AVIATION INSTITUTE OF MAINTENANCE

BLOCK 16
FINAL CUMULATIVE EXAM ALTERNATE
1. The angle-of-attack of a rotating propeller blade is measured between the blade chord
or face and which of the following?
A- Plane of blade rotation.
B- Full low-pitch blade angle.
C- Relative airstream.
2. The centrifugal twisting moment of an operating propeller tends to
A- increase the pitch angle.
B- reduce the pitch angle.
C- bend the blades in the direction of rotation.
3. Which of the following is identified as the cambered or curved side of a propeller blade,
corresponding to the upper surface of a wing airfoil section?
A- Blade back.
B- Blade chord.
C- Blade face.
4. Which of the following best describes the blade movement of a full-feathering, constant-
speed propeller that is in the LOW RPM position when the feathering action is begun?
A- High pitch through low pitch to feather position.
B- High pitch directly to feather position.
C- Low pitch through high pitch to feather position.
5. The holding coil on a hydromatic propeller feathering button switch holds a solenoid
relay closed that applies power to the propeller
A- governor.
B- dome feathering mechanism.
C- feathering pump motor.
6. What is the primary purpose of the metal tipping which covers the blade tips and
extends along the leading edge of each wood propeller blade?
A- To increase the lateral strength of the blade.
B- To prevent impact damage to the tip and leading edge of the blade.
C- To increase the longitudinal strength of the blade.
7. Blade angle is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to the crankshaft and a line
formed by the
A- relative wind.
B- chord of the blade.
C- blade face.
8. Propeller blade station numbers increase from
A- hub to tip.
B- tip to hub.
C- leading edge to trailing edge.

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 9. The aerodynamic force acting on a rotating propeller blade operating at a normal pitch
angle tends to
A- reduce the pitch angle.
B- increase the pitch angle.
C- bend the blades rearward in the line of flight.
10. Which of the following forces or combination of forces operates to move the blades of a
constant-speed counterweight-type propeller to the HIGH PITCH position?
A- Engine oil pressure acting on the propeller piston-cylinder arrangement and
centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
B- Centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
C- Prop governor oil pressure acting on the propeller piston-cylinder arrangement.
11. The purpose of permanently sealing and partially filling some models of McCauley
propeller hubs with dyed oil is to
A- provide an always clean separate lubrication of the internal parts.
B- dampen pressure surges and prevent too rapid changes in propeller blade angle.
C- make the location of cracks readily apparent.
12. Which of the following best describes the blade movement of a feathering propeller that
is in the HIGH RPM position when the feathering action is begun?
A- High pitch through low pitch to feather position.
B- Low pitch through reverse pitch to feather position.
C- Low pitch through high pitch to feather position.
13. The blade angle of a fixed-pitch propeller
A- is greatest at the tip.
B- is smallest at the tip.
C- increases in proportion to the distance each section is from the hub.
14. During operational check of an aircraft using hydromatic full-feathering propellers, the
following observations are made:
The feather button, after being pushed, remains depressed until the feather cycle is
complete, then opens.
When unfeathering, it is necessary to manually hold the button down until unfeathering
is accomplished.
A- Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are functioning properly.
B- Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate malfunctions.
C- The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle indicates a malfunction.
15. Inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection is accomplished to detect
A- cracks or other defects.
B- corrosion at the blade tip.
C- torsional stress.
16. What controls the constant-speed range of a constant-speed propeller?
A- Engine RPM.
B- Angle of climb and descent with accompanying changes in airspeed.
C- The mechanical limits in the propeller pitch range.

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 17. For takeoff, a constant-speed propeller is normally set in the
A- HIGH PITCH, high RPM position.
B- HIGH PITCH, low RPM position.
C- LOW PITCH, high RPM position.
18. Where are the high and low pitch stops of a Hamilton Standard constant-speed or two-
position counterweight propeller located?
A- In the hub and blade assembly.
B- In the counterweight assembly.
C- In the dome assembly.
19. Which of the following statements about constant-speed counterweight propellers is
also true when referring to two-position counterweight propellers?
A- Blade angle changes are accomplished by the use of two forces, one hydraulic and
the other centrifugal.
B- Since an infinite number of blade angle positions are possible during flight, propeller
efficiency is greatly improved.
C- The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller changes pitch to maintain the selected
RPM.
20. Most engine-propeller combinations have one or more critical ranges within which
continuous operation is not permitted. Critical ranges are established to avoid
A- severe propeller vibration.
B- low or negative thrust conditions.
C- inefficient propeller pitch angles.
21. Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of wood propellers?
A- Solder missing from screw heads securing metal tipping.
B- An oversize hub or bolthole, or elongated boltholes.
C- No protective coating on propeller.
22. An aircraft's propeller system beta range
A- is used to produce zero or negative thrust.
B- is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff.
C- refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at a given engine RPM.
23. The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to
A- distribute anti-icing fluid.
B- strengthen the propeller.
C- increase the flow of cooling air to the engine nacelle.
24. The purpose of a three-way propeller valve is to
A- direct oil from the engine oil system to the propeller cylinder.
B- direct oil from the engine through the governor to the propeller.
C- permit constant-speed operation of the propeller.
25. The primary purpose of a propeller is to
A- create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft.
B- change engine horsepower to thrust.
C- provide static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in flight.

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 26. A constant-speed propeller provides maximum efficiency by
A- increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed decreases.
B- adjusting blade angle for most conditions encountered in flight.
C- increasing the lift coefficient of the blade.
27. The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller blade is
A- greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a higher
angle.
B- less than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a lower
angle.
C- greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a lower
angle.
28. Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as the
A- effective pitch minus slippage.
B- effective pitch plus slippage.
C- angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation.
29. Propeller blade angle is the angle between the
A- chord of the blade and the relative wind.
B- relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller.
C- chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the propeller.
30. What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in the opposite direction of
rotation?
A- Thrust-bending force.
B- Aerodynamic-twisting force.
C- Torque-bending force.
31. What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades forward at the tip?
A- Torque-bending force.
B- Centrifugal-twisting force.
C- Thrust-bending force.
32. What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle requirements of a constant-speed
propeller during takeoff?
A- Low-speed and high-pitch angle.
B- High-speed and low-pitch angle.
C- High-speed and high-pitch angle.
33. (1) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes the holder to repair deep
scars, nicks, and dents on aluminum propeller blades.
(2) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes the holder to perform
minor straightening of steel propeller blades.
Regarding the above statements,
A- only No. 1 is true.
B- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C- neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

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 34. (1) During takeoff, propeller thrust (pull) is greatest if the blade angle of attack is low
and the engine power setting is high.
(2) With the aircraft stationary, propeller thrust is greatest if the blade angle of attack is
high and the engine power setting is high.
Regarding the above statements,
A- only No. 1 is true.
B- only No. 2 is true.
C- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
35. Longitudinal (fore and aft) clearance of constant-speed propeller blades or cuffs must
be at least 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) between propeller parts and stationary parts of the
aircraft. This clearance is with the propeller blades
A- at takeoff pitch (maximum thrust) angle.
B- feathered or in the most critical pitch configuration.
C- at the lowest pitch angle.
36. Constant-speed non-feathering McCauley, Hartzell, and other propellers of similar
design without counterweights increase pitch angle using
A- oil pressure.
B- spring pressure.
C- centrifugal twisting moment.
37. Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally used to aid in
A- increasing blade angle.
B- decreasing blade angle.
C- unfeathering the propellers.
38. When lubricating a Hartzell propeller blade with grease, to prevent damage to the blade
seals, the service manual may recommend on some models to
A- pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade simultaneously.
B- remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall them afterwards.
C- remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade and grease the blade through the
remaining fitting.
39. The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to
A- prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight.
B- prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight.
C- eliminate the drag created by a windmilling propeller when an engine fails in flight.
40. What normally prevents a Hartzell Compact propeller from going to feather when the
engine is shut down on the ground?
A- Propeller cylinder air pressure.
B- A latch mechanism composed of springs and lock pins.
C- Accumulator provided oil pressure.
41. When running-up an engine and testing a newly installed hydromatic propeller, it is
necessary to exercise the propeller by moving the governor control through its entire
travel several times to
A- seat the blades fully against the low pitch stop.
B- free the dome of any entrapped air.
C- test the maximum RPM setting of the governor.

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 42. Which of the following occurs to cause front cone bottoming during propeller
installation?
A- The front cone becomes bottomed in the front propeller hub cone seat before the
rear propeller hub cone seat has engaged the rear cone.
B- The front cone enters the front propeller hub cone seat at an angle causing the
propeller retaining nut to appear tight when it is only partially tightened.
C- The front cone contacts the ends of the shaft splines, preventing the front and rear
cones from being tightened against the cone seats in the propeller hub.
43. What is indicated when the front cone bottoms while installing a propeller?
A- Propeller-dome combination is incorrect.
B- Blade angles are incorrect.
C- Rear cone should be moved forward.
44. How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromatic propeller normally stopped after the
blades have reached their full-feathered position?
A- Pulling out the feathering push button.
B- Electric cutout pressure switch.
C- Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam.
45. The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for propellers that are installed on
splined shafts is to
A- position the propeller hub on the splined shaft.
B- prevent metal-to-metal contact between the propeller and the splined shaft.
C- reduce stresses between the splines of the propeller and the splines of the shaft.
46. Which of the following statements concerning the installation of a new fixed-pitch wood
propeller is true?
A- If a separate metal hub is used, final track should be accomplished prior to installing
the hub in the propeller.
B- NAS close-tolerance bolts should be used to install the propeller.
C- Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight and again after the first 25 hours of
flying.
47. If propeller cones or hub cone seats show evidence of galling and wear, the most likely
cause is
A- the pitch change stops were located incorrectly, causing the cone seats to act as the
high pitch stop.
B- the propeller retaining nut was not tight enough during previous operation.
C- the front cone was not fully bottomed against the crankshaft splines during
installation.
48. On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated constant-speed propellers, all ignition
and magneto checking is done with the propeller in which position?
A- High RPM.
B- Low RPM.
C- High pitch range.
49. Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic propeller usually indicates a defective
A- piston gasket.
B- spider-shaft oil seal.
C- dome-barrel oil seal.
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 50. Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller hub is determined by using
A- bearing blue color transfer.
B- a micrometer.
C- a surface gauge.
51. Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining
A- the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to the aircraft longitudinal axis.
B- that the blade angles are within the specified tolerance of each other.
C- the positions of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other.
52. What is the basic purpose of the three small holes (No. 60 drill) in the tipping of wood
propeller blades?
A- To provide a means for inserting balancing shot when necessary.
B- To provide a means for periodically impregnating the blade with preservation
materials.
C- To allow the moisture which may collect between the tipping and the wood to escape
(vent the tipping).
53. A fixed-pitch wooden propeller that has been properly installed and the attachment bolts
properly torqued exceeds the out-of-track allowance by 1/16 inch. The excessive out-of-
track condition may be corrected by
A- slightly overtightening the attachment bolts adjacent to the most forward blade.
B- discarding the propeller since out-of-track conditions cannot be corrected.
C- placing shims between the inner flange and the propeller.
54. Manually feathering a hydromechanical propeller means to
A- block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
B- port governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
C- port governor oil pressure from the cylinder of the propeller.
55. In what position is the constant-speed propeller control placed to check the magnetos?
A- Full decrease, low propeller blade pitch angle.
B- Full increase, high propeller blade pitch angle.
C- Full increase, low propeller blade pitch angle.
56. If a flanged propeller shaft has dowel pins
A- install the propeller so that the blades are positioned for hand propping.
B- the propeller can be installed in only one position.
C- check carefully for front cone bottoming against the pins.
57. Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers are not permitted to be made on
which of the following propeller blade areas?
A- Shank.
B- Face.
C- Back.
58. Which of the following methods is used to straighten a bent aluminum propeller blade
that is within repairable limits?
A- Careful heating to accomplish straightening, followed by heat treatment to restore
original strength.
B- Either hot or cold straightening, depending on the location and severity of damage.
C- Cold straightening only.
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 59. It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller blades be repaired as soon as
possible in order to
A- maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between the blades.
B- eliminate stress concentration points.
C- equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades.
60. Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, repairs of nicks, scratches,
gouges, etc. on aluminum propeller blades must be made
A- parallel to the length of the blade.
B- perpendicular to the blade axis.
C- so as to return the damaged area to the original dimensions.
61. Minor surface damage located in a repairable area, but not on the leading or trailing
edges of aluminum blades, may be repaired by first
A- filing with a riffle file.
B- filing with a half round or flat file.
C- rough sanding and applying a proper filler.
62. After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the affected surface should be
polished with
A- fine steel wool.
B- very fine sandpaper.
C- powdered soapstone.
63. When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it should be cleaned with
A- mild soap and water.
B- steel wool.
C- methyl ethyl ketone.
64. What method would be used to inspect an aluminum propeller blade when a crack is
suspected?
A- Use a bright light.
B- Magnetic particle.
C- Dye-penetrant.
65. Removal of propeller blade tips within Type Certificate Data Sheet limits when
correcting a defect is
A- a major alteration.
B- a major repair.
C- permitted under the privileges and limitations of a powerplant rating.
66. Surface treatment to counter the effects of dye-penetrant inspection on a propeller is
accomplished by
A- washing off with solvent.
B- wiping with alcohol.
C- rinse the blade in alodine solution.

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 67. One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum propeller utilizing dye-penetrant
inspection procedure is that
A- defects just below the surface are indicated.
B- it shows whether visible lines and other marks are actually cracks rather than
scratches.
C- it indicates overspeed condition.
68. The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt repairing of minor surface defects
such as scratches, nicks, gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy propellers is to prevent
A- corrosion.
B- unbalanced aerodynamics.
C- fatigue failure.
69. Which of the following generally renders an aluminum alloy propeller unrepairable?
A- Any repairs that would require shortening and recontouring of blades.
B- Any slag inclusions or cold shuts.
C- Transverse cracks of any size.
70. Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade may be accomplished by
A- the holder of a mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating.
B- an appropriately rated repair station or the manufacturer.
C- a person working under the supervision of the holder of a mechanic certificate with
both airframe and powerplant ratings.
71. An aircraft that is required by FAR 91.409; to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown
beyond inspection requirement:
A. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished,
but not to exceed 15 flight hours.
B. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished,
but not to exceed 10 flight hours.
C. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished,
but a special flight permit is necessary.
72. A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No. 2A34C50/90A. The
propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not
available for replacement. Which of the following should be used to find an approved
alternate replacement?
A. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates.
B. Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets.
73. Which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to
service after and annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair?
A. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects, but an IA must approve
the aircraft for return to service.
B. Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft
for return to service.
C. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft
for return to service.

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 74. For an individual (not a repair station) to conduct a complete 100-hour inspection
on an aircraft and approve it for return to service requires a mechanic with an:
A. airframe and powerplant ratings with an inspection authorization.
B. airframe rating only.
C. airframe and powerplant ratings.
75. Which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) is true?
A. Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in all
maintenance records.
B. AD’s are information alert bulletins issued by the airframe, Powerplant, or
component manufacturer.
C. Compliance with an AD is not mandatory unless the affected aircraft is for hire.
76. An aircraft due an annual inspection may be flown:
A. for the purpose of performing maintenance.
B. for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours.
C. if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.
77. Large airplanes and turbine powered multi engine airplanes operated under FAR
Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected:
A. in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation
Regulation 91, Subpart E.
B. in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation
Regulation Section 91.409 (d).
C. in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp)
authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
78. Before approving an aircraft for returns to service following a 100-hour inspection you are
required to:

79. Who is primarily responsible for having and maintaining the aircraft maintenance records?

80. The maximum time an annual inspection may be extended is:

81. On aircraft requiring an annual inspection how often is this inspection required?

82. What is required to fly an aircraft after the annual inspection has expired to a place where
can be performed?

83. A manufacturer of an aircraft may issue information concerning an improvement or change

that may be made on an aircraft, these changes are called:

84. Who can sign off or approve for return to service the various phases of a progressive
inspection?

85. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured typically using:

86. Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?

87. How long must the temporary maintenance records be retained?

88. What appendix in FAR Part 43 covers the minimum inspection requirements on an aircraft?

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 89. How many hours may a 100-hour inspection be exceeded if necessary to fly to a place
where the inspection can be performed?

90. According to FAR Part 43 what must be used in performing an inspection on an aircraft?

91. What does the type certificate approve in relationship to the aircraft it is issued for?

92. If an annual Inspection is completed on June 6, 1995, when will the inspection period expire?

93. The information required in a maintenance record entry for the compliance with a recurring
airworthiness directive are:

94. What is issued by the FAA to correct unsafe conditions that may exist in an aircraft?

95. What type of inspection is required when are aircraft is placed on a progressive inspection
system?

96. Who is responsible for the maintenance and records of an aircraft?

97. Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after a 100-hour inspection has been
completed?

98. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

99. Who must supervise a progressive inspection system on an aircraft?

100. The form used to record and approve for return to service major alterations and repairs is
called a:

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