ZOOLOGY

DROPPER NEET

EVOLUTION
 VIDYAPEETH
Evolution
DPP-1
[Origin of Life ( Introduction and Theories)]
1. First non-cellular life forms evolved; 6. Select the correct option regarding
(1) 2 BYA (2) 3 BYA theory of special creation.
(3) 4.5 BYA (4) 4 BYA (1) This theory was proposed by
Oparin.
2. Who proposed that the first form of life (2) According to this theory, life was
could have come from pre-existing non- originated from non-living things or
living organic molecules? decaying and rotting matter like
(1) S.L. Miller straw, mud, etc., spontaneously.
(2) Oparin and Haldane (3) Also known as theory of
(3) Charles Darwin abiogenesis.
(4) Alfred Wallace (4) This theory states that life was
created by supernatural power.
3. According to Oparin, which one of the
7. The universe is very old - almost
following was not present in the
billion years old.
primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(1) 10 (2) 25
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen
(3) 13.8 (4) 15
(3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour
8. Theory of chemical evolution was
4. The first life originated; proposed by;
(1) on land. (2) in air. (1) Oparin of Russia and Haldane of
(3) in water. (4) All of these England.
(2) Oparin of England and Haldane of
5. Select the correct statement. Russia.
(1) Earth along with milky way galaxy (3) Arrhenius
was formed 2.5 billion years ago. (4) Louis Pasteur
(2) Life appeared 500 million years
after the formation of earth. 9. Swan-neck flask experiment performed
(3) Big bang theory was proposed by by;
Father Suarez. (1) George LeMaitre (2) Louis Pasteur
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Oparin (4) Haldane
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10. According to Oparin-Haldane theory, the 14. Assertion(A): Theory of spontaneous
condition(s) on Earth was/were; generation is also known as theory of
(1) Low temperature biogenesis.
(2) Volcanic storms
Reason(R): According to the theory of
(3) Oxidising atmosphere
(4) Both (1) and (3) spontaneous generation, life was
originated from non-living things or
11. The attempts to explain decaying and rotting matter.
to us the origin of universe. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(1) Big bang theory (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
(2) Cosmozoic theory
correct explanation of Assertion
(3) theory of panspermia
(4) theory of abiogenesis (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
12. Connotation of theory of special creation (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
is; a correct explanation of Assertion
(1) there was no atmosphere on early
(A).
earth.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(2) the gases condensed under
gravitation and formed the galaxies (R) is false.
of the present day universe. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(3) the diversity was always the same (R) is true.
since creation and will be same in
future.
15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
(4) that it gives scientific evidences.
correct option.
13. Statement-I: Special creation theory List-I List-II
lacks scientific evidences, so it is not I Big bang A The earth is about
accepted. theory 4000 years old
Statement-II: According to theory of
II Steller B Gaseous part of
special creation the living organisms
distance our planet
(species or types) that we see today were
created as such. III Atmosphere C Origin of universe
(1) Statement I and Statement II both IV Theory of D Measured in light
are correct. special year
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement creation
II is incorrect.
(1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but
Statement II is correct. (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both (3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
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 DPP-2
[Evolution ( Introduction, Chemical and Biological Evolution)]

1. One of the possible early source(s) of 4. The organisms that perform chemosynthesis
energy was/were; for survival are called ________.
(1) CO2 (1) Chemoautotrophs
(2) Chlorophyll (2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Green plants (3) Chemical organisms
(4) UV rays and lightening (4) Photoautotrophs

2. What was the mode of respiration for 5. Experimental evidence for the formation
the prokaryotes during biological of simple organic compounds was given
evolution? by;
(1) Anaerobic (1) Stanley Miller (2) Oparin
(2) Aerobic (3) Haldane (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Cellular
(4) External 6. He created electric discharge in a closed
flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water
3. Identify A, B, C, D in the diagrammatic vapour at ____________.
representation of Miller’s experiment. (1) 600 degree celcius
(2) 800 degree celcius
(3) 700 degree celcius
(4) 500 degree celcius

7. The first cellular form of life did not

possibly originate till about _______
million years ago.
(1) 2000
(2) 1000
(3) 3000
(4) 500
A B C D
(1) CH4, NH3, Electrodes Spark Water containing 8. Select the incorrect statement.
H2O, H2, discharge inorganic
O2 compounds only
(1) First oragnism was unicellular.
(2) CH4, NH3, Electrodes Spark Water containing (2) The first cellular form of life did
H2O, H2 discharge organic not possibly originate till about
compounds
2000 million years ago.
(3) CH4, H2O, Electrodes Spark Water containing (3) The first non-cellular forms of life
but no H2 discharge organic could have originated 3 billion
compounds
(4) CH4, NH3, Electrodes Infrared Water containing
years back.
H2O, H2, rays organic (4) Louis pasteur proposed the theory
O3 compounds of spontaneous generation.
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9. What was utilized by photoautotrophs (1) Statement I and Statement II both
during photosynthesis when H2O was are correct.
absent? (2) Statement I is correct, but statement
(1) HF II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but
(2) HCl
Statement II is correct.
(3) H2S (4) Statement I and Statement II both
(4) H2N2 are incorrect.

10. Biogenesis means; 14. Assertion(A): The first non-cellular

(1) living organisms can only arise form of life could have originated 3
from pre-existing life. billion years ago.
(2) the non-cellular form of life arose Reason(R): The first cellular form of
life were multicellular.
from living organism.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(3) the first cellular form of life created (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
by God. correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(4) All of these. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
11. The conditions on earth were a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
_________ temperature, volcanic (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
storms, reducing atmosphere containing (R) is false.
CH4, NH3, etc. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(R) is true.
(1) high (2) low
(3) no (4) constant 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
correct option.
12. From which country S.L. Miller List-I List-II
belongs? I Louis Pasteur A Reducing
(1) Japan II Primitive B Disproved
(2) England atmosphere spontaneous
(3) Nigeria generation
(4) America theory
III Giant molecules C RNA, Protein
etc.
13. Statement-I: The first non-cellular form
IV Theory of D Stanley
of life could have originated 3 billion chemical Miller (A
years back. evolution student of
Statement-II: Analysis of meteorite experimentally Harold Urey)
content also revealed similar proved by
compounds, indicating that similar (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
processes are occurring elsewhere in (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
space. (3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
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 DPP-3
[Evidences of evolution (Palaeonological evidences), Connective
link and Time line of evolution]
1. The study of fossils; 5. Which of the following period is not
(1) show that life-forms varied over included in Mesozoic era?
time and certain life forms are (1) Cretaceous
restricted to certain geological time
(2) Triassic
spans.
(2) show that new forms of life arose at (3) Jurassic
the same time in the history of (4) Devonian
earth.
(3) confirm the ‘Theory of 6. Number of periods in mesozoic era is;
panspermia’. (1) 2
(4) confirm the ‘Theory of spontaneous
(2) 1
generation’.
(3) 4
2. Age of fossils can be identified by; (1) 3
(1) Nitrogen dating
(2) Carbon dating 7. Devonian period is also known as;
(3) Helium dating (1) age of fishes.
(4) Sodium dating
(2) age of reptiles.
3. _______ rocks are richest in fossils. (3) age of human beings.
(1) Igneous (4) age of invertebrate.
(2) Metamorphic
(3) Sedimentary 8. Which of the following organisms is
(4) All of these extinct?
(1) Cucurbita
4. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Fossils found in older rocks are of (2) Bougainvillea
simple type and those found in (3) Triceratops
newer rocks are of complex types. (4) Bat
(2) Angiosperms among animals and
mammals among plants are highly 9. Archaeopteryx is a connective link
developed modern organisms.
between;
(3) By fossils, we can study the
evolutionary pedigree of an animal, (1) birds and reptiles.
like stages in evolution of horse, (2) birds and mammals.
elephant and man, etc. (3) amphibians and reptiles.
(4) All of these (4) fish and amphibians.
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10. Connective link between living and non- 14. Assertion(A): Different-aged rock
living is; sediments contain fossils of same life-
forms who probably died during the
(1) Euglena
formation of the particular sediment.
(2) Bacteria Reason(R): A study of fossils in
(3) Lichens different sedimentary layers indicates
(4) Viruses the geological period in which they
existed.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
11. Mesozoic era also known as; (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
(1) Age of fishes correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Golden age of reptiles (A).
(3) Age of human beings (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(4) All of these
a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
12. All are extinct reptiles except; (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(1) Stegosaurs (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(2) Brachiosaurs
(R) is true.
(3) Tuataras
(4) Triceratops 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
correct option.
13. Statement-I: The study of fossils is List-I List-II
I Cenozoic A Rise of dinosaurs
known as Palaeontology.
era
Statement-II: Fossils are remains of II Mesozoic B Tertiary and
hard parts of life-forms found in rocks. era Quaternary
(1) Statement I and Statement II both period
III Paleozoic C Permian period
are correct.
era
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement IV Precambr- D Planktons and
II is incorrect. ian era prokaryotes were
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but evolved
Statement II is correct. (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both
(3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

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 DPP-4
[Evidences of Evolution (Morphological, Anatomical and
Embryological Evidences)]
1. The similarity of bone structure in the 6. Given figure shows an example of;
forelimbs of many mammals is an
example of;
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Analogy
(4) Homology

2. Which of the following structures is

homologous to the wings of a bird?
(1) Wing of a moth (1) Homologous organs
(2) Hind limbs of rabbit (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Flippers of whale (3) Divergent evolution
(4) Dorsal fin of a shark (4) Both (1) & (3)

3. Potato tuber and sweet potato are the

7. Select the correct statement.
examples of;
(1) Atavism (1) Organs with similar origin and
(2) Homology basic structure but different
(3) Analogy functions are analogous structures.
(4) Adaptive radiation (2) Organs with different origin and
structures but with similar functions
4. Which of the following shows analogy?
are analogous organs.
(1) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(3) Organs with different origin and
(2) Vertebrate hearts
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril structure but with dissimilar
of Cucurbita functions are homologous organs.
(4) Vertebrate brains (4) None of these

5. Which of the following structure(s) 8. Australian marsupials and placental

is/are vestigial in python but not in mammals show;
human?
(1) Convergent evolution
(1) Nictitating membrane
(2) Ear pinna muscles (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Hind limbs (3) Homology
(4) All of these (4) Both (2) and (3)
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9. Among the following sets of examples 14. Assertion(A): Ernst Haeckel proposal
for divergent evolution, select the on biogenetic law disapproved by Karl
incorrect option: Ernst Von Baer.
(1) Eye of octopus, bat and man Reason(R): Karl Ernst Von Baer noted
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah that embryos never pass through the
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
adult stages of other animals.
(4) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
10. Which of the following is not a vestigial (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
organ in human body? correct explanation of Assertion
(1) Muscles of pinna (A).
(2) Wisdom teeth (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(3) Hind limbs and pelvic girdle (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(4) Coccyx a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
11. Mouth parts of insects like cockroach
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
and honeybees are examples of;
(R) is false.
(1) Analogy
(2) Homology (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(3) Convergent evolution (R) is true.
(4) Vestigial organs
15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
12. Which of the following was proposed by correct option.
Ernst Heckel? List-I List-II
(1) Biochemical support for evolution
I. Analogous A. Embryological
(2) Paleontological support for evolution
organs support for
(3) Embryological support for evolution
(4) Natural selection evolution
II. Homologous B. Pectoral fins of
13. Statement-I: The origin of analogous organs fish and flipper
organs is due to convergent evolution. of seal
Statement-II: The origin of homolog- III. Examples of C. Shows
ous organs is due to divergent evolution. analogous convergent
(1) Statement I and Statement II both
organs evolution
are correct.
IV. Ernst Heckel D. Shows divergent
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement
II is incorrect. evolution
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
Statement II is correct. (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both (3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

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 DPP-5
[Industrial Melanism, Anthropogenic action and Adaptive
radiation]
1. Which of the following is/are placental 7. Choose the correct statement.
mammals? (1) Excess use of herbicides, pesticides,
(1) Flying squirrel (2) Lemur etc., has only resulted in selection
(3) Mouse (4) All of these of resistant varieties in a much
lesser time scale.
2. Appearance of antibiotic resistance
(2) Lichens will not grow in areas that
bacteria is an example of;
(1) Adaptive radiation are polluted.
(2) Transduction (3) During the post industrialisation
(3) Evolution by anthropogenic action period, the tree trunks became dark
(4) Divergent evolution due to industrial smoke and soots.
(4) All of these
3. Which of the following terms is used for
the process when more than one 8. A number of marsupials, each different
adaptive radiation occurs in a single from the other evolved from an ancestral
geological place?
stock, but all within the ;
(1) Divergent evolution
(1) Australian island
(2) Saltation
(3) Overproduction (2) Africa island
(4) Convergent evolution (3) Asia island
(4) America island
4. Which food habit of Darwin’s finches
lead to the development of many other 9. Excess use of herbicides, pesticides, etc.,
varieties? has only resulted in;
(1) Fruit eater (2) Cactus eater (1) selection of sensitive varieties in a
(3) Insect eater (4) Seed eater much lesser time scale.
5. _______ marsupials were taken as (2) selection of sensitive varieties in a
examples of adaptive radiation. much more time scale.
(1) American (3) selection of resistant varieties in a
(2) Australian much lesser time scale.
(3) Indian (4) All of these
(4) African
10. Which of the following is an example of
6. Which of the following is not an
natural selection?
example of placental mammals?
(1) Industrial melanism
(1) Mole
(2) Anteater (2) Evolution of giraffe
(3) Mouse (3) Disappearance of limbs in snake
(4) Tasmanian tiger cat (4) Webbed toes of aquatic birds
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11. This process of evolution of different 14. Statement I: The process of evolution
species in a given geographical area of different species in a given
starting from a point and literally
geographical area starting from a point
radiating to other areas of geography
(habitats) is called ______________. and literally radiating to other areas of
(1) Natural selection geography (habitats) is called adaptive
(2) Adaptive radiation radiation.
(3) Convergent evolution Statement II: Darwin’s finches
(4) Industrial melanism
represent one of the best examples of
12. Choose the incorrect option. this phenomenon.
(1) During his journey Darwin went to
(1) Both statement I and II are
the Galapagos Islands.
(2) Darwin’s finches represent one of incorrect.
the best examples of adaptive (2) Statement I is correct but statement
radiation. II is incorrect.
(3) Australian marsupial represents the (3) Statement I is incorrect but
example of spontaneous generation.
statement II is correct.
(4) Mole is a placental mammal
(4) Both statements I and II are correct.
13. Assertion (A): Darwin's finches are a
classical example of natural selection.
Reason(R): Darwin explained that the 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
difference in size and shape of the beaks correct option.
of the species was a result of the List-I List-II
adaptation of the species to different I Anteater A Tasmanian
food habits.
tiger cat
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) are true, and Reason (R) is a II Lemur B Numbat
correct explanation of Assertion III Bobcat C Flying
(A). phalanger
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) are true, but Reason (R) is not IV Flying D Spotted
a correct explanation of Assertion squirrel cuscus
(A). (1) I- A, II- D, III- B, IV- C
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (2) I- B, II- D, III- A, IV- C
(R) is false.
(3) I- A, II- B, III- D, IV- C
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(R) is true. (4) I- A, II- D, III- C, IV- B

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 DPP-6
[Lamarckism, Darwinism, their Criticism and Mutation theory]
1. Which of the following factor was not 6. Which of the following is/are an
taken into account by Darwin in his example in support of Lamarckism?
theory of natural selection? (1) Long neck and high forelimbs of
(1) Struggle for existence giraffes
(2) Discontinuous variations (2) Australian marsupial
(3) Parasites and predators as natural (3) Darwin’s finches
enemies (4) All of these
(4) Survival of the fittest
7. Choose the correct option regarding the
2. Which of the following are the two key concept of Darwin and Hugo de Vries.
concepts of Darwinian theory of The concept of The concept of
evolution? Darwin Hugo de Vries
(1) Genetic drift and mutation (1) Variations are Mutation are
(2) Adaptive radiation and homology random and minor changes
(3) Mutation and natural selection directionless and directional
(4) Branching descent and natural (2) Gradual evolution Saltatory
selection evolution
(3) Mutational concept Genetic
3. ‘Darwinian fitness’ is meant by; variation
(1) ability to survive and reproduce. concept
(2) high aggressiveness. (4) Large difference Minor
(3) healthy appearance. arises suddenly in variations are
(4) physical strength. a population heritable

4. Basic concept of Lamarckism does not 8. ‘The theory of natural selection’ was
include; proposed jointly by;
(1) Internal vital forces (1) Charles Darwin and A.R. Wallace
(2) Use and disuse of organs (2) Charles Darwin and Lamarck
(3) Inheritance of acquired characters (3) August Weismann and Lamarck
(4) Natural selection (4) Arrhenius and Charles Darwin

5. Variation caused by mutation as 9. Which of the following is not the main

proposed by Hugo de Vries are; feature of ‘Theory of natural selection’?
(1) random and directionless. (1) Struggle for existence
(2) small and directional. (2) Over production
(3) small and directionless. (3) Variations and heredity
(4) random and directional. (4) Inheritance of acquired characters
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10. _______ was the name of the ship in 14. Assertion(A): Lamarck gave the
which Darwin sailed around the world. example of monkey.
(1) H.S.S Beagle Reason(R): The concept of Lamarck
theory was use and disuse of organs.
(2) H.M.S Eeagle
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(3) H.P.S Beagle
(R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
(4) H.M.S Beagle correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
11. Mutation theory proposed by; (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(1) Charles Darwin (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(2) Hugo de Vries a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(3) Alfred Wallace
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(4) Thomas Malthus
(R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
12. The drawback of Darwinism was that it (R) is true.
couldn’t explain _______
(1) Variations 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
(2) Natural selection correct option.
(3) Struggle for existence List-I List-II
I Intra- A On the origin of
(4) Reproductive fitness
specific species by the means
struggle of natural selection
13. Statement-I: Branching descent and II Inter- B Process through which
natural selection are the two key specific populations of living
concepts of Darwinian Theory of struggle organisms adapt and
evolution. changes
Statement-II: Alfred Wallace, a III Darwin’s C Competition between
naturalist, worked in Malay book the individuals of same
species for same needs
Archipelago.
like food, shelter and
(1) Statement I and Statement II both breeding
are correct. IV Natural D Struggle between the
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement selection individuals of different
II is incorrect. species for food and
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but shelter
Statement II is correct. (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both
(3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

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 DPP-7
[Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Factor affecting Hardy-Weinberg
Principle]
1. Which of the following is correct for 5. The principle that gives the geneticists a
the Hardy-Weinberg principle? tool to determine when evolution is
(1) If the allelic frequencies in a occurring is;
population are stable then there will (1) Hardy-Weinberg principle
be no evolution. (2) Chemiosmotic theory
(2) The gene pool (total genes and their
(3) Malthusian principle
alleles in a population) remains
(4) Cloning theory
constant it is called genetic
equilibrium.
(3) Sum total of all the allelic 6. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
frequencies is 1. frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4,
(4) All of these then what will be the frequency of
homozygous dominant, heterozygous
2. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known and homozygous recessive individuals
to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift in the population?
______. (1) 0.36 (AA), 0.48 (Aa), 0.16 (aa)
(1) mutation (2) 0.16 (AA), 0.24 (Aa), 0.36 (aa)
(2) genetic recombination
(3) 0.16 (AA), 0.48 (Aa), 0.36 (aa)
(3) natural selection
(4) 0.16 (AA), 0.36 (Aa), 0.48 (aa)
(4) All of these

3. Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, 7. The changed frequency of genes and

which expression represents the alleles in future generations occur
frequency of the heterozygous genot- through;
ype? (1) Mutation
(1) p2 (2) 2pq (2) Variation due to genetic recombin-
2
(3) q (4) q ation
(3) Gene flow or genetic drift
4. At a particular locus, frequency of allele (4) All of these
A is 0.6 and that of allele a is 0.4. What
would be the frequency of heterozygous
8. How many factors affect the Hardy
in a random mating population at
equilibrium? Weinberg principle?
(1) 0.36 (1) Six
(2) 0.16 (2) Four
(3) 0.24 (3) Five
(4) 0.48 (4) Seven
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9. For the MN-blood group system, the 14. Assertion(A): Disturbance in genetic
frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 equilibrium, or Hardy-Weinberg
and 0.3 respectively. The expected principle i.e., change of frequency of
frequency of MN-blood group bearing alleles in a population would then be
organisms is likely to be; interpreted as resulting in evolution.
(1) 42% (2) 49% Reason(R): When frequency measured,
(3) 9% (4) 50% differs from expected values, the
difference indicates the extent of
evolutionary change.
10. Which one is correct formulation of
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
Hardy-Weinberg equation?
(R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
(1) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) p2 + pq + q2 = 1 (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(3) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0 (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(4) p2 + pq +q2 = 0 a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
11. Genetic drift operates in; (R) is false.
(1) large isolated population. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(2) small isolated population. (R) is true.
(3) fast reproductive population.
(4) slow reproductive population. 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
correct option.
12. The sum total of all genes and their List-I List-II
alleles is referred to as; I Frequency of A p2 + 2pq +
(1) Gene pool homozygous q2
(2) Gene flow dominant
(3) Genetic drift genotype in a
(4) Gene migration population
II Frequency of B q2
13. Statement-I: Mutation is a small heterozygous
change or alteration in the nucleotide genotype in a
population
sequence of DNA molecule.
III Frequency of C p2
Statement-II: When gene migration
homozygous
occurs many times it is termed as gene
recessive
flow. genotype in a
(1) Statement I and Statement II both population
are correct. IV Binomial D 2pq
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement expansion of
II is incorrect. (p + q)2.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
Statement II is correct. (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both (3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
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 DPP-8
[Natural Selection]
1. Stabilising selection favours; A B C
(1) both extreme forms of a trait. (1) Stabilising Disruptive Directional
(2) Stabilising Directional Disruptive
(2) intermediate forms of a trait.
(3) Disruptive Stabilising Directional
(3) environmental differences. (4) Directional Directional Stabilising
(4) one extreme form over the other
extreme form and over intermediate 4. Select the incorrect statement about
forms of a trait. stabilising selection.
(1) It operates when phenotypic feature
coincide with optimum
2. When selection acts to eliminate both environmental conditions and
extremes from the array of phenotypes, competition is not present.
the frequency of intermediate type, (2) It does not keep a population
genetically constant.
which is already more, is increased. This
(3) Due to the continuous elimination
is called; of both extremes, the bell-shaped
(1) Disruptive selection curve tends to narrow.
(2) Cyclical selection (4) All of these
(3) Stabilising selection
5. Which type of natural selection favour
(4) Non-directional selection the phenotype that is non-average or
extreme and then pushes the phenotype
3. In this figure, which kind of selection of the population in that direction?
does A, B and C represent respectively? (1) Stabilising selection
(2) Directional selection
(3) Progressive selection
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6. Rarest form of natural selection is;

(1) Disruptive selection
(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Progressive selection
(4) Directional selection

7. Two peaks are formed in;

(1) Directional selection
(2) Disruptive selection
(3) Progressive selection
(4) Stabilising selection

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8. There are ________ of natural selection. (1) Statement I and Statement II both
(1) 3 types (2) 1 types are correct.
(3) 2 types (4) 4 types (2) Statement I is correct, but statement
II is incorrect.
9. Select the incorrect statement about (3) Statement I is incorrect, but
directional selection. Statement II is correct.
(1) More individuals acquire value other (4) Statement I and Statement II both
than the mean character value. are incorrect.
(2) Peak shifts in one direction.
(3) It forms two peaks. 14. Assertion (A): Disruptive selection can split
(4) Industrial melanism in peppered moth a population into two subpopulations.
shows this type of natural selection. Reason (R): Selection pressure acting
from within the population as a result of
10. Which of the following is not a type in increased competition may push the
natural selection? phenotype away from the population
(1) Directional selection mean towards the extremes of the
(2) Technical selection population.
(3) Disruptive selection (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(4) Stabilizing selection (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
11. Reproductive isolation is a mechanism (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
that; (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(1) keeps species separate from mating a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
with others. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(2) allowing species to mate freely with (R) is false.
each other. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
(3) Both (1) and (2) (R) is true.
(4) None of these
15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
12. Which of the following are properties of correct option.
stabilizing selection? List-I List-II
(1) Operates in a constant environment I Stabilising A Peaks shift in
(2) Mean value changes selection one direction
(3) Peak gets lower and wider II Directional B Two peaks are
(4) Favors the complex phenotype selection formed
III Disruptive C Medium sized
13. Statement-I: Selection of carriers of selection individuals are
sickle cell anemia in a malaria endemic favoured
region is an example of stabilising or (1) I-A, II-B, III-C
balancing selection. (2) I-C, II-B, III-A
Statement-II: Medium sized individuals (3) I-B, II-A, III-C
are favoured in stabilising selection. (4) I-C, II-A, III-B
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 DPP-9
[Speciation and A Brief Account on Evolution]
1. The first organisms that invaded lands 6. Seed ferns originated in;
were; (1) Carboniferous period
(1) Animals (2) Devonian period
(2) Plants (3) Silurian period
(3) Coelacanth (4) Cretaceous period
(4) Both (2) & (3)
7. Speciation;
2. Birds originated from reptiles and (1) is the process of formation of old
evidences comes from; species from existing populations.
(1) Archaeopteryx (2) is the process of death of new
(2) Euglena species from existing populations.
(3) Chimera (3) is the process of formation of new
(4) Neoplina species from existing populations.
(4) All of these
3. Fishes with stout and strong fins could
move on land and go back to water. This 8. By the time of .................. mya,
phase of evolution occurred about; invertebrates were formed and active.
(1) 350 mya (2) 200 mya (1) 200 (2) 300
(3) 65 mya (4) 150 mya (3) 500 (4) 350

4. Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from 9. Which of these are correct regarding the
the earth about; evolution of animals?
(1) 200 mya (1) Lobefins were ancestors of modern-
(2) 65 mya day frogs and salamanders
(3) 25 mya (2) Reptiles evolved into amphibians
(4) 500 mya (3) Reptiles lay thin-shelled eggs
(4) About 20 million years ago,
5. Which of the following is correct? dinosaurs suddenly disappeared
(1) Lobe-finned fishes evolved into the from the earth.
first amphibians.
(2) Ichthyosaurs (fish-like marine 10. Lobed fin fishes (Coelacanth) are the
reptiles) evolved about 200 mya. ancestor of;
(3) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 (1) Amphibians
feet in height and had huge (2) Reptiles
fearsome dagger like teeth. (3) Birds
(4) All of these (4) Mammals
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11. Mammals originated from; 14. Assertion(A): Jurassic period was the
(1) Sauropsids golden age of reptiles and after that
(2) Therapsids dinosaurs went extinct.
(3) Bryophytes Reason(R): Climatic changes and most
(4) Psilophyton of them evolved in birds were two main
causes of extinction of dinosaurs.
12. Select the correct sequence of the (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
evolution of plant forms through (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
geological period. correct explanation of Assertion
(1) Cholorophyte ancestors → Rhynia- (A).
type plants → Tracheophyte (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
ancestors → Psilophyton (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(2) Cholorophyte ancestors → Rhynia- a correct explanation of Assertion
type plants → Psilophyton → (A).
Tracheophyte ancestors (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(3) Cholorophyte ancestors → (R) is false.
Tracheophyte ancestors → Rhynia- (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
type plants → Psilophyton (R) is true.
(4) Psilophyton → Cholorophyte
ancestors → Tracheophyte 15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
ancestors → Rhynia-type plants correct option.
List-I List-II
13. Statement-I: In mesozoic era, there I Appearance of A Ancestors of all
were flourishing reptiles, pteridophytes jawless fishes present day
and gymnosperms. plants
Statement-II: In coenozoic era, there II Tyrannosaurus B Common
were flourishing mammals and rex ancestor of all
angiosperms. present day
(1) Statement I and Statement II both mammals
are correct. III Chlorophytes C Around 350
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement mya
II is incorrect. IV Therapsids D 20 feet height
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
Statement II is correct. (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(4) Statement I and Statement II both (3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

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 DPP-10
[Origin and Evolution of Man]
1. The brain capacity of Homo erectus was 6. The extinct species of humans who lived
about; 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in east and
(1) 650 cc central Asia, used hides to protect their
(2) 900 cc bodies and had brain capacity of 1400 cc
(3) 1500 cc were;
(4) 1400 cc
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Neanderthal man
2. The most apparent change during the
evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is (3) Cro-magnon man
traced in; (4) Ramapithecus
(1) loss of body hair.
(2) walking upright. 7. Which of the following statement is
(3) shortening of the jaws. correct?
(4) remarkable increase in the brain (1) Australopithecus had large brain
size. around 900 cc.
(2) Neanderthal man lived in east
3. The primate which existed 15 mya was;
Africa and ate fruits.
(1) Homo habilis
(3) Homo erectus had brain capacity of
(2) Australopithecus
(3) Ramapithecus 900 cc.
(4) Homo erectus (4) Homo sapiens arose in central Asia
and moved to other continents and
4. The cranial capacity was largest among developed into distinct races.
the;
(1) Peking man 8. The most accepted line of descent in
(2) Java ape man human evolution is;
(3) African man (1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus
(4) Neanderthal man
→ Homo sapiens →Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus → Homo habilis →
5. The extinct human ancestor who ate
Homo sapiens
only fruits and hunted with stone
(3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis →
weapons was;
(1) Ramapithecus Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(2) Australopithecus (4) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus
(3) Dryopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis
(4) Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
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9. The correct sequence of stages in 14. Assertion(A): Eight mya,
evolution of modern man (Homo Australopithecines probably lived in
sapiens sapiens) is;
(i) Homo erectus East African grasslands.
(ii) Neanderthal man Reason(R): Few fossils of man-like
(iii) Modern man bones have been discovered in Ethiopia
(iv) Australopithecus
(v) Cro-magnon man and Tanzania.
(1) (iv) → (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (v) (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(2) (iv) → (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a
(3) (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (v)
(4) (iv) → (v) → (iii) → (i) → (ii) correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
10. About how many years ago primates (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
were existing. (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
(1) 15 million years ago a correct explanation of Assertion
(2) 20 million years ago (A).
(3) 25 million years ago
(4) 30 million years ago (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason
(R) is false.
11. The continent where maximum fossils (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason
of pre-historic man have been found is;
(1) Asia (2) Africa (R) is true.
(3) Europe (4) America
15. Match List-I with List-II to find out the
12. What was the brain capacity of Homo
habilis? correct option.
(1) 300-400cc (2) 650-800cc List-I List-II
(3) 800-900cc (4) 1400cc I Dryopithecus A More man-like
II Ramapithecus B More ape-like
13. Statement-I: Pre-historic cave art was
developed by Cro-magnon about 28,000 III Australop- C Connecting link
years ago. ithecus between apes
Statement-II: The first burial funerals
and man
of their dead were started by
Neanderthals. IV Homo habilis D First human-like
(1) Statement I and Statement II both being the homi-
are correct.
nid
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement
II is incorrect. (1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
Statement II is correct.
(3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(4) Statement I and Statement II both
are incorrect. (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

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 Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
DPP-1
1. (2) 4. (3) 7. (3) 10. (2) 13. (1)
2. (2) 5. (2) 8. (1) 11. (1) 14. (4)
3. (2) 6. (4) 9. (2) 12. (3) 15. (2)
DPP-2
1. (4) 4. (1) 7. (1) 10. (1) 13. (1)
2. (1) 5. (1) 8. (4) 11. (1) 14. (3)
3. (2) 6. (2) 9. (3) 12. (4) 15. (3)
DPP-3
1. (1) 4. (2) 7. (1) 10. (4) 13. (1)
2. (2) 5. (4) 8. (3) 11. (2) 14. (4)
3. (3) 6. (4) 9. (1) 12. (3) 15. (3)
DPP-4
1. (4) 4. (1) 7. (2) 10. (3) 13. (1)
2. (3) 5. (3) 8. (1) 11. (2) 14. (1)
3. (3) 6. (4) 9. (1) 12. (3) 15. (2)
DPP-5
1. (4) 4. (4) 7. (4) 10. (1) 13. (1)
2. (3) 5. (2) 8. (1) 11. (2) 14. (4)
3. (4) 6. (4) 9. (3) 12. (3) 15. (2)
DPP-6
1. (2) 4. (4) 7. (2) 10. (4) 13. (1)
2. (4) 5. (1) 8. (1) 11. (2) 14. (4)
3. (1) 6. (1) 9. (4) 12. (1) 15. (4)

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 DPP-7
1. (4) 4. (4) 7. (4) 10. (1) 13. (1)
2. (4) 5. (1) 8. (3) 11. (2) 14. (2)
3. (2) 6. (3) 9. (1) 12. (1) 15. (2)

DPP-8
1. (2) 4. (2) 7. (2) 10. (2) 13. (1)
2. (3) 5. (4) 8. (1) 11. (1) 14. (1)
3. (2) 6. (1) 9. (3) 12. (1) 15. (4)
DPP-9
1. (2) 4. (2) 7. (3) 10. (1) 13. (1)
2. (1) 5. (4) 8. (3) 11. (2) 14. (1)
3. (1) 6. (1) 9. (1) 12. (3) 15. (4)
DPP-10
1. (2) 4. (4) 7. (3) 10. (1) 13. (3)
2. (4) 5. (2) 8. (3) 11. (2) 14. (4)
3. (3) 6. (2) 9. (2) 12. (2) 15. (3)

PW Web/App - [Link]

Library- [Link]

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