(III) 2-6 chondrocytes are present in each lacuna
(IV) Wall of eustachian tube is made up of elastic cartilage

(1) Statement (I) & (III) are correct

(2) Statement (II), (III) & (IV) are correct
(3) Statement (I), (II) & (III) are correct
(4) Statement (I), (II) & (IV) are correct

86) Cells of peritoneum comprise of ______

(1) Ciliated epithelium

(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

87) P.S.C.C.G.E. is found in ?

(1) Trachea
(2) Bronchi
(3) Stomach
(4) Both (1) and (2)
88) In all connective tissues except , the cell secrete and which accumulate
between cell and fibres. Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – Tendon, B – Matrix, C – Fibres

(2) A – Blood, B – Fibres, C – Matrix
(3) A – Matrix, B – Lymph, C – Fibres
(4) A – Fibres, B – Blood, C – Matrix

89) Tendons which attach to is a type of connective tissue and have fibres
arrange in parallel bundles? Identify A, B, C and D.

A–Bones, B–Muscles,
(1)
C–Dense regular, D–Collagen
A–Muscles, B–Bones,
(2)
C–Dense irregular, D–Elastin
A–Bones, B–Muscles,
(3)
C–White fibrous, D–Elastin
A–Bone, B–Bones,
(4)
C–Dense regular, D–Collagen

90) Identify A and B from the following diagram and choose the appropriate epithelium.

(1) Urothelium
(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Both (1) and (2)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 1 4 2 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 2 2 2 4 4 3 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 3 4 1 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 4 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Sum and difference is not possible for different dimensions but product and division is
possible.

2) n1u1= n2u2
1 [M1L1–1T1–2]= n2[M2L2–1T2–2]

3) Dimension of quantities in addition and substration will be same.

4) [αx] = [1], [βt] = [1]

α = [L–1], β = [T–1]

= [LT–1]

5) [kx] = [1]
k = [L–1]

6)

m ∝ Ea vb Fc
a = 1, b = –2, c = 0

16) For vectors having unequal magnitude minimum three vectors are required to give zero
resultant.
19)

26) sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ

= 1 – cos2α + 1– cos2β + 1 – cos2γ
= 3 – (cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ)
=3–1=2

29)

x=

At x = , y is minimum

ymin =

30)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2
Final Answer:
The value of sin(300°) is
option 1
Question Level: Easy

31) x = a0+a1t+ a2t2

v = a1 + 2a2t
a = 2a2

32) sin (A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

Given :
y = 5 (sin 100 cos 27° + cos 100 sin 27°)
y = 5 sin (100 + 27°)
= 5 sin (127°)
= 5 sin (90 + 37)

= 5 cos 37° = 5 ×

33) Area 1 × π

= π + [–1 –1]
=π–2

40) Solution/Explanation : To find value of sin using value of cosθ

Concept : T-rasio

Formula : Sinθ =

Cos θ =

Calculation : Cos θ =
 Sin θ =
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

CHEMISTRY

46)

47) Concept
mass of proton = 1.007 amu ≈ 1 amu
Mass of electron. = 0.0005 amu ≈ 0 amu
So Electrons and protons have the different Mass.
Correct option (3)

48)

E1 < E2 < E3

49)

Charge / mass for n = 0, for α =

for , for

50)

Proton 6 M →
Neutron 6 M → 6 × 2 M = 12 M
= 12 M + 3 M = 15 M = 15 amu

% Change

51) I.E = 13.6 × z2 = 13.6 eV

 52) Li2+ ⇒ Z = 3, n = 3

E = –13.6 × = –13.6 eV

53) 1. Question Explanation

We are given an anion (X-3) with 16 neutrons and 18 electrons. We are asked to find the
number of nucleons in its molecule X4.
2. Given Data

A. The anion has 16 neutrons.

B. The anion has 18 electrons.
C. The molecule is X4.

3. Concept

A. Nucleons: Nucleons are the particles found in the nucleus of an atom, which are protons and
neutrons.
A. Ions and Isotopes:

Anions have gained extra electrons, resulting in a negative charge. Isotopes of an element
have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. 4. Mathematical
Calculation

A. Determining the Number of Protons in the Anion:

Since the anion has a charge of -3, it has gained 3 extra electrons. Therefore, the number of
protons in the anion= Number of electrons - 3 = 18 - 3 = 15

A. Determining the Mass Number (Number of Nucleons) of the Anion:

Mass Number (A) = Number of Protons + Number of Neutrons = 15 + 16 = 31

A. Determining the Mass Number (Number of Nucleons) of the Molecule X4:

Mass Number of X4 =4 x Mass Number of X = 4 x 31 = 124 5. Final Answer

The number of nucleons in the molecule X4 is 124.

55)

In cathode ray experiment, the of particle (electron) forming cathode rays does
not depend on nature of gas.

56) Isobars have same mass number but different number of protons.

57)

Given : Atomic mass = 13

Neutron = 7

Neutron = Atomic mass – Atomic number

Atomic number = 13 – 7 = 6

58) Positive ions are formed from the neutral atom by the loss of electrons.

59) As per rutherford model density of nucleus is constant irrespective of atom.

60) Specific charge of cathode rays does not depend on nature of gas and electrode used.

61) All the positive charge and mass of the atom is concentrated in small volume.

62) Size of nucleus is order 10–15 m

63) R = R0A1/3 (Rutherford model)

64) R = R0 A1/3

65)

H3
1

P=1;n=2
n+P=1+2=3

66)

Solution/Explanation:
Calculate energy of 2nd Bohr orbit of H - atom.

Concept:

En = – 13.6 Ev / atom.

En = – 21.76 × 10–19 J / atom.

Mathematical expression :
n = 2i Z = 1

(E2)z = 1 = – 21.76 × 10–19 ×

= – 5.44 × 10–19 J
Hence the correct answer is option (1)

67)
= 1.33 × 10–15 × 3 ≅ 4 × 10–15m

68)

E2 = –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1

69) T ∝ n3

70) 14 ––– 200

1 –––

12 –––

71)

Average atomic mass = (Mass(i) × fractional abundance(i))

As for energy Rb atom having mass 87, there are 3 atoms with mass 85

Hence, the average mass of Rb atoms is = = 85.5

72)

A.W. =

10.81 =

73)

Question Explanation

The question asks which pair of given nuclides are isobars.

Concept

A. Isobars: Nuclides with the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z).

A. Option 1: ¹⁴₆C has A = 14, Z = 6; ²³₁₁Na has A = 23, Z = 11. Mass numbers are different.
 B. Option 2: ²⁴₁₂Mg has A = 24, Z = 12; ²³₁₁Na has A = 23, Z = 11. Mass numbers are
different.

C. Option 3: ⁴₂He has A = 4, Z = 2; ¹⁶O has A = 16, Z = 8. Mass numbers are different.

D. Option 4: ¹⁴₆C has A = 14, Z = 6; ¹⁴N has A = 14, Z = 7. Mass numbers are the same
(14),

Final Answer

The pair ¹⁴₆C and ¹⁴N have the same mass number (14) but different atomic numbers (6 and 7
respectively). Therefore, they are isobars.

74)

radius = 0.529 × Å (n = 2, z = 2)

Å = 1.058Å

75)

Isotones have same number of neutrons.

76) (a) Isotopes : Atomic number is same and atomic mass is different.
(i) 26Fe54, 26Fe56, 26Fe57, 26Fe58
(v) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3
(b) Isotones : Number of neutrons are same
(iii) 32Ge76, 33As77
(c) Isodiaphers : Difference of neutron and proton is same [(n-p) is same].
(iv) 92U235, 231
90Th

p = 92, p = 90
n = 143 n = 141
n–p = 51 n–p = 51
(d) Isobars : Atomic number is different and atomic mass is same.
(ii) 1H3, 2He3
[i - a], [ii - d], [iii - b], [iv - c], [v - a]

77)

78) Energy separation is given by

For H, Z = 1, 2nd excited state = 3

= 1.51 eV

79)
n=1 E = 13.6 eV
n=2 E = 3.4 eV
n=3 E = 1.5 eV

80)

We need energy in n = 1 of Li2+ ion.

Given ionisation energy (n =1) for hydrogen
= 13.6 eV

E = –13.6 × 9
= –122.4 eV

81)

P.E. = –2 × K.E.

82)

E= ;n=3;z=2

83)

Angular momentum = , n = principal quantum number

n = 5 (given)

Angular momentum = ⇒

84) i=4,f=3
 85) rn = r1 × n2.

86)

T·E=–K·E

87)
After absorbing energy, electron jump from lower energy level to higher energy level.

88)

V = 2.18 × 106 × m/s

V = 2.18 × 106 ×
= 2.18 × 106 m/s
= 2.18 × 103 km/s

89) Angular momentum (mur) =

A.M. ∝ n

90)

E2 – E1 = 10.2 eV
E3 – E2 = 1.89 eV
E4 – E3 = 0.66 eV

BIOLOGY

98)

NCERT XI, Page # 98

103) NCERT (XIth) (E); Pg. # 132; Para-8.5.1

 107) Oligosaccharides of the glycolipid and glycoprotein of plasma membrane are helpful
in cell to cell recognition.

108)

Module

109)

New Ncert page 88.

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 93, Para–5

112) Module Pg. # 188

113)

NCERT XI Pg.# 135, Para - 8.5.5

116) NCERT (XIth) (E); Pg. # 133; Para-[Link]

117) NCERT Pg. # 132

124) NCERT XI Pg. # 95

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, Fig.8.10

132)

NCERT Page No. 133

133) NCERT XI Eng. # 134, (Topic : Vacuole)

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96-96

160)

The correct matching is:

A. Goblet cells - II: Goblet cells are unicellular glands that secrete mucus. They are found in the
lining of the respiratory and digestive tracts.
B. Salivary glands - I: Salivary glands are multicellular glands that secrete saliva. They are
classified as exocrine glands.
 C. Buccal cavity - III: The buccal cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium, which is a
type of compound epithelium.
D. PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubule) - IV: The PCT is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium.

Therefore, the correct option is A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV.

Correct Option:- 1

164) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101-103

173)

NCERT-XI(E) Pg. # 103, 104

174) Module Nurture-2, Pg # 80

175) Module Nurture-2, Pg # 95

176) Module-2, Nurture, Pg. # 83